#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 28 of 1
Yes, but working with a concrete complex is nice pedagogy.
given a mapping $f : X \to Y$, why is the canonical map $r : M_f \to Y$ a strong deformation retraction (where $M_f$ denotes the mapping cylinder)?
anamono for anamono
(are these the pointed or unpointed constructions? not that it matters too much)
not sure
if it helps, this is page 46 of bredon; the word "pointed" doesn't appear until page 128
True by definition

If you look at the construction, there is a good candidate for the retracting homotopy. Can you see it?
wdym construction? sorry
like, the definition of Mf and what the map r looks like
ah
bredon says r : Mf -> Y is a retraction of Mf onto Y induced by the projection X x [0,1] -> X x {0}, but i'm not sure what it means for a retraction to be induced by a projection here
Best proof of this is that S^inf = |N(J)| is the geom realization of the nerve of the walking iso J, i.e. J has objects 0, 1 and one isomorphism 0 -> 1. Clearly J is equivalent to the pt, so this pulls through to see that S^inf is htpy equivalent to |Npt| = pt

potentially silly quesetion
but what is the defining characteristic of a SES
like ok yes i see this definition
is the isomorphism a consequence or part of the definition though?
It’s applying the definition of an exact sequence and then using iso theorem
homology is taking a while to get used to 
Surjection means C is iso to B/Ker beta
Ker beta is im alpha
Im Alpha is iso to A because it’s an injection
The definition is only Ker = Im
Excuse the sloppy writing I’m on phone
at the bar again timo
answering maths questions at the bar
Sometimes
so the actual definition is the surj/inj stuff
one day im gonna take a shot before an exam
No that’s a consequence of there being 0s on the left and right
it makes my driving better, should sharpen my mind for an exam too 
Okay well I guess you could argue that they’re strictly talking about SHORT exact sequences
But they’re just a special case of exact sequences in general
so it's the ker = im stuff
Yes
Prove this
i come once again asking for help
can anyone explain why those two quotient spaces would be isomorphic
the statement clearly does not hold for arbitrary subspaces A,B. so what is the property of CW complexes that makes this work
MyMathYourMath
f it i might just present it and say this is left as an exercise to the interested reader lol
hmm what did he mean by this
Tbh this is a good question
Hm
So like there is certainly a continuous bijection from one to the other
hold on
Apparently you can do it just by looking at cell structures of each
oh yeah i see the map X/A -> B/A n B
I am too finite cw complex pilled for this and was gonna just say use compactness lmao
ah cool, i see. do you have a reference to that
I don't lol sorry but I mean you can create a cell structure on X/A by taking the cells away from A and having the basepoint as a 0 cell
Hm ok I need to check lol
Nah I think it's fine
Take a homotopy A x I -> A from the identity to a constant map
And also the identity X -> X
These r compatible giving a map X x I -> X as desired
Then ig the point is at t =1 we have a map X -> X sending A to a point, giving a map X/A -> X which is as desired
Does that make sense
Yes sure
Sorry for not making that clear
Happened to look at this recently lol
Well there was a case where this lemma provided an easier proof if we work w CW complexes
Since then we get hep
hatcher's formal discussion is partially in the appendix
can i get a nudge on this pls
im guessing this is a purely algebraic question
Z -> Z + Z/2 im guessing is the map sending 1 -> (1,1)
what would Z + Z/2 -> Z/4 be
I mean you should be able to play around w what 1 and [1] are sent to
you only have 4 options for each
but it is just algebraic right? like we dont need homology or anything?
yeah
also just to be sure but this is the kinda thing where i should be fine just saying "clearly inj homomorphism" right
yes
the only surj hom is the one sending (0,1) -> 3 and and (1,0) -> 1 right
sorry im def overthinking this
also oddly enough, this SES is something you can use to compute H_1(RP² with the boundary of a Mobius strip attached to RP¹) lol
well it is surjective
yeah but it doesnt have ker = Z 
am i thinking about this wrong? ker has to be Z for it to be exact right?
well you might not have the correct map from Z to Z oplus Z2
this seems random but it might help
at least if you're familiar with Mayer Vietoris
how is the mapping in the first answer here even a bijection? (let alone a homeomorphism)
i am not, not in the scope of this hw
this is true thought right? or is the tiredness getting to me
seems right
ohhhh wait im just silly
am i
hold up
ok nvm
the image of the injective map has to be Z
but the kernel of the surjective map keeps being Z/2
but we need this equal no? what am i missing
nvm i got it 
on a different note im having trouble understanding the degree of an automorphism of S^n
this is basically the definition i have
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2205452/local-degree-of-a-map-between-n-spheres this is the MSE post it's from but not the question im working on
that would be this
hello quick question: suppose I have a topological space X and Y is a subset of X. I have to show that the collection of all open subsets of X that are contained in Y is a topology on Y.
For the intersection. Can I just say that $T_1 = {U\subset X | U\subset Y~open}$. And $\cap_{i=1}^n U \subset Y~open$ because the intersection of open sets is open again and $Y\subset X$ so $\cap_{i=1}^n U \in T_1$ and the same for union?
b3s4d
not sure what you mean by that T_1 but that seems mostly right
I have defined T1 as the topology I have to prove to be a topology
the subspace topology is an important and common example, munkres likely has some details about it
oh wait i think this is slightly different, ignore me
Ok
It just seems so weird because I didn't proof anything really??
ok found this in hatcher but how is that a homotopy
plugging in 0 for t you get f(x)/f(x) = 1
and plugging in 1 you get -x/x = -1
Note that he takes the norm of the denominator
Yeah, you divide by the norm to ensure that the image of the homotopy is in S^n
The assumption that f has no fixed points ensures the denominator never vanishes
so we just get f(x)/|f(x)| = f(x)
That's right
Happy to help
still wondering abt this btw
like how useful is the degree of a sphere automorphism
i'll assume it's pretty important
can we use it to disprove stuff
Oh degree is very useful
For instance, you can show that if n is even and f: S^n -> S^n, then either f has a fixed point or takes a point to its antipodal point
i have that as a problem in a bit actually lol
Similarly, you can show that S^n has a non-zero vector field iff n is odd
Degree is also foundational in defining cellular homology which is invaluable for computations
i see
is there any intuition for it? or is that an odd question to ask for thiss
is this defn of degree only applicable to automorphisms of Sn
this is more #groups-rings-fields
hmm ok yeah i agree
savin this for later dont mind me
how does deg = -1 imply that there is antipodal identification
<@&268886789983436800> idk if this warrants but self promo in multiple channelss
it does
only the first one is bounded am i right? and the others are not bounded
oke thanks
is it correct ?
Wtf why don't they allow you to use the pre-image of a closed set via a continuous map?!
That's torture x')
Didn't look the details of all of them but seems like you got the gist!
Only E is open, the others are closed
(unless empty in which case they're also open, I didn't check)
oke thank you again
hello how can I start proving this?
For the sufficient condition , pick a open set with respect with d and try to show its open with respect to d' ( how do you characterize open sets when you have a metric ? )
For the necessary condition , think open balls.
And I need to prove the necessary condition?
yes , its if and only if
Yes, I've started normally with assuming that d and d' generate the same topology on M
correct , now how can you define open sets with respect to a metric d ?
so an open set is a collection of open balls for any x in M
a union of open balls to be precise , so if $U$ is open then for any $x\in U $ you can find $r>0$ such that $B(x,r) \subset U$
Susilian
you already assumed they generate the same topology , what does that tell you about open balls ?
specifically $B_{r}^{(d)}(x)$
Susilian
here ofcourse i mean open in the topology generated by the metric d , and so the ball B(x,r) is defined using this metric
yes so just x in M : d(x,y) < r
But I don't really understand the radii r1, r2 and d' and d
ok lets start from the metric d
the open balls with respect to the metric d are open , do you know this?
Yes
sweet , now d and d' by our assumption , generate the same topology
Ok so the metric d induces a topology
Like T(d) = { U \subset M | U is open wrt metric d }
right , and the open ball $B_{r}^{d}(x)$ for any r you pick ( lets call it $r_{1}$ is open with respect to the metric d , and since d and d' generate the same topology then what can we say about $B_{r}^{d}(x)$ with respect to the metric d' ?
Susilian
do you know what happens when 2 metric generate the same topology?
I'm thinking xD
tyt , no pressure 
not necessarily , but T(d)= T(d')
according to your notation
Susilian
can you pick it up from here?
Remember to use this too ^
Matplotlib
Well I guess I could directly ask whether the pullback functor preserves Poincaré duals or something, but I'm no cat(egory theorist)
It seems to me that I'd need some sort of homology pullback and not pushforward...
there is
Yeah I noticed https://mathoverflow.net/questions/115764/pullback-map-in-homology but it seems too untractable for me when it comes to actual computations...
Matplotlib
I think it goes that $\Gamma_X = f_* \circ \Gamma_Y \circ f^*$
Irony Incarnate
it works for any continuous f
Like draw a diagram
and remeber that the f's go in different directions
so f* maps H^2(X) -> H^2(Y)
Then Gamma_Y maps H^2(Y) -> H_2(Y)
And then finally f_* maps H_2(Y) -> H_2(X)
Maybe I'm missing something but what if either of f_* or f^* are not bijective? I mean, cannot it happen that the composite f_* G f^* is not an iso?
Yeah well is that diagram commutative actually?
(it being commutative is equivalent to the formula)
I feel like there should be some splitting of the adequate homology groups by the kernel and cokernel of the corresponding f-maps
Whatever, I'll give it a thought in half an hour when I'm back 🙂 thanks for the discussion!
Oh sorry
I was wrong
the assumption is that the continuous maps preserve fundamental classes
You can probably show it by diagram chasing
Is there no algebraic structure on projective space?
Oh interesting, I did not know. Is this the same for higher dimensions?
Tbh this is an interesting question - I'm not sure when RP^n admits the structure of an H-space structure, let alone a topological group structure
Hi, i am trying to prove that the closure of W is a closed set. When we suppose the complement X\W is not open does that imply it is closed?
the closure of W is closed iff X\cl(W) is open
You may proceed by contradiction, assuming X\cl(W) is not open (which is what I think you were getting at)
Thank you.
you can think of its definition as an intersection of all closed sets containing W
Okay 🙂
Ty!
I think i am kind of confused why U is closed implies U is a closure because in my notes it says closure U is the set of points in X which are limits of sequence in U. So what does its got do do with it being a closed set? And when we mean a set of points in X is that a collection of sets with limits in X. I cant seem to get a picture in my head 😦
What do you mean "why U is closed implies U is a closure"?
Are you suggesting that all closed sets can be realized as the closure of an open set? If so, this is not true. Take R with the standard euclidean topology. A point is closed. But a point here is not the closure of anything but itself.
Anyway the question amounts to definition unpacking. Write down the definition of closure (i.e., take your set W, include all limit points in X). Then write down one of the definitions of closed which might be most useful (contains all limit points in X)
A set of points in X is just a set of points which are in X. This set may or may not include its limit points.
Like the proposition states that in a metric space with U in X, U is closed iff U = closureU
Right, so you mean to ask why does a set being closed imply that the closure of it is itself
In which case, read this
Feel free to ask follow up questions about the definitions
No probs ty for your help 🙂
@gritty widget https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3421788/topological-lie-group-structure-on-projective-spaces
(Elementary answer and hint, though you might want to verify for yourself the implicit claim)
Oh lol
Didn't realise ye sure it lifts nice
Not totally sure how to show S^7 doesn't have a top group structure
Eh OK it'd just lead to an associative normed division algebra of dim 8 which is impossible
😞
Wish I could understand the proof
It’s easy to show S2 is not a Lie group but how hard is it to show itself not a topological group?
for defn 2, can "onto at all points" be replaced with "epimorphism at all points"?
i ask because defn 1 uses "monomorphism" instead of "injective"
yes
same thing
Not even an H-space 😎
Read my mini thesis thing where I discuss H-space structures on spheres 🤓 jk
Okay this seems nice
for S^2
In fact it isn't gonna be too different to show you can't have H-space structures on S^{2n} for any n
I'll have a read
If you want to show it’s not a Lie group, you should classify 2d Lie groups. There aren’t many
But I haven't read H-spaces
they cool
Doesn't S^7 have an h-space structure induced by inclusion in the octonions?
ye
Maybe I didn't read properly what you said then 🙂
S^0, S^1, S^3, S^7 are the only spheres w H-space structure
Yeah the other ones are Lie groups 😄
i am third year ug

hbu
PhD in what? 🙂
like third year undergrad lol
Not even a group (for the octonion structure), but idk tbh, I feel it's pretty hard
Ah sorry!
1y phd
😇
ah noice coolie

Actually yeah I rckon it is just like
well i said it earlier lol
if S^7 were a topological group then we would have an 8-dimensional associative normed division algebra right
everything is a Lie group
Smth like this
by showing there are no division algebra structures on R^3
S^2 not parallelizable
tho tbh idk how to show that is the case
The vector space R^n possesses a bilinear product operation without zero divisors only f or n equal to 1, 2, 4 or 8.
Indeed
Yeah I meant like given that theorem lol
Basically I am writing smth up and prove that like only S^0,S^1,S^3,S^7 are H-spaces etc and deduce this
But never looked at S^7 aha
I think this does it? https://math.stackexchange.com/a/12474/259363
Third cohomology should be nonzero
I had never seen this for non-abelian Lie groups
Indeed
It's cute how there's this story linking like Hopf invariant 1 and stuff with vector fields on spheres through that and others
Adams 😍
This Cartan form would do a great exercise for an exam!
What do you do Matplotlib?
Tell me more about this sempai 😇
What's this 👀
In the MSE answer
plt.plot
Like for a 'living'?
Oh I wasn't sure if you were like a PhD student or smth
or ug or like a big human who actually works xd
2nd year phd yeah, in geometric topology I'd say 🙂
Noicee
What are you interested in? 🙂
Oh well it's like
Cool that iirc Milnor and Kervaire proved which spheres are parallelisable (ofc 0,1,3,7), but then hopf invariant 1 shows that parallelisable => n = 0,1,3,7 <=> division algsbra structure on R^{n+1} etc and the vector fields on spheres problem gives you an explicit formula anyway
Like kinda cool you get the same results / different implications in different ways and it all matches up nicely
Ah yeah it's nice indeed! Makes me think of the Milnor S^7-invariant; when he discovered all 28 possible distinct smooth structures on S^7, he showed that they were indeed distinct by computing an invariant, which happened to be Z/28-valued and surjective. Little did he know he had actually found them all!

Ah very cool :)
I'm interested in like topology + algebraic stuff ig, like leaning towards this alg toppy stuff
It actually shows S² is not a Lie group not a topological group
There's also the Poincare Hopf index formula that also gives S² can't admit a non vanishing vector field and not hence not Lie
Uhm, I remember reading this on a mathscinet review of Milnor's paper on the 28 S^7's
That doesn’t sound right to me. There’s an easy Z/7, and maybe he discovered that first, but by the time he got the Z/4, I thought he had a proof it was everything
Seems like you're right, the mathscinet doesn't talk about that, I must've dreamt it x')
But still, I remember reading about a complete invariant in Z/28 somewhere... oh well
I don’t know any way to write down an invariant. The problem naturally splits into two pieces, the easy case detected by the cobordism invariant, and the hard part, bp, for bounds a parallelizable manifold. Now that I think about it, there might be an extension problem?
Gotta be honest here, that's about as far as I know 🙂
Maybe you’re thinking of the fact that km computed the group of manifold homotopy equivalent to the sphere, but didn’t know that they were homeomorphic? until Smale proved the h cobordism theorem, at the same time
Ah that's a possibility yeah, but tbh I didn't know Kervaire--Milnor did that x')
How should I go about it?
Literally proved this today in class
the proof I know uses K theory lol, its deceptively difficult
we used stiefel whitney classes
But isn't U an element of T(d) and B an element of U?
Do double complexes arise from some natural topological construction?
sure, consider the homology of a product XxY, this is computed as the homology of the total complex of a double complex coming from the homology of X and of Y
most spectral sequences come from double complexes
I see ok thanks
Can someone help me find a reference for something? Given an oriented real vector bundle V of rank r over an oriented manifold X of dim r and a section s of V with isolated zeroes, the Euler class of E can be written as $\sum_{z\in Z(s)}sgn_z(s)$.
Finitely Many Bananas
where sgn_z(s) is positive if s preserves orientation near z and -1 if it reverses it
You can look at Guillimen Polark(forgive spelling )in the oriented intersection chapter
It uses a little morse theory tho
how is this proved?
Ad was said by others far more clever than I am, Stiefel--Whitney or K-theory
Is there a general approach to find the euler characteristic of a planar representation? I have one with the word abdacb^-1c^-1d^-1 and i struggle how to find the number of edges vertices and diagrams since some of them are identified with eachother
it's 2cells - 1 cells + 0 cells
Could you elaborate?
what's your definition of Euler char?
vertices - edges + faces
that's what I said
yes
but how did you get those numbers
"i struggle how to find the number of edges vertices and faces since some of them are identified with eachother"
Like in the diagram i see 8 edges, how did you know 6 of them are identified with the other two?
only count the distinct ones
ok so what i do for vertices i put a 1 at the end of edge a. This is then identified with the other front of edge a (beginning of c) so the other beginning of c must also be this vertex, then you get the end of edge d which is the beginning of edge a which is the beginning of edge d which is the end of edge b which is the end of edge c so i only get one vertex
since this process just gives me 1 vertex
?
4 letters means 4 edges?
and just a single face since its a polygon?
so euler is 1-4+1=-2
?
Yes, in the fundamental polygon of a surface all vertices are identified, and you have one edge for each letter.
Okay so then this surface is non orientable since it has letter a twice and since Ng has euler characteristic 2-g it must be homeomorphic to N4 since any non orientable surface is at least homeomorphic to one Ng?
2-2g for orientable 2-g for nonorientable?
yes
My mistake. But yeah, once you have the genus you can use the classification.
What makes the difference y is odd
What if y is even
Thanks for your future help
You should try to solve it in both the even and odd cases. What did you try so far?
I can sketch a proof if u want lol
yes pls
Im try to learn, ı am not good enough. I try but ı cant go so far
Do you know what it means for a subset to be dense in Q?
If not, start by looking up the definition.
Then see if you can apply it to your subset A here.
Nice
I think an alternative (topological) way would be that you can show S^{n-1} is paralellisable iff there is a normed division algebra structure on R^n
and then you can prove that only S^0, S^1, S^3, S^7 are parallelisable (though i don't know the direct way to do this, only that it is a consequence of Hopf invariant 1 and of Adams solution to the vector fields on spheres problem lol)
very cool
no u
I assume something close to this is the subject of your essay
Kinda cute how it's like lol, it all fits together nicely
This is a chapter of my essay aha
nice
due in 12 days 
I think it's going well enough but like I wish I started writing earlier
bc there's always the sneaky little details
Aw yeah sure
Me too lol
Idek how much the details matter cause I keep finding resources online that kinda skim over certain details lol
I'm curious, are you able to like fully prove things
or do you need to sketch / reference a lot
this
I mean okay I basically either prove properly or refer
yeah I'm glad it's not just me
I am over the word limit and like half the stuff is blackboxed lol
ok not half but a decent bit
nice place to be in though
one of my advisors seemed to want me to prove as much as possible lol
I'm a bit under but approaching
but this isn't like a research paper ig lol
kinda lol, been trying to cut stuff out for ages xd
Pain
I emailed a guy who's essay I found online and he said
As an undergraduate it is much more important to present that you understood the essence of a proof or concept rather than to just present all technical steps in detail. My biggest challenge was to stay within the word limit but to still include everything necessary to "tell the story".
so it seems universal
Ah sure
but I've been trying to at least give the key / moral ideas of a proof if it's not a good idea to copy it down
there's still a lot of blackbox though
Yeah fair hm
No idea what the like marking is like lol
Feel like I'm going in a bit blind w that idk about you
Mood
Im gonna save this discussion for when I ask myself the same questions when writing my bachelor’s thesis in a year’s time 
same but in two years' time 
That sounds like the definition of the Euler class. What’s your alternate definition?
Hi, guys, suppose we have a short exact sequence of chain complex, then why this is a commutative diagram?
Per definition
ye
if you want like it is clear every square is commutative by definition of chain map
and then that shows the whole thing is
i still cannot see why each square is commutative
I suggest you look at the definition of a chain map again
Let A be in X a retract and rho: X-> A it's retraction. Let now a be in A and x0 be in X. Why is this thing surjective? I wanted to show it directly. I mean we know that rho* is a grouphomomorphism, so it should be enough to show that im(rho*)=pi1(A,a)
Let gamma be a loop in A with basepoint a, then it is also a loop in X
try using functoriality
Hey! Given a non-singular algebraic curve in CP² (i.e. the zero-set of a non-singular homogeneous complex polynomial A(x,y,z)), I used that the function A defined on CP² has no critical values to say that we have a surface. What would be a quick one-line argument to say that it is closed orientable?
The thing is I'm used to real-valued functions, so I could've said it is the boundary of the pre-image of the open interval [0,+oo[ there, but not with C-valued functions x')
I could say it is a complex one-dimensional submanifold, so it is orientable this way, and for the closed part I could look at the quotient of the map on C^3\{0}, but I'm asking if there's a better argument
it is closed because it is the preimage of 0 under A, but I can't think of a way in which you would show orientable without saying it is a complex manifold. what makes this argument unattractive?
this argument doesn't necessarily work, X can be simply connected while A is not
I don't quite understand you first question
But secondly i mean yea
The cell is a manifold so I don't see why the definition would be any different
A possible answer to your first question would be that an n-cell is homeomorphic to a closed n-disk
So the boundary of an n-disk is S^{n-1} and the interior is the open n-ball
Hey all, I’m having some trouble understanding how Hatcher writes down the third generator for the subgroup this covering space of S1 v S1 corresponds to
could anyone help me figure out how he produces that
those arent generators, they're relations
but basically you can follow the bottom b, the a, and then the bottom b in reverse and you get back to the basepoint
I see, that makes sense
How do I know that bab-1 is the right path to follow? I feel like I could have equally written down bab by going over the top one after
it doesn't matter because b^2 is the identity so b^-1 = b
good luck 
ty!
but you're asking for the actual method used to get those relations. he is computing the fundamental group of that graph, so he chooses first chooses a spanning tree (in this case, just the bottom b). then, he starts at the boldened vertex, travels some (possibly zero) amount along the tree, rides a single edge not in the tree, and travels back along the tree to the boldened point. doing that procedure by hand, you can check that the loops you get are exactly {a,b^2,bab^-1}
this is just as in the proof that graphs have free fundamental groups, if you've seen that
yes, a maximal subgraph with no closed loops
wonderful
will try to compute some myself
akhil mathew is rly putting me through it
I did a very similar course last term, I'll drop the notes in case they're helpful
oh this is great
thanks for sharing
i’ll look at this after my midterm in an hour lol
gl
the proof computing the fundamental group here is a big meh though tbf
well hm @golden gust i wonder what you think of it
like you know the stuff where he subdivides the graphs etc and plays around to make sure they're simplicial complexes or whatever
could he just have said like, lol cut up the edges without changing the topology such that WLOG we have a simplicial complex
I guess the only thing is like that wouldn't give you the same method for thinking about the fundamental group but you can just talk about how a spanning tree of the new thing relates to a spanning tree of the old one ig
this?
Actually tbf this is fine
I think I just remember it feeling overly tedious when he goes to define the bijection etc
Tbh the Chad method is just what May does I think lol
Like quotienting out the spanning tree being a homotopy equivalence
I can't believe I never thought of that
I suppose this way is better for computing explicit generators right
but yeah that is clean
It's sexy but needs more technology i think
And then u need smth like van kampen I think anywa7
what why
i know you guys hate to answer that kind of thing but any good books for newbies on alg-top?
What’s your background?
Bott and Tu is the best. If you’ve studied differential topology, it’s the clear answer. If you haven’t … maybe you should
Bott tu for alg top?
Yeah
Can the universal coefficient theorem be restated in terms of some universal property that homology with Z satisfies?
Everything can be computed from Z because it’s the initial ring. Z-Chains give rise to other chains by simple tensoring. (Or hom for cochains)
Everything is nice in the world of chains / derived categories / oo-categories. That’s where you have universal properties. When you take homology you leave that world you get statements like universal coefficients
There is a general statement that if you have a chain complex over R and an R-algebra S, then there is a spectral sequence computing the homology after tensoring with S from the homology before. But it is more involved, with differentials and extensions. Whereas when R=Z, there are no differentials for degree reasons and it splits for, uh, reasons
i'm trying to understand why two curves in $\mathbb R^3$ which intersect at a point are not transversal. i found a proof online:
Let $X$ and $Z$ be curves in $\mathbb R^3$. Suppose they intersect at a point $p$. Then
[ \dim(T_p(X) + T_p(Z) \le 2. ]
anamono for anamono
why does the last inequality hold?
another question, is the tangent space to a point on a curve in R3 a plane or a line?
what's it's dimension
that's what im confused about
it would make sense if it was dim 2, but then why would the sum of them be at most dim 2?
are you familiar with the relation between the dimension of a smooth manifold and the dimension of its tangent space?
they're equal, right?
yeah so whats the dimension of a curve
is this the right place to ask about functors?
I need to show that the category U, which is given by Ob(U)= {C cat| Ob(C) is a set} and where the morphisms are the functors from a category to another is a category
now I wanted to show that if (C,D)!=(C', D'), then Mor(C,D) and Mor(C', D') are disjoint
but I don't know how to properly argue that
I think this should be in #category-theory
oh, I'm sorry, didn't see that channel
agreed that it's idiosyncratic but it's honestly fine
Hi i have a question regarding this problem. Aren't singleton sets countable and also open, so isn't it possible that int(A) = A?
pls help im confused
is standard topology the same as usual topology?
ok so is my proof correct
Let A be a countable subset of R, then A is either a singleton set or a union of singleton sets. Thus, the largest open set contained in A is null. Thus, int(A)=null
wait i think i need to show this. Let A be a countable subset of R, then A is either a singleton set or a union of singleton sets.
technically any subset is a union of singletons
I would try showing that if it had any point it would be uncountable
do you mean that if int(A) ≠ null then A is uncountable?
Yes
yep
Hi - I’m working on an intro paper where I overview the fundamental group, covering spaces, and the simply-connected seifert van kampen theorem. At the end I’d like to include some examples that aren’t just pure math so people can see why we care about the fundamental group. Does anyone have any cool examples?
in topological data analysis, one associates a topological space (or family of spaces) to some data set, and the topology of this space can tell you interesting things about the distribution of the data. I'm not an expert and I don't have an explicit example, but it seems that the fundamental group is one of the measurements people care about
This seems like a great example to include. I’ll look more into it!
Hello I'm trying to prove the "<=" side here: Is this valid?? $\forall x \in U~\exists B_r^d \subset U\in \tau$ s.t. $B_{r_1}^{d'}(x)\subseteq B_r^{d}(x)\subseteq U \in \tau_{d}$, so $\tau_{d'} \subseteq \tau_{d}$. And then I'd do $\tau_d \subseteq \tau_{d'}$ and so d and d' generate the same topology?
b3s4d
What I'm also not sure of, is that if $U\in\tau_d$ and $B_r^d(x)\subset U$, does that mean that $B_r^d(x)\in\tau_d$? Not really right? But there must be some $B_r^d$ which are element in the topology right?
b3s4d
Did you mean "=>" like this: $\tau_d = {U\subseteq M:\mathrm{U~is~d-open}}$ and $\tau_d=\tau_{d'}$. Then $U, B_r^d(x)\in\tau_{d'}$. Since $\exists r_1 \le r$, then there exists a $B_{r_1}^{d'}(x) \subseteq B_r^d(x) \in \tau_{d'}$
b3s4d
i think there might be some notation inconsistencies but seems like the right idea
like each open set in one is an open set in the other
and vice versa
Yes that's kind of what I thought
But I'm not really sure if every open ball contains a smaller open ball in itself
And if both sides are correct anyways because I think I just assumed a lot of stuff
wdym, you are given that as a hypothesis right?
For the <= direction you mean?
yeah
although these questions I can't answer
well tau_d is the topology from the metric d right
yes
so open balls are open
yeah
wdym contained twice?
or rather multiple times
open sets can be subsets of other open sets, that it not a problem
heres a hint for the first inclusion, B_r^d(x) is open in the topology from d and you know from the hypothesis that the topologies coincide
yep
the second inclusion is very similar
right
That's how I tried that tho
So since there is always a smaller open ball in another open ball I can pick r_1 did you mean it like that?
no, you get existence just from being open in the metric topology
like a set is open iff any point in it has an open ball completely contained in the set
are you familiar with this result?
yeah so this should give you existence of some r_1
Oh wait this makes sense
because the open ball is also just an open set xD
Then the proof is already done
No wait, there exists some r_1 yes but only wrt to the same metric
yeah its not immediate you need to use the fact that its open to then r_1 since it need not be a ball in the same metric
working on hatcher 2.2.10
trying to find Hn(X), X = S^2 with the equator S^1 having its antipodal points identified with each other
is there any way to see how this works
X is obtained from the circle RP 1 by gluing on two disks, each of which wraps around the circle twice.
also, can this be constructed as a CW complex
i assume what was said above works as a CW complex if we just think of the RP1 loop as S^1, and glue the two disks going through twice
but idk if im being too loose by thinking of that RP1 bit as S1
what do we get if we take the closed unit disk (in R^2) and identify antipodal points on the boundary? i gathered from stackexchange that it's RP^2 but i don't see how we arrive at that
yes this seems right
i feel like this just follows from the definition of RP^2 no?
yeah visualizing it is kinda hard but the correspondence between lines through the origin and antipodal points of the sphere should be immediate
Take RP^2 as lines through R^3. This becomes antipodal points on S^2. Delete the bottom hemisphere as it’s already accounted for. You’re left with a disk, and antipodal points on the boundary still need to be identified
Visualizing this identification is not really a thing you can do in 3D brain. But it’s kinda “twisty”
still struggling but thank you all for your input
i had a question about covering spaces
what is the universal cover of S1 v S1
is it that one fractal that looks like a bunch of plus signs
yes
Most TDA doesn't really use the fundamental group, but instead considers homology groups.
suppose the interior is not empty. then A is not countable. fill in the blanks here
ProphetX
Can a square a smooth manifold?
Depends what you mean
You can endow it with a smooth structure by importing charts etc from the disk, say
I dont mean this to sound satirical but what could I mean?
Well okay so
If you just try to give it charts in the "naive" way from its embedding in R^2 then you won't get anything smooth due to the corners
Both you can give it a smooth structure by, say, identifying it with the disk and then using charts for them
I figured, just intuitively, if you can create a curve that goes through that corner point then surely it is a tangent vector and therefore a tangent space can exist everywhere on a square. But what would its curvature be?
I'm not really sure what you mean with the first bit
I'm using the definition of tangent space as the space of equivalence classes in which curves are equivalent with respect to having the same derivative under any chart.
I think my more pressing question follows this:
A circle of radius r could be uniquely defined with a manifold and a metric tensor. What is the minimal additional structure required to uniquely define a square?
hello to prove this, is it fine if I just set r_1 and r_2 (using contained balls) to r_1 = r_2 = r/c?
like this I mean
Not sure what U is, but yeah basically a ball of radius r/c centered at x in the metric d is the same as a ball of radius r centered at x in the metric d'.
I just defined U as an open set in the topology
or like the topology consists of all open sets U
I suppose I could just write B_r^d \in T?
yeah i mean this + the previous problem you were working on gives what you want
ty
But here I'm a bit confused. I know that d'(x,y) <= d(x,y) <= sqrt(n)*d'(x,y)
Does $d'(x,y) \le d(x,y)$ suffice that $B_{r_1}^{d'} \subseteq B_r^d$??
b3s4d
not necessarily
Other way round right
wut
I'll need to find a concrete value for the existence of r_1 right
just like the previous where I chose r_1 = r/c
yeah but potato was saying that $d(x, y) \leq d'(x, y)$ so $B_r^d \subseteq B_r^{d'}$
shd
note that the same radius is used
But isn't d(x,y) bigger than d'(x,y)
no
what are B_1^d(0) and B_1^{d')(0)?
max{y_k} <= sqrt(y_1^2 + ... + y_n^2)?
try drawing it on a plane
with 0 you mean set x to zero right?
yeah the ball around 0
well that's x,y = 0 then so they're equal
well the euclidean ball is the standard circle with radius 1
but the infinity norm ball is not
What is an example of a space that is T0 but not sober?
Any infinite set with the cofinite topology.
The whole space is an irreducible closed set with no generic point.
Hello is my proof correct, or do i need to show that U is finite
let $f,g : X\ \rightarrow\ \ Y$ be continuous and Y be Hausdorff Now let $U\subseteq{Y}$ contains all points in Y s.t $f(x)=g(x)$ By theorem 1.5.21 U is closed and by theorem 1.6.7 the inverse image of U or the set $\left{x\in X\ :f(x)=g(x)\right} $ is also closed in X.
Th 1.5.21 finite subsets of a hausdorff space is closed
Th 1.6.7 if f is continuous then Inverse image of a closed set B in Y is closed in X
Ji
I'm not sure why it looks so complicated.
This amounts to $(f-g)(x) = 0$, so the set is $(f-g)^{-1}({0})$, which is closed since ${0}$ is, unless I'm missing something.
Megumi_Tadokoro
Oh, and ${0}$ is closed because $Y$ is Hausdorff. Unless I'm dumb, Hausdroff is equivalent to singletons are closed.
Megumi_Tadokoro
And I have no idea what Theorem 1.5.21 and 1.6.7 are 
Th 1.5.21 finite subsets of a hausdorff space is closed
Th 1.6.7 if f is continuous then Inverse image of a closed set B in Y is closed in X
thiss
And since $f-g$ is continuous, but that's trivial
Megumi_Tadokoro
I guess what you did is correct, though a bit phrasing will help greatly.
oh ok tnx very much
Minus operation is not assumed here
This works for functions to (R,+,×) but not in general
Instead prove the complement is open
Take a point x with f(x)=/=g(x) and then use haussdorffness of Y
Feel free to let me know if you need more help
Also, an interesting what to do this is uh
Y is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal - the set of points of the form (y,y) - is closed in Y x Y
I mean it amounts to pretty much the standard proof but this is a useful fact to know
Cofinite topology on N has closed singletons but is not haussdorff. Closed singletons is equivalent to T1
It's been a long time 😄 my memory is failing apparently
What's T1 again? Kolmogorov?
Huh, strange... Where did I see that fact then...
Frechet
hello how can I start proving this
I know that the discrete metric generates the discrete topology on any set. I tried to show that the euclidean metric generates the discrete topology on Z but I don't know how
show the open sets are the same, you know what the open sets are in the discrete try showing those are also open in the subspace topology
(so in particular the singletons)
the open sets as in P(Z)?
and the singletons as in 1-9 then??
right those are the open sets of discrete topology of Z, if that is what you are asking
I am not sure what you are asking
I'm also not sure
ok so to be clear I guess, A topology on a set is a collection of "open sets", I am sure you are aware of this. Two topologies are the same if these collections are the same, so if you can show that the two topologies have the same open sets.
In our case, you want to show the subspace topology is the same as the discrete. In the discrete everything is open, in particular the singleton sets {n} are open. So if you show these are also open in the subspace topology, that would be a step towards solving this. You can recover the whole thing from this
Ok I think I get it
So I have a $B_r^{d_E}(x) = {y\in\mathbb{Z}: \abs{x-y} < r}$ So there always exists a radius $r$ s.t. the ball consists of ${x}$ and is open then by definition?
b3s4d
well the ball would consist of a singleton {z in Z}
Yeah this is correct, so now that you know the singletons are open in the Euclidean topology on Z, can you see how this automatically implies that this is discrete
yea because the discrete topology only consists of unions of the singletons
unions and intersections?
well everything is a union of singletons but as long as you have the fact that singletons are open then you have the discrete topology
right thx
hello I'm trying to prove for closeness under finite intersection and I'm using the fact that ${U_n}{n=1}^{N} \subseteq \tau_5$, so $ X\setminus (\bigcap{n=1}^N U_n) = \bigcup_{n=1}^N (X \setminus U_n)$. I know that X is infinite but what about U?
b3s4d
Is it that U is finite so X\U is infinite and thus element in the topology because the union of infinite sets is infinite?
or can U also be infinite? In which case I suppose that the maximum U can be is X which would X/X = emptyset then??
U can be infinite too
I suggest you think of it in terms of like closed sets for ease
What
So U is a closed set thus X is is an open set and element of the topology?
And I'm super stuck here I don't even know how to begin
A reasonable approach might be to try to construct open-but-not-closed and open-but-not-continuous cases separately and then simply put them next to each other ...
(Though actually the first open-but-not-continuous case I can think of also turns out also to be not-closed, so perhaps just think of that first).
No I mean it's easier to check whether it's a topology if you think in terms of closed sets
That's the problem I don't know how
I tried doing stuff like X = {a,b,c}, Y = {a,b,c} with TX, TY being the discrete topologies for example which would make all the sets open
And then how can I prove continunity?
preimages being open?
You probably need something richer than that, yes.
I can think of a modification of the "topologist's sine curve" function which satisfies the conditions (which needs only to be R -> R), but I'm not sure it's the simplest way to get through, so I won't dignify that by the name "hint".
the finite union of infinite sets is infinite or all of X
try
X = [0,1] x {0}
and
Y = S^1 = {(x,y) in R^2 : x^2 + y^2 = 1}
draw out Y and see if u can find a function that parametrizes Y
this doesn’t solve the entire problem, but if u can do this ur half way there. u just need an open map that’s not continuous now
does anyone know an elementary way of proving that S^\infty x I is the direct limit of S^n x I
where S^\infty is defined as the direct limit of S^n
I think if we work in the category of compactly generated spaces or something like that, this just follows from the fact that - x I is left adjoint
but im looking for something more elementary, like proving that a subset of S^infty x I is open <==> its intersection with each S^n x I is open
ehh i think the easiest way might just be doing a lot of point-set topology and using the tube lemma
Couldn't you also just show directly that S^\infty x I satisfies the corresponding universal property of the direct limit? Continuous maps out of S^\infty x I are precisely functions that are continuous on each S^n x I, so I imagine it shouldn't be that bad to show it's universal, unless I'm not seeing something.
yeah but thats the same as showing that S^infty x I has the final topology
the way i proved that involves a bunch of point set
like i think this is equivalent to showing that a map S^infty x I -> X is continuous <==> each map S^n x I -> X is continuous
this is how i proved the converse. im not sure if its the simplest way
maybe show the inclusion of S^n x I into S^m x I for n \leq m
And show it commutes
i.e. use the universal property
So like all these maps are inclusions if you take the right CW structure on S^infty
Now take maps S^n x I -> X for each n in this diagram
my idea would be to define the map S^infty x I -> X as being the corresponding map from S^n x I -> X on the n-cell x I of it's CW structure
And this map is actually well defined by the commutation assumption put on the maps S^n x I
the last point is like
The maps don't have like weird stuff going on between the cells
but is it clear that the map S^infty x I -> X is continuous?
yea
Since all the maps that compose it are continuous
and the fact that there isn't funky stuff going on between the cells
means that nbhds map back well
actually
im a bit confused what you mean here
I'll be back in a minute and I'll explain what I mean since I'm being a bit non rigorous
sure thanks
how is mayer vietoris "equivalent" to SVT
like what does the sequence we get from the thm tell us about X (X being the space we're breaking up into a union)
What is SVT
seifert van kampen
Wtf is the T
theorem
Bro
Bro
Anyway, MV and SvK do pretty much the same thing
if U \cap V is path connected (which is an assumption for van kampen), mayer vietoris tells you that H_1(U u V) = H_1(U) + H_1(V) / image of H_1(U u V), which is basically what van kampen tells you but more complicated because it's not abelian
Like both decompose the space into two open subsets, both split the interesting group, etc
the H_1 groups are the abelianized versions of the π_1 groups
which means you take a group G and you quotient by the "commutator subgroup," and turns it to an abelian group
when you abelianize the free product, you get the direct product
if you know category theory it's much clearer what the relationship between the two is
perhaps i need to review the actual significance of homology/sequences
im still confus but that helped 
i'll be back when i have a more concrete question
just stare at the formulas and squint
what are k* and l* here
The inclusion of A \cap B into A and the inclusion of A \cap B into B
K* - l* is the map that’s in the Mayer vietoris sequence
From H_1(A cap B) to the direct product of H_1(A) and H_1(B)
And you get the quotient by the first isomorphism theorem
Oh sorry
k is the inclusion of A into A u B
And l is the inclusion of B into A u B
And k* - l* is the map from the direct sum into H_1(A u B)
no sorry i misspoke above
lemme just write it out
you have this sequence: $H_1(A \cap B) \to H_1(A) \oplus H_1(B) \to H_1(A \cup B) \to H_0(A \cap B) = 0$
Frank
The last thing is 0 because the intersection of A and B is path connected
exactness tells you that the map $k_* - \ell_* : H_1(A) \oplus H_1(B) \to H_1(A \cup B)$ is surjective
Frank
then apply the first isomorphism theorem
are yoou sure it's \cup
oh that's just X
nvm
oh and there's the k* - l*
so if im asked to compute the MV sequence
is that asking me to literally define the homology groups at each part
I'll make this a big write out\
What I'm concretely talking abt is the fact that I'm defining the map $f:S^\infty \times I \to X$ as follows: take a point $x$ in $S^\infty \times I$, then if $x$ can be seen as an element of $S^n \times I \subset S^\infty \times I$ for some $n$, then $f(x) = f_n(x)$ where $f_n: S^n \times I \to X$. Now this creates some problems at first glance. Firstly look at what happens if we take $x \in S^1 \times I \subset S^2 \times I \subset S^\infty \times I$. Seemingly $x$ gets mapped to different points if we define $x$ as being an element of $S^1 \times I$ compared to it being included in $S^2 \times I$. However due to the fact that $f_1 = i_1 \circ f_2$ we can see that $x$ in fact gets mapped to the same point regardless of how we take it of being included in the CW structure.\
OK so the map is well defined, but now comes the problem of continuity. Take $U \in X$ to be open, and take $X_n$ to be the image of $f_n$. Now to show that $f^{-1}(U)$ is open, we need to show that $f_n^{-1}(U \cap X_n)$ is open (this follows from the fact that $S^\infty \times I$ has the colimit topology). To see this last part I thank this handy mathSE post that basically shows what we want: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/724005/continuous-images-of-open-sets
Hence we have shown continuity!
Irony Incarnate
This is R^2 with two origins. What's the confusion?
It's not even defining an equivalence relation on Y, it's defining an equivalence relation as a subset of X_1\cross X_2, that is ~ is the set of ordered pairs ((x,y),(x,y)), where x,y\neq 0
huh?
How is ~ an equivalence relation on Y?
Elements in X_1 \times X_2 would look like ordered quadruples
or rather, ordered pairs of ordered pairs
((x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2))
Right, but I don't understand what it means by saying '~ is an equivalence relation on Y'
Usually when you say R is an equivalence relation on a set S you're saying R is a subset of S\cross S
It's a certain kind of binary relation
Yes. They are telling you how to relate two points in Y. One point (x_1,y_1) is related to another point (x_2,y_2) iff x_1=x_2 and y_1=y_2 and neither are the origin
one point in Y looks like (x_1,y_1)
Is the "a point in X_1 is related to a point in X_2" whats throwing you off?
You can elevate it to Y in the way I wrote.
Since no points in X_1 (as a subset of Y) will be related to points in X_1 (as a subset of Y) except the reflexive relation
As I understand it, an equivalence relation is a binary relation where the 'domain' and 'codomain' are equal sets. To say ~ is a binary relation on Y or X_1\times X_2 would mean that you're comparing 4-tuples with other 4-tuples
but you're not. You're comparing different kinds of objects than what the equivalence relation is 'on'
I think I found the source of my confusion
Sorry it's just that the definition of the disjoint union is a bit funny
RE this comment: You can think of it either way
It's not exactly set theoretically the same as you're usually with an ordinary union of objects
I guess the right way to go about it is that the actual equivalence relation is supposed to be the 'completion' of what's mentioned in the problem
As in it's omitting the fact that it's also an equivalence relation on X_1 and X_2 when intersected with those sets
Yeah they morally should have stated it on Y, but it doesn't super matter since nothing is happening on X_1 \subset Y as far as ~ is concerned
Right, that's why there's two origins
Yeah
That's kind of annoying how they don't say that explicitly :/
Oh well now I can rest easily
You'll get use to it, this sort of abuse of language is common
Don't get me started on simplicial complexes
You just have to see into the soul of the writer and read their mind sometimes
going back to my old question
what does it mean to compute the MV sequence of a space X
does it mean the homology groups? the homomorphisms? or both
i think it generally refers to computing H_i(X) by using the MV sequence
doing the first part of this
oh its just computing the groups in the sequence then
They just want you to compute the homology of one of the two spaces.
They should really have you compute both.
i kinda have to do both to show them isomorphic anyways
Yes, it's very confusing the way it's worded.
.
observe that the mv sequence for the space that you didn't do is the same 😂
Ah but I guess it's quite obvious looking at the Meyer Vietoris sequence even without really computing anything that the two will be the same
ok ok lemme give it a try first
so if i get this correctly
we start with H_0 and build up the sequence right
Yes.
Or, what do you mean by that?
Also you already know what H_0 is so you can use reduced homology
oh that was another thing i wanted to ask
when is that useful 
i must confess that my understanding of homology is a bit lacking
but im working on it 
Reduced homology is basically just saying "it's dumb that a point has homology, and that everything has at least some H_0, let's throw out one copy of Z/Q/whatever and only keep the important stuff"
You literally take the same chain complex but throw out a factor of Z
Anyway remember that the coboundary maps go from H_1 to H_0 and from H_2 to H_1
because you're doing homology
I believe in you.
oh dear
i know i knowo
Well so given a space X if you reaaaaaallly get down to it (most people don't actually do this most of the time) you want to take a chain complex associated to X called C^*(X;Z)
Oh whoops thats a cochain complex
C_*(X;Z)
There we go.
my prof taught stuff to us in terms of cubes n shit and it just didnt click for me
i know hatcher does it differently though
There are many ways to define this, perhaps the easiest is to take a triangulation of the space X by simplices, then the chains are just "formal Z-linear combinations of simplices"
And the boundary maps are the obvious boundary maps
There are technical subtleties about what kinds of triangulations should be allowed but they dont really matter
Anyway for a 2-dimensional X you get a complex
cubes for singular homology?
it's in massey i believe
C_2(X;Z) \to C_1(X;Z) \to C_0(X;Z) \to 0 where the maps are assigning a triangle its boundary (which is a formal combination of triangles of dimension one less)
The H_2 is the kernel of the first map, the H_1 is the kernel of the 2nd modulo the image of the first, and the H_0 is C_0 modulo the image of C_1
Concretely tho in your problem you only need to know the answer for a 2-sphere, and some lines
And you also need to know that homology groups are a homotopy invariant
i know that H_2(S^2) = Z and zero everywhere else, we did that in class
well H_0(S^2) = Z as well
oop
this is just a consequence of exactness right
wdym? the chain complex is not necessarily exact

It's a consequence of the fact that the chain complex is a complex that the definition makes sense
E.g. part of being a complex is that the boundary of a boundary is zero.
But exactness only happens if all the homology vanishes, that's what homology measures.
This is a triangulation of a torus (because the sides a and b are identified) if you want to get a handle on what's happening this might be a nice thing to work out
You could also do S^2 explicitly as it's simpler.
Anyway intuitively H_1 is the group of "holes" in the space and H_2 is the group of 2-dimensional "holes" whereas H_0 is the group of components.
And so on for bigger homology groups
ok this is the most tangible thing ive read so far lol
So for the torus you get H_1 = Z^2 (you should do this by hand!) reflecting that there are two independent holes on a torus.
Then H^2 = Z because the torus has no boundary
H_0 = Z because it has one component
All the higher stuff is trivial because it's two-dimensional
The other important thing to know is that it's a homotopy invariant, so often you can mush stuff around to make it simpler to compute.
by this you mean it's like a surface right
like there is no border
like a disk would have a boundary
Yeah, I guess I really mean "compact oriented surface without boundary"
Yes exactly
Although thats a bad example because it has no homology lol
Except for H_0
Or sorry that's a good example
For that reason.
im gonna guess that having no homology corresponds to the fact that it has trivial fundamental group too right
Yeah, even better: you can shrink the disk continuously to a point (it's contractible) so the homology has to be the same as the point.
shd just lurking fr
you also have H_1 is the abelianization of pi_1 for path connected
Yes and in general there is an analogous statement for H_i as long as H_j vanishes for 0 < j < i
But this involves higher homotopy groups which you may not've learned yet.
thats hurewicz right?
hurewicz is on another problem in my hw 
im a little behind lol but this is helping a ton 
so computing homology of a group is like asking how many n-dimensional holes does this space have
yeah thats one way to think of it
and those holes can be represented by the nth homology groups
or well
they are the groups
err i think the correspondence is hard to quantify though idk that much
Yes exactly, although it's a bit complex how to interpret what it means when the groups are torsion, etc.
But if all the groups are free (like in your example) then that's basically what's happening.
The first version of homology people had was just the euler characteristic which is the alternating sum of the ranks of the homology groups, then people realized that there were actually numbers that made sense (the number of factors of Z in the H_i) then eventually realized that the best thing to do was to use the groups themselves for maximum information
For what you're doing H_i may as well just be a number, and that number is the "number of n-dimensional holes"
Its the number of factors of the free cyclic group which occur
well generally if its finitely generated itll be Z^r + torsion parts
so if H_i = Z^d it's the d that's important to you
so i'm currently trying to prove that for a connected topological manifold, there exists a homeomorphism of it that sends one point of it to another
the first step is to pass to charts
namely, regular coordinate balls
and first show that there exists a homeomorphism of the closed ball sending one interior point p to say, another interior point q
that fixes the boundary
i'm struggling to prove this fact though
Since the manifold is only topological you can just move in a straight line.



