#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 25 of 1
is there an intuitive way to think about orientability of a manifold
and when it's not orientable
the mobius example makes sense but beyond that idk
My nitro was free, so this was a win win moment
. Anyway, if you know homology and stuff I recommend reading https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orientability under “homology and the orientability of general manifolds”. The idea is that you first look at local orientations at each point p, which is a generator of H_n(M, M\ p), which turns out to be the homology, in appropriate dimension, of a sphere, which is Z. The local orientation is just a choice of a generator here, so either +1 or -1, which basically says that you choose whether or not “a sphere around that point goes positively or negatively”. Now in some sense M is orientable if all these local orientations agree somehow. This is all made precise in the wikipedia article I sent
I guess it’s still worth reading the wiki if you don’t know homology and stuff tho
I think it makes morese sense when talking about orientability along a curve.
Consider a point in your manifold. Choose an orthonormal basis of the corresponding tangent space. For instance, you're the point and the manifold is the universe, and your orthonormal basis is your first three fingers (thumb,index,middle).
Now, start moving the point around, along a closed loop. There is a way to carry the orthonomal basis along with that point into the different tangent spaces (out of context here, but you could use a Riemannian metric and use parallel transport for this).
If the curve does not exit a very small neighborhood of the point, well, because you're on a manifold locally modelled around R^n, this will not do much, and after you're back at the initial position, you'll have applied a rotation to the basis. That is, you have used an element of SO(n).
Now, for any loop, you always end up applying an O(n) map to the orthonormal basis. Turns out: sometimes, this element is not in SO(n)! This means that the determinant of the change of basis is -1. Now, for our analogy, this means that if you looped around the entire universe, you would still be you, but everyone else would have their heart on the right, and the US would be driving on the left (note: there is no such thing as left or right in a non-orientable manifold).
Hopefully, the universe is orientable, so this doesn't really happen. But on the Mobius band, it does happen: your basis is only your first two fingers (thumb,index). Now, if you start moving along a loop that turns around once, you'll end up back at the original position, but with the orientation reversed!
You call a manifold orientable if along any closed loop, you end up with an SO(n) change of basis. The manifold is non-orientable if a disorienting loop exists: one that has O(n) but not SO(n) change of basis.
Tbh, orientability is more of a geometric and concrete notion, you don't need homology to 'understand' it. Of course, there's homological interpretations of it, but in the end what matters is change of basis along closed curves.
Like, I've never really managed to represent the homology group H_n(M,M\p) in my head x')
yeah I agree, this is a nice explanation, but I just thought that I would mention a description of it terms of homology and stuff because I personally like it
Oh I don't dislike that explanation, it has great use in orientability of vector bundles over non-orientable things!
yeah true, but I think your explanation does more justice to this lol. I was actually about to edit my post to say "if you don't know homology and stuff, wait for someone else to answer this" lol
I made a mistake typing this last night sorry
Do you know where I can find this demo?
Awuita Fria
A set of $X\subset \mathbb{R}^{n}$ is bounded if, and only if, its projections are $X_{1}=\pi_{1}(X),...,X_{n}=\pi_{n}(X)$ are bounded sets in $\mathbb{R} $

Awuita Fria
What's a demo
Proof?
Formal statement?
It's unlikely you'll find a proof of this in any textbook. It's clear enough that it's probably left as exercise
I'm really sorry I'm tired and I haven't slept well, I just woke up and I'm a little sleepy.
I would like to do it in a different way than the one in the book so I was wondering if there is another way to solve it.
Can you translate? What different way are you seeking?
I mean I don't really know how else you could rephrase it
In the 2D case, the proof is saying (informally) "you can fit a subset of R^2 in a box iff of finite length and of finite width"
i'm not really sure how one can give a nicer proof
I am reading about sequences and Bolzano's theorem so, first I have to say that the sequence is bounded which I have proved effectively, now as the sequence is bounded I have to say that the projections are bounded, now by Bolzano's theorem I know that all the projections have a convergent subsession then
- I have proved that the sequence is bounded.
- I have not proved that the projections are bounded.
- if the sequence in Rn is bounded and its projections are also bounded then the projections have subsucesion by Bolzano's theorem.
- there is a part of the proof that I do not understand about subsessions and nested intervals of naturals (N),
The proof.......
You're asking for a "different proof," but not translating the original
Unless you're asking for another way to state it?
What do you want??
Does this work to show a topological space X with the discrete topology is locally compact?
Suppose $x \in X$. We show ${x}$ is compact. If ${U_\alpha}$ is an open cover of ${x}$, then some $U_{\alpha_i}$ contains $x$. So ${U_{\alpha_i}}$ is a finite subcover that also covers ${x}$. So $x \in {x} \subseteq {x}$, and since ${x}$ is open, X is locally compact
michαel
Sorry, I use the translator as I don't speak English.
the proof tells me that if I have a bounded subset in Rn then the projections are bounded.
I would like to make the proof different from the book
Seriously sorry sorry sorry for the English, sometimes I have complications to be able to make myself understood.
I'm sorry, but I cannot help you construct a proof different from the one in the book if I am unable to read the proof in the book. Hopefully a Portuguese (?) speaker comes along that can help you.
I can help you, i'm from the same country. (sou do msm país, me manda dm)
dm me
im going to sleep rn, but when i wake up tomorrow hopefully we can talk
what does "f extends to a homeomorphism of their one-point compactifications" mean?
specifically the f extends part
i think it means that there exists a unique homeomorphism g on the compactifications such that g|_{X_1} = f, so show existence first, then show any two homeomorphisms on the compatifications, which if they both restrict to f, must be the same
Any hint on why the subscript of the last x^2 in the bottom line isn't a + b - 2s? Or, more generally, does anyone know where I can find a similar proof?
(this is from Fuchs and Fomenko's proof of Adem's relations)
Hm the statement doesn't say it's unique tbf
(Though uniqueness is obvious just set-theoretically)
Can I write to you privately?
done bro
what is the best way outside a standard group theory/algebra course to learn the group theory required for the second half of munkres?
I don’t think you need a bunch of group theory to read it, a standard group theory/algebra course would do it
i dont have any group theory knowledge yet
Oh sorry, I misread your question
How about this then? https://people.bath.ac.uk/gt223/MA30237/lnotes.pdf
Up to page 34 should be enough I think
I haven’t actually read the thing so maybe I’m in the wrong by recommending it, but it looks very friendly with pictures and stuff. Otherwise every basic algebra book should cover the prerequisites
thanks sm
any pointers on this please
this isnt really clear on what a double cover means lol
i asked about this before but forgor to reply sorry matplotlib
it says what it means in the parenthesis
it means the preimage of any point consists of two points
more generally, an n-fold cover is a covering map for which the preimage of a point consists of n points
just a 2 sheeted cover
Make sure to read all the answers
Is there an error in the claim pi^{-1}({pi(p)}) = [p]? I think that [p] is not an element of S, but an element of S/~ so how can this be closed in S?
I mean we have defined that pi(x) = [x] so pi(p) = [p] and no we are saying that pi^{-1}([p]) = { x \in S | pi(x) \in [p] } = { x \in S | [x] \in [p] } = [p], but I don't think that [x] \in [p] means anything?
[p] as an equivalence class on S, is a subset of S
It's not pi(x) in [p] but pi(x) in {[p]}
That is [x] = [p]
When you write f^-1(a) here its meant to be as a fiber - like f^-1({a})
Sorry didn't sleep well
idrk where to post this, i know cartan decomposition is probably used somewhere but other than that i have no idea where to begin
ooooooooohhhhhhh i thought that was a z lmao

i solved it myself
let q be a quotient map from P to M, since P is second countable there's a countable basis B for the topology of P
I fail to see why {q(U) for U in B} doesn't satisfy this definition of basis
I know that's wrong since I'm not using the locally euclidean assumption
but I don't see why
oh, q^-1(q(U) might not be open coz q might not be injective 
nvm then 
yeah q(U) might not be open
But {q(U) : U in B} still form a network so you do get that M is second countable e.g. when M is compact
As to see where this fails, R/Z (topological quotient identifying Z with a point) is not second countable
In fact not even first countable
Interesting thing I found
https://dantopology.wordpress.com/2009/11/16/network-weight-of-topological-spaces-i/
It's also second countable if we assume M is metrizable or locally compact it seems
So M locally Euclidean is a special case of M being locally compact
I mean it makes sense that if nw(X) = w(X) holds for compact spaces then it should hold more generally for locally compact ones
So it does follow from {q(U) : U in B} being a countable network
in metrizable everything is equal, weight, network weight, cardinality of dense subsets, etc etc
Good point. I actually knew that because I read it in handbook of set-theoretical topology
I am at the midpoint of engelking, really enjoying it
some of the results are really beautiful, its a shame they are not that useful outside general topology
Cech-complete spaces are a very neat abstraction for unifying baire category theorem for locally compact spaces and for complete spaces
I never read Engelking, mostly picking up theory as I go when reading other stuff
its a tough read id say, very compressed and not much in terms of exposition
I have plans to read it, just not a priority
but the results are very cool
for example, a metrizable space is complete iff it is a countable intersection of open sets of any space its embedded in
What I find interesting is dimension theory for Tychonoff spaces
and all separable completely metrizable spaces are embeddedable in R^\aleph_0 as closed subspaces
why do you find it interesting?
It's a setting where dimension theory still somewhat works
It's interesting to see how the different dimensions behave for those spaces
I've been zero-set pilled
from what ive read so far i found Stone-Cech compactification to be the most interesting part
apparently its an important object in logic and set theory, so im looking forward to that perspective on it
It also appears in functional analysis
oh yeah? how?
Stone-Cech compactification has some interesting properties but it's usually very far from simple as an object
βN for example
yeah, engelking discussed some properties of it, seems like a very...peculiar object, to say the least
The dual of bounded continuous functions on X is the space of finite Radon measures on βX
ad this
Yeah my suggestion is to not try to understand it intuitively, but in terms of its properties.
thats how i took it to be
well you inspired some confidence into me, while i really liked the material i was a little afraid that im spending time on something disconnected from the rest of math
thanks
You're welcome. It's nice to see someone interested in topology! 
what about realcompact spaces and perfect mappings, are they useful tools?
they seemed a little disconnected from the rest of the material
Perfect/proper maps are used in some AT ig
If its used in AT then I'd consider that it has applications
Realcompact spaces I think are used in some topological group stuff but not certain
icic
I don't think this is true tbh idk where realcompact spaces are applied
I guess to characterize compactness 
A lot of the time you see something like that and don't think about it much other than "it's just another way to generalize or modify this and that concept"
It's definitely something that conceptualizes a chunk of topological spaces so ig that's good enough
I see, makes sense
Is the trefoil knot and the unknot diffeomorphic as submanifolds of R^3?
Not in the sense that there's an automorphism of R^3 that takes one to the other. The complement of the unknot has fundamental group Z, the complement of the trefoil knot has a more complex (not abelian) fundamental group.
yes, they just aren't ambient isotopic
their knot complements are also different as troposphere mentions, but this isn't really relevant to the question you're asking
I'm mostly confused about whether "diffeomorphic as submanifolds of R^3" means something different from "diffeomorphic as differentiable manifolds in their own right".
It’s not a standard term
I think most people will read "diffeomorphic as manifolds" unless ambient isotopy is specified
asked about this before but im having trouble seeing that this is a double covering
what's with the mod 1
better question but what's the map here
Cut the torus into two halves, each a tube with a 180° bend.
Then each of those two halves maps to an entire trip around the Klein bottle, but with the cross-sections of the tube mapped to circular cross sections of the Klein bottle in different directions for the two halves.
ok i was already half way there
i just cut a torus in half
but wdym a 180 degree bend
like just an arbitrary path wrapping around it?
I just mean, suppose your torus is a bicycle tube. The each of the halves of the torus covers 180° of the wheel perimeter.
The covering T²->Kl is geometric, I usually think of it as a quotient of the torus by a free action of Z/2 on it. Here, I found the fixed-point-free involution on the torus that works: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3395391/proving-quotient-space-of-torus-homeomorphic-to-klein-bottle
I mean, I think of it the same as I think of S²->RP²: your involution identifies pairs of 'antipodal' points on the torus
what's our equivalent of antipodal though
The involution (z,w)->(z*,-w)
So you reflect the torus along a plane, and you rotate by 180°
Try to pick different points on the torus, and see where they are mapped to
Actually, what I drew also works for the 2-sphere and for any higher genus orientable surface (which happens to be the oriented cover of the corresponding non-orientable surface)
oh i see
i find it easier to imagine it kinda inside a sphere
and then it's literally just "normal" antipodal-ness
the the fiber of any point in this composition of maps is two points right
the RP2 analogy helped
If you consider the map T²->Kl
it's like mapping to the upper hemisphere of the torus in a way
The involution itself is a map T²->T²
ok you keep saying involution but we havent used that term in my class
Yes, although the fundamental domain of the Z/2 action is going to be the 'upper torus' here
A map f:X->X is an involution if the composite with itself is the identity: f²=id
This corresponds to a group action of Z/2, where 0 acts as id and 1 acts by the involution
But basically, here, if I denote the involution as f:T²->T², then the Klein bottle is the topological space T²/f, where the equivalence relation is x~f(x)
Endowing it with the quotient topology still makes it a smooth 2-manifold, and it happens to be diffeo to Kl (however you defined it)
my question is to prove that there is a double covering of T -> K, is this enough?
I mean, it depends on what stuff you have available in your lectures
it's such a guess tbh
If you have the classification of surfaces, then it's done yeah
we did that early on yeah
Do you have group actions on manifolds?
briefly but yes
actually my first idea was to look at their fundamental groups
is that related
since you mentioned group actions
The proof could go as follows: the quotient is a non-orientable closed connected surface (the involution is orientation-reversing, and you have a free action of Z/2). Basically, you can check that this induces a covering, and the degree of the covering is the cardinality of a fiber (two). You compute Euler characteristics, and use classification of surfaces to show that below is a Klein bottle
i dont see the classification, isnt the klein bottle P # P
But again, it depends on if all those words I use are something you did in your lectures. your professor could also be a meanie and be expecting you to work with a parametrization of the torus and the Klein bottle (if he's a diff geometer for instance)
he is not thankfully 
The classification tells you that the only non-orientable closed connected surface with Euler characteristic zero is the Klein bottle
ahhh i forgot about that
okay im gonna switch gears a moment
because i mostly understand the covering so i'll come back to that later
this is begging for SVT right?
wait this smells like you can deform it into an easy space
sniff sniff
Like a wedge of four circles?
Yeah I agree
but my brain is tired so i wasn't sure if i'm making things up
ohhh we can push those points in
like those four little dashes on the circle are all identified under this quotient right
that makes it easier to see the wedge at least 
well
im not sure actually but i'll draw it anyways
it'd look like a four leafed clover
yeah
No, the pi1 is not Z/4
It's the free goup on 4 generators
Wait, no
The space is not a wedge of 4 circles
It's for all theta that you identify it with theta+pi/2
So yeah the Z/4 thing makes more sense
Yeah, SVK gives you that
ohh i missed that
For b), you need to know how many subgroups there are of Z/4
If you have a generator in the subgroup, then you're screwed you have the whole group, so the only non-useless subgroup (ie not the whole or the trivial) is the Z/2 spanned by the class of 2
No, you have two
The universal cover, and the one corresponding to the subgroup Z/2
(if you exclude the trivial cover id:X->X)
to show that a covering of X onto Y does NOT exist is it enough to shown that the fundamental group of X is a subset of that of Y
do you mean subgroup?
for connected covers this comes from galois correspondence
bc fundamental groups of connected covers correspond w subgroups of fundamental groups of the base space
Do you have a specific example? A direct computation of the Euler characteristics could be enough
Otherwise, yes, you should prove that the fundamental group of the thing above is not a subgroup of the fundamental group of the thing below
Suppose (E, f, B, F) is a fibration. Then, under suitable compactness hypotheses, I think we have
p(E) = p(B)p(F),
where p is the Poincaré polynomial.
This doesn't work for Poincaré series (when we drop compactness). Is there anyway to save this?
it was actually the converse of the klein bottle thing i was talking about earlier
showing that there is no double covering of K onto T
If your definition of poincare polynomial is that x^n has coefficient the n-th betti number, in particular you're not ignoring the 0th one, then the hopf fibration S^1 -> S^3 -> S^2 should be a counterexample, since x^3+1 != (x^2+1)(x+1)
what's a covering trasformation
it's in a friend's notes but not defined in my textbook
a covering space map?
Hm
I would understand that as a deck transformation
Which is not a covering map/projection
its an automorphism of the covering space that preserves the covering map
Sad
It is true that chi(E) = chi(B)chi(F), though. So I'd still like something similar for infinite-dim spaces
lol is this someone's name or did someone do the funnies
Deck as in card deck I think
Since you get an induced permutation on the fiber
You had a question yesterday that asked for isomorphism classes of coverings
That usually refers to two coverings s.t. there is a homeomorphism between the two that respects fibers
A covering transformation is (for me) a continuous map that does that
@limpid fern wdym?
isnt the discrete topology just the powerset of the space?
oh do you mean, for a particular point x \in X the smallest open neighborhood you can choose is {x}?
yep
perhaps your question could be
"given some open nbhd, can we always find a smaller one?"
and the answer is no
huh then you need a different definition for convergence in topological spaces?
no?
the topological definition of convergence is given an arbitrary open set around the convergence point
we can always find the tail of the sequence there
it goes wonky in the discrete topology btw
I see okay my intuitions of R^n have lead me astray 
like say we have some limit point x
we can literally take {x} (which would be an open set)
I mean you can see how weird that gets
right you just say "for every open nbhd around the convergence point" instead of for every open ball in the metric space case
ok im gonna do electrodynamics now 
the convergence point? 
lol
*a convergence point
it's only "the" if its hausdorff
(but you don't have that wonkiness in hausdorff spaces anyway)
oh
(you can converge to more than 1 limit if you have weird spaces)
oh goddamn
so a given sequence can have any number of limit points? (on a general top space)
that's totally not insane

last thing about this discussion hopefully but how does this act (choosing my words carefully here bc there's a notion of a group action here i think) on the fundamental group of T and K
any hints on this please 
in general, im havinig trouble really seeing the relationship between covering spaces and properties of the fundamental group
Are you reading a textbook sebb or just notes?
Right, but are you reading a textbook, or just his notes
do you have a concrete path on RP² representing a generator of pi1(RP²)
oh i use the textbook as reference
mostly his notes
is concrete a formal term?
it's something you can draw or you can define with honest formulas
because it's only asking to move it in pi1 of the connected sum, and then lift it to your covering
and once you have lifted it you know the action on all the (2n,0,0)
and hopefully you can deduce the action on everything else from that
what's an example of a net that's not a sequence?
Riemann sums
i just realized my midterm is on thursday and not tomorrow

last semester i thought my midterm was on thursday when it was on a tuesday
this is a much better feeling than that
In a space with the diffuse topology, every point is a limit of every sequence.

Non Hausdorff spaces are weird.
Is diffuse another term for indiscrete (the trivial topology)? Or something different? I haven't heard about it.
Oh that would make sense actually 
What's a diffuse topology?
Yes, I meant indiscrete topology. It was called "diffuse" when I learned point-set many years ago (in a non-English language), but Google now tells me that it an exceedingly rare name.
smh tropo trying to fool me with a trivial example 


Like, the only Google hits are course notes from the one professor who taught that course.
With respect to convergence at least
And extensions of continuous functions from dense sets 
Or compact sets being not necessarily closed
It's just that assumption of Hausdorffness leads to beneficial properties which may often fail in another setting
huh?
A topology is something you put on a space. Any space can be endowed with the indiscrete topology
To ask for an indiscrete topology doesn't really make sense
There is only one
lol
Anyway, what does it mean to "splice by a sphere?" For example in the construction of pi_2 using whitney disks in OS's HF homology, what does this mean
Are all of these being used in the same way?
If so, what do any of them mean
The vibe from the last one is just, you stick the two disks together and get a new one from x to z
But this seems somewhat sketch just for existence on RHS versus LHS if we are just naively sticking them together
I'd say 'set' instead of space but yeah
Indiscrete topology on a set X is the smallest topology you can give on a set, it consists only of the empty set and X, that is {empty set, X} is the indiscrete topology on X
Intuitively it's a topology which doesn't distinguish between any two points of X
dox
Okay so basically, there are only three index 2 subgroups of Z², which are:
- {(x,y) | x=0 (mod 2)}
- {(x,y) | y=0 (mod 2)}
- {(x,y) | x+y=0 (mod 2)}
I know how to draw a 2-fold covering for the first two (they are a torus wrapped around twice, just like the 2-fold cover of the circle). What is a covering corresponding to the third? Been trying to see this all afternoon, and I'm starting to think the space above might just not be a torus...
I would like to announce I have figured it out
When in doubt, approximate

quick question: if two topological spaces have different fundamental groups then they are not homeomorphic, but if two topological spaces have the same fundamental group, that does not imply that they are homeomorphic right?
Correct. For example, S^n has trivial fundamental group for n > 1, but S^n is not homeomorphic to S^m if m is not equal to n
right okay thanks
im not sure how useful this is, but does homeomorphism imply identical fundamental groups?
Homeomorphic spaces have isomorphic fundamental groups. In fact, homotopy equivalent spaces have isomorphic fundamental groups, the isomorphism being induced by a homotopy equivalence
A broad theme of algebraic topology is to understand spaces up to homotopy equivalence (because this is a more tractable problem than understanding spaces up to homeomorphism). Knowing that the fundamental group is preserved under homotopy equivalence is good and useful because it tells us that the algebraic invariants we assign to our spaces will help us distinguish between spaces which aren't homotopy equivalent
very interesting, thank you very much
ye exactly, now you might ask for a converse: do homotopy groups (which are just maps from S^n to X up to homotopy with a "natural" group structure, e.g. the fundamental group is the first homotopy group) characterize your space up to homotopy equivalence (as Walter said above, the fundamental group does not suffice for this, but maybe looking at the higher homotopy groups will)? The answer turns out to be no, but you can get a nice "algebraic" partial converse to this if you restrict to CW complexes, where Whiteheads theorem holds, which says that two CW complexes are homotopy equivalent iff there is a map inducing an isomorphism on all the homotopy groups
this is irrelevant to your questions but I thought it would be nice to mention since it's a cool thing
woah that's pretty intense but sounds really cool. i think i need more background to really understand it. do you prefer hatcher's book?
👀
Lmao clerk ready with those eyes
Idk there seems to be a lot of controversy around it, but I personally like it. There are other books too, e.g. Dieck, Spanier, May, Rotman, Switzer maybe if you want to go deeper I guess
Maybe clerk reacted with the eyes because of something different?
Hm maybe I'm being dense, but okay so one form of Bott periodicity says that $\Omega^2 (BU \times \mathbb Z) \simeq BU \times \mathbb Z$ and since $K^0(X) \simeq [X,BU \times \mathbb Z]$ whilst $K^{-2}(X) = K(\Sigma^2 X) \simeq [\Sigma^2 X, BU \times \mathbb Z]$ we have $K^0(X) \simeq K^{-2}(X)$ as sets via $\Sigma-\Omega$ adjunction. But why does this homotopy equivalence lead to an isomorphism of \emph{groups} $K(X) \simeq K^{-2}(X)$?
potato
Iirc Clerk is not a fan of Hatcher but maybe I remember wrong
Ye iirc they like Spanier, don’t quote me on this tho
I just like Hatcher because it’s very geometrical and it honestly covers a lot
Hatcher bad.
dC eyes emoji because someone said the word complex and their simplex OCR got triggered
where is Max and brofib
the eyes were more like "Can't wait to see who's going to start a fight over Hatcher this time"
I do not like Hatcher.
I like Spanier.
Whatever floats your boat
I want to prove that $[a,b] \cap \mathbb{Q}$ is not compact in $\mathbb{Q}$ for all $a,b \in \mathbb{R}^+$ with $a<b$.\ Since $[a,b] \cap \mathbb{Q}$ is countable, we can enumerate it as ${q_1, q_2,...}$. I want to say ${[a, q_i)}{i \in \mathbb{Z}+}$ is an open cover of $[a,b] \cap \mathbb{Q}$ with no finite subcover, but if $b \in \mathbb{Q}$, I think this may not actually cover the set. Is there a way to fix this?
michαel
would including a set like (q_1, b] in the open cover do it?
You can play around with the left end points too
But you can just adapt the cover a bit and use a similar idea
So like, if b is irrational, what you've done works nicely.
So try adapting it so that you use a number in [a,b] you know is irrational
this might be more complicated than it has to be but how about this
Pick $\alpha \in (a,b)$ that is irrational. Say $[a, \alpha] \cap \mathbb{Q} = ${p_1, p_2, ...}$, and $[\alpha,b] \cap \mathbb{Q} = {q_1, q_2,...}$. Then ${[a, p_i)} \cup {(q_i, b]}$ is an open cover of $[a,b] \cap \mathbb{Q}$ with no finite subcover
michαel
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
and this should work for rational or irrational a and b
That works yes but can be made simpler
You don't need to explicitly enumerate stuff
{[a, n) | n < alpha} U {(n, b] | n > alpha}?
wait would i have to intersect it with Q though
yeah
but i assumed that's what you meant lol
But yeah uh what I had in mind was like
$\mathscr U = {U_n}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ where $U_n = { x \in [a,b] \cap \mathbb Q : |x-\alpha| \ge 1/n}$
potato
ah so the cover elements here are just single points
No
oh wait nvm
Yeah so like
stuff of the form [a, alpha - 1/n) cup (alpha + 1/n,b ], basically
But yeah
Also, like
[a,b] is compact Hausdorff, so a subspace of it is compact iff it is a closed subspace
Well okay that is overkill but let's simplify that
One thing you can use is that for metric spaces X, X is compact iff it is sequentially compact
And it's easy enough to find a sequence in [a,b] \cap Q which doesn't have a convergent subsequence - just approximate an irrational by a sequence of rationals
That corresponds to a cover without a finite subcover
we actually just convered compact iff sequentially compact in metric spaces so that makes sense
thanks so much!
Np
what is this saying in english
might i ask why
my prof uses Massey and takes problems from hatcher
but also here i think im just getting lost in the symbols
what's the conclusion of theorem 2.1?
hatcher is a bit verbose and handwavy with his arguments. A lot of intuition and it can be hard to track down the rigor. He leaves a lot of work to the reader of filling in the rigorous content behind what he's saying, too, and this gives the overall impression that rigor is just not very important in topology and you can just vibe with the playdoh
that makes sense with the way my prof has taught this so far lol
his proof of pi(S1) was basically "look at it"
i cant deny that the relaxation in rigor has made it more fun though
but i guess i should go through spanier when i inevitably redo this
Anyone know anything about "Topology and Groupoids" by Ronald Brown?
I'm sure it's a good book but just hearing the name of it makes me laugh because Ronnie Brown shills his book on stackexchange every single time he answers a question about topology
Q: "How do I compute the fundamental group of this polyhedron?"
A: "In my book, Topology and Groupoids,..."
lmao
i like to imagine professors sitting patiently in front of their monitors waiting to be like "ackchually"
bump to this though
it's like a slightly different universal property...?
.
you posted it later
Oh
I see.
Basically like
In category theory, a universal project defines an object up to isomorphism
This is like a very general theorem/metatheorem that reoccurs in lots of places in category theory
so like
Once you prove that there is at least one object X satisfying the universal property
then you know it's unique
Uniqueness basically always holds for universal properties
even if existence doesn't
ok so it's not just me, this feels strangely abstract
So you can read proposition 2.1 as being in two parts:
- There is a certain universal property P
- the weak product of Abelian groups has this universal property, i.e., there exists an object having the universal property
then prop 2.2 is uniqueness
3. There is a unique object with property P up to isomorphism
i see
I can spell this out for you if you like lol
Let ${ G_i }_i$ be a family of Abelian groups.
diligentClerk
We say a group $A$ has the universal property $P$ if, for any Abelian group $B$, there is a one to one correspondence between\
\begin{itemize}
\item families of homomorphisms $\phi_i : G_i \to B$
\item homomorphisms $A \to B$
\end{itemize}
diligentClerk
Moreover, this correspondence should be "natural" in B. Don't worry about what this means rn
But note that if you take B = A and the homomorphism A -> B to be the identity map id_A, then this corresponds to some family of maps \psi_i : G_i -> A.
Now proposition 2.1 says:
The weak product G of the Abelian groups has the universal property P.
Proposition 2.2 says:
The object satisfying the universal property P is unique, up to isomorphism; any object satisfying property P is isomorphic to the weak product.
is H_n always the abelianization pi_n/[pi_n,pi_n] or is that only for n=1?
ok i should have googled it first
Even for n=1 it is only true is your space is path-connected.
cf. hurewicz theorem.
If X is limit point compact and A is a closed subset of X, then A is limit point compact.
To prove this I need to show every infinite subset B of A has a limit point b. Should I be showing this in the smaller space A? So every open set in A containing b intersects B\{b}?
vs every open set in X containing b intersects B\{b}
lol well if anyone saw this, Bott answers this question in another paper lol
Hey im trying to proof $C:=[-1,0]^2\cup[0,1]^2$ is contractible. Visually it makes sense that you can collape any point to $(0,0)$. To proof it is contractible I think it is easiest to proof $Id_C$ is nullhomotopic. For this i set up a homotopy: $H(a,t)=(1-t)a$. It is easy to verify $H(a,0)=a (Id_C)$. $H(a,1)=(0,0)$. But i struggle what the steps are to proof it is continuous. It is just the product of two continuous functions, is it that easy? I can also check that H maps each point to another point in C, are these two enough?
AlexSchopbarteld
Well
Tbh usually one would just say this is obviously continuous lol, but also it is clear from the metric on R^2 (if you want another way)
Fair enough haha
This is so funny
Reading some answer and as soon as I read that books name „oh it’s Ronnie again“
Yup
okay then
True lol. He has to gain recognition somehow
how is knowledge of free groups/products relevant to fundamental groups
obv example is SVT ig
is the free product of groups the same as their direct sum?
NO

The free product of groups is a kinda weird and messy thing, but it's characterized by the same universal property as the coproduct, of say modules. Namely, if you have group homomorphisms G -> K and H -> K, then there is a unique group homomorphism G * H -> K such that the canonical inclusions G -> G * H and H -> G * H make the relevant diagram commute
I'm saying that because I know you've seen categorical coproducts before
yeah i saw the universal property thing and figured they might be at least similar
As for the actual construction of the free product of groups, it's a little messy to deal with in a hands on manner as you have to start talking about reduced words and such
i have this example
Right, given groups G and H, a word is some element of the form w1 w2 ... wn where each w_i is in G or H. You can reduce this word by removing copies of the identity or multiplying adjacent words if they lie in the same group
Yes, precisely. Every word has a unique reduced form. The free product of G and H is the group whose underlying set is the set of reduced words where the group operation is concatenation
There are some technical issues to settle, like concatenating reduced words need not yield a reduced word so you have to rewrite it as a reduced word
ig the word stuff at least makes it kinda clear how it relates to polygons n stuff
Free products are annoying and messy in practice, they become a bit more tangible if you opt to work with group presentations since then you can explicitly write presentations for free products and free products with amalgamation
Perfect
- Free Products of Groups
- Free Groups
- Presentation of Groups by Generators and Relations
Fun
lot's of free stuff 
learning free object stuff is satisfying after only seeing their constructions in an algebra class
The abelinization of the free product is the direct sum of the abelinization of the components
Useful fact for the abelinization connection between pi1 and H1
Because of left adjoints preserving colimits etc
what is this sorcery >.<
ok hi walter, if you're not busy can we talk about what you meant by this please 
sure, but let's move to #groups-rings-fields
specifically looking towards SVT tho
ah ok
never mind then lol
Right, so first of all do you feel like you understand group presentations?
i mean im trying not to overthink it
just a choice of generating set and the relations it needs
Or at least why they might be useful? Like we can describe every element in the group as a product of generators, and we know which words are trivial based on relations
Right, exactly
the word stuff is weird
One more useful property worth pointing out is that it's very easy to describe maps out of a group given a presentation
All you need is to specify where you map the generators and make sure that the images of the generators satisfy the same relations that the generators in the domain satisfy
ive seen that come up in hw's yeah
Recall that the universal property of the the free product G * H tells us that given maps G -> K and H -> K, there is a unique map from G * H -> K making stuff commute
In particular, if we have presentations <S_1 | R_1> for G and <S_2 | R_2> for H, then we know how to specify maps G -> K and H -> K
Then I claim < S_1 union S_2 | R_1 union R_2> satisfies the universal property of the free product, hence is isomorphic to G * H
To see this, the natural way to define a map from this presentation to K is to map the generators to what they are sent to by G -> K and H -> K. Then these satisfy the same relations, hence we have a homomorphism
So yes, free products interact with group presentations very nicely
A similar thing is true for free products with amalgamation, but I'll let you mull over that for a little while
Or maybe not, idk, it's more relevant for van kampen stuff
ok a little bit behind on what you're sending but gonna back up real quick to the actual defn of a free product
Sure
i can see that it has the same universal property as a coproduct of modules, like you said before
should i concern myself with anything beyond that property though?
like my textbook section just has the universal property, proof of uniqueness and existence and examples
Hm, maybe think a little bit about why the direct product of groups doesn't satisfy the universal property
But other than that, I mostly just use the universal property and then use presentations for any actual computations
i mean it's the same reason why it doesnt for modules right, the infinite case
we can treat it the same as a coproduct of modules then is what im asking
sorry if im fixating on something unrelated
Ah, yeah it's not really the same reason
my other big boy class this semester is fields and modules so i have that to go off of
Like you can form a direct sum of groups, it just doesn't satisfy the universal property of the coproduct
ohhhhhhhhh
The issue is that in a direct sum of groups, elements corresponding to different groups automatically commute, so that's a relation any image will have to satisfy. In particular, if you have maps G -> K and H -> K whose images don't commute, then there won't be a map G x H -> K making the relevant diagram commute
ok im taking the relationship between general groups and modules too far then
they have the same universal property but the objects of the category satisfying them are of a different form
yeah, the module/abelian case is very nice
that's right, it's probably worth taking a closer look at the construction of the free product because it's very different from the construction of the coproduct of modules
ok that makes more sense and is probably part of my confusion
Right, so as a quick example, let's take G to be the cyclic group of order 2 generated by g, and H to be the cyclic group of order 3 generated by h. Then the free product consists of reduced words in g and h, so an arbitrary element will look something like g h^(k_1) ... g h^(k_n) where k_i = 1 or 2. Also a word need not start with g or end with h, that's just the way I've written it
maybe a silly question but how many elements are in the free product then
cuz we can just make the word as long as we want
within the relations of the presentation right
"unique up to unique isomorphism" 
That's right, you can show that the free product of non-trivial groups is always infinite
that's why the free product we see in SVT is funky right
Right, so Van Kampen actually uses the free product with amalgamation, which is a pushout in the category of groups. This is a little different from the free product

oh we havent done homology yet
well we have
but it wont be on the exam im studyinig for
Oh okay
so how is abelianization related to pi1 tho
H1 is the abelianization of pi 1 for path connected spaces
Right I forgot the path connected assumption earlier
does anyone have a good resource of motivating the definition of a topology?
im writing a paper about the fractional integral operator, been looking at metricizable spaces, but want to better understand the topologies of the R->R functions
both operations need not be commutative
i was kidding lol
also some people require a multiplicative identity, others do not so it depends on context
like idk we have L^p spaces and C^n spaces, what other interesting things can we do if we have topological non-metric function spaces
a sometimes useful topology in functional analysis is the weak* topology on the dual of a banach space, which sort of captures the notion of pointwise convergence. It's usually not metrizable iirc
It's weak and weak* topologies on infinite-dimensional Banach space will never be metrizable
im trying to understsand SVT and using pi(T # T) as an example
i know pi1(T) = Z x Z
and T # T has an obvious was of being broken down into open sets A U B
what's T
hmm i guess you get the two torus, stretch it a bit in the middle and choose U and V s.t. they are one torus plus the stretched part each
the intersection is basically a square then which deforms to S^1
that's what i was thinking yeah
U and V should be punctured Tori then, homotopy equivalent to S^1 v S^1
this should give the result expressed as amalgamation
the topology of pointwise convergence is Hausdorff but not metrisable
ok
ok
ok i need to review the amalgamation stuff
i understand the idea behind SVT but not how to arrive at the word presentation
Can someone explain how pushouts are used to define gluing in CW complexes?
Or in gluing in general
Do you know how a pushout in top can be constructed
yeah i'm not exactly good at this either

ish ok
sometimes i forget the math server is just a bunch of people and not an all knowing wizard that understands exactly what's in my head

i still appreciate you timo 
what year are you
it does a little dance when you hover
third
crazy

you just take the pushout of all the attaching maps into the n skeleton and the inclusions into the n+1 disks and define that to be the n+1-skeleton
like if you wanted to do this with a single cell you have an attaching map S^n+1 -> X_n and an inclusion map S^n+1 -> D^n+1 and then you take the pushout
I think i finally get it
I never encountered category theory so I got kindof lost at what was geometrically happening with all the mumbo jumbo
@odd flame another SVK task is to compute pi1 of S^1 v S^1 ... n-fold
generalizing the S^1 v S^1 case
basic free product stuff:
Let $g \in G_1 \ast G_2$ prove that if g has finite order then it is either in $G_1, G_2$ or conjugate to an element of one of the two.
Timo
And prove that the center of G_1 * G_2 is trivial if G_1 and G_2 are non-trivial
the klein bottle is another neat example but you already did that one if i remember correctly
Given a compact set A in R^n such that it is the closure of it's interior, can it be partitioned into finitely many compact convex sets?
Where a partition is defined in the usual sense as a set B of subsets of A where the union of all elements in B is A and all elements have NULL intersection.
take segments [1, 1/2], [1/4, 1/8],... and {0}
its a closure of its interior but can't be partitioned
I mean saying compact already means it's closure of it's interior
Take a set shaped like an arrow
In the plane
If it had a partition of more than 1 compact set, it'd not be connected
Thus its partition needs to be itself, but its not convex
not true for n>1 nvm
not true in R either
lol
a point is compact
yeah dum moment
You probably want union of compact convex sets whose interiors are pairwise disjoint
This is a counter-example to that ig
Additionally you probably want to assume that A is compact and connected
How would one describe a set that has “volume” topologically then. Im tryna get rid of cases like S^1 where we have a hollow interior
Wdym
Compact connected set can have positive volume but no interior
Usually volume & topology aren't very compatible
like what
fat cantor set?
wait that one is extremely disconnected right
You can take [0, 1] x (fat cator set sum {0, 1})
i see
Isn't that still disconnected?
Sierpinski's carpet works though
Yes because I wrote it wrong
[0, 1] x (fat cantor set) sum {0, 1} x [0, 1]
Any point can be reached by moving around the border of the square
I know if 2 spaces are homotopy equivalent, they have isomorphic fundamental groups. But if they have isomorphic fundamental groups you can't say that they're homotopy equivalent can you? Is there anything you can say?
The sphere and the plane have the same fundamental groups for example
ty also:
If I'm trying to show that there is no covering map from T^2 to RP^2 can I just say that RP^2 has a universal cover from S^2 which has trivial fundamental group. T^2 has fundamental group Z^2 so T^2 and S^2 are not homotopy equivalent and so T^2 is not a cover of RP^2?
I'm not sure how that shows T^2 is not a cover of RP^2
Covers can be homotopically different
what is 2 saying here
i see
You might want to try the the result saying that if you have a covering map, then the induced map on fundamental groups is injective
actually what's a deck transformation in the first place - this is a random set of notes i found from a different uni but my prof never defined this
this is a result of the lifting thm right...?
ah yes that's more immediate
A deck transformation of ~X is a transformation f: ~X -> ~X such that the projection doesn't see that anything changed, i.e. pf = p
yes, this follows from lifting
For example, the classic spiral R -> S1 you can translate floor up
is this the same as the set of automorphisms of a covering space then?
Sure thing
:O
the general statement is that a homeomorphism of covering spaces induces an injective map of the fundamental groups right
no i think any covering map induces an injection on fundamental groups
what are you asking here
what i just said is correct though, i just checked
$$p: \widetilde{X} \to X$$ induces an injective homomorphism on the fundamental groups if p is a covering map
*-algebra
are you asking if a homeomorphism induces an isomorphism or something?
Hm
Is there a nice description - modelling BU(n) by Gr_n - of what the maps BU(m) -> BU(n) induced by maps U(m) -> U(n) look like?
I suspect the maps may only be well defined up to homotopy but yeah
Awhile ago I wrote a proof that any map from S^2 to T^2 is homotopic to a constant map.
I start by saying T^2 has R^2 as a universal cover, and then I say because S^2 is simply connected that any map f: S^2 --> T^2 lifts to a map S^2 --> R^2.
Does anyone know why I pointed out that S^2 is simply connected and what the relevant theorem is here?
simply connected = path connected and trivial fundamental group if im remembering correctly
R^2 being the universal cover of T^2 means that it is simply connected
so im assuming the combination of those things can give you your homotopy
im not actually constructing any homotopy here
i just use the fact that R^2 is contractible so any map out of R^2 is homotopic to a constant map
the simply connected part plays a role in the lifting I think?
@odd flameI found the theorem in hatcher!
i actually had no idea about that iff condition. But it's true here because the fundamental group of S^2 is trivial
Yeah it's nice, you can think of this as saying that "the obvious obstruction is the only one"
I think it's known as the lifting criterion
Also, I wanted to point out (if you've not seen it already) that this sort of problem is super important - it allows you to show that if a space X has a contractible covering space, then all the higher homotopy groups vanish
yes, in this context it refers to the induced map on fundamental groups
in general i think it's used to denote a push forward by a functor
in this case it's the homology functor

how does the proof here go anyways
ive seen the f(x) - f(-x)/| f(x) - f(-x) | map
but how does that give the contradiction with projective planes
Are you asking for a solution to the exercise?
i'll rephrase
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2417185/proof-of-borsuk-ulam-theorem first of all what is the double covering self map in this answer
second why is such a nontrivial homomorphism a contradiction
the double cover sends theta to theta^2
what's the fundamental group of RP^2 and what's the fundamental group of RP^1?
rp1 is just s1 right
Right
Right
kek
so we assume for contradiction that an f with no antipodal preservation exists
define a map g: S2 -> S1 in terms of this f
see that this map g implies a bad homomorphism and arrive at contradiction
Let $X$ be a connected CW complex. How come $\widetilde H_{n+1}(SX) \cong \widetilde H_n(X)$?
kxrider
it doesn't seem to follow directly from the LES for (SX, X). im guessing its some kind of cellular homology argument?
You could do a Mayer-Vietoris
oh, like take SX to be a union of cones?
That's right
happy to help
is it accurate to state the subgroups of the fundamental group of a space X fully determine the covering spaces X can have
so for example S1, with fundamental group = Z
there are infinitely many possible coverings...?
also i know this theorem is really strong but im not quite sure what it's saying
tho if im understanding, this is a result of that thm
We’ve talked about this exact theorem before here
last min review session 
there is one cover with n-sheets up to isomorphism for all n
hmr
Z has one subgroup of index n for all n
yeah each of those n has a cover associated to it right
yes
the connected covers yeah
if your space is "nice"
yeah i'm always assuming that your space is nice enough for the classification
Wikipedia says that a subbase of (X, \tau_X) is not required to always cover X, but if you want to prove alexander lemma you should assume so.
Isn't this kinda misleading? idk
it might make people kinda confused idk
hello guys, does anybody have any resources for learning about other models of quantum computing than gate-based
especially topological qis
qc
not sure if that's topology
its computing based on braid groups which act as logic gates
braids formed by anyon world lines
Hey everyone,
I am an undergrad student and I want and have to learn basic topology. Therefore I am looking for a good video series for learning topology of Euclidean space (open, closed, limit point, compact, connected) specifically and topology in general.
I have already found these 3 series and was wondering which one you already know/can recommend. I can't watch them all due to limited time.
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLbMVogVj5nJRR7zYZifYopb52zjoScx1d
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PL6763F57A61FE6FE8
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLd8NbPjkXPliJunBhtDNMuFsnZPeHpm-0
If you would recommend a different course, feel free to suggest it.
Topology by Prof. P. Veeramani, Department of Mathematics, IIT Madras. For more details on NPTEL visit http://nptel.ac.in
A first course in Algebraic Topology, with emphasis on visualization, geometric intuition and simplified computations. Given by Prof N J Wildberger at UNSW. ...
Sounds like you're looking for point set, not algebraic?
Honestly I'd recommend just reading some point set book over a video series. But if you insist, the second one is not the same subject.
I'm not going to watch these, but the first one is indeed point-set, so at least it's the subject you're looking for.
And lastly the third one also appears to be point-set, but the order of lectures does seem a bit strange, maybe.
I also think reading is most important but I watched the videos from the third playlist and it is very helpful when you have some idea on what's he talking about.
I'm trying to solve this problem:
Construct a compact set of real numbers whose limit points form a countable set
I made the set $S = \left{0\right} \cup \left{\frac{1}{n}: n \in \mathbb{N}\right} \cup \left{\frac{1}{n} + \frac{1}{m}: n \in \mathbb{N}; m = n, n + 1, ...\right}$. It's clear that $0$ and all the $\frac{1}{n}$ are limit points of $S$, so now I'm trying to show that these are the only limit points (then the set of limit points is countable because they are all rational). The smallest element of this set is $0$ and the biggest one is $2$, so if there is a limit point that is not the ones I mentioned it must be in this interval
Also, since it is in the bounds of $S$ it must be between $\frac{1}{p + 1}$ and $\frac{1}{p}$ for natural $p$. So I considered all the points of $S$ between those numbers to be of the form $\frac{1}{p + 1} + \frac{1}{y}$ for $y > p(p + 1)$. Now we can choose a $y$ that is so large that $\frac{1}{p + 1} + \frac{1}{y} < x$. It's clear that there is a finite number of points between that number and $\frac{1}{p}$, so $x$ (which is between them) cannot be a limit point of $S$, which in turn shows that $S$ is closed and hence it is compact
Is there anything wrong with this proof?
Aiya
By countable you mean infinite countable?
Yes
The book I'm studying seems to define countable as always infinite. But now that you mention it I'm not sure
It's probably infinite
"Since it is in the bounds of S..." wdym?
It's between its least upper bound and greatest lower bound
I meant to write "within the bounds" of S. Maybe that would've made it clear
There's two logical skips here
- numbers > 1 in S form discrete set
- 0 is irrelevant
I guess you're assuming its not of tge form 1/n or 0 though so whatever
0 is irrelevant in what part? If the set didn't have 0 then it wouldn't be closed
I need it to be closed for it to be compact
Also you're right about the first one. I didn't have to consider numbers greater than 1. That makes sense
But the things I wrote still work if we consider only numbers between 0 and 1
So is x a limit point? You didn't write it
You write "it's clear that ...". How is it clear
I'd elaborate on that part
Other than that it looks good, good job
A_n = {1/n+1/m : m = n, ...} and notice that sets A_n are bounded by 1/2n etc is what I want to see, like a more formal justification/better sketch of the argument
Learned that from Rudin
It's clear that there is a finite number of points between those numbers where x lies between because all the members of S between 1/(p + 1) and 1/p are of the form 1/(p + 1) + 1/y with y > p(p + 1)
And by choosing a y big enough to make 1/(p + 1) + 1/y less than x you'll only have finite many numbers of that form that are bigger than it and less than 1/p
I'm saying that there are finitely many points of S between 1/(p + 1) + 1/y and 1/p
Obviously there are infinitely many points between 1/(p + 1) and 1/p, by how S is defined
They don't have to be of the form 1/(p+1) +1/y for natural number y if thats what you mean
No, look at n = 3 for example.
We have 2/3
Thats between 1/2 and 1
The condition that m = n, n+1, ... is too weak to guarantee they're all in disjoint intervals
Still, only finite amount of terms will be there
If you did powers of 2 instead
It'd be easier to write down this set but each interval would only have desired elements
You're right
That's what I was doubtful about, if those are the only numbers between 1/(p + 1) and 1/p
No but it doesn't matter much. But if you chose powers of 2 the argument would be easier
When can 1/n + 1/m be between 1/(p + 1) and 1/p for n > p + 1?
Because then between 2^(-(p+1)) and 2^(-p) you'd have what you want
1/n+1/m <= 1/2n so for large enough n it's never between 1/(p+1) and 1/p
So I can just rule out those edge cases and the argument will work, right?
So 1/n+1/m is between those only for finitely many n
Right
Since n > p+1, also for finitely many m
And by your argument there is finite amount of them of the form 1/(p+1)+1/m
Which contradicts x being a limit point
(points of S between 1/(p+1)+1/y and 1/p)
Using powers of two (or letting m start from some value so that 1/(n+1) +1/m < 1/n like m = (n+1)n+1) would made the argument easier
Though it's not that relevant
I understand everything now and I fixed my proof
why such strict time constraints
Is taking algebraic topology with no topology background a bad idea?
cause supposedly the topology prof next semester isn't that good so I may not take it
kinda yea
you can fill in the gaps on your own but you shouldn't go in without being reasonably familiar with basic point set topology
I'm familiar with some from analysis
Ehhhhhh I'll power through a shit prof
I've done it before I'll do it again
Ideally you should know a little point-set topology and a little differential topology/geometry before doing algtop.
if by "familiar with some from analysis", you mean the topology of metric spaces, i think you could get up to speed on general spaces pretty easily tbh
Just get familiar with basic concepts of separability, compactness, and connectedness, and get familiar with the basic operations of products, disjoint unions and quotients
(By separability i really just mean hausdorff and non Hausdorff spaces)
@thorny agate read bredon's geometry and topology and do not skip chap 1
I am struggling with how to come up with CW complexes of glued structures. An exercise I had was to glue two solid tori ($D^2xS^1$) along their boundary($S^1xS^1). I can come up with CW complexes for the tori themselves, first a point, connect two edges to form an 8, and then connect a plane to form a torus. This can be made solid by adding a 2-cell to one of the circles to form a cap within the torus and then fill it in with a 3-cell.
But now i struggle how to glue this to some other torus.
The map that identifies the gluing is the picture where X,Y are the solid tori and Z their boundary. I also fail to visualize exactly what this map is doing, my current intuition is that it wraps one tori around the other helically (or something along those lines) to create a knot.
The excercise states this defines a (p,1)-lens space (pushout(X<-Z->Y), but i have never seen any lens spaces before
sos
Ya that's what I mean
Sounds good
As someone currently going through it I can definitely say that you really want to know your point set topology, as well as some category theory if the course uses it.
I have never encountered the latter and I'm struggling
I'm learning some category theory rn but it's light
I may work through Awodey's text a little more in my own time
My algebraic topology course just introduces the concepts that are relevant and I've yet to take a course on it so I think you'll be fine then if this is your first algebraic topology course too
Are p-adic spaces homeomorphic to the Baire space ω^ω ?
Guys a question a plane in R3, is it a closed plane?
Could someone explain me what it is exactly?
I know that the plane in R3 is conformed by limits is not an open set since the ball or sphere that I make overflows me, but then in the case that it is closed I know that I take an element of the set of the plane and I show that indeed the set of the complement is open, now if I draw a sphere or "ball" this ball is not completely contained in the set then as such it would not be closed, right?
In my exam, I showed that it is not open, but I also said that it is closed..... but I got to thinking and I say no, it is not closed (after my exam).
Yes, it is closed, for example because you can define a plane as the vanishing set of a continuous function
Or, more concisely, by translation we can assume the plane is given by the points (x,y,z) with x = 0, and then this is clearly closed
A (linear, not affine) plane is closed, as the kernel of a linear form (continuous linear map from R^3 to R). It is not open. For instance, the origin (0,0,0) is always a point on the plane, but any ball centered at the origin will contain a vector normal to the plane, and so points not in the plane (i.e. there is no ball centered at the origin, no matter how small, that will be entirely included in the plane)
For affine planes, it's the same, because it's the translation of a linear plane
if you want to show that the complement of the plane is open directly, you can.
Every topological space is open and closed in itself.
Take a vector not in the plane, and take its orthogonal projection onto the plane. Call R the distance between those points. Then the ball of radius R/2 is entirely included in the complement of the plane
Uh right x')
Got a brain fart there x')
Quick question: if I let f:S^4->S^4 be the map f(a,b,c,d,e)=(a,b,c,-d,-e), then Fix(f)=S^2. What is the quotient S^4/f? Is it also a 4-sphere?
The 4-manifold below at least has the same homology as the 4-sphere xD
How can I think about S^2 x S^2?
I read that you can think about S^2 x S^1 as a thickened sphere with the inner and outer spherical boundaries identified
So for S^2 x S^2, I think you could do the same, but imagine the thickness as changing over time?
Yes ok I am more convinced of this now. The thickness would follow a sine curve over time
Not sure how visualising it would necessarily help, given this is most naturally embedded in like lol R^6
Apparently Thurston was good at thinking about 3- and 4-manifolds, so I think it's worth trying 
No, p-adic spaces are locally compact, unlike the Baire space. The p-adic integers are compact. The p-adic rationals contain the p-adic integers as an open subset
Already got it, they're homeomorphic to countable disjoint union of Cantor sets.
Thanks though
i was reading some math overflow and wiki pages whats this whole closure thing? closure, closed, etc?
(does it even belong in this channel idk)
how would u explain it to a highschooler (totally not cuz im in hs)
looks like an amazing emoji btw
no
oh
you got it
my bad
but the 2-adics are homeomorphic to the cantor set which is fun
let E->X be a topological complex vector bundle where X is compact and E is hausdorff. then the space of sections is a module over the ring C(X;\bC)
my question is how does C(X;\bC) act on this set
2-adic integers you mean?
pointwise multiplication
wait all the assumptions that you wrote down make me question this since this works for any (real) manifold like that
Basically: I never worked with p-adic integers or p-adic numbers, and I could find info about p-adic integers being homeomorphic to the Cantor set but no info about p-adic numbers, hence the question.
maybe the complex case breaks something here?
oh right, ok
no this still works there, i was asking in the context of the serre-swan theorem
ah okay i see
aight maybe im just being dumb but ive got an exercise where im asked to prove a bunch of spaces are homotopy equivalent, but it seems to me like they're just homeo and I dont really get why my prof is asking to prove homotopy equivalences on exercises where homeomorphisms are true. Two examples of this are the suspension $\Sigma A / (A\times {1/2})\simeq \Sigma A \vee \Sigma A$ or $S^2/(\cup_{i=1}^nm_i)\simeq \bigvee_{i=1}^n S^2$. It's not like showing homotopy equivalences is any easier than showing homeomorphisms here with the knowledge we have (for the second one, fair enough we have contractible subspaces of a CW complex so it would follow easily from that but we havent seen that result in the course so it seems odd to me he'd make the distinction)
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
(here mi are distinct meridians)
tbh i'm not sure what the problem is
i just want to make sure im not being stupid and these are indeed homeo and not homotopy equivalent
I think it's reasonable to just always say htpy equivalence instead of homeo at some point because it's the thing you care about
because the formulation of the exercise would suggest they are just homotopy equivalent
ig
even if they are homeo i'd still say htpy equivalence depending on the context
I do think that htpy equivalence is easier to show here though
oh i didn't read the "with the knowledge we have" part
yeah we havent really done much to help with homotopy equivalences (CW complexes and homotopy extension property are done in another course)
otherwise id get it
do you have any assumptions on A
if you can just write that down then sure why not
i'm just kinda bad at that so i try to avoid it :D
ill be honest for the other ones i just did drawings
that's what id like to do but the criteria for rigor are oddly inconsistent
i mean for only doing drawings
yeah Alg top is sometimes a bit weird in that aspect i agree
like the teacher will sometimes ask us to show that some very obvious maps factor through to a quotient and other times ask us to just draw
at least the alg top course is more consistent in that drawings are almost always accepted
lol fair enough
A more charitable reading might be that you really need to be able to do both.
good point
i remember spending like two hours with a friend on finding explicit homeos
but parameterisations can be so disgusting sometimes
just for the TA to draw a pic and move on
Drawings and geometric intuition are indispensable for having a feel for what you're doing, but in order to be a reliable intuition you also need to be confident that the drawings you make could in principle become a symbolic, formalizable argument.
yeah that's fair
hmm
Is this reduced suspension or regular suspension?
if Z = XvY, are X and Y open in the wedge sum topology?
i see, thank you
im curious if there's any way to visualize the interior of X and Y then
I would think of it something like this.
First you always have X - cl( x0 ) as an open subspace of X v Y.
The question is when the interior is larger than that.
If y0 is open in Y (i.e., isolated) then X is open in X v Y.
Oh, ok.
ok this might be another xy
but if a set Z is the disjoint union of X and Y, then X and Y are open right?
yeah ok the preimage of each cannonical injection is either the whole space or the empty set
Yes, that's correct. Presuming that we have the disjoint union equipped with the standard topology, if this doesn't go without saying.
is there an example of a continuous bijection from a space X to X that isn't a homeomorphism
i.e. both X have the same topology
all the canonical examples have different topology on the two spaces
continuous just forward?
such examples do exist but i don't know the construction off the top of my head
i remember reading a MSE post about this where several ones are given
i found it
this is restricted to connected ones though, i didn't remember that
the first answer is really nice actually
yeah
I am struggling with how to come up with CW complexes of glued structures. An exercise I had was to glue two solid tori ($D^2xS^1$) along their boundary($S^1xS^1) and find its CW complex. I can come up with CW complexes for the tori themselves, first a point, connect two edges to form an 8, and then connect a plane to form a torus. This can be made solid by adding a 2-cell to one of the circles to form a cap within the torus and then fill it in with a 3-cell.
But now i struggle how to glue this to some other torus.
The map that identifies the gluing is the picture where X,Y are the solid tori and Z their boundary. I also fail to visualize exactly what this map is doing, my current intuition is that it wraps one tori around the other helically (or something along those lines) to create a knot. Could someone give an example of a CW complex of a structure glued to another? Perhaps this excercise or a reference to another. The excercise states this defines a (p,1)-lens space (pushout(X<-Z->Y), but i have never seen any lens spaces before
AlexSchopbarteld
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A trick that might help is that when gluing two things together up to homotopy you can attach a contractible thing to both
You can also just start with a common boundary and never build up two things
I don’t know if I’m correct but my first thought is to think of how the map behaves locally
And not to think of it globally
Since it’s hard to visualize
And then it’s easier to think about since their boundaries are homeomorphic
Then I would have to construct a second torus from the boundary?
Well since the boundaries are assumed to be equal i guess that makes sense
So I should just construct the hollow torus and then glue to fill on one hand as identity and on the other differently?
The gluing maps would be the same you’d just have two 3-cells making up the inside of each one
Yes but would in making the CW complex the gluing map be how i attach the 3-cells?
I also need to attach a 2cell right? Cuz the hole in the torus is not homeomorphic to a ball
Yes to both :)
can anyone give me a hint on this? my first thought is to take $p_1, p_2 \in X$. then there exist functions $f_1, f_2$ such that $f_1^{-1}(0) = {p_1}$ and $f_2^{-1}(0) = {p_2}$
anamono for anamono
just use that \R is hausdorff
note $f_{1}(p_1)\neq f_{1}(p_2)$, find open disjoint open neighbourhoods and then take preimages
delirated
when we use the notation [f] to mean the class of all functions homotopic to f, what do we mean by class?
is it the same as set
equivalence class
I absolutely love this alternative definition of convergence of a sequence: a sequence $a_n$ in a topological space $X$ converges to $L$ iff the map $n \to a_n$, $\infty \to L$ from the one-point compactification of $\mathbb{N}$ to $X$ is continuous.
Morphy
uniqueness of limits in a Hausdorff space is because a continuous map is determined by its values on any dense subset
and then, for example, it follows that if $f : X \to Y$ is continuous and $a_n$ converges to $L$ in $X$ then $f(a_n)$ converges to $f(L)$ in $Y$ simply because the composition of continuous maps is continuous.





