#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 50 of 1
Oh yeah also to my original problem, I just realized my solution produces a construction for such a convergent sequence
Though I’m pretty sure the proof of B-W does a construction anyway
Let $S$ be a set, $x\in S$, when can we say that there exists an open set $U \subset S$, $U \ni x$? A sufficient condition seems to be $x \in int S$
Mattuwu
Necessary as well, by definition
This is called U being a neighborhood of x. If x has no neighborhoods inside S then x certainly is not in the interior of S.
x \in int S iff there is an open set U with x \in U \subseteq S. Or, this is also given by the fact that int S is the largest open set contained in S
thanks
This is not quite right, an increasing sequence might not exist. However an increasing or a decreasing has to. Then the argument works.
@cursive tendon If you change to U \subsetneq S, then the statement only fails when S carries the indiscrete topology. Because the statement is then saying that “x has a neighborhood that isn’t the entire space”, and for any non-indiscrete topology this holds (otherwise the union of every open set that isn’t S would not be S)
Also fails when taking discrete topology and S={x}
Or at least, is empty
The discrete and indiscrete topologies on a singleton are the same.
Of course
I was still processing where I messed up until you said that entropy lmao
This isn’t true, such spaces will suffice however for example in the Sierpiński space one point is in the interior of the whole underlying set but has no neighborhoods besides the whole set,
I have no idea why I thought that all topologies should satisfy the union property I mentioned, wtf
If x is not an isolated point of S, then the statement holds.
I think this is right finally
Wait wait
No, I don’t see how being isolated plays a role here. The Sierpiński example gives a counterexample to this too.
You want essentially the opposite of isolated point
What do we call points x that have no neighborhoods that aren’t the entire space
Isolate means {x} open, here you want the only open set containing x to be the entire space
I tried to intuit that the right word was isolated, but that’s wrong yea
Bad
Worthless points
Yeah idk what they're called lol
I‘ve never heard of a term for them either.
I’m calling them NPCs
Topological indistinguishable, in some sense I guess
Oh right, two points that satisfy the property are topologically indistinguishable
Let S be an open set, is it true that \forall x \in S, \exists open U \subsetneq S, x \in U?
Right, so this is essentially a "global" kind of indistinguishability
Take U = S
subsetneq though
Ah, my b
Certainly for R^n
Not quite
NPCs 
Or when you consider subspace topology, yes
S has to be a minimal neighborhood of x for no such U to exist
Oh I assumed S was the entire space
In particular, this should happen iff $\bigcap_{U \in \mathcal{N}(x)} U \in \mathcal{N}(U)$
Ryxiann
like this topology of 3 points
I.e. the intersection of all neighborhoods is a neighborhoods, and S is that neighborhood
Wait what’s the notation N(U) supposed to mean
Don’t you just want = S instead of \in N(U), like you wrote in words in your last message
Huh I’m lost
x can only have a minimal neighborhood if that intersection is itself a neighborhood
so was this a typo for \in N(x) then?
because I don’t see why the converse to your iff holds then; the minimal neighborhood could just be inside S
I think you want = S for there to be an iff
It should = S if you want to interpret it in the context of the original problem.
What I meant to write was that x has a minimal neighborhood iff that intersection is a neighborhood
Oh, I should’ve just read your messages in order
Why do we rarely talk about convergence in a topology?
What I mean is like, the generalization of continuity from the reals to topologies is super important, but I don’t really see that much attention given to the generalization for convergent sequences
Sequences are not enough for general topological spaces
Spaces which we can characterize properties by sequences (at least, some properties like continuity, limit points, closures...) Are called first countable (see the current convo in #discussion lmao)
Any metric space (and in particular, R) is first countable, so that works
Oh so is talking about convergence of filters pretty popular then
But one can take convergence of other structures to be fundamental, and things work then. You can use either nets or filters for this
For some purposes yeah
Convergence spaces (which are a generalization of topological spaces) take convergence of filters to be fundamental, so some people do choose to characterize things lately on these terms
convergence spaces also suck tho
Oh true, my bad
Wait, why did we ever need your sequence to be increasing or decreasing? Doesn’t B-W still apply?
Like, Ryxiann’s solution is literally that: pick a (possibly not monotonic) sequence and apply B-W.
True, I just had some line of thought in my mind that led me to consider monotonic sequences
It's not necessary
When trying to prove that every infinite subset of a metric space has a monotonic sequence as a subset, I learned that every sequence has a monotone subsequence, which is much stronger!
is it true that for a set $S$, $\operatorname{iso} S^c \subset \partial S$?
Mattuwu
seems true in Euclidean spaces, but can anyone give a counterexample in general?
what's iso S
the isolated points of the complement of S
i think it's true
you should be able to show every nbhd of x in isoS^c intersects S and S^c
hm ok i take it back
i have to think about it a little more
ok i think there's a lower limit topology counterexample
let me write it up and see if it works
hm it didn't
ok i think you can just take the discrete topology on any space with more than 1 element
like in R:
S = {x}, then every point of S^c is isolated, but the boundary of S is empty
Let X={0,1} be discrete space on two points, S={0}. Iso S^c={0} since every point in discrete space is isolated, but bd S =Ø
You should check out Counterexamples in Topology. Not sure how much they have on operations like these, but it should give you an idea of how one might prove/disprove stuff like this
whats a “cross section?” i havent been able to find anything nor in this book unless i missed it
just a section of p
i.e. a map B -> X sending every b in B to an element of the fiber of p at b. in other words a right-inverse of p
continuous has the usual meaning
the exercise says that trivializing a principal bundle is the same thing as continuously choosing an element of every fiber over B: once you've done so, you can get to any element of X by just group-acting on the chosen element in the same fiber of p
every fiber is the structure group, but maybe without a distinguished base element (the jargon here is "torsor"). picking a continuous section picks such elements

Could someone explain this? "Every loop $\gamma:\mathbb{S}^1 \to \mathbb{S}^1$ is homotopic to precisely one $c_n:\mathbb{S}^1 \to \mathbb{S}^1,c_n(z) = z^n, n \in \mathbb{Z}.$"
Scerball
in other words, the z ↦ z^n form representatives for each homotopy class
intuitively you're counting how many times the loop loops around the circle
it is nice to have that a map into a product is continuous iff each component is and this is one thing that fails with the box topology
you just have too many open sets
that products of compact spaces are compact is also nice to have
true in the product topology (the tychonoff theorem) and false in the box topology (product of countably many discrete {0, 1}s will do)
the way i see it is that the box topology just has way too many open sets for the properties we desire to hold, while the product topology has just the right amount
The product topology is a type of topology called an "initial" topology: it's the coarsest topology for which a collection of maps is continuous (the projection maps, as you said). It might be easiest to first look at when we have one map, $f \from X \to (Y,\sigma)$. There is a unique topology on $X$ that is the coarsest making $f$ continuous, say $f^{-1}\sigma$. When we want to take the initial topology with a collection of maps ${\pi_a \from \prod_k X_k \to (X_a,\tau_a)}$ then, what we can do it take the topology generated by each $\pi_k$ independently, this will give us a collection of topologies ${ \pi^{-1}\tau_a}$, where $\pi^{-1} \tau_a = { U_a \times \prod_{k \neq a} X_k}$ (i think?), and then take the topology generate by their union. Explicitly, what this means is that we "close" the union $\tau' = \bigcup_k \pi^{-1}\tau_k$ under finite intersections (since this is all we need to form a topology: closing under infinite intersections gives too many open sets). For finite products, then, this is okay, the box and product topology agree. But for infinite products, this is why the product topology has only finitely many that are not the entire space $X_k$
maybe thinking about it the other way around will do: the coarsest topology making all of the projections continuous is a natural thing to ask for, and this is the same thing as the definition involving "all but finitely many U_n are X_n"
Ryxiann
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
you have a bunch of projection functions coming out of the product (at this stage, merely a set). you want them to be continuous, so you need to topologize the product. you don't want to be wasteful - what's the most efficient way to do this?
also, this topology ends op having the nice property that maps into the product space are exactly the maps that are continuous into each coordinate
you want the projections p_n to be continuous, so you want p_n^{-1}(U_n) to be open whenever U_n is open in X_n. now you want to take the topology generated by these guys, since that's the smallest topology containing all of these p_n^{-1}(U_n)
maybe noting that p_n^{-1}(U_n) is precisely X_1 x X_2 x ... x X_{n-1} x U_n x X_{n+1} x ... will clear some things up regarding the product notation
yeah i didn't feel like typing that out with the product, sorry 😅
But yeah, each individual pi^{-1}tau_k has only one component that's not the entire space. So when you take finite intersections, of course only finitely many are not the entire space
why is this lie algebra called gl? doesn't it include non-invertible matrices?
It's the Lie algebra for the Lie group GL(n, R). Usually the Lie algebra of the Lie group G is denoted by g (in fraktur)
Another thing i think about is it’s just computationally the thing that makes sense. Generally you can only check “finitely many things at once” in some way. And that’s what the product topology is telling you to do
is anybody here working through/or has worked through armstrong's basic topology
is it true that if X is path-connected, then H_0(X; G) = 0 for any abelian group G
it contains every n by n matrix you can think of :3
any such matrix A, invertible or not, induces a path t -> exp(tA) through the identity in the general linear group, and the tangent vector of this curve at 0 is just A
exp here is just the normal matrix exponential you probably know from ODEs
No
H_0(X;Z) = Z when X is path connected
I do believe so
Where can I find proof of that any knot is torus or satellite or hyperbolic? Does someone have a reference?
this makes sense!
Yes so like
Let C be the singular chain complex of X, note C_0 can be identified with free G-module on points of X and C_1 similarly with module on paths in X.
in the image of the differential d:C_1 -> C_0 you get all the terms of the form x - y, since this is the boundary of the path from x to y
indeed d(C_1) is just generated by those terms
which means we just get C_0/d(C_1) since we are taking free G-module on the points and then identifying all the points with one another
Could someone help me find a proof of the hairy ball theorem following this structure:
Consider $\mathbb{S}^2,$ is there a tangential vector field that is nowhere zero?
On $\mathbb{S}^1:$ Yes.
On $\mathbb{S}^2:$ No. If one could, one could write down a function $\mathbb{S}^1 \to \mathbb{S}^1$ that is both homotopic to $c_0$ and $c_2.$ Contradiction! (Where $c_n:\mathbb{S}^1 \to \mathbb{S}^1,c_n(z) = z^n, n \in \mathbb{Z}.$)
Scerball
is this a homework problem or smth lol seems oddly specific
My lecturer was too lazy to give a full proof of the hairy ball theorem lol
I've graduated now and I'm looking back through my notes
We had just finished working on the fundamental group of the circle IIRC
i know a proof using homology
Yeah if you know the homology of the sphere and the fact that homotopic maps act the same way on the homology then this isn't too hard, not sure what your lecturer wants though
If there is a nowhere zero vector field, Euler characteristic must be 0, which is not in case of S²
A bit different argument
(in fact it's an iff. closed manifold have nz vector field iff ec is 0)
(keywords: Poincare Hopf index formula, Euler class, obstruction)
Could you share?
proof in dm
Analytic Proofs of the "Hairy Ball Theorem" and the Brouwer Fixed Point Theorem
John Milnor 1978
https://www.jstor.org/stable/2320860
I have a really basic question
In set notation, for a set S, what is meant by S^(-1)?
context?
if all you know about S is that it is a set, then i'm not sure what S^{-1} could mean
Looking at the topological definition of continuity. For every open set S, S^(-1) is open
it's (bad) notation for the pre-image of S under some map
That's the entirety of the definition as it was given in class. I can go back to the book if that isn't sufficient to clear things up. We've seen that notation mean several things depending on context.
Haha thank you!
f^{-1}(S) is much clearer (f being your continuous map)
a function between topological spaces is continuous if the pre-image of every open set under it is again open
Let f, g : S -> S. S^-1? 
Thank you very much for the clarification! 🙂
maybe S^-f is tolerable but smh
im sure theres a set theory reason why that looks stupid 
@hushed lichen people often write that in the context of topological groups where it makes more sense
"that" meaning the S^{-1} notation? Or the f^{-1}(S) notation?
S^-1 in that context means {s^-1 for all s in S}
f^{-1} is standard for inverse image of sets, which is what is meant for general topology (no groups)
i'm confused on how these polygons for the torus, proj plane, and klein bottle induce a delta-structure
ok so if i focus on the torus for the moment, what will the 6 maps $\sigma_\alpha$ be?
sean
is it the $\sigma_\alpha: \Delta^0 \to X$ which sends the $0$-simplex to the point
sean
and 3 other maps $\Delta^1 \to X$ which send the line to the edges
sean
and two final maps $\Delta^2 \to X$ which send the triangle with vertices $(0,0),(0,1),(1,0)$ to the two triangles with edges $a,b,c$
sean
yup
i kinda dont see how the real projective plane has two points
i havent worked w the projective spaces much so
the bottom left v is identified with the top right v
when b is identified
and similarly for w
we have a mobius band so far
i dont see how to identify a
my brain can't think four dimensionally right now
I'm not sure if it's helpful but I can give some pictures how I picture RP2. I don't usually try to picture gluing edges successively, like how we usually picture the torus or klein bottle
maybe some people are better at that
sure
these are some of the ways I'll think about it
rounding out the corners of the square, you get the second picture where it's identifying opposite points on the boundary of the disc
ah yeah ive seen this construction but this makes it clear
thanks for the great diagrams
yeah for sure
you're a talented drawer
thank you
just to make sure, RP^2 has two individual points (vertices)
because each two antipodal points are identified?
you could've asked in the reading group 😭
or at least pinged me 
hands?
was "hands" the only tool he used?

did he magic the shit into his screen?
certainly couldn't have drawn it with their legs
watch out for these hands right here

abelist 
uhhhhh
uhhhhhhhhhhhhh
What does it mean for boundaries to be singly connected? Reading this in the context of classification. In the book it says that a certain way of defining boundaries is convex and singly connected. The convexity is clear to me but I have no idea what singly connected means amd neither have any Google searches aided in this understanding
singly or simply
well im going to guess connected by a single point
oh wait we re talking one boundary 
Sometimes people use “multiply connected” to mean not simply connected (this makes more sense in graph theory than topology). If you tried to invert this, you might end up with singly connected
Like I'm not familiar with the study of topology, is it possible to explain what singly connected means in simple terms?
please - help - what does mean singly-connected set? this is set without holes and which has one bounded contour? the sample http://doc.cgal.org/latest/Straight_skeleton_2/index.html#
I’ve never heard the phrase. I assume it’s an error and should be simply connected
@novel acorn I checked that as well but I can't understand the answer
Like all of it
Why is it talking about connecting points in curves and polygons
It is an older term for simply connected. It just means that there is, up to homotopy, only one path between two points. Just like simply connected
@languid patrol but aren't there multiple path between two points here?
What is meant by path?
BRB 5 mins, will check answer later
A path from $x$ to $y$ in a space $X$ is a continuous function $p \colon [0,1] \to X$ such that $p(0)=x$ and $p(1)=y$. You can think of it like being able to draw a line from point $x$ to point $y$, without ever lifting your pen.
To say that a space $X$ is simply connected means, in some sense, that if I give you a path $p$ and a path $q$ from $x$ to $y$, you can continuously deform $p$ into $q$, without ever breaking the line.
honorable chmonkey fan
I had gotten a wacom graphics tablet to try and get into digital art a while ago, but it turned out to be super useful when everything went online for the pandemic lol. Software-wise, rn I'm using Lorien (https://github.com/mbrlabs/Lorien) since it's infinite canvas/vector graphics. It's nice for doing math with a friend online---I'll get in a call, share my screen, and transcribe. Ideally there would be a "multiplayer" infinite canvas vector graphics software, but I've yet to find a good one. Microsoft whiteboard promises to do this, but in the past it's been janky and doesn't run on Linux
and yes i used my hands too lol
looks super useful
i used to use xournal++ before i got an ipad
but of course thats primarily for math and not digital art
this whole sentence is basedness supreme
open source??
linux???
please do tell if you find the multiplayer canvas btw
I need that too
I only see the online whiteboards
the wacom tablets are affordable af too

Do spheres of n dimensions have k < n dimension great sphere's on their surfaces?
For example, the 2-sphere has a great 1-sphere (an equator)
Maybe the great spheres are of dimensions n-1?
well, I didn't know where to ask it. I started thinking about this after looking at some borsak-ulam related stuff
Some sort of generalisation of this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_circle
In mathematics, a great circle or orthodrome is the circular intersection of a sphere and a plane passing through the sphere's center point.Any arc of a great circle is a geodesic of the sphere, so that great circles in spherical geometry are the natural analog of straight lines in Euclidean space. For any pair of distinct non-antipodal points o...
You can probably make sense of it, but it would need a precise definition
I am thinking about applying borsak ulam. I know on a 2-sphere I have infinitely many great circles and hence infinitely many 1-parameter points that are the same. I wonder if this sort of thing generalises
the obvious thing is just to have a greak k-sphere be the intersection with a (k+1)-dimensional subspace
yeah, that makes sense
the case k=n-1 being the most important
The case k=1 is as important too (at least from a geometric point of vue), because geodesics
In any case, 'great k-spheres' happen to be totally geodesic 🙂
Don't discount k=0 either: The set of great 0-spheres is exactly projective (n-1)-space.
What are great spheres of tropospheres? 
so I'm finally learning about singular homology 
and I'm wandering how I should interpret the coefficients in a formal sum of singular n-simplices
Wdym by 'interpret'?
like, is there any geometric meaning to the coefficients?
Taking 2*something is taking the union of two distinct copies, taking -something is reversing orientation
Idk if that helps
(I always think of a homology class to be represented by a submanifold)
(although that is not always the case)
But that's for Z-coefficients of course
I never thought of any meaningful way to see what would be homology with, say, Z[t,t^-1]-coefficients
does that really workout tho? like, taking a simple example of mapping 1-simplex to, say, \bR^2
hence the singular 1-simplex is really just a path in \bR^2
and then you reverse the map in the obvious way
does that amount to slapping a negative sign before the singular 1-simplex?
if so, why
or why not
Think of it on a torus rather, where there is homology
But yeah, taking - a curve is that curve with reversed orientation
I mean, they will be homologous
but why is that the case?

This is bounded by the cylinder in the middle
Because orientations agree
This is not a boundary
Sure, that's the point in learning 🙂
Maybe this drawing helps regarding orientations? Idk
I'm trying to understand how the cilinder is an n-chain
Here it is a 2-chain
It maps the square to the cylinder by gluing two opposide sides together
Like the first step of folding the torus from the square, if you've seen this picture
but the square isn't a 2 simplex, no?
Yeah well, okay, 2-chains are maps from the triangle to the space, but it's roughly the same
Another drawing (coming)
That describes a continuous map, doesn't it?
You don't ask for embeddings
How would you see that this '8'-shaped thingy is a 1-simplex otherwise?
You'd have to glue things in the same way
yea but the boundaries don't cancel out
leaving only the two paths you drew
that's what I'm trying to achieve
I don't follow! 
ok so for them to be a boundary they must be in the image of \del, right?
The two are obviously not the same formal sum of simplices, but they are homologous
It must be del of something
Yes that was my claim!
so like, if you take the del of a a single singular simplex
the result is gonna be a formal sum of 3 1-simplices
2 of which has to be our boundary circles
Here's a weird 2-simplex whose boundary is 4 thingies:
Have a nice lunch!
darq what part of chap 2 r u on
is it hard to read
should i read van kampen first or homology
Damn, did they unlink the Hopf link? Am I missing something?
singular homology
it has been chill so far
I'm still having trouble understanding singular homology tho so that might be when it gets real
it doesn't really matter
as I said, one isn't a prereq for the other
tbh the actual theorems and definitions aren't super complicated
but making sense of them geometrically is getting me
I've heard that's a common theme over homology
Personnally I had started with \pi_1 and SVK before homology, because at least you can make drawings of genuine loops
But that's indeed up to preference
ah i see
fuck i have 0 geometric intuition tho
kinda screwed
bruh i have trouble visualizing like gluing together a mobius strip
ok maybe not to that extent but still
That'll come with practice 🙂
you might like homology better then!
like, algebraic topologists are very good at abstracting away geometric structure
intro, well, algebraic structure
in my case, I like the geometric part too much to ignore it tho lol
I wouldn't be so definitive about it, you do need geometric intuition to derive the right algebraic computations
Like if I give you the presentation of a fundamental group, you can do algebra, sure, but you still want to see which generator corresponds to which loop
idk what'll murder me first the homological algebra with like the big ass diagrams or the geometry 
it literally just tells you to undo it in the second most obvious way? (i.e. through the wrist loops rather than untie the wrist loops)
Idk, isn't it unlinking this?
but the instructions basically say cheat knot theory
Ah okay it's cheating by going under the knot between the rope and the wrist?
Ah yes, I dislike that 
Thanks!
tbh I'm worried less about those then the geometry lmfao
I dunno, they look like you'd get used to them quickly
geometry scary
Eeew geometry > diagrams
I find the geometric proofs of section 1 tedious, especially Van Kampen
Keep in mind geometry =/= fat ass analysis
I much prefer Grothendieck's proof using covering theory
honestly i wouldnt mind analysis if u meant that
what's wrong with analysis?

true
i want to learn mayer-vietoris
sequences
Well, usually it ends up with PDE shenanigans and I don't like those 
idk i read they were like van kampen but better for homology
valid
I have a slightly less stupid version
also they sound cool
Ibsen-sempai, sup? Surprise me! 😄
one step closer to spectral sequences
actually I might get into PDEs coz of geometry 
I couldn't care less about physics
but geometry sounds ocol
As long as it converges on E_2 I can buy that
Say you and your friends left and right hands are L, L' and R, R' and they're standing in front of each other. Consider a rope joining L and L' and R and R' and the ropes braid twice around each other ie it represents sigma^2 in B_2
Then you can do shenanigans to make it sigma^0
Ie trivial braid
Think Dirac belt trick
Isn't that a different problem? (still related tho, and I can believe that this one has a non-cheaty solution)
Yeah not the same problem
Ah yeah this
Both the people should be tied to a chair for a nontrivial solution
Else the other person can do a sommersault
(Call social services)
You mean otherwise one can go through the other's rope entirely?
Well I meant say your friend does a handstand and stands back up again
Sideways
That does the trick
How to prevent yourself from killing?
but but Van Kampen essentially states that especially nice pushouts diagrams in {*}/Top are preserved by the pi_1 functor
Van Kampen 
Yeah it's true, but it requires a shit-ton of previous knowledge to make sense of something so visual geometrically
What is */Top
Pointed top spaces
Weird notation
But like a slanted thingy version
undercategory of a point
I remember seeing this slant thingy in May's cat theory
I mean it's a slice category so it works
Slice is over
Also Top_*
Not under
This is what I use
i can never remember which is slice and which is coslice
I guess lol, I just forget
It's like something a programmer would come up with
Category theorists are like slightly better than silicon valley codebros
Except then Cat/x wouldn't include Id: x \to x and x/Cat would for no explicable reason
Only slightly
only basic category theory, and then the proof of the theorem assumes knowledge of covering spaces
Consider three homomorphisms F_3 -> F_2 given by forgetting one of the standard generators. What is the intersection of their kernels?
But the other folks were struggling with singular homology, I don't think it's necessary to add that vocabulary x') also you don't need covering spaces for a geometrical proof
Just cover opens with disks
And the Lebesgue lemma
Smh good notation
In other words how many ways can you hang a portrait on the wall with three pins such that if you remove one it falls down
Jk the right notation for pointed spaces is Top
Do you know the solution and ask that as a puzzle?
yes it's a famous puzzle
I don't know this time
oh i guess not
Well, just products of commutators, isn't it?
Ah
Ooh this is a cool puzzle
Lie algebras
This doesn't work
Forget b you get [a, c]
[[a, [b, c]], [a, c]] works except c. Correct for that by another commutator?
Dunno
No clue
Seems like there should be an exceptional word which is not a product of commutators
Are you looking for minimal generators?
Or just any set of elements which generate?
It does work tho? Forget b, you get [a,1]
I think for n pins you iterate commutators
Both will be nice
[a,[b,[...]]
Why is that bleaksully
What's the answer for F_m -> F_n?
It’s an interesting problem
yes it's a very common problem, no there isn't a particularly nice geometric solution that I'm aware of.
You mean remove k pins among the n to have it fall down?
Yeah
I don't like working with free groups 
But it's probably not terrible when you just do it lmao
Free groups is hard
Ok what's the solution
If there is not an obviously geometric one I might as well know the sol
I only know the solution for the n-1 out of n or 1 out of n versions. The k out of n version seems like a nightmare.
that's too analytic for me
I think we can try 2 choose n by hand maybe? But I agree I don't wanna dive into this 
Seems like a good undergrad project
(n-1) choose n is 'dual' to 1 choose n in some sense, right? It has to!
I think it's been done to death as an undergrad or highschool mathcamp project
Yeah but even for the 1C2 version, how do you come up with all possible solutions? You'd need algebra to describe the intersection of kernels, otherwise you could miss on some (possibly)
Let alone the kCn
Like, fiding one should be doable, okay
It's actually nontrivial to show that you can find one with a reasonable algorithm
oop I replied to the wrong comment
😛
Kernel of some map F_3 -> F_2 x F_2 x F_2... Who knows what this means in terms of covering space theory
Mapping wedge of three circles into product of three figure eights
This should correspond to a covering space at least 
For 1C2 you can show that it's just the derived subgroup, so depending on what you want that's the answer.
Yeah one has to pin down what the cover is from the geometry of this map
I can't think of a reasonable way to find the quotient even (for the 'number of sheets' of the covering)
Oh this seems infinite index to me
Any normal subgroup of a free group is
This is a kernel, so
Yeah I'd have said this too
But still, I found that understanding the quotient helps in understanding the action by deck transformations
Wait
I don't know, whatever x')
Here's a separate puzzle I thought about some time ago and didn't get far
hmm okay
I guess maybe it's interesting to consider the corresponding rank 6 local system on S^1 wedge itself 3 times
At least that local system uniquely determines this cover
How so? The number of sheets is infinite
I'm a little confused
Ah ok, you're going to use some standard rep of F_2 in GL_2(C)?
Yeah there is the well-known standard rep a, b \to (1 2 | 0 1), (1 0 | 2 1)
exakt
Nice idea
Not sure it's terribly useful though.
You know what one should classify all group homomorphisms F_n -> F_m, and then pi_1(Sigma_n) -> pi_1(Sigma_m)
That's fine I only care about good ideas
I live in the idea-space
F_n -> F_m is dumb, just choose n more or less random words
What about surface groups
Seems nontrivial
There is this theorem of Edmonds which says all maps between surfaces is a branched cover followed by collapsing some handles to points
Homotopic to one
even F_n -> F_n is hard
Maybe you have a point
I'm just worried it's either dumb or unclassifiable depending on what one means
is outer space not big enough already?
(I haven't looked at any recent literature tbh)
I'm hopeful taking a module lectured by Karen Vogtmann next year
Out(F_n) is cool
@eager herald
If someone "hands you" two topological spaces, you basically have a useless pile of garbage.

LMFAO where is this from
I haven't read the post completely yet
I'm watching anime 
i see
im kinda struggling with delta complexes rn
so we have this
right
when it says the n simplices e^n_\alpha, is it referring to this fact?
im struggling to see the quotient construction here
so im thinking of $X$, a $\Delta$-complex, as a CW-complex rn
sean
well kinda but not really
so we have a bunch of $\Delta^n_\alpha$s, which are just $n$-simplices which are characterized into $X$ by corresponding maps $\sigma_\alpha:\Delta^n \to X$.
sean
now this is great and all, but of course we need to glue everything together
hence, we quotient each face of $\Delta^n_\alpha$, which are obtained by deleting a point from the $n$-simplex, with a corresponding $\Delta^{n-1}_\beta$, and identify them together to "glue" them tgt
sean
and this $\beta$ is one for the map $\sigma_\beta:\Delta^{n-1} \to X$ which is the appropriate restriction of $\sigma_\alpha$
sean
Is that the one which contains Gal(Qbar)
Yes
Ah yeah because CP^1 \ {0, 1, infty} has etale fundamental group F_2hat
Cool
I think taking an elliptic curve with some prescribed j function gets you injectivity of the representation
I don't remember the details bc it's been like well over a year since I thought about this
Sullivan has this tome article from 1970 where develops completion of spaces
But it's along those lines
that's a weird way to write G_Q
And the homology of these completions of manifolds are acted upon by Gal(Qbar)
sullivan 
Isn't that a fashion magazine
No it's a men's lifestyle magazine
Terrible
okay I'll accept Gal(Q)
Aktchuyally Q is the one which is redundant because every number field automorphism fixes Q pointwise
I know you want to pretend real bad that Gal(F) is like pi_1 Spec F
aktahxkly Qbar is determined from Q so.... and the choice of separable closure is a basepoint
Imagine saying the universal cover is my basepoint
Gal(\bar{Q}) is bad notation objectively
In this case the natural object that it would refer to is the trivial group
Anyways this conversation should really be had in #advanced-algebra , or maybe #advanced-advanced-algebra if there was such a thing
I don't subscribe to co-conventions made up by the utterly deranged
I think this should go in #1100503863586455632
ok, so back to this
now I gotta ask wtf is a simplex?
how is that a triangle?
that can't be homeo a triangle 
It is an image of a simplex is probably what they meant
By some random continuous map
these are singular simplices
In the context of singular homology a "singular simplex" is a possibly horrendous continuous map from a geometric simplex to your space
I would argue it is important to keep track of the parametrizing space and not just the image but this is overly pedantic
but how could that be a continuous map?
the restriction to the boundaries can't be continuous, right?
coz it's taking a connected space (the 1-simplex) to a disconnected space (2 circles or smth)
well, in that case it's not a singular simplex
yea, exactly
There are lots of surjective maps from a disk to that surface
The preimage of the boundary of the surface need not be the boundary of the disk
Identify disk with a 2-simplex
For instance give the surface a cell decomposition
There's one with a unique 2 dimensional cell
Consider the characteristic map of this 2 cell
oh yea 🤦♀️
I'm confuddled 
what do you mean by this?

and the characteristic map is just $\chi_{D^2}$?
chmonkeynumber1enemy

Do you know what a CW complex is
Give that surface a CW decomposition
sure, you can use the fundamental polygon of the 3-torus
and then not glue some of the edges
Yup
Now let the map from the closure of the polygon be your map
Identify polygon with simplex
I see hmm
ok but the del of that isn't just the circles @feral copper
thankyu ibsen btw 
the other parts of the boundary cancel out because d^{op} ~ -d
where d^{op} is the one-simplex traversed in the opposite direction
Because of this ^^^
Yeah, sorry for the confusion, I identify the formal sums of continuous maps \Delta^n\to X to the union of their images
lol
Chmochain
Cochains I call functions
cochains I call them cococochains
Actually, @broken nacelle, this is a pretty common thing in topology, so whenever you get confused, keep this rule in mind: we like to identify stuff and call them the same way and write them with the same letters
Yes we like equality
We don't draw fifty million commutative diagrams of isomorphisms
A equal to A equal to A
I'm sorry I'm not sure if I was confused about that
or how I was confused by that 
Welcome to topology
It is an essential part of mathematics to be confused about what you're confused by
Category theorists have been setting notions on stone to deny this fundamental theological nature of being
are you saying what you meant by "here's a weird 2-simplex" is "here's a the image of a weird n-simplex"?
I call them heretics
yea, ok, I think this is what you meant
now onto why this is true lmfao
they're in the image of del ig?
Wrong perspective, it may or may not be true. Infact it can be simultaneously both
oh yea
Embrace dialectics
Here's the point. Take the 1-chain c which traverses the [0, 1] starting at 0 ending at 1.
Let c' be c with orientation reversed
What is c + c'?
Not zero. But shouldn't it be?
What a conundrum
What does homotopy of chain mean
no clue
Exactly

Again, my way to visualize simplices is: a k-simplex k-chain is a k-submanifold which you allow to bend over, intersect itself. Basically: an immersion of a k-manifold. Then the boundary of the simplex is the image of the boundary of the k-manifold.
If you allow yourself to think of everything in these terms, you see that formal sum is just union of such thingies (or connected sums even), and taking opposites is reversing orientation of the thingy.
In some cases, this goes beyond a simple frame of thought. For instance, in 4-manifolds, any homology class in H_2 can be represented by an embedded closed connected surface. In the simply-connected case, each class can be represented by an immersed sphere with transverse double points only.
I think it is too much to conflate k-cycle with k-simplex thouhh
Which is what you seem to be doing above
k-cycle is a k dim submanifold, k-chain is a k dim submanifold with boundary
Sorry, I meant to say k-chain, not k-simplex!
I don't think you can call it a connected sum?
It does not imply that, but you can choose subsets to produce the discrete topology.
Nvm, indeed it's strange.
No, something looks fishy to me too. For example, cover R by the subsets {a} for each a in R, each with the trivial topology. That seems to satisfy the assumption in the claim: The subspace topology on {a}cap{b} is indeed the same no matter whether we look at it as a subspace of {a} or of {b}, and {a}cap{b} is closed in each of {a} and {b}.
But there are many different topologies on R that induce the trivial topology on each singleton.
Then it will be kind of hard to make Xi cap Xj closed in Xi and Xj, though.
86 the closedness
(Conversely, wanting each Xi to be closed wouldn't even exclude my example).
yeah replacing closed with open at least works
I think the claim could also be repaired by requiring each Xi to be close in X, and assuming the index set J is finite.
Perhaps it's supposed to something like "for every i, there's a j such that X_i \cap X_j intersect"... Not sure that would fix it but I agree it's not right as is
But that doesn't seem quite right either now that I think about it
You could just let the Xi's be the set of all pairs of points in R, and again same problem
just write out colimit properly in terms of diagrams and this is not an issue 
I guess you can say that there is a finest such topology
Though, not sure what then would be the point of the intersections being closed
What is the context here, like what is this an "example of"?
You can't even say there's a unique topology for which these sets X_i are closed in X and it induces the topology on them, tropo's example would work for any T_1 space lol
Actually, this makes sense, since that is the definition of colimit topology
Indeed, but is this example suppose to illustrate what the colimit topology is? (If so it's doing a terrible job) or is it trying to say something else and there is just a small mistake somewhere
I am not quite sure, it is written quite poorly/unclear lmao
$$X = {1, 2, 3}$$
$$T = {{1, 2}, {2, 3}, {2}, \varnothing, X}$$
$$B = {{1, 2}, {2, 3}}$$
$2 \in {1, 2}, {2, 3}$ but ${2} \not\in B$
What am I missing with regards to point 2
B is not a basis
The usual definition of basis is that every open can be written as a union of basis sets
Because {2} \notin B, like you said
This thing about finite intersection is not the standard definition
The screenshot gives 2 definitions
B is a basis by the first, but not the second, is that right?
no the screenshot gives two equivalent definitions
They both generate the same topology, yes
I think it's just a mistake maybe
See my example though?
ah yes they are not equivalent I see, one is finer than the other
but the only difference is being closed under finite interesections
What's the intuition behind point 2 of the 2nd defn anyways - that was what I was hunting for
If you close B under finite intersections (i.e. add {2}), these are equivalent
I think these terms like basis and subbasis are not very important
It's not necessarily closed under finite intersections
The second definition requires it to be
like why require it.
No, only that the intersection is the union of basis sets
I guess technically not since it's not closed under unions
Not that the intersection is a basis set
say you have a point p in the intersection of two balls, B1 and B2
you’d like to say that there is another ball B in that intersection containing p
because you want it to be fine enough that the resulting topology is closed under finite intersections
i.e. is a topology
the actual important object associated to a basis or subbasis or whatever is the set of arbitrary unions of finite intersections of its elements
oh right, i guess it's not quite closure under intersections, my bad
mmm ok ill have another look now that confusion was cleared up
so ill take this
guys, if X is T2 and Y is not, why does there not exist a homeomorphism?
I thought that a continuous function has no influence on hausdorff property
you thought wrong
or is it you think wrong?
haha
suppose f:X-->Y is continuous , X is hausdorff and Y isnt
the preimages of your choice of non-hausdorfness of Y will contradict hausdorfness of X
do u see it
and
if u do the proof you will see
that you do not even need "full" homemorphism
u just need closed and bijective
it's just that in my notes, I found that "generally T2 is not preserved under continuous functions"
what is the difference between a homeommorphism and a continuous function?
bijectivity(?)
okay, I see it
so if ur problem is asking for a homeomorphism
then yes they do preserve
otherwise ( as you sholud try in the proof its just straight-forward ) u will find that u need bijectivity anyways
no need gl
Exercise: suppose Y is hausdorff and f:X->Y is a continuous and injective map, is X hausdorff?
The key feature of homeomorphism is that they preserves all topological properties. The same is not true for just arbitrary continuous functions
@grim knot
Potato
Shh
Don’t spoil it
I was just responding to an idea
Let her cook
I'd say yes hahaha
HAHAHAHAH
Lass sie kochen
That is true, why?
because we have disjoint open set V1 and V2 in Y for y1!=y2, so, the preimage is also disjoint, and since y1!=y2, so is the preimage of the intersection empty and f^1(V1), f^1(V2) is what we were looking for
it's just a sketch
Thank you for the crown
I hope the dish was good
Timo I have a question in German, do you have 5 secs?
I understand the whole exercise here, just don't see why such a x0 has to exist
I sent you O in the second picture actually
Also was ist da die Topologie
My bad
Das x_0 ist beliebig
Du nimmst irgendeins, bildest das ab und guckst was passiert
Y_0 ist einfach der Wert auf den das x_0 abbildet was man random wählt
I have a written one next week on wednesday
ja voll macht sinn jetzt, ich hab es eben umgekehrt angeschaut, und da f nicht surjektiv ist, muss y0 nicht unbedingt ein Urbild haben

du bist weisetmaster
Thanks 
is it true that finite topological spaces are compact(?)
it depends on the topology we have right?
I think it should not depend
surely all open covers will have a finite open subcover
your topology is finite
all covers are finite
I'm still confused on how the frick to use Seifert van Kampen
I understand the whole computation, besides from how do you calculate N
An isomorphism will have trivial kernel
yeah dumb me
this is the exercise I'm doing
Read examples if you struggle to do it yourself for now
The problem is that I do not see where they get N from
i think in a lot of natural cases you have a basis instead of just a subbasis, and in these cases you want to write open sets as unions of basic opens, rather than worry about finite intersections or whatever
makes sense
by "natural cases" i mean metric topology and zariski topology because that's all i can think about right now
meanwhile in measure u have un, unu, nunun, etc 
@grim knot why did you delete the solution
I understood a part of it
like the first part, I can send it again
but still don't see how they come up with the kernel again
No harm in resending it if there’s something you don’t understand
I’ll try to have a look later (busy dying to numerics rn) or someone else might
this is the solution, and they don't even calculate it
Like I don't know how to come up with it
I understand that $\pi_1(A) * \p1_(B)= \mathbb{Z}*\mathbb{Z} $
The amalgamation is trivial
but why is N trivial?
wait a sec
what is the conenction between the fundamental group of the intersection and N
(asking to make it clear in my head)
Look at the theorem again
It’s in the definition of amalgamation
This is an isomorphism
And if pi_1(U1 cap U2) is trivial
The amalgamation doesn’t change anything
does it come from the fact that c is only the neutral element and thus k^N does only contain the element?
You basically take modulo 0
oh okay I see it, this is another definition(equivalent)
Ye
My handwriting is worse
But yeah the smallest normal subgroup containing that set is just the trivial group
So you take modulo 0
And get the result
yeah I know that (spammed y'all enough last semester with algebra)
If you want to show your german side
then go on
my problem is mostly gettin the right subgroup
Yeah that can be tricky
There’s no way to reliably always do it
Except making smart choices for the spaces that cover your bigger spacer
I think I only remember the funktheo questions
well I'm happy for that, cause I spammed much more for algebra haha
it's gonna come again cause I have an algebra 2 exam
another question about topology, does somebody have an idea on when to use coverings and when to use SVK to compute the fundamentalgroup?
Im not sure if there’s an answer to this
bachelor
swiss actually
Makes sense then
it pisses me off somehow, cause we have too many rushed subjects
I love what I study, but we do not really have time to digest the subjects and to fully understand them
I asked before, because I read this
and no idea where to begin with 💔
you could start by deforming this into a known space
have you ever seen a space before where you remove the origin from R^n and quotient out by x ~ -x?
yes, I also know which fundamental groups both spaces have
I thought about real projective spaces, I might be wrnog though
So $\mathbb{R}^n - {0} \cong \mathbb{R}_{> 0} \times S^{n-1}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
how does your equivalence relation work in this coordinate system?
I don't understand what this means
If (x, y) are coordinates, where $x$ is a positive real and $y$ is a point on the sphere, then $-(x, y) = (x, -y)$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
you just mirror your sphere
this is why I meant, for example in R2, we have the quarter of a circle(?)
(x,y) is not the same as (x,y)
I think you're getting a quarter of a circle from treating topos's (x,y) as a point in the plane in some way
for n=2 you should imagine concentric circles centred at the origin
am I supposed to know why K_\xi is a manifold here except at the (n-3) skeleton?
or is hatcher just stating it without a proof to demonstrate a geometric way of characterizing homology classes?
Is it true that the limit points of a set $S$ is equal to $\operatorname{int} S \cup \partial S$?
Mattuwu
yes
hmmm,, I saw a counterexample...
oh huh
interesting
sorry about that
wait, how're boundary points defined again?
boundary points of a set S are the points whose every neibouhood contains some points both from in S and outside of S.
For any set $S \subset \mathbb{R}$, is it true that $\operatorname{iso} S^c \subset L(S)$? Can somebody prove or give conterexamples?
Mattuwu
where $L(S)$ are the limit points of S
Mattuwu
and iso S^c is the isolated points of the complement of S
thanks! seems like a good exercise
also, I know for a fact that in R^n, iso S^c \subset \partial S
how does L(S) compare to \partial S?
can we have something nice like: iso S^c \subset L(S) \subset \partial S ?
How is \partial S defined
the boundary points of S
Which are
uhhh... I don't know there are several definition of boundary points in R^n..?
points whose open balls around it has non-empty intersection with both S and S^c
No this is not true as written
hmm?
Interior points (in particular, non-isolated interior points) can be limit points
Which are clearly not in the boundary
oHH right!
OK... new question should be..
is L(S) \ int S a subset of \partial S?
I want to say yes at least for Rn but I'm not sure off the top of my head if this one generalizes
You should try this one as an exercise too
shouldn't these inclusions be reversed?
no
how does this work?
I don't see it
like the discrete topology has only the empty set and X it self
the other topologies are bigger, or not(?)
no that's the trivial topology
or the indiscrete topology
OH




