#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 35 of 1
actually wait i have an example
And look at P2
Oh god
Cool so you already know the homotopy
Look at my problem cuz it's more complicated
Sent it for ease
P2
You have a 3-cell glued along the identified faces as can be seen
(also don't look at my answers lol I think I messed it up cuz I was rushing)
yeah something like that
but let's focus on the 3-cell now
the 2-cell and 1-cell are the same thing
for the 3-cell
like same process right
yea
just be careful when quotienting and you'll be good

not gonna work it all through just wanna know the 3 cell stuff
degree? 
i only know degree of like antipodal map lol
notice that the 3-cell is attached to the same 2-cell twice
but once it's rotated + mirrored
i see
i was gonna say, rotation is the same as the 2 cells to 1 cells right
(you can see this if you draw like a loop going one way in the 2-cell to find the orientation)
So what you have
is that your orientation is shifted on the other attaching to the same 2-cell
so when computing the degree
remeber that the degree is just the sum of local degrees
so here your local degree is like 1 and -1
Where the - minues from the orientation reversal
so the total degree is 0
and thus the map is 0
(Here we refer back to that original definition of a cellular boundary map that's horrible but needed)
Also seb isn't it like 6am for you 
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 06:56 AM (EDT) on Wed, 10/05/2023.
exam at 9
have you slept at all???
i went to bet at like 10 and woke up at 4 yeah
lol ok then
better than staying up late and not remembering anything
it's my first time trying this actually, i usually stay up late but i like this more
but im fucking hungry
lol yeah
Hello! I have a problem trying to prove this rigorously. Let $X$ be a set and $\mathscr{B} \subseteq 2^X$. Define $\mathscr{B} = {{x} | x \in X}$. Show that the topology generated by $\mathscr{B}$ is equal to $2^X$. The first step that I did was apply the theorem that the topology generated by a basis is just the collection of all arbitrary unions of elements of the basis set. Intuitively, the collection of arbitrary unions of singletons is just the power set but I am having trouble putting this thought rigorously. Can someone help?
kolybelnaya
I mean you can do like inclusions
to show equality
sure
sure
Okay uhhh
I feel like for the latter two you don't have to use either of those lol
for the first one sure
if you want to I can give you some more interesting MV/SvT problems
i mean i just wanna get the process clear in my head before the exam lol
we can do T # T
or P #P
@novel acorn 
Mmmm
can we do P # P if that's good for SVT
yeah let's to the T#T
ok sure
idk it doesn't matter really but P#P is uh weird lol so I feel more comfy doing T#T
Yeah so take A = T^2\D^2 and B is the same thing
minus a disc?
yea
i had seen a different way
I mean that's how T#T is defined
oh but i guess they intersect at a disk
they intersect at a circle
Since it's not filled in
OK so you have that A and B are homotopy equivalent to S^1VS^1
and the intersection is homotopy equivalent to a circle
(Rigorously you have to add a bit more each part to make it open iirc)
i know fundamental group of that wedge is Z * Z
first
mental check
Is the intersection path connected
yeah
oui oui baguette
Cool OK so
now using SvK what do we get as our fundamental group
(don't calculate it explicitly just give me a quotient)
it's this free prod itself quotient the commutator?
free product if funky
yea

yeah lol
This is how I'd do it haha
but i think coming up with U and V on the spot is up to god
for an arbitrary space
in any case then
it's usually pretty easy to see
at least idk
mayer vietoris 
that was the easy part for me haha
Yeah MV uh I'll let you try now that I went over this
(if you remember how MV goes haha)
yeah like i said ive gotten by just kinda doing the homeworkss
they take forever but it's gotten me by
plus undergrad curve
It means H with coefficients in Z
this problem fucked me up lol
but i understand it better now 
actually no i dot
this needs tensor stuff right
no not really
it can but that would be a hassle
ignore the tensor part
for you that means
"take the coefficients mod bla"
yeah
Just always remember that it'd mod 4 or whatever
also this is a case where you really have to be careful with the quotients cuz they're p non trivial
G is a topological group, U, V, W are open sets such that U·V⊆W, then do we have V⊆W?
I don't believe that is true generally
Take the group to be R\{0} with multiplication
U = V = (-1,0)
Now W = (0,1)
but neither U nor V is a subset of W
Thanks!
S^n -> P^n just by antipodal identification right
yes
unrelated but
how can we prove that any map S^n -> S^1 is htpic to a constant map
this has to do with the fact that any n dim sphere can't retract to it's boundary right
You can compute this using the universal cover.
oh simply connected => trivial pi
The same proof that shows that paths lift uniquely to the universal cover shows that maps from simply connected spaces lift uniquely up to homotopy once you fix a basepoint.
So if X is simply connected then Hom(X, S^1) \cong Hom(X, R) \cong Hom(X, *) up to homotopy
Yes but I think you might be misunderstanding timo's argument
hmmm
Well simply connected => trivial \pi doesn't really seem like a full explanation of what's going on
fair but it's relevant to my argument so let him cook for now
But I don't know, Sebb do you understand the fact that maps from simply connected spaces to a space X lift to the universal cover?
we've been over this fact
Okay okay
You got this 

Wtf did I just read
he's charging up
that' the realest shit you'll read all day

And apparently about to try to sodomize a math test
try to?
err succeed at
Is continuous preimage of a meagre set also meagre?
good luck
Good luck on sodomizing your math exam(?) I guess
How does the proof go for showing that R^n and R^m are homeomorphic iff n = m using homology? Is it something on the lines that H_p(R^n \ {p}) = H_p(R^m \ {p}) and since we know the homology for the sphere we get that n = m?
your exam over?
yes
too many p's tho 
τ and σ are two topologies on the same space X, A is a subset of X, A is nowhere dense in τ, then is A nowhere dense in σ?
Are you sure you want absolutely no relationship between \tau and \sigma? Because then the answer is "definitely not"
σ is finer than τ
The answer is no, no nonempty set is nowhere dense in the discrete topology.
X and Y are topological spaces, f is a continuous function from X to Y, A is a meagre set in Y, then is its preimage under f also meagre in X?
You should try to figure out the answer given what we've already done
🙂
It's not a hard question, no? No offensive
But unless I'm mistaken, you can follow the def and should find it ok
I get it now
Sorry, I'm trying to prove an equality in a paper, which isn't given a proof. After trying and trying, my brain.exe malfunctioned😭
Yeah you fuck that ass Sebbb!
Could you guys find a more family-friendly metaphor here, please?
how did your exam go?
How can I prove that there does not exist a continuous map f : S^{2n} -> S^{2n} such that f(x) is orthogonal to x for all x in S^{2n} and n >= 1? I think that it's a special case of the hairy ball theorem?
Yeah I think that’s just the hairy ball theorem since if it’s orthogonal to x it can be identified with a tangent vector at x
It’s not “exactly” the hairy ball theorem unless you know that the unit tangent bundle admits a section if and only if the tangent bundle has a non vanishing section. One direction is totally obvious but it is not the helpful one.
The other direction is pretty trivial but in a first manifolds class perhaps it would be good to show it
ye this is a special case
To see equivalence with hairy ball is basically gram schmidt go brr
G is a topological group, W is an open subset, A is a subset of W, A is nonmeager. How can I prove that there are two open sets U and V , s.t. U · V ⊆ W and there are nonmeagrely many g in V such that there are comeagrely many h in U, such that hg ∈ A?
So you said that you're trying to prove some equality from some paper
Can you maybe post what you're looking at?
could someone help me understand the last part of the proof here? http://www.homepages.ucl.ac.uk/~ucahjde/tg/html/pi1-01.html
MATHM205: Topology and Groups
I don't understand this \gamma_0 and \gamma_R having different winding numbers implying n = 0
Currently self studying topology using chapter 1 of Bredon
It's nice so far but sorely lacking examples
anyone have recommendations of some sort of resource with a bunch of examples? doesn't have to be a text, online notes or whatever is fine
Extra bonus points if it has examples & counter examples for stuff
theres a homotopy between them and since winding number is a homotopy invariant \gamma_R's winding number, n, is the same as \gamma_0's winding number, 0
I'm working through this section in hatcher, and was just wondering why the order of pi tau is flipped to tau pi in the last line, after moving to homology
you are passing to cohomology
ah right
for the homology case though?
would it still be flipped or no
ah indeed it would not be flipped it seems
I'm trying to show if H_0(X, A) = 0, then A meets every path-component of X. By the definition H_0(X, A) = ker(∂_0)/im(∂_1) = C_0(X,A)/im(∂_1) = 0 so i think this says that every 0-cycle is a boundary, but I don't know why this means that A meets every path-component?
homology is a covariant functor, cohomology is a contravariant one
what does it mean to map the northern and southern hemispheres to the southern hemisphere via f?
each hemisphere of S^n is homeomorphic to D^n so you can consider f as a map on them
wdym
I haven't seen any textbook on Alg Topo with Sheaves before
So it's the worst of both
What lol


Lol do you have a question
I will come up with one, give me a moment
The Rising Sea 
Why in AT
Yeah putting aside the "why are you AG posting in TAT," there is the greater question or why are you using a version of the book which has been outdated since 2022
It’s the calm sea now
It's the pdf you would find on Google
I know because I just downloaded that exact version
Reading the first few links of Google search result? Nah, click first link no questions asked, never look back
Well, a book is a book. If I search Herstein, I will find 1st ed, and complain why it's so confusing, but to me initially, 1st and 2nd are the same anyway. Not everyone would know if there's any benefits in finding the most recent version.
Where is the Alg top in Alg geo? I am not sure how to connect them
Scroll down the Rising sea, and you'll see a bunch of cohomology 
Any good class playlists to alg top?
Im a guy who likes to use both books + classes
@abstract saffron any idea?
that's something category theory can answer you quickly
but i'll left it for you as an exercise 
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XxFGokyYo6g&list=PLpRLWqLFLVTCL15U6N3o35g4uhMSBVA2b
Also why ping a random person for this question??
can u elaborate this? i know that they are homeomorphic but what do you mean by considering f as a map on them
N = northern hemisphere, S = southern
f: D^n \to D^n
define t: N \to S to be the obvious bijection coming from reflection accross the z axis
then g: S^n \to S^n is defined by g(n) = f \circ t if n \in N and g(s) = f(s) if s \in S
this is well defined on the overlap
so t is just swapping the last coordinate x_{n+1} to -x_{n+1}?
yep
i'm lagging, how is this a map to S^n when f(t(x)) could be on the interior of the equator disc D^n which isn't on S^n?
I'm considering f as a map f: S \to S
^
so its essentially just pushing the disc to lay over the southern hemisphere and identifying D^n with S therefore
Yeah the specifics of how you do it are not so important, but that's the easiest way
a bit much packed into one word "via". soo g is not surjective and has therefore degree zero, do maps with degree zero neccessarily have fixed points?
mathematical maturity will require you to pack more and more information into things like that as time goes by
Yes, do you see why? hint: try to construct a homotopy to the identity assuming the map doesn't have a fixed point.
tteg did it wonderfully for me
Munkres
Also, why me?
I know the least amongst all the people here
you are active...
yeah but that doesn't give you an excuse to randomly ping them lol
he's gentle
and educated
and i feel good comunicating with him
need any other reasons?
excuse != reason btw
me? educated? 
I'm probably the least qualified person
well, thank you for the link anyway
It costs nothing to be a good person 🤷
I won't mind tbh, for the record. But others might not like it so much, idk
if it has no fixed point, then at least we have a homotopy to the antipodal map that has degree (-1)^{n+1}
great!
Has anyone seen feather these days?
#point-set-topology feels so strange without those questions
i think she's probably busy with exams
How can I prove that a set U is open if and only if U is equal to its interior? Is it because the interior is the union of the open sets in Y and (idk if this is true) the union of open sets has to be open?
Hint: Interior of U is the biggest open set contained within U
I can‘t understand why U can only be open if it is equal to its biggest open set, can’t it additionally have non open sets and still be open??? (Sorry i am very new to this topic)
Ok, if U is open, then U equals to its interior, no problem on that?
I get that if U is equal to its interior then it has to be open, but not the other way around
So this is what i dont understand
Let's say the interior is X. It's the biggest open set that is contained in U, so in particular, if there's another open set Y contained in U, then Y is in X.
The thing is, U is open and is contained in U, so X must also contain U
But U contains X 😄 so they are equal
Is there a book for topology that you guys would recommend?
Nice time to pirate

Here is an exercise about the closure properties of sequentially compact subsets under union and intersection in metric spaces. My question is: for (b), do we really need the condition that every set in the family is a subset of some sequentially compact subset K of X? Does it hold for arbitrary intersection (of some non-empty family) of seq. compact subsets? Every sequence in the intersection is also a sequence in each subset, and since each subset is seq. compact, obviously, the sequence has a cluster point in each one of the subsets, and therefore in the intersection
Though it is p boring
Yesterday was last exam just kinda chillin rn
Let X and Y be topological spaces; let p : X → Y be a surjective map.
The map p is said to be a quotient map provided a subset U of Y is open in Y if and
only if p−1(U) is open in X. Let X and Y be topological spaces; let f : X → Y be a bijection. If both the function f
and the inverse function are continuous, then f is called a homeomorphism. If the quotient map is also injective then is it a homeomorphism?
Yes
Any finite product of Hausdorff spaces is Hausdorff
Only one of the spaces has to be Hausdorff, right?
Oh wait
I'm dumb nvm lol
Ignore that
munkres imo is a pretty fun read and good intro to topology
but a little dry
dont tell darq
I liked the book by John McCleary
Topology and modern analysis by Simmons
man for a second there I thought you were talking abt his spectral sequence book lmao
The spectral sequence book?
If you're gonna be computing stuff it will be helpful to read it at some point.
Hey guys. Not sure if this is the right channel, but does somebody know a book or some source where i can find out more about the space of σ-finite measures on IR^d, equipped with the vague topology? Like some properties about it, separable, complete etc
Do any of you happen to know what a
2-dimensional cell complex consisting of 29 vertices (0-cells) where three or more edges meet at each vertex so that the 51 total 1-cells which are the interiors of the edges connecting these vertices give us 23 total 2-skeletons by removing the 1-skeletons from the entire space, with Euler characteristic 29-51+23=1, can be classified as
^ the same as me asking is the above description a solid definition of the House with Two Rooms (an actual question)

How are these for exercises on Chapter 1 of Lee ISM?
Tried to cover the topics in the chapter but still have things I find interesting to prove
H3 seems a little unrelated to the contents but it looks cool 
have you seen Lie groups? If not then come back to it later otherwise it'll be some ad-hoc thing which you'll forget or won't get the satisfaction
I have not, I just chose it because I know they come up later in diffgeo and I wanted to play with them now 
these aren't really that "enlightening" exercise
What should I replace it with?
All of them or the one on Lie groups specifically?
I mean showing some set satisfies some properties is never fun
the Lie group ones
other ones are good for practice
1.1 is a counter example to keep in mind
t really care about whether something is enlightening or not, just whether it's an interesting result or plays with interesting objects
okay then you can try to show they are Lie groups
It's on you but apart from that, there won't be any Lie group till chapter 6/7
there might be idk
Nah nah idm taking that out I just meant for like what to replace those problems with
for me, I don't find them to be a good exercise, I never solved them myself
but good to have an idea on how it's done
It doesn't seem related to manifolds, I just wanted to do it because I saw "Lie groups" LOL, I can wait until they're actually relevant :3
No they are integral part of manifolds depending on what you are doing
group structure on any space (or category) forces a lot of symmetry
for example S¹ ∨ S¹ is not a topological group, even though it's a topological space. Since points are not the same everywhere
nonabelian fundamental group 🤓
that's one way
haha thank you
Good luck :)
was wondering if its related to abstract algerba
ok well let's step back a second lol
We can look at topological spaces through their topological invariants, like fundamental groups
point set (the stuff covered in intro topology)
Isn't really too connected to algebra
(It can be, just look at topological groups)
But in your course you probably won't see that much algebra
it'll be more similar to analysis if anything
Ya good point
Realistically at some point you might start doing algebraic topology
And you'll see connections to algebra there
But it isn't immediate
idk tbh xd
am not so good with abs algebra but i still studied last year so maybe it could help
thank u both !
wish me good luck:')
You’ll be okay, don’t stress <3
Ironically I'm doing Munkres 
It's like, Hilton and Wylie, but better
My roommate shares my hatred toward Hatcher and Lee. Gotta thank him for the recommendation.
Also wait this might be a stupid question but
the answer is 2
No 7
So on manifolds we have this notion of two different smooth atlases defining the same smooth structure
Or at least, find a solution
,w solve y^3=x^2+118
Great solution
Imma need to learn the cubes and square fr
Anyway ||7^3 = 15^2 + 118||
Wai this is topology
Yes, more accurately they define the same smooth structure if their charts are inter compatible
Yes
That's what I was about to say, we can say they define the same smooth structure if their charts are smoothly compatible
Then we define the smooth structure generated by an atlas as a maximal smooth atlas
But you could also do it through an equivalence relation (A ~ A' if A & A are smoothly compatible)
Could you...quotient...by that equivalence?
Try "Mordell's equation". For all the small cases, the solutions are known. And Mordell proved there can be only finitely many solutions.
why are S^{n-1} -fiber bundles classified by homotopy classes of maps in BGL_1(S^{n-1})?
What’s BGL?
Not sure whatever the use of that would be (or if it even makes sense), it just kinda came to mind
what are you trying to do here?
Nothing
I guess you can define an algebraic structure?
I only learned about quotient spaces recently so now when I hear equivalence relation I just think about quotienting under it 
Yes, was about to say the same thing 
So I was just wondering if quotienting by atlases was a thing
sorry algebraic structure on the set of all smooth structures?
Me or Megu?
Mmmm wait I think that doesn't make sense actually
Don't you have to quotient by an equivalence relation on elements in your space
An atlas isn't something in a manifold, it's something attached to a manifold
oh you meant classifying space
"Let us consider the category of smooth structures..."
lmao that's the definition of BGL_1
I hear Lang lurking around
an atlas is still something in a set and your set has the equivalence relation of "two atlases are equivalent iff..."
"set of atlases for the topological manifold M" or something
🤔
Yes classifying space of GL_1(S^{n-1}). I think you can give this space the structure of a topological group
can you make a moduli space out of it?
So we can send every atlas to its equivalence class, all the equivalence classes would be the different unique smooth structures on a manifold
That's what the quotient space would be yeah?
I mean that is the definition.... what definition of BG are you using?
What's the difference?
Quotient space means you have a topological structure
I thought you read Bredon?
or algebraic, in particular quotient vector spaces
reserve "space" for when you have some kind of structure
Okay
Yes. Anyhow, we're only having equivalence classes for now
it doesn't make much sense to call something which you only know as a set a space
Yep
No I’m saying why you can take classifying space of GL_1(S^{n-1}).
Why isn't it already a space? Doesn't it inherit the quotient topology?
The construction you use for BG doesn’t matter
I don't think this is a very interesting notion, the more valuable one is: when are two manifolds with two different smooth structures diffeomorphic
Well, what are the open sets?
there are infinitely many equivalence classes of atlases on R for instance
(under this definition)
which all induce the obvious smooth manifold up to diffeomorphism
refer to my previous comment
Preimages of the smooth structures? Idk lol, more interested in what Tteg said now 
you do not have a topology on the set of all smooth structures on your space
And this is well-studied 😄
yes but i was trying to avoid giving "this is what people decided to look at" as a reason
and try to think of a more satisfying one
I'm not sure how to put it formally but in my mind it's something like "if we can go back and forth between the maximal atlases defining the smooth structures without issue", whatever that means?
i guess to some extent the whole point of the theory of abstract manifolds is to try not to focus on the coordinates you're putting on the space (otherwise, by whitney embedding, why not just consider them as cut out in some euclidean space by some smooth functions?), and this seems like it's going in the opposite direction
Well, any two atlases induces a homeomorphism between (subsets of) R^n.
yes, if there is a diffeomorphism between the two resulting manifolds. there are notable smooth structures (like the milnor example) which have nothing to do with the naive one on a topological space, and give two totally unrelated smooth manifolds with the same topological space
But this is roughly what Topo-girl said above about differential structure
I think what I'm thinking is wrong actually
But Tteg said yes so I think I accidentally wrote something correct 
I don't know I'm just guessing
I meant like
Same
at what you're trying to say
I think I wouldn't get hung up on things like "we extend these charts to a maximal smooth atlas" it's just something mathematicians say to make themselves feel better, but it doesn't really factor into the theory in practice.
I think what I meant was that if you have two different maximal atlases A & B that define different smooth structures, if we can find "a (diffeomorphic?) way" to "go between" the charts in A and the charts in B, then the two manifolds would be diffeomorphic
I'm so bad at words 
Like "intermediary maps", I'm hesitant to call them transition maps though because if they're different maximal atlases then doesn't that mean they're not smoothly compatible? Lol
So like a diffeomorphism between the two atlases?
We cannot in general
Some examples
the structure on R given by the identity and the one given by x^{2n+1} are not "equivalent" by your definition but they are diffeomorphic in the obvious way
On S^7 there are known to be many non-diffeomorphic smooth structures, but they are hard to construct
on R^4 there are known to be uncountably many maximal atlases which you cannot find a diffeomorphism between.
They’re easy to construct! They’re just S^3 bundles over S^4. (Well, maybe that’s just 7, not 28, I’m not sure)
Oh I didn't know that! I had never really looked into it but that makes a great deal of sense... now I have to count the nonisomorphic S^3 bundles over S^4....
Aha this is asking about H^1(S^4, O(4)) I see
Me, never read Milnor's original paper: 
but iirc, this is the only case, all other dimensions have finitely many smooth structures
and this is \pi_3(O(4))
Also, there should be a similarly easy to construct example of an infinite family of manifolds that are homotopy equivalent but not diffeo that can be detected much more easily, using just characteristic classes, not the signature theorem
Also, i'm curious: I recall there''s also something similar about decomposing S^3 into a bunch of S^2 (Hopf sphere or something?) Are these related to quaternions and octonions?
Maybe S^4 bundles over S^4?
Okay \pi_3(SO(4)) seems to be infinite, have I done something stupid?
Yes, it’s infinite
It’s Z^2. There’s a coset of Z^1 that is homotopy equivalent to S^7
Diffeomorphic is much harder. There’s a map to Z/7 that obstructs diffeo
Ah I see, yes this is what I should've said instead of "difficult to construct," difficult to verify that what you get is not equivalent to S^7
Is it ok if I interrupt with questions too?
that's fine
So under this definition, how do I actually show that a space is locally Euclidean? So more specifically I'm trying to show the line with two origins is locally Euclidean, but I'm getting tripped up on "for each p in M we can find a neighborhood containing p". How do I show such a neighborhood exists? 
Why can't I just say "consider p \in U \subseteq M" and then define a chart?
usually you have to write down a neighborhood explicitly for each point
So for the sphere we noticed that S^n - \infty and S^n - 0 were both just R^n
so that gives us that S^n is locally euclidean
for the line with two origins you can do something similar.
Yes. It’s the generalized Hopf fibration
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hopf_fibration
In the mathematical field of differential topology, the Hopf fibration (also known as the Hopf bundle or Hopf map) describes a 3-sphere (a hypersphere in four-dimensional space) in terms of circles and an ordinary sphere. Discovered by Heinz Hopf in 1931, it is an influential early example of a fiber bundle. Technically, Hopf found a many-to-one...
Hm
I think I phrased my question wrong?
Like, how do you take a point in your set and show there's a nbhd containing that point?
Since we're in R^2 I could just take an open ball around the point I guess
But like more generally how do you do that?
Lee's example for the sphere doesn't do any of this point business, he just takes a neighborhood in the space where S^n is embedded (R^(n+1)) and takes the intersection of that with S^n for the chart domain
Holy hell, I still remember some stuff 😄
I feel like such a dork I don't know wtf I'm even trying to prove for local Euclidity 💀
Like M locally looks like a line except for where x = 0, I know that intuitively, but how tf do I prove that
I need to show that given a point in M there's an open nbhd around that point? Which in the quotient topology means that the preimage of the projection is open in X
"euclidity"
Local Euclidianism? 
Euclidianness I think
Isn't the preimage of any point in M just a doubleton {(x, -1), (x, 1)}? X inherits the subspace topology from R^2, so just take open balls of radius 1/2 around the two points and ggs?
careful if the origin(s) are within 1/2 of the points
uh
So a function is injective if f(a) = f(b) implies a = b
Does equivalence count as equality? So if f(a) = f(b) implies a ~ b, then is the function injective?
why should it
I don't know, but it sounds really nice if that's the case lol. So I'm on some hopium that it is 🙃
rather than tell you the answer i am going to suggest you try just a few examples
Can I show the context for why I'm asking?
sure
It's got an example in it
So we can map (0, 1) and (0, -1) to 0 in R
So technically speaking f((0, 1)) = f((0, -1)) does not imply (0, 1) = (0, -1), since, well, (0, 1) isn't (0, -1)
But they are equivalent!
So if that was good enough to call phi injective then I'd have that phi is a homeomorphism and I'm done with the first part I think?
Since projection maps are continuous & open
i still strongly suggest this
Yeah isn't this an example?
too much reading for me
That's what I'm asking, if it can only be equality equality then it wouldn't be injective, but if it can just be equivalence then it's good enough
where did you find this? i don't see at all why the second last line should be true
seems like nonsense to me
...I wrote it 
yeah what you wrote is nonsense sorry
Why?
.
also for the love of god learn latex
and i don't mean sit down with an intro to latex how to type a million things. learn it by typing your stuff and looking up what you need
If you have a point in M it's either (0,1), (0, -1), or x right? Where [x] is the equivalence class of (x, +-1)
I think what I just wrote is nonsense too lol...
every element of M is an equivalence class
every element of M is either [(0, -1)], [(0, 1)], or [(x, 1)] = [(x, -1]) for some non-zero x
What are the equivalence classes of (0, -1) and (0, 1)?
they are the two origins
I think that's where my thinking failed, I never realized there was anything equivalent to them since the equivalence relation said x neq 0
{(0, -1)} and {(0, 1)}
the equivalence classes of (0, -1) and (0, 1) are the singletons consisting of these points since they aren't equivalent to anything else
I see
please do this
it is so false
I'm not trying to be ignorant I swear, I legit thought that
s what I was doing by sharing what I wrote
Giving an example and then interpreting it
When the definition says "the equivalence relation (x,-1) ~ (x,1) for x != 0" it means the reflexive transitive closure of the explicitly given related pairs.
a few examples not just one
But anyways what I was trying to say was that given one of these elements in M, the only things that map to it are (0, 1) or (0, -1) or (x, 1) or (x, -1)
So the preimg of a point of M is a subset of the set of those 4 elements
Wait, do you think x is a fixed real?
Well when you pick a point in M doesn't that automatically fix x?
||let X and Y be any sets and f: X -> Y be any function and consider the equivalence relation on X making everything equivalent to everything. then f(x) = f(x') always implies x ~ y but f could be the least injective function in the world||
Assuming it's not one of the two origins
for a less trivial example ||let f: R -> R be given by f(x) = x^2 and consider the equivalence relation on R given by x ~ y iff |x| = |y| ||
M contains both [(2,1)] and [(3,1)], for example -- they're different points.
Yeah so even though -2 & 2 are equivalent they're not equal so it's not injective
That's just what I wanted to confirm, if equivalence is good enough instead of equality or if it has to be equality
Sure but if you pick a point (say [(2, 1)]) then that fixes x = 2 in X no?
you could have confirmed it yourself by doing what people typically do when they don't understand something: check it against examples
What to you mean by "fixes" in that context?
my final comment is the following. suppose f: X -> Y is a function of sets and ~ is an equivalence relation on X. suppose f "factors through" the quotient function, i.e., there's a g: X/~ -> Y with g([x]) = f(x) for all x in X. the condition you proposed, that "f(a) = f(b) implies a ~ b", is equivalent to injectivity of g
This sounded like you think there is a single number x such that X = { (0,1), (0,-1), (x,1), (x,-1) }.
Well like for [(2, 1)] in M, aren't there only two points in X that map to [(2, 1)]? Being (2, 1) and (2, -1)
So any point [(x, y)] in M (with x nonzero) has the preimage {(x, 1), (x, -1)}
That is right.
actually no that's not my final comment i want to say more. if X is a set and ~ is an equivalence relation on X then you have the function p: X -> X/~ sending each element to its equivalence class. note that p(x) = p(y) is quite literally the condition x ~ y. injectivity of p would mean the equivalence relation is trivial: every element is equivalent only to itself
Right, so what's wrong with what I said here?
If p = [(0, 1)] then the preimage of p is {(0, 1}}
If p = [(0, -1)] then the preimage of p is {(0, -1)}
If p = [(x, y)], then the preimage of p is {(x, 1), (x, -1)}
This is true.
So regardless the preimage is in the set I wrote above
Is it because I said {p}?
The reason I did {p} was because I needed to show that for any point p in M we can find an open subset containing p, so I used {p} and showed that {p} was open in the quotient topology
(Or that was my intent, at least)
Wait, what? {p} is definitely not open.
Why not? Its preimage is open
We're still talking about the line with two origins, right?
Yes
You listed the possible preimages here. Neither of those sets look open to me.
Are you perhaps confusing the single point (0,1) with the open interval (0,1)?
The former is an element of R^2, the latter is a subset of R.
Hmm wait a second
I think that is what I was doing
there shouldn't be a retraction deformation from a solid ball D^n without a point on the boundary to S^(n-1) right?
No, not if the missing point is on the boundary.
yeah that's what i was wondering
again i was betrayed by imagination
Do you see the idea of what I was trying to do Trop?
I know I did it wrong, just want to ask how I can salvage it without straying too far from what I was intending
Not entirely. I got somewhat sideways into the conversation.
i imagined the ball a with piece removed being "hollowed", then i thought if we coneccted that piece and squished it to the boundary it would be ok
again, betrayed 😭
Hehe okay I've got to head out for dinner anyways so I think I'll put this on hold and do some work on paper first then come back with a second attempt
Maybe with some pictures so I can show what I was trying to do
there's also like everything i said about the equivalence relation stuff 🙂
One piece of advice here: Do the case for x != 0 first without trying to handle the two origins at the same time.
Indeed.
But it seems you need some familiarity with the quotient construction before attacking those, and the points away from the origins is a chance to get at least a little of that.
What would this hexagon look like if we apply the same thing we apply to the unit square to make it a torus? The green and orange sides are undefined.
I don't think it will be anything concretely named tbh
Yeah, it’s a question in my homework and I was confused because idk how to describe the resulting shape. Weird.
Can you send the exercise
It’s in german
ich werds überleben
Lolllll
weird, i thought the actual exercise would provide more info but i guess not

When I passed my Lin Alg exam, I thought I would never have to do Gaussian elimination again
Joke on me: I suffered for 1 hour while computing some stupid simplicial homology because I could not bring myself to do Gaussian properly
can't you just like
feed it to some CAS
maple came in clutch for me last time i had to do that
I hate to rely on computers, especially since it's a simple object in this case
But man, I'm horrible at computation. One day it's gonna bite me back
Me: megumi, tell me a prime number
Megumi: 64
Up to homeomorphism, a torus with a hole cut out, I should think. This is also the same as a disk with one handle.
The intention is probably that in (c) you can glue a sequence of these patches together, yellow edge of one of them to green edge of the next one, to get a surface of arbitrary genus. But it seems at bit ambitious to expect you to generalize the concept of "genus" from that line-and-a-half it it's your first exposure to the concept,
Lol are you also doing Lee intro to smooth manifolds
Last I heard she was reading Tu
But any smooth manifolds text will have this example
I switched to Lee a while ago!
Is this problem doable using elementary methods? Initially I was thinking about excision, but it did not seem to work. There is some duality theorem that gives this, but I would like to see whether it can be done without it.
what the things you're allowed to use?
It's just Jordan Brower separation theorem but it's highly nontrivial to prove
I have no restrictions, it's for my own sake. Can you elaborate on how this comes from the separation theorem?
Literally the statement
The theorem says that for the image of S^n in R^{n+1} under an injective mapping the complement separates R^{n+1} to two connected components.
Okay I see that Hatcher has this exact formulation.
If you can prove this, you can prove full fledged Alexander duality
Maybe use the ANR absolute neighborhood retract property?
Thank you for the answer but I don’t really understand what this picture represents
It's the same hexagon, just deformed such that it looks like the rectangle-that-becomes-a-torus with a notch cut into it from one of the corners.
So when you glue the black edges together as indicated, you get a torus with a thin slit missing from it.
Thanks again

Okay uh
I'm still not really sure what's wrong with what I wrote yesterday ._.
The quotient map preimg of {p} is {(x, -1)} or {(x, 1)}. Both of these are in the subspace topology of X, so they're open, so {p} is open in M no?
what's the problem statement
I swear I'm constantly checking definitions to see the flaw in my logic but I don't see it
A set is open in the quotient topology if its preimage under canonical projection is open
Oops I made a little mistake, the (x, +-1) points should be in one set
But anyways regardless the preimage of {p} has to be one of those three sets (or just one of those one sets if I do as Trop said and ignore the origins)
And those are in the subspace topology of X, because they're the intersection of S with {(x, +-1)} or {(0, +-1)}
(which are open sets in R^2)
So what's the issue so far?
Still no. Single points are not open in X.
But they're not points, they're sets
Why not? A set is open in X if it's in the subspace topology of X right? And if it's in the subspace topology then that means it's the intersection of X with an open set in R^2
(x,1) is one point.
Yeah I meant to put (x, +-1) into one set, sorry
But that doesn't fix the (0, +-1) points
Can you show an open set in R^2 whose intersection with X is {(3,1),(3,-1)}?
{(3, 1), (3, -1)}? That's what I was thinking for the other points as well
{(3,1),(3,-1)} is not an open subset of R^2.
._.
I see
Oh I'm such an idiot argh
I see
I need an interval don't I
Or rather a rectangle?
Yes.
Okay yeah thank you
@gaunt linden Do you mind checking over a rough sketch of how I think I can reapproach the problem?
(Just let me know if you don't want me to ping you again)

One second
From what I can tell \varphi is a homeomorphism right?
It's essentially just a projection onto the first factor
And the assumption that y = 1 guarantees injectivity
With phi^(-1) given by x -> [(x, 1)]
So locally euclidean means every point has a neigborhood which is homeomorphic to R right? What point are you considering in this proof
Just take a point in U
I'm a little confused by the notation
That's not how this works, I give you a point and you give me a neighborhood of that point and a homeomorphism
If you give me a point I pick epsilon so that it's in U (a neighborhood containing the point)
you want to put that "for some epsilon..." outside of the {} at the start
I believe I showed U was open in M
I think I see why
And then I planned to use that function phi as my homeomorphism (which I think meets the conditions to be a homeomorphism)
Oh okay so you're saying my point is [(p,q)] and you're telling me I should consider the neighborhood U of that point (which depends on what epsilon is) which is the set {[(x,y)] such that x is less than epsilon away from p and y is either 1 or -1}?
Your preimage of U shouldn't contain (0,-y), with your latest U.
I think, yes. In my head I was picturing: you pick a point [(p, y)] in M, I define a neighborhood about that point consisting of all [(x, y)] where x is less than epsilon away from p. I said suppose y = 1 so y would just be 1
I'm sorry, I don't understand what you mean
You can't suppose without loss of generality y=1 because [(0,1)] and [(0,-1)] are different
I mean they are in different equivalence classes
Are you assuming for this part of the proof that p is nonzero?
No, but Trop suggested that
I stubbornly keep wanting to see if I can do it all in one go
The origin here is fundamentally different
You can just mirror hte proof if y = -1 no?
Just splitting it up into two cases
Oh so you're saying suppose the y of the point that I give you is 1? I'm a bit confused because you only ever use y in your definition of U
You can do it all in (almost) one go -- I suggested doing the easy part first because it looked like you had conceptual problem with the quotient construction, and it would be good to get some practice with just that before you get to tackle the double origin.
Yes
Okay I see now
It would help if I specified that first at the start I think
So does U only contain points that look like [(x,1)] in that case?
Yes! Where x is within epsilon away from p
Ah okay
If I get you right you defined U as { [(x,1)] | -eps < x < eps }.
So far so good. But the preimage of this U is not (-eps,eps) × {1} cup (-eps,eps) × {-1}. It almost is, but (0,-1) is not actually in the preimage.
^ but this isn't actually a problem because that set is still open in X
Right, it's easily fixed.
I still think the proof would be clearer if you considered two separate cases
You should think of proofwriting as explaining why something is true to someone else in your class, basically
Why isn't (0, -1) in the preimage? Under the projection it gets mapped to its equivalence class [(0, -1)] ~ [(0, 1)], which is in U
(0,-1) and (0,1) are not in the same equivalence class
I suppose there is something to be said for doing just the neighborhood-of-one-of-the-origins case first and then observing, "oh, this happens to work for all the other points too".
The preimage of (0,1) is just {(0,1)}
Eric have you seen me talk? I speak in pictures and handwaving 💀 that's why this is so hard to me
I see
But the easy fix is just remove the (-epsilon, epsilon) x {-1} from the preimage right?
All the other points in (-eps,eps) × {-1} are and must be in the preimage.
OH I see what I was getting confused
Okay
I keep wanting to treat the two origins as being equivalent lol, thank you
hahaha
So if your set in the quotient space is {[(x,1)] where x is < eps away from p} then the preimage should be {(x,1) where x is < eps away from p} U {(x,-1) where x is < eps away from p} minus (0,-1)
Which is open (why?)
You mean minus {(0, -1)} right?
I could not prove to you in symbols/mathspeak why it's open lol, but I can explain why intuitively 🙃
It might be clearer to write it as:
(-eps,eps) × {1} cup (-eps,0) × {-1} cup (0,eps) × {-1}
Yeah that's what I was planning to do, just write the negative half as a union with 0 excluded
Yeah the reason why I didn't write it like that is that I'm still not clear on if U is supposed to be centered at p or not
Yeah
Do you remember when things are open in the subspace topology?
I suppose it doesn't necessarily need to be centered at p but in my ehad that's how I pictured it, that's an easy fix though (just define at the start what p is)
Yeah, a set is open in the subspace topology if it's the intersection of the subspace with an open set in the larger space
In this case it's actually less work to keep it centered on 0.
Then you don't need a special case for "what if 0 is not between our endpoints".
Okay yeah that's true
I didn't think that'd be an issue, you could just redefine epsilon so 0 is in the set
I think I see what you mean though
(That's presently what I'm doing right? Implicitly)
Yes.
You could have your point be like [(x,y)] and then your U be like {[(x',y)] for x' between -|x|-1 and |x|+1}
WHen does analysis show up in diffgeo? 
This feels analysisy, not really since it's just the most basic of inequalities but I'm sure you could go deeper into similar stuff
Well we haven't done any calculus yet haha
This is just topology
Without the smooth part yet
Oops right lol
I'll be getting to that in the next problem
Okay so I think I fixed all the glaring issues there, are there any counterexamples I'm missing with my projection map (phi)? Or does it pass as a homeomorphism? lol
How do y'all notice the flaws/counterexamples to stuff so quickly? I've noticed that's what always gets me as far as my logic goes, there's always some case I didn't consider
It's a homeomorphism all right. In principle you have more footwork to do to show that, but in the interest of moving on to the interesting parts, there could be a good case for leaving that for later and work on the other parts of the exercise instead.
it's something you develop over time
idk sometimes when reading something it just doesn't feel right so you go back and think it over more clearly
or sometimes you just realize something is blatantly false lol
I'd have to explicitly prove the bijectivity & continuity, and likewise for hte inverse to do it thoroughly right?
Yeah, if you want all the relevant letters dotted and crossed.
I'm too tired to bother 💀 onto second countability
Isn't this just figuring out a basis for U? Since I let U just be basically any nbhd in M
are there any good problems/exercises to get more comfortable with spectra
what is your background?
what sorts of things are you interested in doing with spectra? like you could do explicit computations with the Adams spectral sequence and this would give you some level of familiarity working with examples of spectra, but idk if that sort of example would be useful for most people
Note: if you've already proven it's an inverse, then that already shows it's bijective
But you do need to show that both it is continuous and the inverse is continuous (which should be fairly simple if you're comfortable with quotient topologies and subspace topologies and good practice if you're not)
Well I just did this exercise haha
But it helps to list out explicitly exactly what statement you need to prove
Mathematics is sort of nice in that if you write out everything perfectly explicitly, then you need no knowledge to be able to check something (in practice, we don't write everything out, but it's good to understand what we're leaving out)
Luckily this one is simple
Proving that it's not Hausdorff is also simple but it's probably more interesting
I'm stuck on covering every point in U for my basis
My first thought was just to partition the neighborhood U I defined earlier into two parts
Maybe use the following definition for basis: B is a basis iff for every x in M and open U containing x, there's a set in B which contains x and is contained in U
One consisting of all the equivalence classes "to the left of" the midpoint (epsilon/2) and one with the equivalence classes "to the right of it"
But that doesn't cover the equivalence class x = [(epsilon/2, y)]
Do you know the proof that R is second countable?
If you know that, then this should be a relatively simple modification
I do not, but I know it has something to do with open intervals. I will take a look at it 👍 thanks!
uh
if I just take U as what I defined before (but let epsilon be a positive rational instead of positive real)
And partition the interval (-epsilon, epsilon) into open intervals whose endpoints are rational
Doesn't that work?
Oh I don't think you even need to go through all that
U here is given to you
So I give you x and an arbitrary open set U which contains x
You need to give me a set in B which contains x and is contained in U
Open intervals with rational endpoints is the right idea though
I see in my head what to do, just struggling to put it into words lol
Let's say you give me the point q = [(p, y)] and an arbitrary open set U that contains q
I can define a set similar to what I did for the first part, let's call it V = {[(x, y)] : a < p < b}, where a is the closest rational approximation to p s.t. [(a, y)] is still in U, and similar for b
That feels overly complicated though
You don't even need "closest rational approximation" lol, just that [(a, y)] and [(b, y)] are still in U
Yeah sorry a < x < b, but we still need a < p < b alongside
Right
Once I write it out I'm sure I'll think of some ways to clean it up
And so what is your basis for M?
B = {V_{a,b}}, where V_{a, b} = {[(x, y)] : a < x < b}, where a, b are rational
I don't like the notation V_{a, b} but I'll fix that when I can TeX it, it's countable since each V_{a, b} is defined by open intervals in R with rational endpoints, which we know is a countable set
Yeah, so to be more precise, Q is countable, so Q×Q×{-1,1} is countable, so B is countable
And then just make sure you understand why all of the sets in B are open in M and you're done
Also note V depends on a, b, and y so I guess V_{a,b,y} is better haha
Well they're open in M by nearly the same logic/process as how I showed my neighborhood in the previous part was open
Basically the same neighborhoods, just different rational endpoints instead of a fixed real epsilon
You know
This is a great example of where visual intuition fails
Only if your visual intuition is bad
I keep visualizing M as a single line but in a sense it's sort of two lines stacked on top of each other (glued together by the quotient)
Okay fr though I feel like learning topology is the act of replacing bad visual intuition with good visual intuition
I never thought I'd enjoy point set but this is actually cool 
Many of the arguments will be visual but importantly you need to be able to formalize them as soon as someone asks
Yeah, it's like the topology professor who, after a student asks them to explain a visual argument, immediately covers the entire board with a single equation and then moves on
(Source: the topology professor here)
Alright I’m away from my computer now so no formality but let’s think about Hausdorff 🤔
So given two distinct points we can always form disjoint open nbhds around them
Can’t you just use the basis for the topology from earlier w the origins as a counterexample
write down your two points and explain why there are no disjoint opens containing each
Yep I see it
It’s because when we take a nbhd about either origin we’ll always have points within the “line” part of M inside
Even if one nbhd is smaller than the other, the points on the “line” nearest to the origins will be inside the nbhd around the other origin, so they’re never going to have empty intersection
you can't embed it into any R^n because it is not hausdorff
all subspaces of hausdorff spaces are hausdorff
it shows you that hausdorff-ness is necessary for the theorem to hold
Here’s the picture, the two origins are supposed to be “infinitely close” to the line though
Obviously the neighborhoods can’t be balls but
You know what I’m getting at I hope 
That was fun
I’m scared of the stereographic projection problem though, that looks really hard 
But I’ll get to that tomorrow
Yeah that's correct
Just make sure you know how to formally write it out and everything
Yeah I’m pretty sure I can tom!
It's not too bad
(Although I admit I didn't check that it gives the same smooth structure as the other one they gave, but that's also not too bad)
The locally Euclidean part definitely seems to be hardest for basically everything lmao
Yeah the other properties are usually routine
I think that was a hint tbh
I’m gonna bet there’s some kind of circular symmetry you take advantage of
Well ig that’s obvious because it’s a sphere 
I have a question: supposed you have an orientable surface whose boundary is homeomorphic to a circle, and you identify the boundary. Can the resulting 2-manifold always be embedded in S^3?
It's an easy No without the "orientable" part, just take Mobius strip
Identifying boundary gives you a oriented manifold ( I think) but you already have the classification
It seems that the answer is yes
wait your mani is not necessarily compact, is it?
What I considered initially was compact, but I forgot to include that
But now it seems more interesting without compactness condition
Well, it should be closed, of course
@coarse night why do you get something orientable?
was getting it from this, M is orientable then by definiton H_n(M, ∂M)= ℤ= H_n(M/ ∂M)
Though I am fully sure of the quotient is a manifold
feels like it
There's a neighborhood of the circular boundary that's homeomorphic to { x in R^2 : 1 <= |x| < 1+epsilon }.
Identifying the boundary corresponds to mapping this annulus to { x in R^2 : |x| < 1+epsilon } by multiplying every x by (|x|-1)·(1+epsilon)/epsilon.
M/ ∂M = M ∪ C ∂M
This lets us continue an orientation of the interior of the original manifold to a neighborhood of the point that represents the collapsed boundary.
if we go along the definition of nonvanishing forms, we have a non vanishing form on the S¹ and attaching a D² to it is collapsing the boundary, so we can continue the form radially to entire D² giving non vanishing form on M u c(\del M)
only issue is the center
ok we can normalize the form on the boundary
we have a tubular nbd of S¹. Say S¹ and as attach a S¹x[0,1] via the boundary to extend and given an non vanishing form on S¹x{0} we can normalise the form to get a unit valued from on S¹x{1}
How to estimate ${p\in\beta\mathbb{N} : p\leq_\text{RF} q}$ where $q\in\beta\mathbb{N}$ and $\leq_\text{RF}$ is the Rudin-Frolik order?
Blitzkrieg
I define $p\leq_\text{RF} q$ when there is injective $f:\mathbb{N}\to\beta\mathbb{N}$ with discrete image such that $f^(p) = q$, $f^$ being the continuous extension of $f$ to $\beta\mathbb{N}$
Blitzkrieg
the cardinality of*
If X = {(x,y) in S^n x S^n | x \ne y } and f : S^n -> X is a map f(x) = (x, -x) how can I show that f is a homotopy equivalence? Will it work to take g : X -> S^n as the projection g(x,y) = x?
Then we would have g o f = id_{S^n} for free and f o g could be homotoped to id_{X} with H: A x [0,1] -> A, H(x,y,t) = (1-t)(x, -x) + t(x,y)/|(1-t)(x, -x) + t(x,y)|
Hey topology people can y’all help me 😭
This is an extension cord that was wrapped all around inside itself
Contract to a point and re-extend to a line segment
Plug it in and touch the other end
I did it already
Are they?
Doesn’t feel right, take n=1 then X becomes contractible
Excuse me read the channel description, this channel is for anime
I fixed it and didn’t see this till now, wdym by contract to a point?
yeah, it's not a knot
isn't there a book with this name
it can't be contractible, it has fundamental group Z
oh right
Maybe an easier way to visualize this: this is an R^n bundle over S^n
it's just S¹
yeah
Indeed this is the (ordered) configuration space of two points in S^n and looking that up i found this lol
Interestingly if you use three points instead of two you get the unit tangent bundle of S^n, hmmm
Yep in general it's just the complement of the big diagonal in (S^n)^m
Yeah and I'm saying if you picked more than 3 points that's what you get 🙂
Hm wdym
Hm idk just sounds like you said what I said lol
Like I mean the ordered configuration space is by definitij what you said right so idk how what ur saying is non tautological xd
I am going to learn more conf spaces tbh hehe exciting
I guess I wasn't sure if you'd realized there was a simple description of Conf(m, S^n), I think from that description it's pretty clear why for m = 3 it retracts onto the unit tangent bundle 🤷♀️
Yee sure
Hm did you have any equivalent characterisation of the conf space in mind
I mean nothing besides just the definition!
where do these spaces come up?
Any interesting application of configuration spaces?
all over the place, maybe the most interesting thing about them is their fundamental groups which have been studied by mathematicians for a long time
Doing a summer project on them and my advisor talked about how it's conjectured that configuration spaces can parametrise certain cohomology operations lol
but also like interesting spaces in themselves, interesting (co)homology w/ links to lie algebra stuffs hehe
How do we get these isomorphisms
$H^k(M,\partial M;R)\cong H_c^k(M-\partial M;R)$ and $H_{n-k}(M;R)\cong H_{n-k}(M-\partial M;R)$
Kähler
From the fact we have a collared neighborhood we have that through excision
$H^k(M,\partial M;R)\cong H^k(M-\partial M, (0,\epsilon)\times \partial M$ for some $\epsilon>0$ but I am not sure how we'd use this for anything
Kähler
Hi all, can you guys help me with this problem from Munkres? It is rather elementary, but I am rather stuck on it
The problem asks for a given set X with a family of topologies (with an index set i in I) T_i, find the smallest topology containing all of T_i
Now my answer to this is rather straight forward
All we do is construct a family of topologies $\tau_\beta$ with $\beta$ being an index, such that $\forall \beta, \bigcup T_i \subseteq \tau_\beta$
dulg
Hence, we have $\bigcup T_i \subseteq \bigcap \tau_\beta$ and that $\tau_\beta$ is the smallest topology that contains all of $T_i$
dulg