#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 36 of 1
I start of by asserting that $\exists A, \bigcup T_i \subseteq A$ and $\exists A, A \subseteq \bigcap \tau_\beta$
dulg
How do I go from here to show that $A = \bigcap \tau_\beta$?
dulg
Can you post which problem in the book it is?
Unique smallest topology containing all the collections T_\alpha? It'll be the finite intersections
An open set is an 1-ary intersection so it contains each T_\alpha
And if T contains each T_\alpha it is closed under finite intersections and so contains the finite intersections
Do you see why this is true? @rapid lagoon
If it's for a homework you'll have some holes to fill in the argument obviously
e.g verifying that this is indeed a topology
They should be. How do you conclude that X is contractible for n = 1 when we are removing the diagonal?
it's homotopy equivalent to S¹, I was mistaken. See later msgs
I see, sorry didn't check the later messages. Will the homotopy I described work here?
so i want to prove the universal coefficient theorem, but i’ll need to cover all the basics of algtop for this (i want to write like a small thesis on this), do you guys have any good literature on this?
@urban zinc Do you mind checking my written proof for the second-countability of the line with two origins? Just writing down everything I wrote last time here
Word
quiet.
too lazy to install a tex editor and learn how to format things..
word easy...
Overleaf moment
uggy but easy...
also here [p] means the image of p?
learn it
(M is the line with two origins)
i'm goint to tell you every single time you post something written in word
LMAO
It's just the formatting thing that gives me pain
Going onto newlines and making text a certain size and bla bla bla
Speaking in TeX is the easy part 
tex >
Tbh I'm not too sure what ur doing here
Here's M if that helps
you first show that there exists an set indexed by rationals that contain p
that's okay
This is the "standard second-countable basis for R" I was referring to
Okay yeah
Your second paragraph leaves a lot of details out (like showing that what you claim is actually a basis)
Also you only say that x is in B_i
Where does the y come from?
The y comes from {-1, 1}
How did I not show it was a basis?
I first showed that given a point p in U subset M we can find a set V in U containing p
yeah
The wording of the second paragraph is kinda confusing
and
That is not the only condition for a basis?
Wait what
So if we just consider arbitrary points in M
Well the x coordinate of the equivalence class representing the point is gonna be in an open interval (with rational endpoints) in R
she said she showed that for any x in open U there exists V in the basis such that x in V subset U
But that isn't the only condition for a set to be a basis
I think a set of open sets B is a basis for the topology of M iff for every p in M and every open set U containing p, there's a set in B which contains p and is contained in U?
Oh technically I didn't do the reverse inclusion
So if we just index all those intervals
isn't there a condition that if x is in the intersection of two elements of the basis there is a third element that contains x and is entirely inside the intersection
That's implied by this
I was doing a Munkres where he names them as two different conditions
Yeah an equivalent one is that the sets of B cover M and the intersection thing you mentioned
man depression is actually impacting my ability to do math wtf
Okay tbh it's fine if you write V_i,j = {[(x,j)] : x in B_i} for j = 1 or -1
Currently you have two different sets named V_i
Oh
Otherwise I think it's good
I thought I had one named V and others named V1, V2, V3, ...
i just needed to take a while to read it
You have two different sets named V1, one corresponding to y=1 and one for y=-1
I was mostly confused about that haha otherwise it's good
keep forgorring I need to include the indices for each y
(Just make sure you can spell out the details easily if prompted, like why is that set countable, why is that set open, why can we choose a and b to be rational, etc)
Yep I totally can
Great!
Is this bad notation? 
I think it looks pretty clean but maybe not the most immediately readable :p
It seems good!
poggers
I think this does the trick?
There's the case that O_1 and O_2 are singletons but then they wouldn't be open in quotient top so it doesn't matter anyways
Maybe instead of "must also be a member" I should specify that it's a common member
equivalence class
Dw, I have seen far worse
Yeah this is fine, if you want to be more explicit I would specify that the preimage of O1 has to contain the intersection of a ball with radius eps1 with X, and similarly with O2 and eps2 so choosing x with 0<|x|<min(eps1,eps2) does the trick
Also use LaTeX!!! Overleaf is free and easy to use (of course it's not the only LaTeX setup option)
😭
After this pset
whch will be a while
I’m gonna get to the stereographic proj one in a bit
I'm starting a diffgeo reading group with some friends soon 🥺 should be fun
That one's not too bad dw
cool
INVITE? :3
It's not online sorry :(
I can tell you what sections we do though
I think we're gonna go somewhat slowly and idk if we're using Spivak or Lee
spivak DG or spivak CoM?
As a rule of thumb, Spivak

Although, for diff geo, I'd recommend Sternberg
It's a bit horrible with all the technicalities, but you'll survive
DG
For context the other ppl in the group are physics grad students
Gl
GL(n,K)
I heard a physics guy asking what a soft manifold is
Ahh, so maybe something GR?
I think they just want to review diffgeo, not specifically physics rn
how is this red-underlined part not always an equality even in the infinite union case?
I can't think of a counterexample
Is this an arbitrary topological space
yea
it's not usually equality, it's equally when the collection is locally finite
for a counter example, look at A_n=(1/n, 1]
what does locally finite mean?
good exercise to show the equality when the collection is locally finite
locally finite means each point has a nbd that intersects only finite many members of the collection
got the counter example?
uh haven't had a chance to write it out lol
okay
the difference is that 0 is not in the union of the closures of the A_n but 0 is in the closure of the unions of the A_n?
yes
I have a ``proof'' of the reverse inclusion, which of course is false but I can't find the mistake.
Suppose $x$ is in $\overline{\bigcup A_i}$. Then for all open sets $U$ such that $x \in U$ we have that $U \cap \overline{\bigcup A_i} \neq \emptyset$. Then we have that for some $A_i$, $U \cap A_i \neq \emptyset$. Thus $x \in \bigcup \overline{A_i}$. I can't see the error.
Spamakin🎷
U ∩ (∪A_i)= non empty
and you get the intersection with the union is nonempty meaning one of the U_i intersect noj trivially
yea
doesn't mean that the same set will intersect any open nbd of x
right but at least one set will, might be a different A_i for each U
but at least one
oh
nvm nvm I see
cool 
does anyone have recs for a good algebraic topology textbook?
what happens if I change "metric space" to just "topological space"
I can still show that second countable => countable dense set
but my proof for the reverse direction relies on me forming epsilon balls
is there a way to get around this or is there some counter example? I can't think of one
there is a counterexample
can't remember what it is rn but there is one...
Hmm
Is it something like this for the north pole side?
Compute the line through x = (x^1, ..., x^(n+1)) and N
Set that equal to any point on the linear subspace where x^(n+1) = 0 to find the intersection
The intersection will be (x^1, ..., x^n, 0) = (u, 0)
Then compute sigma(x), noting that since x^(n+1) = 0, you get sigma(x) = (x^1, ..., x^n)
So sigma(x) = u
plenty of counterexamples, 2^c (product of c copies of a discrete space with 2 points) is not second countable, neither are niemytzki plane or sorgenfrey line, but they all have countable density
sorgenfrey line is what you want to look at probably, its the easiest example of the bunch
R/N is another easy example
there are countable spaces with no countable bases too
there is a countable dense subset of 2^c which has no countable base at any of its points
there is another construction i can think of but its too long to be put in sentence or two
yeah what's the equation for this line?
(0, ..., 1) + t(x^1, ..., x^(n+1) - 1)
And if it passes through the subspace then x^(n+1) = 0 and you get t = 1 to satisfy the eqn
Random thought, interesting that your question is different lol must be a different edition
not quite t=1
You want the last coordinate of (0, ..., 1) + t(x^1, ..., x^(n+1) - 1) to be 0
so what value of t should you choose
Yeah that's good
And that shows that sigma(x) is what you want it to be
And then do basically the same thing for \tilde\sigma
What lol
Send the whole problem from Lee’s book? I’m away from my desktop now 
I have a different edition lol but I'm sure it's just as good an exercise
btw did you also do this one? it's cool and quick
dw those were the next questions anyways
R with right limit topology, aka Sorgefrey line
yea i gave up and googled an example and found that
I never solved Lee beyond chaper 1
I'm going through the proof of the Jordan-Brouwer separation theorem and I have some troubles with the part where they show that Σ is the set of boundary points of the bounded component U_1 and the unbounded component U_2. Specifically how is it possible that the curve gamma intersects Σ when we are essentially removing a slice of the circle (I'm thinking S^1 here) and creating a path that goes through the removed slice? The only way that R^n \ A becomes path connected is if there is a "hole" in the space homeomorphic to S^1 through which we can go through with gamma.
I never read Lee beyond chapter 1
zamn y’all some haters 
Is it possible that in a metrizable topological group G, there's an open set U and an element x ≠ 1, s.t. U = U ⋅ x ?
U = G
thanks
how come?
the empty set 
Hint: WLOG let U be a nbd of 1 then can you find an element of U.x which is not in U?
Try to generalise
i get it now, thanks
Let X be a metric space, G be the set of all elements in X × X of the form (x, x). Then is G necessarily a G_δ set in X × X?
Yes, it is
Sorry to ask some questions that are silly to you, but I do not major in math. It's not trivial to me

Strangely this feels more measure-theoretic than topology
I am tempted to say yes, but I don't see a rigorous proof. My intuition can be wrong
It's not trivial at all
Not your fault
Yes, my intuition is correct
Any hints for a starting point to derive the formula for the inverse of the stereographic projection map?
Draw a figure, and see geometrically what is happening
The rest is analogous for higher dimension
It could be an open subgroup, like Z/2 in Z/4, or SO(2) in O(2) or Z_p in Q_p
is there an easy counterexample for a net such that the filter generated by it yields a different net?
or more like what's the intuition why it doesn't necessarily yield the same net
@coarse night well?
Think of iteratively building spaces from ground up
You start with points then add lines between them then fill some lines and so on
You keep attaching higher “cells” to the previous “skeleton” of your space
For example S1 is a point and you add a line from that point to itself
I was just trying to joke that your category of Top spaces has CW-complexes as its objects : (
Actually for a serious question, can you make a category out of CW-complexes or how much do you have to extend it?
If you are willing to throw away “some spaces”
Smallest category with CW-complexes as objects nice enough to allow for the homotopical constructions of choice*
Category of CW complex is a real thing where your maps are “cellular” meaning n-skeleton goes inside n-skeleton
Also every space is weak homotopy eqv to a CW
you can use cellular approx and consider it a subcat of top
by just using cont. maps
This allows you to just work on CW spaces in homotopy theory

Every topological space meeting what criteria?
That's pretty interesting considering how batshit stuff can go
OwO
me
I said “weak homotopy equivalence”
Ah...
Looking up weak homotopy equivalence that sounds more like more of a fact about homotopy groups and their structure than the underlying spaces
Yeah homotopy groups are almost enough to classify CW spaces
Ok the almost is too vague nvm
I'm trying to find an example of pointed spaces (X, x_0) and (Y, y_0) and a map f : (X, x_0) -> (Y, y_0) such that the induced map on the fundamental groups f_* : pi_1(X, x_0) -> pi_1(Y, y_0) is surjective, but not injective. Will taking X to be the torus S^1 x S^1 and Y to be S^1 with f being the projection work here?
Yes
I'm quite lost on figuring out how to verify that the kernel of this map is not zero. I can see that it's surjective since for any loop in Y we can take the corresponding loop on either one of the factros of S^1 x S^1 and use the projection. How should this injectivity be shown?
On pi1 level you have ZxZ to Z
The loop has to on the side you are projecting onto
Or can I just say that for any loop in S^1 there is at least two loops in S^1 x S^1 which map to it
Which can never be injective
*potentially easier to realize why Z->Z^2 can't be surjective which implies Z^2->Z can't be injective
How does that implication hold?
I guess the same spaces works if we want to find the spaces for which the induced map is injective and not surjective. Taking X to be S^1 and Y to be the torus S^1 x S^1 and letting f be the inclusion map?
Existence of left/right inverses and identity being bijective?
That works for sets
But then there is a surjection of Z to Z2 as sets
Unless I’m missing something trivial
If this is true then what I proposed doesn't work
With the inclusion I mean
Right, I was assuming the part where surjectivity has been shown here for the homomorphism which would imply that it is an isomorphism, but there being no epimorphism contradicts that.
You can try much simpler example like take a 2pt set and a one pt set
If you are struggling
The fundamental group of these sets are trivial both?
Also like kerr mentioned, say you are projecting onto the first factor then any nontrivial loop in the second factor goes to 0 failing injectivity
Oh on pi1 level. That works for pi0
Suppose f_* : Z^2 -> Z is injective and surjective, then f* is an isomorphism and hence there exists an isomorphism Z->Z^2 of groups. Show that no surjective homomorphism Z -> Z^2 exists
^ that wouldve been what I meant
Injective does that mean surjective
There are special cases when this is true, like say a surjection from Z^n to Z^n implies injection hence iso
f* being an isomorphism means that there exists an inverse isomorphism, but that would be contradicting the fact that no epimorphism Z to Z x Z can exist.
Given: f star is surjective. Assume: f star is injective. Implies: there exists a surjective homomorphism Z -> Z^2.
The last thing is false, hence the assumption that f star is injective must be false as well
i dont fully understand what #4 is intuitively
what is {omega}
as in, what is the “set of the set of the naturals”
it's the set that contains the set of all natural numbers
(for context, it is an example of a topological space)
yeah but whats the importance of it
this notation shows up here too
I think it might be there to represent like an element at infinity?
so i guess 4 is supposed to mean “X = all natural numbers and the set of natural numbers itself?”
oh yeah that makes sense
I assume that's needed for some technical reason to make the topology he chose work
(probably something to do with those complements of finite sets)
(wonder why he doesnt just use N for naturals and omega_1 for first uncountable ordinal)
old notation probably
published 1993
Open subgroups are boring. But there’s another example. Take a nontrivial normal open subgroup. Take U a coset and x a point in the subgroup. Then Ux=U. Eg, U is the reflections in O(2) and x is a rotation
omega is standard notation for the natural numbers (as an ordinal)
gotcha
I guess it's just to emphasize that you should be thinking about it as an ordinal?
Do you know the set theoretic construction of the natural numbers?
So like 0 = {}, 1 = 0 \cup {0}, 2 = 1 \cup {1}, etc.
Okay yeah, omega \cup {omega} is the next ordinal after omega
(we call it the successor ordinal of omega)
there are essentially three types of ordinals: zero, successor ordinals, and limit ordinals
0 is zero (obviously), 1 is a successor ordinal, and omega is a limit ordinal
note that the successor of omega is still countable, the first uncountable ordinal is denoted by either omega1 or Omega
(and it has cardinality aleph-one)
If Y is a subset of X. How does A and B disjoint nonempty sets whose union is Y and the limpoints of A and limpoints of B are all different imply closA intersect with B is empty?
Wouldn't something like Y=(0,1]union (2,3) subset of R, and A =(0,1), B = (2,3)union{1}, be AunionB =Y and A intersect B be empty, but 1 is a limpoint of A which is in B
Assume it's non empty
Then there would exist a point x such that any nbhd of x intersects both A and B
But that would imply that x is a limit point of both A and B
Which is a contradiction
This example violates your second assumption
Namely that the limit points of A and B are different
but limpoints of A is [0,1] and limpoints of B is [2,3]
Do you mean cl(A) intersect int(B) by any chance?
I believe what you wrote doesn't hold in full generality
this is the lemma
im lookin at this part
the bottom picture is just for context
Can you send the full proof
Tho the case might be I'm just being a massive dunce
i mean this is just for the first part
and thats pretty much all
also this is right before it
o wait did i misunderstand the lemma maybe
i think it means A doesnt conatain limit points of B
and B doesnt contain limit points of A
then my example fails
ok then I think it works because, A' be the set of limpoints of A, closA intersect B =(AintersectB) union(A'intersectB)
and A int B is empty so it must mean A'intersect B is nonempty if we assume closA intersect B is nonempty
ya that makes more sense
First show that {0}×[-1,1] and {(x,sin(1/x)) | x>0} are connected so that if there were a separation, the former would have to be in one open set, and the latter would have to be in the other open set
And then show that those two sets can't be disjoint by openness
There’s a much easier way, show A connected then so is A closure, show that your set is the closure of {(x,sin1/x)}
Ok yea this was much easier since I already showed the first part
How do you recognize that this is the closure though
Show that 1) it's closed and 2) {0} × [-1,1] are all limit points of {(x, sin(1/x)) | x>0}
hint: exercise

tbf you don't actually have to show it's equal to the closure
just show all the points on Y axis is a limit point of your set, that's enough
Well yea but I mean like looking at that set
I've never proved before that set is the closure of {(x, sin(1/x)) | x > 0}
So I would have never thought to do that direction of proof
btw A connected then for any set with A ⊂ B ⊂cl(A) is connected
how did you prove it?
Prove which part?
I used discrete valued maps since they seem overpowered
ok so I'm just using the fact that any continuous discrete valued map is constant on a set iff that set is connected.
Let $X$ be a connected set and let $f\colon \overline{X} \to \{0, 1\}$ be a discrete valued map.
$X$ is connected so $f(X)$ is constant so WLOG say $f(X) = \{0\}$.
$\{0\}$ is closed and $f$ is continuous.
Thus $f^{-1}(0)$ is closed and contains $X$ and $\overline{X} \subseteq f^{-1}(0) \subseteq \overline{X}$.
Since $f$ is a discrete valued map and constant on $\overline{X}$, $\overline{X}$ is connected.
Spamakin🎷
@coarse night
ah cool that's the one I like as well
what's the proof you had in mind
oh nvm I misread what you said
ye it's slick
discrete valued maps seem like an overpowered tool but very nice
Can we speak of "homeomorphisms" for something other than topological spaces?
Like can we say that the symmetries of a geometric figure are homeomorphisms?
homeomorphisms need some sort of continuity
And the symmetries of a geometric figure, while they form a group, don't really have any continuity
What would be the open sets?
Unless I'm missing something
you might want to look at continuous group actions
It's just that you need to use the fact that the sin(1/x) bit gets arbitrarily close to the y-axis
i.e. the y axis are limit points
if you could separate them by some finite distance then it would no longer be connected
Anyone have some motivation for these relations?
I think I should add some context:
I work on Tic-Tac-Toe grids and one could say that some grids are "equivalent" or "similar" except for a few deformations. For example these two grids.
In fact, the deformations that can be applied to a grid without really "changing" it (without the position of the pawns between them changing). Exactly match the symmetries of a square.
These are just group actions, you don’t need any topology for this. ask in #groups-rings-fields
Can we call these deformations homeomorphisms even if there is no notion of "continuity"?
Doesn’t sound a very useful thing to ti define
Ok thanks, but actually I just wanted to know what word to use 😅...
Symmetries of a shape are a classic example of a group
Which would go into #groups-rings-fields
There are two answers to what is the steenrod algebra that are nicer than the original. One is Milnor’s description of the dual. The other is the formal group of automorphisms of the additive formal group
But they’re not a lot nicer
Is the steenrod algebra in that book? I don’t think so, but maybe I forget
The key miracle is that the steenrod algebra acts faithfully on the cohomology of RP^oo. This was known to Adem, if not Steenrod. Everything follows from that. In particular, it implies the Adem relations. Of course, this is circular. You have to prove them generally before you can conclude that it acts faithfully, but you could guess that to motivate the relations
The steenrod algebra is acts by hopf algebra endomorphisms of the cohomology of RP^oo. The first miracle is that it injects. The second, maybe less surprising result is that it surjects. This is maybe more conceptual and you can create cleaner calculations. But then you’re still left with the question of where did the squares come from and what their crazy relations are
I find this a bit backwards. Steenrod algebra is by definition End(HZ_2) to me. Adem relations are a computation of the algebra.
But yes, I agree that the point is all mod p cohomology operations are some combination of the Steenrod squares aka they generate
I think there might be a geometrically minded way of going about doing Steenrod squares. Write Sq of a class in a manifold in terms of the Stiefel Whitney class of the normal bundle to an embedded representative, where you can take one of the various many definitions of Stiefel Whitney classes. Then, to deduce Adem relations, use Wu’s formula, which you can deduce from splitting principle.
Of course, this only works with classes which are PD to homology classes admitting embedded representatives
Even immersed.
im going to start my undergrad thesis this coming semester and ik i want to do it on something in topology or algebraic topology but im unsure of what to do it on. my advisor and i talked about doing it on normality of topological spaces (particularly on urysohn's lemma and the tietze's extension theorem) but i dont think i want to do it on normality since he said its been done many times before. any tips?
how much algebra do you know
for a less algebraic thing
Maybe you can talk abt topological groups?
Or LCH spaces
Math aside, if you wanna do something original with an undergrad thesis, you probably have chosen the wrong discipline 😄
ik a little bit of algebra. i took an intro course on algebra (95% group theory and 5% rings) and a second course on algebra (which was 90% group actions and 10% ring theory, which still wasnt a lot)
you can talk abt the fundamental group of a topological space
ive been reading through a text i like to help me get ideas (thats where i got the idea to do it on urysohn's lemma/tietze's extension theorem) and the main reason why im unsure of whether i want to do it on that is cos the theorem is very early in the text (in the topological prelims chapter of it)
Here’s a cool result that takes some work to write a proof of. Let X, Y be compact metric spaces. If X x R is homeomorphic to Y x R, then X x S^1 is homeomorphic to Y x S^1. This has significance in the solution of the 4D topological Poincare conjecture. You can consider presenting a proof of this.
Just a thought though
This feels like a covering spaces thing
The converse sort of would be
The point is, given a homeomorphism X x R -> Y x R there’s no reason its periodic in the time direction. Ie, say f : X x R -> Y x R is a homeo, g(x, t) : X x R -> Y is projection to the first coordinate. If f(x, t+1) = (g(x, t), t+1), you’re done. Just pass to the quotient by the natural Z actions on both sides.
time = R
topological groups sound like a fun thesis
Tho depending on how you approach them they can also be hellish
they could be hellish? 💀
look up haar measure if you wanna see
realistically there are some very nice results abt topological groups that aren't that bad you can prove
regarding like how they relate to compactness and separation axioms
nothing groundbreaking but semi interesting in my opinion
topological groups sound pretty interesting
There's a part in Munkres abt them
the text i have been reading introduces them in the second chapter
but it uses a little bit of category theory
and in Folland's real analysis book in the last chapter where he develops analysis on them he starts by proving topological results abt them and that's very readable
ah that's not that bad haha
Good practice to learn more category theory
yeah i never got any exposure to category theory except for the soft intro to it in one of the appendices of the text
As somebody I know once said "category theory is something you learn privately"
It's good to have exposure but no need to force urself
I think Folland's text gives some nice results around them so you can look in there if you want
that sounds like a good read
Ah wait it actually only has one
hmmmm
The other book I know that does them is called Fourier Analysis on Number fields
But the proofs are very terse
tbh now I'm worried I don't have a good reference for you

i dont mind terse proofs
the text i referred to before is called 'manifolds, sheaves, and cohomology' by t. wedhorn
oh lol I actually ordered that like yesterday lmaooo
xddd
Okay then look at section 1.1 in Fourier Analysis on Number fields by Ramakrishnan
this sounds utterly familiar...
wow yeah who would say what a coincidence
I think I saw this exact title twice today
My hand slipped during the springer sale and accidentally ordered 4 books
your hand slipped and ordered 4 books
look bro it's 15$ per book that's like if a dude came up to you and said free crack
You aren't gonna say no
me, never bought a single book my whole life :
no
I mean neither did I but like why not
I have now slowly accumulate more books until my bookshelf is a very peculiar shade of yellow
oh wow I just now realized springer books are piss yellow
what a world
i get free pdfs of the springer books on the site xd
Thing is, I will move quite often, and it's not wise to carry Library of Congress with me
Ssssshhhh
wot
True
Last time I moved I had to carry two books in my hand for an 11h flight cuz my bags were too heavy lmao
springerlink my beloved
Tbh while I was at my last uni I just religiously borrowed books from the library
I had like 15 books out at any given time
i havent been to my school's library in a long time
having 6 books surrounding me at the moment
but sometimes a prof would let me read through the extensive library in his office
Well I'm probably gonna be localized in a single continent for the time being so no need to worry abt taking books that far
sigh my prof doesn't have a lot of books
one of my profs entire office is nothing but full bookshelves xd
and he lets me read through it sometimes
Idk why but except the classics, profs I know like to shit on books
shit on books-
Like "oh, this is wrong btw, everyone thinks so but it's actually wrong"
anybody have an idea?
what is the closure of S
imagine using that notation for subset
I think drawing the set would help a lot
try to draw it out. it's drawable, and the answers are immediate once you draw it out
yes
okok tysm
my guess is {(1/n, 0): n ∈ N} U {(0, 1/m): m ∈ N}, am i correct?
o
nvm
you're missing a point
b) es vacio
Here is my answer: (a) is S, (b) is empty set
I can explain in details what you wany
if you combine all the answers given here for part (a), along with the hint, you have it
the power of friendship fr
Can someone here explain what is meant by some homology groups having torsion elements?
Torsion elements are elements of finite order.
What does this mean in the context of homology, does H_1(S^1) have torision elements as even though it's isomorphic to Z that has no finite order elements, but going looping around it multiple times is essentially the same as looping around once?
As you said Z has no elements of finite order so it is torsion free. I don’t know what you mean by looping around multiple times is the same as looping around once.
Z has no torsion.
Torsion elements are detected by torsion groups, Tor^1(G,Z/p^k)
Looping around multiple times is not the same as looping around once, the winding numbers of these loops are different, even though they have the same image.
That’s basically why H_1(S^1) is Z and not Z/nZ
This makes sense. Thank you (:
On the other hand, consider H_1(RP^2) = Z/2Z. Can you see why the generator of the first homology is 2-torsion, geometrically?
I haven't computed the homology for the projective plane, but I guess it would be due to identifying the anitpodal points on the 2-sphere?
Correct. Do the computation, and then geometrically explain this phenomenon.
It’s a neat exercise
I'll do that (:
My algebra is a bit rusty, but what is the definition for 2-torsion? Is it just having elements of order 2?
Yep.
I might be very wrong here, but say I have a group G that has elements of order two, is there necessarily a subgroup of G that is isomorphic to Z/2Z?
Yes, that’s correct. Can you give a proof?
(What if G has an element of order n, where n is some arbitrary integer?)
It probably generalizes to Z/nZ. There is no requirements for G to be abelian?
None.
Sure. I'll try to workout these and the homology for the real projective 2 space, thank u (:
Here's a like funne thing I was thinking about uh like
Say you take a wedge of two spheres, or you take two circles and attach them using a line between them
The two are homotopy equivalent, but the main way I know to say this is to appeal to the theorem that we're quotienting out a contractible subcomplex of a CW complex
Is there an obvious homotopy equivalence though
Both are deformation retracts of R^2 with two points removed. Is that an acceptable answer?
Deformation retracts are annoying to write down but can be pictorially described
Okay fair enough lol. But coincidentally I was only doing this construction since it's easier to write an explicit deformation retraction of R^2 \ two points onto the latter
(I think)
Like continuity is easier to show
It also feels like this is the sort of thing that should be really easy lol
I'll think about it
Ok. Say X is wedge of two circles, Y is a pair of spectacles. f : Y -> X is the quotient map. Ill describe a candidate homotopy inverse g : X -> Y
Consider the midpoint of the nosepiece of the spectacle, and break it into two lollipops O-. Call this Z. Y is Z v Z, where the wedge point is the bottom of the lollipop stick. O—O = O- U -O
Understood
There’s a map S^1 -> Z which can be defined as follows. Let A be an arc in S^1. Fold the arc by identifying points to the right and to the left of the midpoint of A.
Wedging this map with itself gives a map g : X = S^1 v S^1 -> Z v Z = Y
I'm having trouble sort of visualising that folding map hm
Oh I misunderstood nvm
V cool thanks
To be 100% clear, if the arc A = [-eps, eps], the folding map is quotienting by x ~ -x for all x in A
I imagine there's another way to do this so like
Guys, I have a question
I'm giving a series of lectures on homology. Can I skip the treatment of reduced homology?
You basically think of sending the path traversing the spectacles to one that travels a shorter distance along the nosepiece and then goes more quickly around the edge
Reduced homology is v important and should be pretty quick to describe right
I have seen no applications, and it appears to me more like a side note
It should be pretty quick indeed, but also annoying
Just say H_0(connected space) is Z in unreduced, reducing means setting it 0
One sentence
Then move on
If you’re doing relative homology it doesn’t matter really
Because H_n(X, pt) is exactly reduced homology
Exactly my point
Yeah this makes sense
H_n(X, my point)?
good one
Surely you'll talk extensively about relative homology, so then defining reduced as a special case is easy.
is there a simple counter example I can use to show this is not true for every norm? I've been trying for a while but couldn't think of anything.
I was shocked to realize a while ago that the empty map \emptyset -> X is a fibration
lmao what
so what's the lift of a map from any non empty set?
,tex \being{tikzcd}
& \varnothing \ar[d] \
{p}\times I \ar[ur, "?"] & X
\end{tikzcd}
There’s no lift but thats the point right?
Fibration means if you have an initial lift, and a homotopy of the base, then the homotopy is liftable
But there’s no initial lift at all
oh right start with a intimal
So vacuously, the condition holds
lmao
Yeah…

apparently these are called cursed fibration
gimme a slick argument as to why orientable real line bundle on a "nice" space is trivial
By nice I mean possibly paracompact
I was going to say, choose a fiberwise Riemannian metric and then take the unit S^0-bundle. This is disconnected by orientability, hence a section of this double cover gives a section of the original bundle
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4565706/an-orientable-line-bundle-is-always-trivial
I don't like this
that's a cool one
but why the S⁰ is disconnected by orientability?
I know it's true but can't make a convincing argument
Depends on your definition of orientability. If that double cover is not disconnected, its nontrivial, which means there’s a nontrivial monodromy over some nontrivial homotopy class of a loop on the base. This monodromy map R -> R switches 1 and -1, so its orientation reversing
What this proves is a three way bijection: real line bundles on X <-> double covers of X <-> Hom(pi_1(X), Z/2) = H^1(X; Z/2)
First is unit S^0-bundle wrt some metric, second is monodromy of the double cover
last one comes from the classifying space?
otherwise I don't see the bijection
By last one you mean (1) <-> (3)? That’s just composing (1) <-> (2) and (2) <-> (3)
These two are bijections, so is their composition
If you pick a line bundle L from (1) and push it all the way to (3), what you get is w_1(L), the first Stiefel Whitney class
So w_1 is just checking if a line bundle is trivial on a loop on the base or not.
For a general vector bundle E, you can go to the orientation bundle or the top exterior power \Lambda^k E (k = rk E) which is a line bundle, and then take its w_1
Thats what w_1(E) is
yeah so It just checks the orientability
Yup
And if its not orientable, along which loops is it not orientable
There’s a similar interpretation for w_2, but an order of magnitude more complicated
It checks if a bundle is “spinnable” or not
I might try to find what I had lol
Ty
Do i just try different points and see if they fit the criteria for limit points
Well it should hopefully be clear what the answers are if you draw a lil picture or smth
So then you just need to prove specific points are in it / not in it yeah
as in, draw something cartesian, like a [0, 1] by [0, 1] sqaure
yup
but im slightly confused because an answer im looking at says that the only limit point is {(0, 1)} which im having difficulty parsing
Ok. Drawing a picture helps, but be mindful of what your open sets are. They’re horizontal/vertical intervals (but something a little more subtle at the edges)
hm i see
wouldnt every neighborhood of the point (0, 1) not intersect any point of A
This is why I said you should be careful with the edges
For example, (0, 1) < (1/2, 0). And everything in between forms an open set.
Draw these sets
Theres nothing interesting happening on the other side, stuff smaller than (0, 1).
Open sets in the ordered square are made up of open intervals (a, b) x (c, d)?
would appreciate some more guidance
am self studying so probably am missing some fundamental things
No, that’s just the product topology
would drawing this set look like a horizontal interval and a vertical interval overlapping at (1/2, 1)? or am i completely missing it
Ah i see
Open sets are generated by intervals in the lexicographic ordering
In the lexicographic ordering, (0, 1) < (1/2, 0), yes?
So what’s the interval which has those as endpoints
In 1d?
Ah
(a, b) where a is larger than 0 but smaller or equal to 1/2, and b is 1 ?
Are you sure?
Hmm, yeah ok that sounds right
I’m a bit confused about the b = 1 part
It’s union of all the vertical segments {a} x [0, 1] where 0 < a < 1/2, together with the endpoints, no?
Ah yup
What does {a} x {0, 1} mean precisely? I can sort of guess what you mean but am confused
How does that resemble a verticle segment
And side question - in the product topology open sets would resemble overlapping rectangles geometrically right
{a} x [0, 1] means all the points whose first coordinate is a and the second coordinate is anything between 0, 1 (0, 1 included)
Got it
So thats a vertical segment right?
Yup
Well anything that can be written as an arbitrary, possibly uncountable, union of (possibly overlapping, yes) rectangles
Even the open disk is an open set
It’s the same as the Euclidean topology, which you can prove
Hm i see
Now, write down all the open intervals in the lexicographic ordering containing (0, 1) and show that they necessarily contain points of the form (1/n, 0) possibly for large n
Unlike the Euclidean topology, the open intervals sort of hit the top of the edge of the square and reappear out of the bottom edge of the square and keep doing this ad infinitum
Like this is an open interval in the ordered square. The vertical segments are uncountable in number, indexed by real numbers in between the first coordinates of the endpoints
so these come up naturally or just counter examples
Ok i think i got it
Perfect!
Every neighborhood of (0, 1) can be written as [ (0, a), (b, c)]. a has to be smaller than or equal 1 to contain (0,1), and b has to be greater than 0. c can be arbitrary.
each of those neighborhoods intersects with A at some point other than (0,1), and therefore is a limit point.
Now that you mention it, I’m getting some funny ideas. I’ll say in a bit
don't tell me they come up in foliation
What I was confused about is if (0, 1) was a limit point, why (0, 1/n) wouldnt be one too. but if (0, 1/2) is x, then there exists a neighborhood of that point that doesnt intersect A at all and therefore isnt a limit point
Exactly
No problem!
OK so
Take the strip 0 <= y <= 1 in Euclidean topology, and consider the foliation by irrational slope line segments y = sqrt(2) x + c, c in R
Grr, this doesn’t work!
I was going to try to produce the order topology on that domain by some foliations construction but I don’t think this is possible anymore
I tried for a bit to find a natural occurrence, but couldn’t. So, not sure.
They’re kind of pretty though
foliations lol
Actually I think im missing one other thing
Every neighborhood isnt encapsulated by [ (0, a), (b, c)], because what about sets like [ (0, 1/2), (0, 1)] which is an open set of I^2 that has (0,1), but doesnt intersect A at all
That’s not an open interval
Closed intervals contain endpoints, open intervals dont
The valid open interval would be ((0,1/2), (0,1))
précis
right - because closed intervals are never open sets at least in this order
ty again
Does anyone here do knot theory?
I have an oral exam where I have to talk about a theorem of my choice, and was wondering if there's any particularly deep and profound result.
This is pre-Thurston knot theory or post-Thurston
ie Rolfsen type thing or more geometry infused
the last time I answered this question my advanced access was revoked
If the former, I was going to say Papakyriakapoulos’ theorem
Corollary: Knot complements are K(G, 1)
But thats a very old theorem
I know there are Floer, Khovanov and Khovanov-Rozansky ring
Oh you want to do some modern knot theory
WHAT DID YOU SAY
But to me it's only for classifying knots. Not particularly profound, idk.
Dude I have like 1/18th of your brain cells and even I haven’t gotten my Advanced removed (somehow)
Wtf did you say for that to happen 😭
I should specify. They're all insanely profound, no doubt
"not to brag, but I know how to tie my shoe laces with a knot. so yes, I would consider myself a knot theorist nvm this is adv"
But I need a precise statement. Something that accumulates to one theorem
mad unfunny
your mum is mad unfunny
Remove adv access again
I will drive over timo's dog if he does that
Well, Thurston’s hyperbolization of knots which arent torus knots or have satellite components is super important and part of geometrization conjecture
but hardly something you can present in one lecture…
Lol, I have 15 minutes 😄
And no, this time it's not a lecture. It's an oral exam.
I'll be murdered tested on the blackboard.
I can assume any background I want, just that I wanna impress the examiners a bit.
I’m confused. You’re presenting a specific topic, and they’re going to grade you on that?
They're gonna see if they admit me or not
Grad school application stuff, you know

Oh ok
Yeah so you should probably present things which are way more modern than that
3-manifold topology is over
I heard some guy presented Lefschetz's fixed-point some years ago, so apparently I can expect a very high level
Oh ok thats not too bad
It's OK 😄 not like I'm defending my PhD 
That’s not high level imo
How many years do you have to prepare
Hmm
Dw, I learn fast
And I have background in alg topo and basic knot theory.
Euhm, "basic"
There's also this recent result by Bayer-Fluckiger for an integer to be a signature of a 4q-1 knot in S^(4q+1), but I'm afraid I'll get myself annihilated with high dimensional topo
How about Milnor fibrations? Certain knots are fibered, as in their complement can be written as a surface bundle over a circle with fibers being Seifert surfaces. They arise sometimes as singularities of complex polynomials eg z^2 = w^3 in S^3 \sub C^2 is a trefoil knot, and the map S^3 -> S^1, (z^2 - w^3)/|z^2 - w^3| is the fibering
Theres some extensive results on which knots are fibered.
So specific
Ohhh, I heard about this one today, like building a knot from singularities of curves or something
Yeah
Hmm, this might work actually
Milnor has one or two nice papers
In general he has an archive 😄 this man writes really well
Agree!
Here’s a high dimensional knot theory result. Every knot S^2 -> S^5 is the unknot
Theres a critical dimension for S^n -> S^m
You need the h-cobordism theorem for this
Hmm, this' gonna be a tough one to choose
Do you know the slice-ribbon conjecture
I certainly don't
In the mathematical area of knot theory, a ribbon knot is a knot that bounds a self-intersecting disk with only ribbon singularities. Intuitively, this kind of singularity can be formed by cutting a slit in the disk and passing another part of the disk through the slit. More precisely, this type of singularity is a closed arc consisting of inte...
Keep in mind that I just started learning knot theory 2 weeks ago, don't expect much
Its all good, slice ribbon is a very important still open problem
Since you were annoyed about having so many invariants and not knowing what to do with them, I think Alexander polynomial detects if a knot is slice
There's also one about if Jones' polynomial detects an unknot
But they go really, really deep, and I can't find good intro to the problems
Jones is a very modern and hard invariant, IMHO. I don’t really understand what it means.
I forgot that its open if Jones detects unknots
Alexander polynomial is a super nice invariant. Lots of geometry involved
There are many interpretations of it
But for jones', if I wanna go beyond skein relation, I have to dig very, very deep
Yes
Also, isn't it ironic that ppl were correct the whole time? Knots don't represent elements, but they do represent(-ish) the fundamental particles.
Uhm, do they?
don't string theorists love this stuff?
Iirc, the idea is small strings loop, knot, vibrate somehow to make the particles
I think they don’t care particularly about knottedness of strings. I think strings are just models for a fundamental particle inasmuch that they have vibrational modes which means that the energy spectrum is discrete (roughly), and that there’s some conformally invariant measure associated to their trajectories, which are 1+1 = 2 manifolds so Riemann surfaces
And then they can do their QFT crap with this conformally invariant theory
I’m not a physicist but this is my impression
I wonder how feather would react to this
This is sure as hell a lot of buzz words
I can explain what I mean by the words but itll only make me sound more stupid
As if we be not already
Take an actual physical string, hold the two ends. The waves made here satisfy the wave equation, and theres fundamental harmonics right
These are the discrete energy levels
Thats essentially why one would model a particle on a string, because energy is quantized in this hypothetical model
Plus, when a string traverses the spacetime, it lays out a worldsheet (a particle traversing in spacetime lays out a worldline in special relativity)
In SR or GR in general the worldlines are geodesics, satisfying the geodesic equation. So they should satisfy something in string theory also, yeah?
Essentially, they should be minimal surfaces.
This is the basic idea
Except, there’s no definite trajectory for anything after quantum mechanics. So every worldsheet is possible its just that some are weighted more based on if they’re close to satisfying the minimal surface equations or not
This is the “path integral measure” e^iS/h d\sigma on all possible worldsheets, where S is something that tells you what this weight is (its called the action)
Holy 😄
If you have to compute probability of certain physical events, you chug its pdf in the Feynman path integral, integrate with respect to e^iS/h d\sigma, and get your probabilities out
If someone not well-respected tells me this, I'll say sober up and go touch some grass.
Hard to believe one can formalise all of this
One can’t
Intuitively it makes sense, but I can't imagine the math involved
Much of QFT and by extension, string theory, is complete batshit
Well, they proved something along the line of the dimension of the strings must be of a particular number for the theory to be consistent
So I guess there's some logic in there
Dimension of the spacetime the strings are in yeah. That falls out of having to have a certain path integral converge iirc lol
You need an extra 11 complex dimensions, along with the 4 existing
Lmao, that's it?
I think so
I thought it was something more profound
Theres a factor of (d-11) as coefficient in front of some badly diverging path integral, if I remember correctly
So they just set it to be 0 lol
Bruh, and ppl actually hope to get something useful out of this
The cool thing of course is that if you do assume all of this, you get that the spacetime is R^4 x CY where CY are extremely special 11 dimensional complex manifolds
Theres some neat math that comes as fallout but idk about the way they get there lol
But again, I’m no string theorist
Actually, where did it come from?
I know the Kauffman bracket interpretation, but it seems somehow arbitrary
It comes from Witten successfully computing a specific path integral for Chern-Simons theory
Yeah, thats the origin of Jones polynomial
Yep, you cam look at the original paper
How do I go about deriving this formula for the inverse in part (b)??? Just a hint for where to start off...I don't really understand what it's doing geometrically
I can prove bijectivity but I just don't understand where that formula comes from
More drawing, feather, more drawing
A very good picture can be found from Milnor
John Milnor, Analytic Proofs of the "Hairy Ball Theorem" and the Brouwer Fixed Point Theorem. The American Mathematical Monthly, Vol. 85, No. 7 (Aug. - Sep., 1978), pp. 521-524 (4 pages)
I know what the map from S^n{N} -> R^n does geometrically
It just takes a point on the domain across the line segment intersecting the point and the subspace where x^(n+1) in R^(n+1) = 0
So I'm trying to invert that in my head
I'm making mental drawings? 😭
So youll join a line on the hyperplane x^n = 0 to the north pole, and intersect that with the sphere
Maybe I should try it on S^1 instead of S^2 lol
S^2 is my goto when I think sphere
Good idea, S^1 is better
So I just need to invert the secant line between a point on the unit circle and the x axis? O.o
Here's my rough drawing of it
YOUR rough drawing?!??~?~?
first of all
YUO DREW THAT?!
second of all
YOU DREW THAT JUST NOW?!?
forgive my hand writing, it was from an old lecture of mine on Poincare-Miranda theorem
Find the equation for a line through (u,0) and N
And find where that line intersects the sphere
And then you get the formula for sigma^-1
When you lock yourself with geometry long enough, you become proficient at drawing 
Oh duh…
I can see your proficiency
Ok I looked the OG paper up, heres what the Jones polynomial actually is youll love it
Idk why I was trying to consider the line between the preimage on the sphere and (u, 0)
The whole point is the image is relative to the north pole
Apparently I didn't lock myself long enough
Here's another though
I'm patiently waiting
Take the trivial bundle S^3 x SU(2) -> S^3. For any connection A on this principal bundle, consider the (Chern Simons functional) quantity CS(A) = \int_{S^3} tr(A \wedge dA + A \wedge A \wedge A). For any knot K in S^3, define the Wilson loop operator (known as holonomy to mortals) W(K; A) = Tr e^{i\int_K A}.
The Jones polynomial, upto appropriate normalization, is Z(K; t) = \int e^{i t CS(A)} W(K; A) dA
You integrate over all connections lmao
This is the path integral
Wheel of Fortune, final round: find the following word
ho_o_o_y
Its the expected holonomy of a randomly sampled SU(2)-connection along the knot LOL
where no one knows what expectation means
exactly
Huh, this is not so bad somehow
Yeah
straight from statistical thermodynamics theory
I think this sounds right
Its the same as the Boltzmann distribution except this ones nonsense
ok no i'm not sure it's quite right.
you have the Boltzmann distribution to be summing over e^(-1/(RT) * something simple)
Where R is the gas constant and T is the absolute temperature
or maybe it is like a quantization of a boltzmann distribution?
Yeah, I think physically this t is integer
does negative integer t have physical meaning too?
This has to do with CS(A) being well defined upto integer multiples of 2pi for gauge transformations
I'm surprised that somehow this can be boiled down to Kauffman's bracket for dummies
It surely took a genius
I think the main theorem in Wittens paper is that the skein relation is true
He proves that without computing the path integral
which of course no one can do because shit dont make sense lol
No shit
I haven't read the whole conversation, but the historical origin of Jones polynomial I believe is via von Neumann algebras. He was creating a tower of von Neumann algebras, and each algebra was generated by some generators, which obeyed certain relations. Similarity among these relations and the relations among the generators of the Artin braid group was pointed out by a student to Jones during a seminar. Jones then thought about it, corresponded with Birman, and then arrived at his polynomial by defining a trace function on his algebras.
Also, why should it be a knot invariant? The most standard proof is via Reidemeister's moves, which is in no way enlightening
Oh wow
doesn't "expected holonomy" answer this?
I certainly don't know what a holonomy is
if you have a vertical piece of wire and an electron does a loopy about it then its “phase changes”
well look at this integral defining W(K;A).
look up the Abramanov Bohm effect
idk if the spelling is right
this is what holonomy means
And here I am, thinking i'm done with physics
mathematically its just integrating a closed not exact form about a loop
and getting a nonzero answer
idk quantum physics or knot theory, so here's a naive question: is it fruitful in math and/or physics to study "free energy" log(Z(K; t))/t in this setting?
youd have to ask someone whod know, maybe physics stackexchange
i have no idea but sounds like a good q
Im just here to trash talk dA
Interesting, I don't even know there's such a thing as free energy log(Boltzmann)/t
Only know the formulae because it shows up in Molecular Biology
oh idk what physicists call it.
log Z is free energy yeah
some people call it pressure which is ridonkulous
physicists are mad trash
idk i think path integrals are good.
What's even an interpretation of that in general setting then?
no idea.
I have no background in statistical physics, so...
Well, I guess I know what I'll spend my summer on
i just know that it shows up in math for somewhat uninteresting reasons: if the partition function looks like exp(constant/temperature) then you need to take log and divide by 1/temperature to get something asymptotically nontrivial.
my feeling is that since mathematicians have had some success defining "infinite-dimensional lebesgue measure" in various contexts, there should be some good intuition to be had by formally computing with path integrals.
thought it's a topology channel
Im wrong, derivative of log Z wrt \beta is energy
It got spilled over from knot theory
by “defining” i mean “working around the inherent meaninglessness of.”
It seems its up on the air what exactly is allowed when computing a path integral, and these physicists just ignore everything and throw their bag of tricks at it
I have lost count the number of times I got mad over their non-rigour
Which is why one gets crazy stuff like 1+2+3+… in their crap
yes but i’m saying it seems ok to me to sometimes take their physical intuition on faith.
Jacobi notation flying everywhere
i think renormalization shouldn’t be so scary to mathematicians!
Yeah, they showed that it is actually -1/12 and consistent with Casimir effect
from 2006 iirc
i have seen renormalizations you wouldnt believe
NON INTEGER dimensions
come on
theres a limit to craziness
lol i've seen that stuff too.
well aren't they interpreting "dimension" as "scaling exponent?"
yeah think so
maybe they overheard Mandelbort
and thought it might be cool to bring some fractals
i think that should be fine for a mathematical audience, within reason. i'm of course not advocating for abandoning rigor in math, just saying that i think suspension of disbelief can be useful for getting some feeling for what "should" be true.
it goes both ways
i say all of this openly of course
imagine physicist trash talking maths
sometimes its well deserved
I don't mind the intuition approach to math or physics, but it has to make sense and brings some reasonable, testable result
a lot of what we’re discussing is experimentally verified lol.
Euler solved Basel's problem by doing what he was not supposed to do, but this is a new level
Yeah, but they don't justify why it's true
im ok with a bit of trolling tbh
i just think i should get the pass to trash talk also
what?
as long as thats the deal i dont care if physicists are writing d^s f where f varies over all smooth functions and s is a quaternion
how do they actually define it though?
interdisciplinary trash talk is goated
but maths have the free pass to trash talk anything
This is why I learn enough of everything to shit talk about anything
anything nok rigor
"define" seems like the wrong mindset, no?

i agree tho
afaict the entire point is to develop models with predictive power. if you write down a formula that matches real-world observations, within some tiny error, you win the nobel prize in physics.
mathematicians would do well writing things less precisely and talking about it like its experiments
arnold style
Also, I just remember we also have fractional calculus


