#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 45 of 1
Pick any of the 3 faces of the 2-cell. The natural map from that to S^2 is not the same as the natural map from one of the 1-cells to S^2 (because there are no 1-cells anyway)
i see, that totally makes sense
non injective inclusion 

What is homotopy limit of quasicategories
Just for the pullback diagram X -> Z <- Y say
Where can I find an explicit description
Do I do a Kan fibrant replacement on Z <- Y and then take the actual pullback of SSets? That sounds wrong
Am I working in the wrong model structure? Do I need to know what the Joyal model structure is?
Probably. Joyal is the right model structure for quasicats
The weak equivalences are categorical equivalences of ssets (a generalization of equivalence of quasicats), the generating acyclic cofibrations are the inner horn inclusions, and the cofibrations are the monomorphisms, so the fibrant objects are exactly the quasicats.
Ah good that makes sense
darqube
is this proof of the above proposition correct?
ping me if you need me to elaborate 
oh forgot to mention N subset U
every point got a compact neighborhoud
and it's hausdorff obviously lel
oh, thaat one
there are a lot of definitions of LC, which turn out to be equivalent for H spaces
do you think my proof is correct tho?
I haven't done much math in a while so I'm looking for a sanity check 
yes
I just really wanted to use Hopkins
what's hopkins 
thankyu lol
lol
If $X,Y$ are $G$-spaces, is $X \times_G Y$ just $X \times Y$ equipped with the diagonal action or do we quotient out by anything?
potato
ive always disliked this notation
Oh okay sure lol
Matches the M ⊗_R N for modules
Oh this is funny cause I was thinking for a while about smth and this analogy happened to come in handy
Well it was like, $X^i \times Y^j$ is equipped with an obvious $\Sigma_i \times \Sigma_j$-action and they construct $(X^i \times Y^j) \times_{\Sigma_i \times \Sigma_j} \Sigma_k$
potato
which must be directly analogous to extension of scalars, like promoting it to a sigma_k-space in the obvious way
einstein summation
Oh are you looking at symmetric spectra?
lol
Nah this is actually just some configuration spaces stuff
So like lots of sigma_k-equivariant maps lol
In particular, this is a lemma which formalises like
Yep
Has the same universal property
A choice of k points in X disjoint union Y is equivalent to a choice of i points in X and j in Y where i + j = k lol and this is how we're keeping track of the Σ_k-actions
Thanks Moldi
Is there anywhere good to look for equivariant stuff lol probably like May's stuff for homotopy theoretic tings
Maybe May's equivariant homotopy and cohomology theory lol
Idk what you mean by homotopy theoretic rings though
Like ring spectra?
one interseting thing is that model categories are still the bread and butter of most equivariant work
so the OG references are all still good
(i assume you mean homotopy theoretic things)
They exchanged the normal and super reaction buttons and now my muscle memory is to always super react 
lol
I said tings lol
Yeah things
Nice
I have no understanding of Bredon equivariant cohomology
Feels like unnatural futzing around just to make the apparatus equivariant homotopy sensitive
I actually kind of agree, I've never really understand the "genuine" equivariant category
someone once told me a compelling justification for wanting to invert representation spheres but i forget
Are compact objects in Top or CW, compact spaces?
Direct limits are fine in Top. Categorically compact objects are the compact spaces. Maybe CW complexes don’t have direct limits
Are you sure https://mathoverflow.net/questions/288648/what-are-compact-objects-in-the-category-of-topological-spaces
Direct limits are not at all fine in Top. Nothing recognisable represents colim Hom(X, Y_i). This is why I had to work with quasitopological spaces for my research lol (which is a slightly civilized subcategory of Presh(Top))
Presheaves of sets on Top such that gluing holds for open covers and finite closed covers
Notion is originally by Spanier Whitehead
Oh
You may enjoy this post https://mathoverflow.net/questions/124616/why-are-quasitopological-spaces-needed-in-sheaf-theoretic-approaches-to-the-h-pr
@bw. It is very easy to come up with examples of direct limits of perfectly reasonable spaces which are indiscrete for instance
Say, S¹ -> S¹ doubling map
so slightly stronger than asking for a sheaf?
Right
interesting
The first reason for genuine G spectra is that they come up. The obvious definition of K- theory in terms of equivariant bundles satisfies Bott periodicity for complex representation spheres
The second is Poincaré duality. Better, Atiyah duality. You want a Thom isomorphism for the tangent bundle for a manifold with isotropy. The fibers of this bundle are representations, so it’s like saying you want representation spheres to be invertible like ordinary spheres
Ah yeah the equivariant thom isomorphism was the one I had in mind
let's fuckin gooo
i just really like spanier's book on alg top so i'm compulsively responding to this
Ibsen do you just know all of topology history
That sounds like a backhanded insult
You do topology, that is a backhanded insult you did to yourself 🙂
Truly the times are telling when a noncommutative geometer says your field is a self inflicted insult
sorry to interrupt with a potentially dumb question but are there cases where the topological pushout of 2 closed subsets of a space by their intersection is not their union ?
This is interesting cause iirc someone claimed this was true in a talk I went to lol
No, like say X is union of A and B, then the map A disjoint union B -> X is a closed map (as A, B are closed) and is surjective and identifies exactly those points in the intersection
So it induces the desired homeo
Ah of course ! thanks
np
Compact spaces are compact only relative to closed T_1 inclusions 
Ye a closed T_1 inclusion
oh missed a word yeah
okay before i send this let it be known that i have a migraine and you need to be nice to me
is there a relationship between having the homotopy type of a finite CW complex and having the homotopy type of a compact space
im so sure theres like a super obvious counter example
Homotopy type of a finite CW complex should imply homotopy type of compact space since finite CW complexes are compact 
right
what about the other way
im mostly curious about whether compact spaces are compact in the infinity category of spaces
The Hawaiian earring works since its fundamental group is uncountable
i honestly don't know which of those two the hawaiin earring is
not a finite cw i imagine
Ye


can anybody help?
First time? 
Take the straight line homotopy between the 2 paths on the square itself, and then horizontally compose with H tilde
A simpler counter example is the one point compactification of the integers, {1/n} cup {0}
Not even close lol
is there a counterexample for a space that is not hausdorff, but every compact set is closed?
god i hate topology
Lol
Any finite set should do. Every subset is closed and every subset is compact.
Oh but that’s hausdorff
god i hate topology
lol
What about the line with two origins
elaborate
Do you know the line with two origins
no hahha
R x {0, 1} modulo equivalence rel (x, 0) ~ (x, 1) iff x nonzero
In the line with two origins, the origin is compact but not closed
Why not
Oops
I meant a compact neighborhood of the origin. [-1,1]x0
lol i said this example earlier but deleted it
hmm
Try R discrete topology with two origins
Same construction above but replace R by R_d
That’s discrete
^
https://topology.pi-base.org/ just maybe...
Probably implies Hausdorff. You’d have to check the details carefully, but if x and y are not separated by opens, a net that converges to x probably converges to y. The image of that net plus x is probably compact but doesn’t contain y
{1/n} cup {0}
Can we do this with finite sets?
like compact => closed implies hausdorff
bw says it is
no
has to contain the cofinite topology
Fuck
What about the cocountable topology on R
This is a terrible argument. The net could just be constant. I guess you could solve that by taking a net indexed by open sets containing x and require each point to be in that open but not equal to x
More importantly, why is the image of a net compact? Is this really true?
helo
hm
Spam enough example ideas until it's false or until you're dead
If you find a counterexample you can alter the statement a little to make it not a counterexample
(like put a not in it)
i mean such a space is at least T_1
Nash equilibrium point set topology exercise
i think
wouldn’t that already apply that it’s not hausdorff if there’s a net that converges to x and y
since in a hausdorff space limits of nets are unique
I’m trying to prove the contrapositive
I’m assuming it’s Hausdorff and trying to find a compact that is not closed
that's not the contrapositive right
No
In my first sentence I stated one thing. In the rest, I tried to prove the contrapositive of that thing. But I didn’t state that thing very clearly to show that it was equivalent to what was asked
I'm confused what you're trying to prove
We're trying to prove that not Hausdorff doesn't imply not (compact => closed)
I don't see how this relates to it
Indeed in a Hausdorff space every compact subset is closed
I left out the word not
I’m assuming not Hausdorff and finding a compact not closed
Ah
Makes sense so you're actually proving that the statement given was true nice
hm
Take an infinite set X in R with cocountable topology. Consider a countable infinite subset Y, and consider an open cover consisting of R \ Y, and open neighborhoods of each point of Y
Oh cool
Well not quite actually but uh
Okay nvm sure yes
I thought you meant X was the space for some reason lol but yes
Lewis talked about cofinite topology above which made sense to me
But cofinite fails for stupid reasons
The compact subsets are precisely the finite ones
and hence all closed
Kinda interesting hm
Seems co-X big for a space of cardinality > X is interesting
Idk how often these spaces are used for things besides counterexamples though 
Almost never
Idk what like analytic / point set topologists do lol
Bing's work from the 50s is important
He did awful point set topology
Of horrifying spaces
He tried to disprove the Poincare conjecture by point set topology
But instead the machine was used to prove topological Poincare conjecture in 4D later
What is this an example of?
Dusseldorf?
Oh, Y is a subset of X, reaching a contradiction, showing that X is finite
Yes
Hello everyone,
Is it is possible to use homotopy theory to study if a geometric object (like vector field, differetial form, or Poission bracket) is well-define globally on manifold?
Okay so I am dealing with something simialr to a poission bracket
it is called getzler-soloviev bracket which is define on supermanifold and my supervisor told to study if this bracket can globazlied.
I tried the navie approch which is to check if it is ivariant under local coordinate change, but it is not
So my supervisor told look for homotopy methods to see if bracket is globalazable
yes
$((f,g))=\sum_{k,\ell=0}^{\infty}\left(\partial^{\ell}\left(\partial_{k,\phi}f\right)\partial^{k}\left(\partial_{\ell,\phi^{\ddagger}}g\right)+(-1)^{\mathrm{p}(f)}\partial^{\ell}\left(\partial_{k,\phi^{\ddagger}}f\right)\partial^{k}\left(\partial_{\ell,\phi}g\right)\right)$
beep boop
where
$\partial_{k,\Phi_{i}}=\frac{\partial}{\partial\left(\partial^{k}\Phi_{i}\right)}$
and
$\partial^{\ell}=\frac{\partial^{\ell}}{\partial t^{^{\ell}}}$
beep boop
\phi are the smooth section of vector bundle
So I should learn about obstruction theory?
This looks like if it isn't coordinate independent it should be a section of a different, naturally defined bundle
Ie the way it changes under coordinate transforms should be set as the new transition functions
In which this would be a section of
Idk how you'd apply homotopy methods to this problem beyond, like, vector bundle theory
One should determine what the natural vector bundle here is
Yes, with like navie clacluation
like I took simplest case where I have one variable t
and two variable on the supermanifld \phi and \phi^dagger
but it is not invariant
even at the simplest term I got something like this
$\frac{\partial}{\partial\tau}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial\tau})}\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial\tau}\left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi^{\ddagger}}{\partial\tau})}\right) =\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial t})}\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi^{\ddagger}}{\partial t})}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial t}{\partial\tau}\frac{\partial^{2}\tau}{\partial t^{2}}\right)^{2}\frac{\partial f}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial t})}\frac{\partial g}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi^{\ddagger}}{\partial t})}
+\frac{\partial t}{\partial\tau}\frac{\partial^{2}\tau}{\partial t^{2}}\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial t})}\frac{\partial g}{\partial(\frac{\partial\phi^{\ddagger}}{\partial t})}\right).$
beep boop
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I don't know if I can help you with the actual calculation
Differential geometry isn't my strongest suit, especially when it comes to coordinate computations
I'm currently studying Max Karoubi's book "Introduction to K-Theory" and I'm feeling a bit lost with the formalism he uses to define K-theory groups and why he gives a very general construction on banach categories. I'm struggling to understand why he chooses this approach and what advantages it offers compared to other books like Allen Hatcher's vector bundle and k theory or the chapters on k theory in the book "fibre bundle" by husemoller ?
Maybe there’s a point, but if you don’t know what it is, go with Hatcher
If you want to study K theory of operator algebras, you’ll need functional analysis, but you’ll know you need it
Thank you
I just wanted to know if homotopy methods can be used to study this type of problem (while waiting for the co-author of my supervisor to provide me with some refernces)
I think u gave me a decent idea
forcing, topological games etc...
they need to find a hobby fr
Guys I am proving that X=int(X) I did the part (=>) , I wanted to read opinions or my writing is wrong.
it should be noted that I'm translating the text
I did something simple
so part (a) i have now, but part (b) i rly have no idea how to do
here's a relevant stack post
Not sure if this works, but here is my attempt. We know what the vertices, edges and faces in this Delta complex structure are supposed to be, and we only need to orient the edges and faces. In particular, we know what the 1-skeleton is. Viewing the 1-skeleton as an (as of now) undirected graph, we wish to direct all its edges such that the faces can be glued on along the triangles in this graph correctly. I think a sufficient condition for this is for the graph to be directed acyclic, meaning that there shouldn't be a directed path from a vertex to itself. This is sufficient because if you pick any triangle in this graph, it must then be directed as the ordered set {0,1,2}, and then there is an obvious way to orient and glue any 2 simplices on this triangle to it. So the problem reduces to, can we always turn an undirected graph into a directed acyclic one? My guess is that this is not possible in general but here we will have some extra conditions on the graph that make it possible.
Btw for the purposes of alg top, as far as I know, Delta complexes aren't that useful (I have never had to use them). Instead we have theory that works almost equally well for CW complexes and simplicial sets, so it's not like restricting to the special case of a Delta complex makes things that much nicer.
So I'm not sure how much return you're going to get from putting this much time into Delta complexes
Hmm maybe they are useful in low dim topology or for combinatorial problems, I wouldn't know about that
according to this stack post every undirected graph has an orientation that makes it a directed acyclic one
i also see how that conclusion would work to make it a delta complex
but like
Oh convenient
we havent used an extra conditions on the structure imposed by
having to identify pairs of faces
between simplices
(and this condition is what guarantees that we get a closed surface)
True
Maybe Hatcher had a different proof in mind? Or maybe this graph argument is simpler for the kind of graphs we get using this condition?
ok im pretty sure this proof doesnt work
i think its assuming that you dont have edges going from a vertex to itself straight up
but in this construction, ur definitely going to have that
if im not wrong, we we consider a delta complex structure on the torus like this
the below is what the graph actually looks like?
but the argument that every graph has an acyclic orientation
is just to give an arbitrary ordering on each of the vertices
and for each edge, orient it so that it goes from the smaller vertex in this ordering to the bigger one
rly not sure what the strategy would be then... i mean i definitely think its going to be a combinatorial argument but
i dont really have a sense of what the 1-skeleton treated as a graph with distinct vertices
should always look like given the imposed conditions
Yeah I am not sure either
maybe it produces some kind of condition for the degree of each vertex?
(the undirected degree)
Nothing straightforward at least since arbitrarily many 2-simplices could share a vertex
Has to be at least 2 I guess
But can be any number >=2
Might not be the right direction to begin with
Or maybe we can define directed 3-acyclic as a directed graph which has no directed cycles of length 3 (but length 1 and 2 are ok) and prove that any finite undirected graph can be given this structure
Not sure how this would go lol
Actually I think you will get a condition on the loops allowed on each vertex
No wait
Can't you orient loops arbitrarily after you have oriented all the other edges according to some order on the vertices
The only sus triangles will be the ones for which all 3 edges are loops on the same vertex
But then if a 2-simplex is being attached to such a triangle, can we say that the attaching map on one of the faces can be flipped without changing the topological space
Yes we can, the attaching map remains continuous and if we attach the 2-simplices one by one, we can see that this change in the attaching map gives us something homeomorphic
Does that make any sense
im kind of getting it
but is the graph ur considering the one with distinct vertices
or nondistinct ones
What do you mean by distinct vertices?
Like all 3 vertices of each 2-simplex are distinct?
like, in what i drew above
u have two different graphs
one where the vertices in ur graph actually are distinct points in ur topological space
the other where like
they're not
well tehy are but like
as a graph structure
they're not
But we only have 1 topological space
I am not picking a cover where they are distinct if that is what you are asking
Are you comfortable with pushouts?
A single edge whose endpoints coincide
oaky
It's a kind of gluing of spaces, which is what we are doing here. I bring it up because I think I have an argument using those
Let me try and draw a diagram for this
ok
Moldilocks1337 ✓
ok
In this case, we are given a space X constructed as
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Where X_1 is the 1-skeleton, and we are taking the disjoint union of X_1 and a bunch of copies of Delta^2 and gluing them along attaching maps from each boundary to X_1
This is what is called a pushout square
Now a standard categorical fact is that if you are attaching a bunch of disjoint copies, you can attach them one at a time, like in the following sequence
Moldilocks1337 ✓
sure, this makes sense
Ok nice
So now we have oriented each edge of X_1 as follows:
Pick an ordering on the vertices. Every edge with distinct end points is directed from the smaller to the larger vertex. An edge with the same end points is directed arbitrarily.
sure
Now suppose we have a 2-simplex being attached at some stage
It's attaching map, from its boundary to X_k for some k, actually factors through X_1 because it is supposed to be attached to the 1-skel
Look at what edges its being attached to
If there are no loops among those edges, then we can of course orient this simplex appropriately
Because then it is being attached to an acyclic triangle
right
Otherwise, it has either 1 or 3 loops
Because if it has one loop from vertex x to x, and another edge is from x to y for some y, the last edge is also x to y
The case of 1 loop is also good, because the non-loop edges are both directed the same way - either towards the vertex with the loop or away from it, and in either case they form an acyclic triangle with this loop
Is this ok?
makes sense, the other vertex is gonna be bigger or smaller
Ye
so yeah, both of them r gonna go toward it or away
The case of 3 loops is more complicated because we will now have to tweak the pushout
I should have mentioned earlier, we are going by induction on the number of 2-simplices
So suppose in this diagram that up to X_4 we have tweaked whatever necessary so that X_4 is a Delta complex structure without disturbing the directions of the edges
And we want to show the same for X_5
And we have tackled the cases of 0 or 1 loops
And now want to tackle it for 3 loops
So suppose that the attaching map in this case is attaching along a cyclic triangle
ok
I claim that we can replace this attaching map with another attaching map without changing X_5 up to homeomorphism
The change in the attaching map is: you pick one of the three edges and traverse it in the opposite direction
Should I define this more formally or is this description understandable?
This doesn't break continuity because the end points of the edge are the same
Yep, but I am not changing the directed graph
Only the attaching map
thats a little hard to grasp
isnt the attaching map determined by the orientation of the edges in the 1-skeleton
Oh no, I am assuming that we have this above diagram but it is not quite a Delta complex structure, the only obstruction being the possibly wrong orientations of the attaching maps
And we know we have this not-quite-a-Delta-complex structure on the given space because it is obtained by identifying pairs of edges
ok
So the attaching map is determined by 3 maps from [0,1] to the 1-skeleton whose endpoints match in the appropriate way to make a triangle
And I am reversing one of these 3 maps, which doesn't break continuity because its end points are the same
are we sure it doesnt break some other rule of delta complexes tohugh
Ye that can be checked. I don't like thinking about Hatcher's definition of Delta complexes because it gives a lot more to think about, but if you phrase it in terms of attaching maps as I did the other day, this is fine.
Idk how convincing that is lmao
But it's another argument with pushouts and their categorical properties: You have a collection of 2-simplices all glued along a bunch of edge inclusions (this forms something like a generalized pushout diagram) and you can then decompose it into a sequence of pushouts of this kind
I doubt Hatcher intended for it to be this complicated
i mean i honestly have no idea
there are some problems in hatcher that are just insane
Moldilocks1337 ✓
This is the pushout you will take when you want to glue 2 2-simplices along one edge
sure
But if you have 3 2-simplices, you would have something like this
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Here the "pushout" is defined as taking a disjoint union of all 3 simplices, and then you glue them along the 2 maps. So in this case, simplex 1 is being glued to simplex 2 along an edge and simplex 2 to simplex 3 along possibly another edge depending on what the maps from I are
But each simplex has 3 edges and for example another edge of simplex 1 could be glued to another edge of simplex 2 or 3 and so one
But the point is that we can decompose this as first gluing all the copies of I to each other to form a 1-skeleton, and then glue the 2-simplices to this 1-skeleton as in this diagram
I have made too much of a mess to stop now 
im getting a little lost
Ok then I should stop 
also like
the fact that the graph is a triangulation of a closed surface
we still havent used
I don't think that will matter
hmm
yeah i mean im definitely not seeing why it would
but also like this is insane lol
Ye fair
I wonder if maybe a dual strategy is easier to work with?
Like assign to each triangle the number 1 if it is cyclically oriented and 0 otherwise: this corresponds to a labeling of the dual graph on your surface
And now you want to get all labels down to 0 by flipping bits on adjacent edges successively
honestly this problem is extra fucked bc i have never been convinced that delta complex structures are actually well defined
like every time ive tried to sit down and algorithmically explain how to label the verticies
Based
ive run into so many issues
it always works in practice but ive never actually figured out how to explain it lmfao
I know exactly what you mean
esp the orientation stuff
like there always seems to be a choice of labeling that works out but people have asked me how to do it in general and i always get tripped up
its not just me!!
i would honestly challenge anyone to try to write a concrete expository on delta complexes without contradicting themselves lmfao
(and not just bc i think it wont work i would genuinely be happy to understand it if it does make sense)
new uchicago reu project
No thank u
i remember trying looking for an reu paper on this and couldn't find one 
thats because its impossible
Lol
I think of them as semisimplicial sets so it's not too bad
They are equivalent
Semisimplicial sets being the presheaves on the semisimplex category, which is the category of finite totally ordered sets but only with injective order preserving maps
And to give a space a Delta complex structure is the same as giving it the structure of the geometric realisation of a semisimplicial set, so you can come up with the semisimplicial set that you expect to get and then check that the realization does give you what you want
Though I am not sure why they are useful at all. Is it just to define simplicial homology? But then cellular homology is better in every way that I can think of, so why?
delta structures are maybe slightly easier for beginners
but yeah clearly CW is the obvious choice for most people in practice
Is that really it? I have seen way more confusion with them than with CW complexes lol
Because of all the orientation stuff
I was guessing that they'd be useful in some low dim topology or combinatorial topology or topological combinatorics
I think the boundary map for CW complexes confusees some people? idrk
I can believe that, but it just seems like a weird reason to define a whole in between thing and do a bunch of more confusing stuff with it, especially since CW complexes are in Hatcher ch0 and assumed for the rest of the book anyway 
does the forgetful functor from the category of pointed spaces to Top preserve all colimits?
i think no?
This would suggest that the forgetful functor has a right adjoint
and I don't think theres any way to make that work
yeah, i’m trying to prove that it doesn’t have a right adjoint
but i was trying to use that it doesn’t preserve all colimits
but it kinda seems to me it does
actually, does the converse hold: if a functor preserves all colimits, then it has a right adjoint?
if the categories satify the hypothesis of the adjoint functor theorem
is this the case here?
honestly Top is so awful i always for get what is true 1-categorically
at a guess yes
hmm
how does one show that it doesnt have a right adjoint then
can’t think of a counterexample for a colimit
you might be able to show it can't work with hom sets directly...
but that seems hard
oh wow, that seems tedious
oh i see it actually
there is a (very simple) colimit that doesn't get preserved
actually a bunch haha
what types of colimits can you think of?
is the wedge sum a colimit here
yes
okay, yeah
wedge sum is the coproduct of based spaces
that was my first thought
the simplest example is the initial object
but it gets preserved or am i just not thinking right haha
initial objects are colimits of empty diagrams
whats the coproduct in spaces
disjoint union
so if i apply forget to a wedge do i get the disjoint union of the two spaces?
I think you are confused on what it means to preserve a colimit
it doesn't mean you get the same space
yeah, i know that
it means the functor sends coproducts to coproducts
oh thats the misunderstanding
preserves colimits means preserves like
the shape of the colimit
so it can't just send a coproduct to a pushout
it has to send a coproduct to a coproduct
np
it does not preserve binary coproducts.
ok nvm this seems to have been resolved.
my bad
People should learn simplicial homology. simplicial complexes are important
both in homotopy theory and outside of homotopy theory
many combinatorial models for spaces can be thought of as simplicial complexes
For example, Kan complexes/infinity groupoids
many interesting properties of homology can be thought of as arising from purely combinatorial properties of simplicial complexes and not necessarily from anything to do with spaces per se.
Singular homology is a special kind of simplicial homology; it is the simplicial homology of the simplicial set of singular simplces of a space.
CW homology is useful for thinking about CW complexes. Simplicial homology is helpful in thinking about basically every area of math which has intercourse with algebraic topology.
The category of semisimplicial sets is of fundamental categorical interest. It is the free cocomplete monoidal category with a distinguished pointed object 1 -> M
Could you explain how to think of them like that?
Homology for a simplicial set and homology for a simplicial complex seem like completely different things to me. I can't see how learning about the latter helps with the former at all
So far I haven't been convinced that this property of the (semi)simplex category has anything to do with how they act like spaces. It feels to me more like a coincidence with minimal use than some extremely useful way to view topology
Is there some Chinese in this group,i want help
With a math video that is in Mandarin possibly
It's the only video on that topic that i can find.....
https://youtu.be/AP8Wvn9X6v8
This is the video
The time duration where i need clarification is from 15:00,from 25:45 and from 27:20...
Here he discusses
1)Some Rhombus sort of structure,i want to know with what arguments did he arrive at that conclusion
2)He talks about Cauchy Crofton Formula,what context is he talking about it.....(like why is using that there),i have rough idea of what Crofton Formula is...
3)third in 27:20 one,He talks about evaluating integral(it comes up in his slides) integral(1/(1+x^3)) how does it come up there
Help with these,even if you can just translate and type what he said,i would be very thankful
I am posting here because this seems three of the most relevant channels for this topic
Sort of confused by identification maps as well as the relations
What exactly is the relations ~ being described in each case?
and then "the identifications" makes no sense
doesn't identification depend on the definition of f and g?
this is part of my confusion
"the quotient topology" doesn't make sense to me
since it depends on the relation right?
for D^2 the relation is that any two antipodal points on the boundary are identified
while for S^2 it's that antipodal points are identified
ELI-dumb the difference?
The boundary of D^2 is S^1
so in one you identify the antipodal points of a circle
and in the other you identify the antipodal points of a sphere
oh I can't read
I thought they were both circles
Ok ok that clarifies my first question
still confused on the whole "the" situation
where are you confused?
I guess I'll start with the definition of identification map
how can we say Y has "the" quotient topology
what is the relation?
is it somehow induced by the map?
I meant in the general definition
here
oh yeah
it's not 'the' quotient topology but the quotient topology inducecd by the identification map 'f'
cool
ok this is just a dumb question
how do you regard a unit disk as the upper hemisphere
yea so the upper hemisphere is a half sphere, not a disk
do they just mean take that plane where we made the cut and call that D^2?
the disk is the half sphere
what
I think that's thai actually
ok ok i didn't know
spamakin
by consutrction right?
wdym by construction
g sends an element to its equivalence class
taking preimage is taking all elements of equivalence class
Like do you agree that g^{-1}(U) for any U is saturated?
I don't see that immediately
yea use commutativity and the assumption
I don't see where we use the non-trivial intersection though
Well intuitively if A is missing an equivalence class then there will be some point in X/~ not in the image of A/~ -> X/~
ah
Oh yeah thats where it is
in the very last sentence
"clearly ... onto"
is where you're using this assumption
just so I'm understanding
here U doesn't have to be open or anything right?
idk what you were doing but here's how it goes:
Assume X is an open subset of R. You want to show X = int(X).
By definition, int(X) \subset X. So you must show X \subset int(X). That is, that all points in X are interior points.
At this point we need to know how you define open set. If it is a set for which all points are interior points, there is nothing to show. If you are just using the standard basis of R by open intervals, you proceed as follows (much like what you did).
Suppose WLOG X = (a,b). Let x \in (a,b). Then a < x < b, so that there exists \epsilon > 0 such that |x - a| > \epsilon, |x-b| > \epsilon. Then x \in (x-\epsilon, x+\epsilon) \subset (a,b). Thus x is an interior point. Since x was a generic point in X, all points in X are interior points, so X \subset int(X).
And that's pretty much it. Hope this helps. I would have walked you through it more, but I couldn't really follow your work and I could tell the language barrier would be an issue.
I think that's the direction you were attempting to prove. Lmk if you actually wanted X = int(X) implies X open
Does anyone have a reference about how to come up with the 4 fibrations of spheres?
given a subspace $i : A \into X$, what's the terminology for a map $r : X \to A$ such that $r \circ i$ is only homotopic to $id_A$ ?
(m+p)akka
homotopy retract
Is there a "isomorphism theorem" type thing for quotient spaces
Bredon started throwing around the term "factors through" without formally defining it
And it feels familiar to how people talk about factoring through quotients in algebra
But a formal definition would be neat
he's hinting at the universal property of the quotient space
essentially the idea is that if I have a continuos function X->Y and an equivalent relation ~ on X such that f respects ~
then the function should factor through X/~
i.e. there is a map X/~ -> Y making the triangle commute
At first approximation I mean this in the most direct and very superficial sense, like almost all combinatorial models for spaces are basically just different ways of defining simplicial complex, some of which have technical advantages.
However I can try and give you theorems which justify my POV.
I'll try to put this in formal terms just so we can get some interesting mathematics.
An abstract simplicial complex is a set V of vertices together with a set K of finite subsets of V called simplices. K is closed downward. (K, V) represents a space, a simplicial complex, where if sigma \subset V is a simplex with n+1 points then in the realization we have the n-simplex which is formed by the convex hull of those elements. A morphism (K, V) -> (K', V') is a function V -> V' sending simplices into simplices.
On the other hand consider the category of symmetric simplicial sets, i.e., presheaves on the category of finite cardinals and not-necessarily order preserving maps. There is a nerve-realization adjunction between symmetric simplicial sets and abstract simplicial complexes given by sending an ASC (K,V) to the SSS of all maps from the standard n-simplex (P([n],[n]) to (K, V).
Theorem: The right adjoint is fully faithful and exhibits A.S.C.'s as a reflective subcategory of S.S.S.'s.
Proof: Hopefully a straightforward exercise of showing that the composition of left and right adjoint is the identity on A. S. C.'s.
We could do a similar theorem for simplicial sets maybe but it is uglier and a little less natural. There is a nerve realization adjunction between SSets and ASC's as before but you wouldn't get the original ASC back. If you want to fix this, consider the category whose objects are A.S.C.'s where V is partially ordered and the restriction of the ordering to any simplex in K is a total linear order; the morphisms are order preserving maps. Then this embeds as a fully faithful subcategory of SSets.
For semisimplicial sets, same as simplicial sets but maps have to be injective on simplices.
My main point here is the obvious one, that if you look at what the geometric realization of a simplicial set is doing, it's building a simplicial complex where the formal simplices in X_n serve as labels for copies of the n-simplex. Thus, simplicial sets are combinatorial schemas for simplicial complexes.
If you want a deeper claim, observe that a simplicial complex is, by definition, built by gluing simplices together. The word "gluing" reflects that colimits are involved somehow. A simplex here can be understood as gotten by repeatedly taking the join of the singleton space with itself, 1 * 1 *1 * 1 = \Delta^3. Thus simplicial complexes are freely generated by starting with the singleton space and taking the closure under monoidal products (joins) and colimits (gluing along permissible maps). The free cocomplete monoidal category generated a distinguished object together with certain special maps between objects precisely formalizes this intuition: in the case of semi-simplicial sets you are allowed to glue along face inclusions, for simplicial sets you can glue along faces and degeneracies, for symmetric simplicial sets add permutations.
In this way I argue that simplicial sets categorically capture what simplicial complexes are: the smallest class of spaces containing the singleton and closed under joins and colimits along certain permissible classes of gluing maps.
If you have a simplicial complex, and you want to compute its simplicial homology, its associated chain complex is gotten exactly by taking the associated simplicial set (or semi-simplicial set or symmetric simplicial set depending on your choice of convention), taking free Abelian groups and looking at the Moore normalization, which is the the unique cocontinuous monoidal functor from simplicial Abelian groups to chain complexes sending the singleton space to the chain complex 0->Z ->Z->0. This is in my view the most elegant way to motivate the definition of the chain complex of a simplicial complex; it is not at all an ad hoc construction, it is completely naturally categorically.
I completely disagree with your perspective here that they are completely different things, they are actually almost exactly the same thing, not just in a derived category sense or some shit but up to isomorphism of chain complexes, but you have to understand how simplicial complexes and simplicial sets are the same thing before you can understand how their associated chain complexes are the same.
Haven't read it yet, but aren't simplicial complexes different from Delta complexes
"Same" feels like too strong a word for what you're describing, I only see how it's a generalisation
Ok I see how that monoidal cat universal property is not entirely unrelated
I've seen ASCs being used in combinatorics and such but I still don't see how the perspective you've given is one people should study for homotopy theory. For one thing it seems more of hand wavy intuition in places, and in other places seems like saying not much more than that simplicial sets are what you get when you generalize in a certain way.
Sure, but in that sense singular homology of a space is also "the same" as the homology of a simplicial set. Why bother defining simplicial complexes or "the nerve of a simplicial complex" or whatever it is called in that case? The same link holds for general top spaces
By "they seem unrelated" what I meant was that they seem just as related as singular homology and homology of a simplicial set
And coming back to this, a simplex in a simplicial complex is uniquely determined by its vertices while this isn't the case in a Delta complex
is the following correct: if S\subset R is not discrete, then there is a sequence x_n\in S with all elements distinct and x_n-> a\in S.
Since S is not discrete, there is an a\in S such that every r-ball contains an element of S distinct from it. Using this, construct a sequence of distinct elements converging to a: for n=1, take the element x_1\in S that's in the 1-ball around a, then inductively take r=min(|x_1-a|,...,|x_n-a|,1/n) and pick x_n+1\in S from the r-ball around a (this ensures that x_n+1 is distinct from all the previous elements).
I've been wondering if the following is true:
Let p : Y to X be a local homeo and U a domain in Y such that p limited to U is injective. Then already p limited to U is a homeomorphism.
Yes, an injective local homeomorphism is a homeomorphism onto its image
was about to say it has to be bijective lol but you sniped me
If you have a map f : A -> B and restrict to a subset A' of A, we call that restriction. What about f : A -> B' where B' is a smaller subset of B containing f(A)? Should you call that corestriction?
try proving it @stable kite
I have wondered this sometime.
is there no actual term for that
Corestriction is for B -> C
You can restrict or corestrict anything
For C -> B or A -> C it’s a property of f that it extends
I agree with this
I think that substantive difference should explain the grammatical difference
There are very few scenarios I can remember where treating a map f : A -> B as f : A -> C where C is a proper subset of B properly containing f(A) has been actually useful for me
Exactly once I think
Conjecture: most of the time "mapping onto image" is enough
Oh, I guess for each point in U find a nbhd in U with p restricted to that nbhd a homeo -> gives us an open cover of both domain and image space, we get a family of homeos in the other direction that are all compatible and thus define a cont. map from the image to the domain?
The one I had in my head is a little simpler
I do have the visual intuition that this only works for connected domain
Which one did you have in your head? :)
the restriction of p to U is injective so p: U-> p(U) is bijective
just gotta check that p is open and continuous
Ohh openness makes huge sense yeah
p is obviously continuous
openness follows quite quickly too
this is just using the definition of homeomorphism
Yeah it does, thank you kindly!
is the order topology on a totally ordered set (X, <) just the topology generated by sets of the form {x | x < y} and {x | x > y} for each y in X ?
I ask this because Wikipedia says this
if X has a greatest element p then the topology generated by the second definition contains no neighborhoods of p
which confuses me
for example the extended reals are certainly not generated by just sets of the form (a, b)
the the infinities would be lonely (no neighborhoods for them to live in)
Ok so for every a, b in [0, 1] we take the set (a, b) to be a part of our subbase
even when b = 1 intervals of the form (a, 1) don’t contain 1
The subbasis is sets of the form (a,oo) and (oo,b). The basis is finite intersections of sub basic sets and includes (a,b). But, as Wikipedia says, it also has to include the infinite intervals, for exactly the reason you say, in case there is a maximal or minimal element
oh yeah I didn’t read after (not included in my screenshot)
this was all one big whoopsie
As someone dipping their feet into spectra beyond the Spanier Whitehead category for the first time - how much should I worry about the different models for categories of spectra when learning? Many places seem to focus on sequential spectra and I imagine knowing about them should be enough until I bump into smth that specifically requires some other model?
Ofc the stable infinity categories are equivalent so for that stuff it shouldn't matter lol
I think you really don't need to worry much about this at all
you should learn the sequential model
and you should accept the existence of the smash product
Writing the v-hats or w-hats would be a bit awkward without splitting the sum
Oh that
You have to interpret j bigger than t as ordered pairs
You could re-express that as two separate sums, sure
ahh okay that makes sense
It helps being lazy with sum notation and free-styling it for recognizing this sorta stuff
Lol sure thanks
once you learn the infty formalism youll be able to prove it exists easier anyway
Yeah I'm reading more HTT over next couple months
Didn't know this was the case actually, nice
Cheers
yeah its the universal product (w properties) such that the infinite suspension functor is symmetric monoidal
everything else is determined
Sure nice
but yeah the two facts that matter
are that inf sus is symm monoidal
and that the tensor product preserves homotopy colimits in each variable
i.e. for fixed X the functor $-\otimes X$ preserves colimits
themaxj
(this is also true of other tensor products)
Sure nice
Hey! Given a complex line bundle $L\to X^4$ and a surface $\Sigma\subset X$, the fact that $c_1(L)[\Sigma]=\frac{i}{2\pi}\int_\Sigma F_A$ for some connection $A$ is Chern--Weil theory, right?
matplotlib
What happens if $\Sigma$ is non-orientable? Can I relate $\Sigma\cdot\Sigma$ to the integral of the curvature in some way?
matplotlib
If it’s non orientable, then the intersection number is only defined mod 2, so you can’t relate it to a real number like the curvature
I take $\Sigma\cdot\Sigma$ to be the Euler class of the normal bundle, this is an integral lift of the mod-2 intersection number
matplotlib
(and in fact, for oriented surfaces, it is equal to the value of the intersection form on the surface)
Can anyone explain how to interpret the lemma as being “concentrated on the diagonal”
Somebody's working on the Wu formula it seems 😄
Soon enough
That's because the value of u'' cupped with (a,1) is the same as (1,a)
(P.S.: for a LaTeX-friendly version of Milnor--Stasheff: https://aareyanmanzoor.github.io/assets/books/characteristic-classes.pdf)
Still lost 
It doesn't tell you the distribution around the diagonal, it could well be an inverted Gaussian, but you know that if you take some value over (a,1), you take the same at (1,a)
There's symmetry around the diagonal
I kind of get that, so it’s “symmetric along diagonal” thing
Yes, there is a Chern-Weil version of the Euler class. It is the Pfaffian of the curvature. Presumably this ends up somewhere weird if the bundle is not oriented, but I’ve never studied it. In this case, for a 2d bundle, the curvature is just a skew 2x2 matrix, so the Pfaffian is just an entry, and you can concentrate on the orientation issues
Do you have some reference in mind dealing with this stuff? 🙂
Well nvm, I found this: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2768279/259363
I think I can try to work things out from there!
Except I'm doing Seiberg--Witten theory and I'll have more struggle XD
Here are two books I love for other reasons:
Bott & Tu
Chern, Complex manifolds without potential
The second covers Chern-Weil. The first covers Euler classes. I don’t know if either combines them
So In my case, the Euler class of $\Sigma$ is $e(\Sigma)=\frac{-1}{2\pi}\mathrm{Pf}(F_A)$ for $F_A$ the curvature of a connection on the normal bundle $\nu\Sigma$?
matplotlib
I guess
i imagine this is a difficult to answer question, but a relatively common one: what's the geometric interpretation of Poincare duality?
I can see pretty clearly what happens for the correspondence between H^0 and H_n but that's not particularly interesting, and I'm struggling to understand what's going on in other dimensions
You have a nice geometric interpretation/consequence in a 4-manifold, by looking at the intersection form. This also works for curves on a surface, although it gives a skew-symmetric pairing
You also have b_k=b_{n-k} for all k
Fun fact: take my favourite field, Z/2, then you don't even need orientability, it always holds (as long as you're closed)
If homology is geometric, so is PD
Assume oriented manifold
1 Field coefficients: for every cycle not homologous to zero, there exists a cycle of complementary codim which is transverse and has intersection number 1
2 Z coefficients not torsion: you figure it out
3 torsion: for every torsion cycle there is a cycle of one less than complementary dimension disjoint with linking number 1?
Do you think you could elaborate a bit on the intersection interpretation for field coefficients
The result is surprising, but is the statement not clear? Do you want to know about transversality? How this is connected to other statements of PD?
im not sure what you mean by "is transverse": transverse with what?
and what PD has to do with intersections in the first place 🤔
We start with one cycle. There exists another cycle transverse to it with intersection number 1
intersection number in this case meaning what?
just intersects it in a single point (nvm this wouldnt make much sense)?
You can achieve that. I’m not sure how much harder that is. I mean the signed count of all intersections. A cycle is made up of simplicies. By general position, all the cycles are in the interior of the full dimensional simplicies. So it’s like an intersection of vector spaces and there are orientation issues
right okay
they intersect in finitely many points and you sum +- 1 depending on orientation
yeah that is pretty surprising
I guess there are three versions of PD over fields: cohomology, homology, and both. One is that the cup product on cohomology is a perfect pairing into the top dimension, which is F (if connected, closed, oriented). For homology, we use the geometric intersection pairing. Since homology and cohomology are dual, we can compare cup and intersection and they are the same. The third version is the cap product gives an iso from cohomology to homology. This works integrally
so that's what people mean when they say cup is poincare dual to intersection (struggling to actually see this though)
wdym by perfect pairing?
V tensor W —> F is called a pairing
It induces a map V -> Hom(W,F). If this is an iso, the pairing is perfect. (Assume finite dim, then this is symmetric in V, W. If infinite, be careful about perfection)
right okay
so basically generalised non degeneracy
Oi
okay kind of off topic but you can build the cohomology ring using the cup product. With all this duality business cant you do the same on homology but with the intersection? I guess you'd get a coalgebra or smth though
The homology of any space is a coalgebra. But why would you study that when you can dualize? Coalgebras were first invented to study the (co)homology of Lie groups, so you can’t avoid it by duality
Oh didn't realise coalgs came up first then
is there some way to generalize semidirect product from group theory to homotopy theory
φ : A→(B≅B)
A ⋉φ B
Idk, I usually think of vector bundles as semi-direct products, because of the exact sequence 1⟶F⟶E⟶B⟶1 with the canonical zero-section B⟶E
Or the converse actually: I try to think of semi-direct products as bundles
Not sure that helps though x')
also wat i wrote isnt right, as A is a space with paths(groupo elements) and B=B is a path space
Actually, I think some semi-direct products of Lie groups are genuine bundles 
Aut(x):=sum_{a}|a=x|
φ : A→(Aut(B))
A ⋉φ B
this would be more acurate
strange seeing groups and automorphism groups in this way tho
groups as spaces where group operations are paths
Yes.
If G acts on X by sufficiently coherent equivalences, then you can form an X bundle over BG. Call the total space E. You get a fiber bundle X->E->BG, which you can think of as an extension of groups loop X -> loop E -> G. If the action of G on X preserved the base point, then there is a section BG -> E corresponding to a splitting of the group extension
Loop E = loop X semi G
(Loop = Omega = based loops)
i dont understand
The homotopy category of based, connected spaces is equivalent to the homotopy category of topological groups. The inverse functors are Omega, based loops, and B, the classifying space.
Once you know that, you can import any concept from group theory into homotopy theory
Do you have a reference for this claim?
its true that (infinity categorically) grouplike E_1 spaces are equivalent to connected spaces
but I don't know if this implies what you've said
In particular I assume you need to impose homotopy categories on both sides, at the very least?
it follows from the universal property but also its not hard to show there is only one map making that diagram commute
wait how else would you show it?
by hand
wouldn't any other way just be making the universal property just explicit?
yeah, but you don't need to know its universal
like, as sets there is only one map making it commute
and you can show this is continuous
Actually wait
it's just k([x]) = [i(x)] right?
Sorry, I am a bit out of it today. I don't think this follows from the universal property because its not a priori obvious the two equivalence relations are compatible
wait what
yea
I was thinking the wrong map
nah you're fine lol
its the universal property applies to g\circ i
ye
yes
universal properties are always the best part of learning any part of math
oh that same proof says that S^2 / ~ is "easily seen to be Hausdorff"
on an actual sphere, that makes sense
but with the relation described how do I actually show this?
I think theres a common trick
where you show that like
the action identifies neighborhoods
so like
action?
oh sorry identification
So like, I have two classes in S^2/~ i want to show are separated by open sets
and I do this by picking lifts
and picking compatible open neighborhoods in S^2
and then projecting back down
and arguing they are still disjoint
ah makes sense
I think the fact that S^2 is a metric space makes this particularly nice
yeah all i mean to say is like
R^3?
and the distance between the two points
yea the distance part was throwing me off cause I didn't realize it was a metric
so I was trying to figure something out
I think you don't actually need to invoke it
So use that statement instead. Morally, grouplike monoids are groups and you could substitute them for any application, such as semi direct products
It should be fairly easy to prove that the inclusion of topological groups into group like monoids is fully faithful, leaving the question of what is the image. But it includes K(pi,n), so it has everything
Or you could construct a version of loops valued in groups. That’s the Kan loop group
Well, a grouplike E_1 space isn't a topological space
its a homotopy type with structure
So there's not an "inclusion" of topological groups
Basically I don't know how to make any statement of this kind at the level of topological spaces, only up to coherent homotopy
A group isn’t a property, either
huh?
My point is just that I think you lose all "up to homeomorphism" type data
I only know the statement at the level of infinity categories (or model categories)
I'm mostly asking bc I am curious if there is a strictification of this result its not something ive seen
E1 is a structure. A monoid is also a structure, in fact an E1 structure, so there is an inclusion of monoids in E1 spaces
Are you aware of strictifying E1 spaces to associative monoids? You just need an associative structure on Omega, namely the Moore loops
Yeah, you can take Moore loops, but I don't think this gives the equivalence of categories you wanted?
I was a bit confused about the claim, honestly.
This isn't my objection it was about whether you are dealing with topological spaces or not
Like, one one side I am suppose to have the homotopy category of topological groups and on the other side I am supposed to have 1-connective topological spaces?
(also E_1 spaces are not the same thing as loop spaces)
The homotopy category of pointed connected spaces
Okay, so the claim is that $\Omega: \mathrm{hTop}_{\geq 1}\to \mathrm{hTopGrp}$ is an equivalence?
themaxj
I guess its not even clear to me that functor lands in hTopGrp at all
There are two steps. I separated them. One step is strict associativity. The other is inverses. That step is the Kan loop group. But you complained about the other step as well, and about ten other things, none of which I could tell what it was

Sorry I am still just trying to understand the claim, and along the way you've said some stuff I couldn't quite parse
But maybe this isn't worth spelling out if you're not wanting to clarify
I was just curious bc your original claim seemed much stronger than the result I knew
You know that there’s a map in the other direction, B. You know enough to prove that it’s an equivalence without even using the Kan model
My issue is understanding what categories we are meant to land in because this is kind of technical
So I start with a topological group BG and I can assign to it a connected space BG, I guess we are saying the model for B isn't all that important
I can also go backwards by taking loops
But I am not sure these two functors are inverse without at least being more careful about the domains and codomains
Like I don't think that B is essentially surjective onto connected spaces?
I'm also not sure what model for loops takes a connected space to a strict topological group
this latter point might just be ignorance
First show that it is fully faithful. Then show that it hits K(pi,n). Use some closure property to show essentially surjective
Do you have a reference? I am saying I don't see how this works.
I’ve told you the name of the model more than once
No, I don’t believe in references
lmfao what
I believe in exercises
thats unhinged
anyway, you've said both kan loops and moore loops, I am not sure what Kan loops are. Is that the correct thing to google?
I'm not even saying you're wrong I just am trying to figure out the claim you've made lol
the only references I can find to kan loops are about simplicial sets?
Then prove that simplicial groups are homotopy equivalent to topological groups
Wait, so we aren't actually landing in topological groups?
You could've mentioned lmfao
Sure we are
Can you explain your functor from connected topological spaces to topological groups then?
I am actually not sure if this is true either
hey there, anyone free ? i have a question
Just ask your question
Is there a general way to represent knots on double torus? We know it for knots on toruses of genus 1. similarly is it possible for double torus knots?
Wdym? Embeddings of circles on a genus two surface? Or maybe the genus 2 handlebody?
Yes!
it's called the wirtinger presentation
Tho it's more general than what you mention
yeah its for the fundamental group right?
yes it's related to that
I'm aware of it for knots on genus 1 torus. What is it for knots on double torus or in general genus-n body?
like i just need a direction to think, so that I can find an answer. any help appreciated
Maybe look at how many times knots cross around each of the four circles in T^2#T^2?
So it would be parametrized by like 4 integers
hmm, I'll try that. thanks for the idea
Hello I need some help 😭
Why is this funny formula called cocycle? More specifically, what is the "chain complex" associated with this formula, thus living up to its name of cohomology group.
Appendix C should answer the specific question
Unfortunately Appendix C only provides routine and unenlightening def of cohomology for both group and lie group, and no mentioning of what's Ad* doing right here at all 🥲
That’s just the name of the representation
Ad means the representation of G on g. Ad* means the representation of G on g*
It is also the name of the action of G on G by conjugation. There is only one action of G on g, but in some descriptions of g it looks like conjugation. If you think of g as left invariant vector fields, it doesn’t look like conjugation, but if you think of it as the tangent space at the identity, the easiest way to see an action is conjugation
What are the maps associated to each of the hopf fibrations? How does one prove that R^n is a division algebra over R --> S^n-1 is an H-space?
Don't you need a normed division algebra?
But then you can just restrict the thing to S^(n-1)
I'm not sure if you can prove that implication directly
yea normed. does there exist a nice reference to read about the proof?
Proof of which statement exactly?
The hopf fibration S^2n+1 -> CP^n just associates S^2n+1 with the unit sphere in C^n+1, then applies the standard projection.
R^n is a normed division algebra over R --> S^n-1 is an H-space
Ah I think this is actually slick let me see
I think you just use the assumptions to note that restricting the product to the unit sphere gives the desired structure
To further answer @uncut fulcrum’s q: to get say the map S^7 -> S^4 with fiber S^3, you can see it as
S^(4n+3) -> HP^n where HP is quaternionic projective space. n = 1 gives the desired map
Similarly for octonians
(These four maps for R,C,H, O with n = 1 are generally what I see people referring to as the Hopf fibrations)
Oh yes this helps a lot, thank you so much!
Im not the most familiar with topology so this actually really helped me get an algebraic view
When I was looking at the S^3 -> S^2 situation i viewed as like 1 -> Stab_G X -> G -> G \cdot X -> 1, and was mostly looking to see if all of these things are like that
Like through orbits and such
I'm actually still getting a bit stuck: I've computed that S^0, S^1, S^3 are the only spheres that are Lie groups (is this right?), so i dunno what to do with S^7
S^7 is a Lie group sooo
wait wut. what'd i do wrong. I got that H^1(S^7, R), H^3(S^7, R) are both zero.
hmm ig then it works
S7 is not a group. The octonians are not associative, so they don’t form a group. Writing down the Hopf map and OP2 is tricky
Does there exist a way for me to view it more algebraicly?
Or should I just use the regular way of projection maps
Oop this was my fault!
The fact that non-associative spaces exist…
Cursed
Interesting fact about spheres in this same vein: spheres are the only H-cogroups which are also manifolds
(Can be weakened co-H space actually)
can I show that f:[0,2pi)->S^1 defined by f(x) = (cos(x), sin(x)) is continuous just from the categorical properties of the product topology and subspace topology?
Since cos(x) and sin(x) are both continuous from [0,2pi)->R, we get that h=(cos(x), sin(x)) is continuous from [0,2pi)->R^2. Additionally, the inclusion map from the subspace S^1 to R^2 is continuous.
I feel like f being continuous should follow immediately from h being continuous to the product topology and the range of h being contained in S^1
Yes
It’s not enough to know that the map from S1 to R2 is continuous. That would be true even if you have S1 the discrete topology. What you need to use is that the topology on S1 is the subspace topology
it being the subspace topology is equivalent to the inclusion map being continuous
I know that if f:A->B is continuous and f(A) \subseteq C and i:C->B is continuous, then h:A->C defined as h(a)=f(a) is continuous by the topological argument that h^{-1}(U_c) = f^{-1}(U_b \cap C) = f^{-1}(U_b), but I want to be able to phrase this in a more general categorical language
i.e. just proving universal properties about f, i, h using topology and letting the rest follow categorically
I'm not really experienced with category theory so I'm not sure how it would look
also if g is f^{-1], how would I show that g^{-1}([0,pi)) is not open. We can compute g^{-1}([0,pi)) = f([0,pi)) = {(cos(x),sin(x)): x \in [0,pi)} and we would try to show (1,0) is not an interior point. Except it gets a bit messy when considering open balls and having to actually choose a point in the open ball and outside of the arc. I would like to try to avoid this problem.
I know that knot theory is about embedding S^n into S^(n+2). Are there results about other situations? Like are there results about classification of g-torus Σ_g embedded into S^4? studying how torus are knotted. Also are there classification of 1-knots S^1 on g-torus Σ_g?
Yes, there’s a great theorem about embedding of CPn in CPn+1
What is the theorem called and what about situations I mentioned? I mean g-torus in S^4, and S^1 in g-torus?
Knot theory usually means codimension 2
Codimension 1 is a lot easier. S1 in a surface is indecomposable elements of the fundamental group
I don’t know a name for the theorem, but it is that there is only one embedding of CPn in CPn+1 with the standard map on homology. In particular, if you take a knotted S2n in S2n+2 and take connected sum with CPn it unknots. It cancels anything
Sounds very interesting, thank you, do you know some reference about those you said?
I think it’s an h-cobordism exercise
Thank you, I will check it out
What about torus in S^4 though… it’s of codimension 2. I just searched for some knot theory book, they discuss S^2 only. Any result about how torus is knotted in S^4? I mean there certainly exists knotted torus in S^4, I just wonder if there is some kind of classification of them.
idk what the other images have to do with anything lol
but take two groups G and H
and a map phi: G -> Aut(H)
Here I'm using spaces as groups where paths are group operations.
What do you mean by "using spaces as groups"?
I don't think that's well defined if you don't take the homotopy classes of the paths
More like using a space as a model for a group via paths
(Here I assume you're talking about the fundamental groupoid of spaces)
Yeah, just considering the loop space over a pointed topological space doesn't give you a group.
Infinity groupoid
because if you take a loop c : S^1 -> X
concatenating with its inverse loop doesn't give you the constant function at the basepoint
something similar happens with associativity
concatenation is only associative up to homotopy
H-group rather than group ig lol
Having stuff work on the nose would be too boring
Honotopy groups are a neat generalization of groups
They are examples of groups not a generalisation tho
OK continuing on
Take groups G and H and a homomorphism H -> Aut(G)
Then the semidirect product of G and H via phi is the group whose underlying set if G x H and whose group operation is (g,h)(g',h') = (g phi(h)(g'), hh')
they are not really a generalization of a group
I mean ig all groups are homotopy groups lol
but a particular case
homotopy groups aren't a generalization of groups?
they are groups
yeah, since every group G is the fundamental group of the eilenberg maclane space K(G,1)
For G commutative if n > 1 ofc
ah yeah
Well spaces are generalizations I mean
In what way do you mean
Paths within the space form a group, but it's generalized by having non identical identities between these group operations.
More structure

homotopy classes of paths form a group*
it's called the fundamental groupoid of a space
