#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 9 of 1
perverse hobbyist
why not just p(t) = (2t-1, 0)
What kinda manifold does the polygonal word $\langle a,b,c\vert abacb^{-1}c^{-1}\rangle$ represent
cocoomba
yeah i misread the question. nvm my hint is nonsense
doing the gluings for b and c you get a torus with a hole, and on the boundary of that hole you are left with the gluing for a
the orientations will not match up, i.e. you get something nonorientable
how did you get this
drawing pictures
My pictures must be drunk
maybe im wrong idk
How are you gluing b and c together? The hole tells me that this is the sharp of 2 surfaces
ok this is the best i got
couldnt find the pen for my drawpad so i had to draw this with my finger lmao
you dont glue different letters
That is a beautiful picture
you only glue the same letter
and the orientation on the initial polygon is given by wether you put a or a^{-1}
I got the torus part and then I was wondering where is that a
I see now it’s literally the hole
so yeah there is definitely some closed form expression for this manifold but i dont know enough about that to tell you which one it is
maybe its the klein bottle or smth
In the part of mathematics referred to as topology, a surface is a two-dimensional manifold. Some surfaces arise as the boundaries of three-dimensional solids; for example, the sphere is the boundary of the solid ball. Other surfaces arise as graphs of functions of two variables; see the figure at right. However, surfaces can also be defined abs...
well there is this classification of closed surfaces
all of them are either the sphere, a connected sum of tori, or a connected sum of projective planes
since ours is not orientable, it will be a connected sum of projective planes
idk how many though
How do we know it’s not a projective plane and a sphere
thats not on the list wdym
Ah
I see
There is supposed to be a formula for these connected sum things
I gotta remember it
I tried classifying based solely off Euler characteristic but couldn’t find that formula
ah ok so the name of this hole thing is a crosscap
conway has a beautiful proof of this classification result
with lots of pictures of zippers
Yeah that’s a lot pages… can’t I just use this
to be fair for such a classification result that is really a low number of pages
cmon its 6 pages with lots of images
but yeah ofc you dont need to read this to solve your exercise
was more of a "neat to know"
I am basically cherry picking parts I find interesting from the article
ok its a sphere with 3 crosscaps
so i guess its the connected sum of 3 projective planes, which is in "normal form" in the sense that this appears on the clasification list above
neat
apparently this is called Dyck's surface
(these are the same surface)
although if you want this to be a manifold i guess you should smoothen the edges in the second picture
...
ok but how do I get here? I dont think we ever did crosscaps
Like it's fun and all but... you know... assessments
basically diagrams and words and the theorem about connected sums as well as their euler characterstic
thats what im trying to make work
oh thank god I got the right Euler characteristic
homeomorphic to P^2 # P^2 # P^2 = T^2 # P^2
i mean yeah the euler char and the fact that it is not orientable already uniquely determines the surface by the classification theorem
so technically that should suffice
And how did you determine if it was orientable or nonorientable again?
It had to do with inverses but I don’t know what it has to do with in detail
well we saw in our example that since b and c occur both normally and inverted in the word, we can glue them just fine, but a occured normally twice, and we got something nonorientable
so without knowing any theorems i'll go out on a limb here and conjecture that whenever you have a letter occuring only normally (without its inverse) in the word defining your polygon, it will not be orientable
This jogged my memory
I’ve definitely heard that before (in class)
Thanks
I'm trying to find the closure of the subset S={(x, x^2): x ∈ [0, 1] \ Q} in the unit lexicographical order topology and I think it is S U {{0}x[0,1)} U {{1}x(0,1]} is this right?
Anything which contains a Möbius strip is nonorientable
In fact this is an if and only if
And is equivalent to what you have just said if the letters occur at most twice
every non-orientable surface contains a mobius strip?
is your square ordered so that (x,y) < (u,v) means x < u or (x = u and y < v)? or is it the other way around?
yes precisely that
Yes
oh wait actually I think 0x0 wouldn't be a limit point as it has a nbh disjoint from S
then cl(S) should be equal to S U ((0,1) x {1}) U ((0,1) x {0})
So cl(S) is S along with the top and bottom edges of the unit square
I don't see it can you please explain why?
If (x,y) is a limit point of S that is not in S, then y must be 0 or 1. try to show this.
How to construct an example in which topological space is T4 space but there is subspace which is not T4. We know that closed subspaces of normal space(T1 space) is normal (T1 space) so we have to find not closed subspace.
Take something T3.5 but not T4 and Stone-Čech compactify it
Alternatively take Tychonoff plank and a deleted Tychonoff plank
That is [0, omega_0] x [0, omega_1]
We delete it by removing point (omega_0, omega_1)
Spaces that are T3.5 but not T4 are usually hard to find iirc so don't expect anything prettier
This isn't Hausdorff
topology was a mistake
i see
people sometimes write normal/regular but what they mean is that it doesn't have to satisfy, T1 axiom iirc
op mentioned T4 explicitly so
🛞 is it for the wheel theory meme btw?
for normal is it true but for T4 we need T1 also
for normal/regular T1 is not necessary, This definition I used.
By the way. I use the convention that normal = T4 and regular = T3. So spaces which are normal but not T1 don't exist for me
question, is anyone familiar with nets from topology?
I need to prove the product of two compact spaces need be compact using the notion of nets which I am not too familiar with.
MyMathYourMath
how do I use projection maps which are open and continuous to conclude this net has a convergent subnet in the product
MyMathYourMath
$z_\lambda = (x_\lambda, y_\lambda)$ and we can take a subnet $f:S\to \Lambda$, $x_{f(s)}$ of $x_\lambda$ which is convergent. Now you can take a subnet of $y_{f(s)}$ using $g:M\to S$, $y_{f(g(m))}$ which is convergent. Then $(z_{f(g(m))})_{m\in M}$ is convergent.
Blitz
so $x_\lambda,y_\lambda$ are in $X$ and $Y$ respectively?
MyMathYourMath
okie doke!
Hi, guys, what are the topologies on C^n and C^{n+1}\{0}?
C is complex numbers and you meant C^(n+1)\{0} ?
yes
its the standard topology of all open balls right
right?
I mean... yes, the topology from polydisks and the topology from the Euclidean metric is the same
a cartesian product of different radius disks
Thank u!
does anyone know how to understand this functor from may's book? O(G) is the orbit category (objects are the G-sets G / H and morphisms are G-equivariant maps), and E(G / H) is just the covering space E / H, where E is the universal cover. I'm confused where E(-) sends the morphisms though (and the proof doesn't seem to explain it). I assume E(alpha) is just the map satisfying the last sentence in the theorem, but is that even well-defined? There isn't a canonical isomorphism between the fiber F_b and G / H right? And May says that functoriality follows from the previous lemma--I imagine one would have to show that E(alpha) is exactly the map described in the proof of the lemma? I don't see how that's obvious...
here's the previous lemma
Just blackbox it
there's nothing insightful about the proof of Tychonoff theorem
I think it'd just be more efficient to read the proof if you want to
Why are you trying to avoid the general case?
A finite product of discrete spaces is discrete, and compactness is equivalent to finiteness for discrete spaces. Is this what you want?
No, he probably means the Cantor set
Just use ultrafilters smh
Can someone give me a simple easy to understand definition and distinction between homology and cohomology
for singular (co)homology, you will find definitions in any textbook on algebraic topology or even on the respective wikipedia pages
there are lots of different (co)homology theories (singular, cech, sheaf, group, ...), and very general definitions in terms of infinity categories probably don't help here
one of the main distinctions is that cohomology usually has more structure and exists for a larger variety of things
in some cases like singular (co)homology over fields they give you the same results though
i guess all of this is explained on the wikipedia page https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_homology
In algebraic topology, singular homology refers to the study of a certain set of algebraic invariants of a topological space X, the so-called homology groups
H
n
(
X
)
.
{\displaystyle H_{n}(X).}
Intuitively, singular...
Ah thx
thanks! ill take a look
why is a space with a countable dense subset called “seperable?”
hmmm
how would one prove p_1 on R^2 sends closed sets to closed sets
yes
what's a counterexample
i can't think of any
yes
for the projection X x Y -> X to be a closed map you want Y to be compact
the proof uses the tube lemma
in fact, if this is true for all spaces X, it follows that Y is compact
It's cute
If x y is a limit point of S that is not
does anyone have any intuition for the pasting lemma
when one continuous function and another love eachother very much...

from what i understand it seems say that if two continuous maps "act" equivalently on the intersection of two closed sets in X, the baby of those two maps is a cont function from X -> Y
well ok that's just a restatement of the thing
continuity is local
this is one of those things that i struggle to produce intuition for that isn't just the statement, because it's already so simple
i feel like it's already intuitive as stated
i thought they meant pushout / pullback pasting first and got so confused with this lmao
maybe to build intuition you could look at what happens if you omit "closed"
or why it only asks for two (i.e. finitely many) closed sets
with something so simple like this, i think the best way to build intuition is to try and break it
im not sure i see what breaks if they're not closed
but ty for the general advice i'll keep it in mind 
you can have insane examples like covering [0,1] by singletons
with open sets you get more 'wiggle room' ig
It's a lemma which tells you a sufficient condition for a function to be continuous, which is useful because you often want to overlap two or more functions and not think too hard about why is the result still a continuous function
Note that pasting lemma holds for locally finite closed coverings as well
Note that covering [0, 1] by singletons is point finite but not locally finite
So basically, it holds for infinite families of closed sets too as long as they don't overlap too much
munkres notes that it holds if A and B are open in X tooo
It holds for any open cover
ye with open covers it works sexily
I feel like it's more used for closed sets
rly? i feel like stuff with bundles/manifolds/schemes &c. uses some form of pasting all the time
just ig the closed set case is when it's more subtle
something something gluing property of sheaves
fr
Yeah because that's whats usually applied in explicit examples
Open version is probably "too obvious"
what is the space R^X here
that does look like a capital X right
and not \times
i'll rephrase to asking about the uniform metric/topology and what it "looks like"
is it a metric defined in terms of a metric which is defined in terms of a metric 
the set of functions X -> R
im going off of these two defn's from munchers
Has anyone read (portions of) Ratcliffe's Foundations of Hyperbolic Manifolds?
The function $\overline{\rho}$ is only a metric in the usual sense, if the functions are bounded - but the corresponding topology is still fine, so maybe not important.
To get a sense of what the topology looks like, note that the $\overline{\rho}(f,g)$ is the maximal (supremum, really) possible distance $|f(x) - g(x)|$ between $f$ and $g$ evaluated at a point $x$, so on a graph of $f$ and $g$, you would look for the biggest vertical distance between them. What functions are contained in the open ball $B_f(r)$ for some function $f$? The function $g$ is in the ball, if the maximal (sup) possible distance between $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ is strictly less than $r$.
TimeTravellerOne
can someone help me understand this definition?
so the empty set belongs to O, the set X belongs to X, whats the union and intersection parts supposed to mean?
the union is pretty obvious if X belongs to O
What they did is first replaced metric on $\mathbb{R}$, so that it's bounded. This makes $\overline{\rho}$ a metric in the standard sense.
Blitz
why ?
O is a family of subsets
it's not a subset of X
i just dont understand how all of that creates a topological space
I mean you have to know what a open set in the metric or R^n case is to understand
the idea is that a subset in X is either in O or not in O
not "a subset of" but "in"
yeah it said a set in a metric space is open if every point has a neighbourhood
in that set
It creates a topological space because we defined it so. Don't get me wrong, your average topological space can be pretty pathological. But it's what's a good model of a space for most purposes
that's a quite bad definition if that's actually supposed to be one
but anyways, what O is is a collection of subsets of X, which are the opens
and unions have to be still opens
so its a collection of open sets?
that's in the paragraph yes
I mean, it's basically a definition of what a open set is in X
we say E c X is open if E € O
how would one apply the inductive step on an orientable surface of genus g to compute its homology via Mayer Vietoris
You can represent a genus g surface as a genus g-1 surface and a genus 1 surface with disks removed from each which are glued together along a cylinder
this will basically allow you to apply the inductive hypothesis, but for this you need to know what the genus g surface with a disk removed deformation retracts to
(maybe this is not really induction, but it is the spirit of things)
Ah, I missed that the bar over the rho was actually an operator on metrics.
Or something like that. I see that the rho with the bar has been defined to be a particular metric.
I'm wondering if Alexander subbase theorem holds for Lindelof property, being countably compact, and other generalizations of this spirit
I feel like it probably should but I don't feel like going through the details of the proof rn
ok im kinda done with this. im having now issue to create a map alpha from H(A \cap B) in the MV sequence 0 -> H_2(X) -> H(A \cap B) -> H_1(A) \oplus H_1(B) to get its kernel, which is isomorphic to H_2(X). Here A is the surface with a hole pinched to it, which is homotopic to the wedge sum of 2g S^1 spaces. B is a disc from the surface, and so its intersection is homotopic to S^1. X is the whole surface, of course.
The map alpha has a particularly simple formula, especially since B has zero homology (being contractible)
it may be best to draw things IMO
namely can you deform the loop which bounds B to something when you envision everything a polygon gluing
For h_* an ordinary homology theory, is the homology of the empty set always 0 by convention or is this somehow supposed to follow from the axioms?
I typically don't care about the empty set but in my exercise, this seems to matter quite a bit
Ig it would follow from additivity, but I'm specifically looking to deduce it without supposing additivity of h_*
Shouldn't this follow from LES too? Take the pair (*,\varnothing) for a one-point space *, and the LES gives you that the homology of the empty set is 0
perhaps it relies on specific properties of the sections i have? idk
potato
ah yes, seems so, thanks a lot, that makes my life a whole lot easier.
This only works for h_i for i>0 tho, i'm not sure how you'd show it for h_0 without additivity, tho there might be a way still
yes I noticed this just after sending the message. I'll assume this for now and go on with the exercise/life as is, there might be a better way to solve this specific problem (I don't want to share the exercise as it is graded)
I think taking the LES of the pair (empty, empty) gives you H_n(empty) = H_n(empty,empty) = 0 for all n
Why is it the case that H_n(X,X)=0? Necessarily
Not sure I see why
by definition you have H_n(empty,empty) = H_n(empty) right?
Yea
so you get an exact sequence of the form X = X = X -> 0 where X = H_0(empty)
Right
And then inductively it's 0 for all n
Since the identity is mapped to the identity by H_n
oh but this works too btw
by the argument you just said
True
When we say ordinary cohomology theory are we also assuming H_n=0 for n<0?
Or generally assuming this for (co)homology theories
i think the terminology is not too agreed upon
but there are cohomology theories with non-zero negative values
no not really
You need the LES to end at a 0 tho at some point otherwise you won't have this part
If X = X = X is exact, then X = 0
is it true that $(\mbb{R} \setminus 0)^{\infty} \simeq S^1 \vee S^1$?
also is $(\mbb{R}\setminus\mbb{Z})^{\infty} \simeq$ Hawaiian earring?
᪲^ ∞ means one point compaction.
I don't think so
I do tho
kind of matches with the observation that any nbd of 0 in the ring contains infinitely many circles, similar to saying there's infinitely many nbd (n, n+1) outside any compact subset of R\Z
yeah I didn't prove it's homeo tho
just 'makes sense'
It can't be infinite wedge of S^1 as that's not compact
It's enough to check that if you remove the point bounding all the rings, then they are homeomorphic to R\Z
Now it's enough to observe that each of those left-over rings are open in the Hawaiian ring and homeomorphic to R
i struggle
does anybody have a projection of the 5_2 knot with bridge number 2
i have been fucking around with string for like 30 mins total now and i can't seem to find it
This is what I have
with this question what do I assume is the metric-distance function in the reals? Or is it arbitary? I'm trying to work the question with an arbitary metric but then I get d(d(x1,x2),d(x3,x4)) and I don't know where to go from there
Standard metric on the reals yes
Ye, the one induced by the standard (in fact any) norm
btw imo this question is easiest if you just use the characterisation of continuity in terms of sequences so you don't have to mess around too much with balls and what not
though it doesn't really matter
well ((x_n, y_n)) or smth but ye
Also as a sidenote, though besides the poitn of this question: you can equivalently define the product metric in the naive way i.e. distance from (a,b) to (c,d) is just d(a,c) + d(b,d) and then it's fairly straightfroward
but ofc harder with this because they defined the product metric using euclidean norm on R^2
this would just be another valid metric in X x X right?
bound $|d(x_n,y_n) - d(x,y)|$
potato
i used the fact that x_n tends to x and y_n tends to y then added and subtracted the same term
something like that right?
is there a way to find all index 3 subgroups of Z*Z?
Is that a free product
yup
yeah
I got the 3-sheeted covers of S^1 ^ S^1 by looking at 3 vertex valence-4 graphs
was thinking maybe I can also get them by finding index 3 subgroups of Z*Z
Those graphs sound like a promising ways to the index-3 subgroups too. :-p
true they give the relations of the generators
@bright acorn
let me tell it to you hear as ng and yamin are speaking in that channel
so the idea is that K theory talks about vector bundles right
so $K(X)$ is like you consider the set of isomorphism classes of vector bundles over $X$, give the operations $\oplus,\otimes$ and do a "grothendieck" completion to make it an additive group under $\oplus$ right
JohnD.S.
(lmk if ur familiar with this)
Yup
so let me rephrase this in another way
This definition would be the K0 functor tho, right? Iirc for higher K groups you need a different construction.
well the otimes gives you the K ring, like the whole cohomology ring
but for intuition i think K^0 is fine
like in operator theory the main thing we care about is K^0 really
(well maybe not main thing but like, theres major classification programs based on it)
so back to this
one thing is every vector bundle over nice enough X is a subbundle of a trivial bundle
and this is basically like, i have the trivial bundle whose fibres are R^N
and i am choosing a subspace for each fibre
choosing a subspace is the same thing as specifying a projection matrix right
Oh, I think this is the reason why for K theory we usually work with loc compact hausdorff spaces?
yeah it might be
At least most K theory books I see do K theory only for these.
yeah i think its because we have nicer vector bundle over these
(you can extend it to the whole of top tho btw)
so now a vector bundle is the same as the data of attaching a projection matrix (continuously) to each point of the space right
or that is, you take choose something from M_n(C(X)). you need to assign some equivalence relations and what have you but at the end it boils down to doing this
so what you can do then to define K theory is look at the infinite matrix group M(C(X)) and make it equivalence classes of projections from this
does this make sense?
oh is this efton park?
Where they prove that for nice enough spaces K0(X) is the same as a group of idempotent operators on X
Idem(C(X))
Yeah 
That's the main book I used for basic K theory stuff
nice efton park is an operator theorist so he wrote it very suggestively for operator k theory
(i think this is true dont quote me lol)
yeah so we are somehow dealing with projections (or idempotents as park puts it) of M(C(X)) right
so now you do like, the most obvious thing
you know how there is a duality between compact haussdorf spaces and unital commutative C* algebra
where X corresponds to C(X)
the obvious thing is replace C(X) with a general unital C* algebra
Gelfand Naimark?
mhm
and the exact same construction gives you K theory for unital C* algebras
then the 1 dimension unitization of a non-unital gives you the K theory for non-unital C* (this is dual to one point compactification of LCH spaces so it makes sense)
Ah
So K0 for unital commutative C* algebras is the same as K0(X) where C(X) ≈ A (A C*-algebra)?
Or maybe the more explicit construct where K0(A) is a certain group of projection matrices M_n(A).
yes to both
i think this was the first time i became truly convinced of "C* algebras is non-commutative topology"
Pog, what sort of "purely C*-algebraic" results can you prove using these ideas?
because thats literally what you are doing here
That's really cool
the main thing i know is that it is useful for classification
the elliot program is a good example
i could not give you anything more concrete as i havent had to use it really
that's fair, have you looked into Blackadar yet?
I have it downloaded and it looks really interesting
i havent but I will read a dedicated operator K theory book like that at some point in grad school i imagine
my knowledge is like a chapter of a book and talks i have been to as of now oof
What about algebraic k-theory? The thing with that is that I have heard defining higher k groups in this setting was really non-trivial.
i know a bit about it
i think only just K0 really
like have you ever heard of serre-swan?
it basically says f.g. projective modules are the generalizations of vector bundles
its kinda nice
Yeah, I haven't seen a proof of it tho. Karoubi goes into it in depth but I haven't taken a look into the chapter yet.
yeah i havent seen the proof either
i know in C* some people care about the algebraic K theory of C* algebras
like there is some knowledge to be gained in comparing algebraic K groups to topological K groups of C* (there is some map called the comparision map)
i read a paper on it, seemed interested but also way above my league
lol
Construct nonnormal covering spaces of the Klein bottle by a Klein bottle and by a torus.
Can anyone give some hints
we want to find a nonnormal subgroup of <a,b|aba^(-1)=b^(-1)>
that I guess is somehow pasted together from a klein bottle and a torus
can i get a nudge on this pls
write the definitions, since the uniform metric should be a sup of things you should be able to note that e.g. |f_n(x)-f(x)| \leq sup (...) for all x in X
im a lil behind in my understanding
is the uniform metric a metric on a metric on a metric
i think i asked about this earlier

going off of these two definitions
perhaps im abusing the term "metric on ___" but the uniform metric is defined in terms of a different metric
ok i understand the standard bounded metric i was overcomplicating that
but the uniform metric defn up there - is R^J supposed to just be a finite product of R's?
J should be able to be an arbitrary index set. But the supremum can be unbounded in some situations, so it may have to take values in the extended reals unless there are some other conditions on the set R^J.
Recall that elements of $\mathbb{R}^{J}$ are simply functions from $J$ into $\mathbb{R}$.
384920
oh? perhaps i read over that part 
another stupid question, what in gods name does the ~ mean here
i have to show that they're homemorphic but idek what they are 
what did you mean to go in the (...) here? im guessing the diameter of the set maybe?
Equivalence relations
i figured
You’re identifying points in your space
by quotienting by a relation?
so in the case of b), is it literally just saying (0,1) \times (0,1) where 0 = 1

You take the Intervall glue together your endpoints and get S^1
how would one construct a map, and particularly unique, from A \oplus B / Im(f,-g) to some other Z that both make the diagram commute, i.e showing that the first object mentioned makes a pushout in Ab
given two products X \times X and Y \times Y, is showing that X is homeomorphic to Y suffice to show that the products are homeomorphic too
Yes
A x B is homeo to X x Y whenever X is homeo A and Y is homeo B
And it holds for arbitrary products too
Arbitrary coproducts

I think this is just a fact from category theory
Yeah. This is obvious from all the diagrams
can i get a nudge on this? intuitively i see what timo said about them all being the torus, that'ss obvious from S^1 \times S^1 but im having a hard time coming up with the maps
im being asked to show that those 4 are homeomorphic
I'd just spam this theorem: continuous bijection from a compact to Hausdorff space is a homeomorphism
Okay no, there's easier theorem to use here
this looks useful
Saves me on typing
So a continuous surjection from a compact space into a Hausdorff space is a quotient map
Because image of compact is compact, meaning such map is closed, hence a quotient
Now you have the parametrization [0, 1] to S^1 using p(t) = exp(2pi i t)
im a little held up on the thm tho
what is X* supposed to be that seems like a weird way of defining it
Using it you easily see that b, c are honeomorphic and a, c are homeomorphic (the map g(s, t) = (p(t), p(s)))
X* is the quotient by relation ker g
Where ker g = {(x, y) : g(x) = g(y)}
also t,s backwards there no?
oh no they're not nvm
If you know group theory then it's similar but there they can simplify it to a normal subgroup {x : g(x) = e} but here we don't have any "zero" or "identity"
Yes. That's a typo
If you write d) without a parametrization then that's a map (a, b) x (x, y) to ((2+a)x, (2+a)y, b) from S^1 x S^1 to that set
It's clearly continuous and all you need to prove it's bijective
I mean bijective but not onto R^3 but onto your set
So injective
the big ugly to write subset of R^3 yeah
The b coordinate gets fixed so that's good
im understanding most of this but this only a question due to my lack of intuition for the e^ 2 pi i think (i learned this like a week ago somehow) - in p(t), what is t? it's a map from [0,1] to S^1 so is it only one coordinate?
((2+a)x)^2 + ((2+a)y)^2 = (2+a)^2 so since 2+a is always positive we also get equality on the a coordinate
Dividing by 2+a gives you equality on x, y coordinates
So it's injective
t is a real number
From [0, 1] here
It's a standard way in which we can parametrize the circle, and I guess, not completely obvious
In the book "Complex made simple" they derive this parametrization from scratch in the appendix
If you care to look at it
I meant the first defn. here by the (...) earlier, just too lazy to write and I'm on phone rn
i got that one 
gotcha, was making a silly mistake, will def take a look at that tho
It's also the only way I know how to define cosine and sine functions without adhering to the concept of angle - which is not defined before giving, say, parametrization of the circle using exp
I think
Geometry giving us false sense of comfort
also still talking about that map 2 -> 3 - does anything need to be be said about the equivalence relation in the defn of the map?
Just that p(t) = p(s) iff s = t or s, t are in {0, 1}
That is, we identify 0 with 1, or as written there, 0 ~ 1
might i ask how you came up with this map

why is surjection obvious?
as always, i appreciate your patience
also different question but this should be a mobius strip right
wait no this is in R^2 lmao
oops
is it "compressing" points to the first and third quadrants of R2?
because the image of this map is what it is, after the parametrization has been done
with sines and cosines
if you draw it, what sort of equivalence classes do you get?
I get 4 different equivalence classes
looks like just some weird 4 point space, not discrete
it's one point in each quadrant 
the top right of the circle and bottom left get squished
no, it's not
the relation gives identified points with first coordinates satisfying some condition
is it the entire right half and entire left half, except for the x intercepts
Coset of points with x < 0, with x > 0 and two points (0, 1) and (0, -1)
that's what i meant but you said it right lol
how so? you still have a lot of classes where x is greater than 0 and x' is smaller than zero
or am i being stupid
you're identifying points where either both x coordinates are positive or both are negative
If x>0 and x'<0 then xx' < 0 so they aren't related to each other
yes, exactly
hence the cosets of points with x>0 and points with x<0
but there are more than 4 points that stay distinct under that relation
i think i'm misunderstanding you
like what?
I think you're thinking of relation (x, y) ~ (x', y') iff xx' < 0 or (x, y) = (x', y')
i was being stupid
maybe not, that's not an equivalence relation actually
don't mind it

does S^1 have a "standard" topology on it
thinking about this question but the open sets of the quotient depend on S^1 no?
subspace topology

oh, I heard of the pseudocircle before. Nice
but that's still this though isn't it?
i've never heard of it 
I'm not sure what I was doing at the time but probably something homotopy related
yes, if you have quotient of a topological space, then its topology depends on the topology of the original space
fortunately here the space after quotienting only has 4 points so seeing which sets are open should be trivial
those are those subsets which preimage by the quotient map is open
the preimages here are just unions of arcs
When someone says genus g surface, do they always mean connected sum of g tori? Or does this also include things like the Klein bottle, which happens to have genus 2 but (I think) can't be realized as the connected sum of 2 tori?
It's the connected sum of g tori (topologically)
So, not stuff like the Klein bottle?
Yeah
Usually you consider genus g curves over C so it's automatically an oriented R surface
.
what am i missing
A, B are the objects that get mapped from f and g respectively from a common domain X
all in ‘Ab’
Its essentially just to show what the pushout in the category of abelian groups is and to show that it works
Uh... please put brackets around A \oplus B next time
so that for any other object, if it exists, it will have a unique mapping from the oplus thing
sorry
i thought it was obvious
well, now I know what you mean but it wasn't obvious for me before
you just want to prove that it's the push out in Ab
yep
okay so suppose we have some maps x:A to Z and y:B to Z which make the diagram commute
Define u:(A(+)B)/im(f, -g) to Z by u((a, b)+im(f, -g)) = x(a)+y(b)
You want to prove that this map is well-defined
(a+f(m), b-g(m)) gets mapped to x(a+f(m))+y(b-g(m)) = x(a)+y(b)+xf(m)-yg(m)
and from commutativity of the diagram the last term is = 0
xf(m)-yg(m) I mean
you get that part?
but yeah... it's just checking that everything works fine
yep makes sense
ty ❤️
its way more strisght forward than assume most of the time
how can the metrics be equivalent? I'm kinda confused since I thought the norm is derived from (l_infinity)
oh is it saying that the limit of the supremum will be equivalent to the sum of the squares, square rooted?
it's definitely not equivalent, otherwise l^infinity would contain a subspace isomorphic to l^2
and l^infinity isn't reflexive
so how would i start disproving this?
what do you mean by it isnt reflexive
That the map into the double dual isn't a isomorphism
is this the answer to my disproving question?
yeah i don't have the machinery for that proof
well, it's not a completely elementary argument
yeah, I thought you'd like something more on the basic level
cant u just find an example like sequence that is constnt no?
how far into a metric spaces course is this
ah
neither
for an elementary argument you'd like to find a sequence convergent in one norm but not the other
something like the standard unit vectors should work
wait no
yeah, 1/sqrt(n) on the first n coordinates
l^2 norm is 1 but converges to 0 in l^infinity
you mean in l^2 divergent?
its norm would be divergent
I mean, yes, it's divergent in l^2 but it's enough to notice that it doesn't converge to 0 specifically
oh
uh also
no, 1/sqrt(n)
oh i thought x_n was 1/sqrt(n)
to see that it's divergent in l^2 you can notice that it converges pointwise to 0
and convergence in l^2 implies convergence pointwise
it doesn't converge to 0 so it doesn't converge at all
what did you define x_n to be?
Eso defined x_n to have 1/sqrt(n) on the first n coordinates, and 0 otherwise
but isn't xn in the reals
wait so the bold x defined in the question is not just one sequence?
damn i'm confused
it is
oh what you did was the distance function between two sequences?
I'm not using the notation in your question
x_n I'm taking to be some sequence of points in l^2
see
hmm ok
does the supremum in my question mean the supremum of all the terms within the sequence?
yes
ah i think i understand the sequence you created
If the boundary of a sub space is connected doesn’t the sub space itself have to be connected
union the open balls of radius 1 centered at (1, 0) and (-1, 0) in R^2
the subspace is disconnected, but its boundary is connected
That makes sense thanks. the converse is false though, right? If A is connected then boundary doesn’t have to be connected right
Ye correct
Thanks. If the interior of a subspace is connected, the subspace itself is not necessarily connected right? Don’t have an example in mind but feel like it’s true
Yeah you can take any connected open set disjoint union some disconnected set with empty interior
(Then the interior is that open set and is connected, whilst the whole set won't be connected)
For example, take (0,1) and add in {2}
is this example trying to say you can "stretch" the circle to form a square?
and i'm assuming the lines given are the lines you would stretch each quarter of the circle along
this actually holds for any compact convex set with non-empty interior
you can always stretch them out onto the closed disk
But ye the way they are doing it is to split the square and disk into 4 regions in a nice way (so that the "arc" of each of the quarter circles is mapped onto one of the sides of the square)
Then your 4 maps glue together to form a continuous map from the closed disk to the square
I'm doing a problem which asks whether the sequence convergences in the product, uniform and box topologies for a_n_m ={n/m where n<=m , 0 otherwise} . For my proof I said that as m goes to infinity, the sequence converges to 0, then I argued that given that the sequence is pointwise convergent it converges in the product topology. For the uniform topology, I took an open set U containing 0, then there is a basis element B(0,ε) = (-ε, +ε) so choosing N > 1/ε, then a_n_m ∈ B(0,ε) for n,m ≥ N so the sequence converges in uniform topology. For the box topology I said it does as well converge because it's eventually 0 but I'm not sure how to formally show that using open bases. Also is my work so far right?
point-set Q
if $\overline{f}$ is the extension of $f : B^n \to B^n$ to $\overline{B^n}$, where $f$ is continuous, and $\overline{f}$ is an open map on $\partial B^n = S^{n-1}$, does this somehow imply $\overline{f}$ is continuous
{ }
im X Ying but the full context is too much
so if this isnt true ill just figure it out in a dream or something
This is from my knot theory textbook they keep using the term "unkotted arc" but this is the only part that tries to define it and this defenition is not comprensible to me, does anyone know what it means by
"ball arc pair" I assume it means the ball and the arc intersecting the ball but then i dont know what it means for that to be "piecewise linear homemorphic to the product of an interval with a disc-point pair" and i dont know what a disc point pair would be
Wdym extension? As a map from closed ball to itself?
Take f(x) = x on the ball and f(x) = -x/2 on the sphere
Sorry. AN extension
I.e.: just a map when testricted B^n, is identically f
But no, your counterexample is fine
Thank you
I'll dream the solution to my problem instead
in a compact space is every open set a union of finitely many basis elements?
not necessarily
Surely not. [-1,1]² is compact, but if we take the basis consisting of open rectangles intersected with [-1,1]², then finitely many of them cannot create e.g. the open unit disk.
well do you maybe know some theorem relating connectedness and continuous maps?
if f:X→Y is a continuous surjection and X is connected then Y is connected
correct
a classification of connected sets in R would help too
yes
ok thx
i figured out my problem. not in my dream but as soon as i woke up
now i know 0 measure theory and only super basic topology but can you do integration on topological spaces? like the most basic top space (not even hausdorff)??
not really
you can't do integration without a measure
and a topology doesn't induce a measure
but you can do integration on plain sets without a topology though
oh I see so you need literally no structure on your set? all you need is a measure?
by a measure you mean a map from the sigma algebra to [0, inf) ?
ye, correct
a non topological example:
When ur measure space is the natural numbers with counting measure, integration is just infinite summation
oh damn
too bad it's insanely difficult to do stuff like that in infinite dimensional spaces
like making the feyman path integral rigorous
one situation where you have a very nice theory of integration is for any locally compact topological group
in this situation you have a unique up to constant measure which is translation invariant
Given a topological space X and a uniform space Y, can locally uniform convergence on the space of all functions from X to Y be described by a uniform space structure?
on borel algebra or something bigger?
on Borel subsets yeah
If A is open in X and B subset of X for X topological space, is it true that A \cap cl(B) = cl(A \cap B)
I think no that there is some counterexample but everything I try works
uuuh usually the rationals in R give good counterexamples for this kinda stuff
A = rationals, B = irrationals, then left hand side is the rationals, right hand side is empty
Ur good any other ideas
Oh yeah that is obvious. Thanks I don’t know how I didn’t realize
Np, just yeah trying fairly degenerate cases like A = B, one of them empty/whole space or rationals/irrationals (as mentioned above) is usually good for these sorts of things
What does it mean for a simplex to be of maximal volume
In particular, the context is the statement: An n simplex in B^n (Poincaré disk model) is of maximal volume if and only if it is regular and ideal
(Obviously with this statement you could say a simplex of maximal volume is one which is regular and ideal. This is also obviously not the definition I’m looking for)
Is it just a simplex of dimension n for which there exists no other simplices of the same dimension with strictly greater volume?
This is what the name implies but I cannot find a source for this
im having trouble seeing how the definition of the product topology leads to the "and" in the last part of this thm
any pointers 
Munkres proves this in the discussion immediately prior.
as ngroupoid pointed out, when the group is topological and locally compact you have a theory of integration (Haars theorem). unfortunately this leaves out some very important topological groups (namely infinite dimensional topological vector spaces (a theorem says a topological vector space is locally compact iff it is finite dimensional)). as a result getting measures on Banach/Hilbert/etc spaces is very hard. (one example of such a measure is the Wiener measure on the space of continuous functions. you can construct it using donskers invariance principle)
you can always take the borel subsets and add the null sets
Hi, guys, is it true that in a subspace topology Y\subset X, A is closed in Y iff A= Y\cap A', where A' is closed in X?
that's by the definition of the subspace topology
i thought by the definition is for open
take complements, you get the same thing
thanks!
If I have X, Y topological spaces and A in X and B in Y are sub spaces, with f:X to Y homeomorphism with f(A)=B, how can I prove g: A to B and h:X\A to Y\B homeomorphisms as well
It seems like proving g homeomorphism isn’t bad directly, bijectivity seems simple and continuity and inverse seems trivial. H not sure
if you are saying it's tivial...
What do you mean
what do you mean what do you mean
It seems like proving g homeomorphism isn’t bad directly, bijectivity seems simple and continuity and inverse seems trivial.
it sounds like you know how to do it already lol
For g, I think know how. For h, though, not sure. I also feel like there might be more elegant solution than directly proving both but idk
ah okay i see what you mean
you don't have to prove both
basically X \ A can take the role of A and X \ B can take the role of B since f(X \ A) = Y \ B
just a matter of swapping out the subspaces in question
i.e. just prove that g is a homeomorphism
Yeah u are right idk how I didn’t realize complements did that. Thanks
things are nice since f is a bijection. npnp
If ${O_i}$ is an open cover for $A$. Then $A \subset \bigcup_i O_i$
mns
And so, we can intersect both sides of the inclusion yielding $A \subset \bigcup_i(A \cap O_i)$
mns
Correct?
yes
What are the key/important theorems of (pure) lattice theory?
ok hello @frigid patrol @gritty widget @cold temple , I am gonna type out why C* algebras is "non commutative topology". I think I was talking to you 3
so historically
C* algebras arised from the study of operators on hilbert space, which was studied due to quantum physics
So maybe it makes sense why C* would describe kind of "non-commutative" objects
like think about a classical physics system, you can think about functions on it
say the position and momentum functions
and these commute
and really this whole function space should commute for the same reason.
now lets think about a quantum system
the position and momentum functions no longer commute, so the function space of a quantum system is no longer a commutative algebra right
so thats maybe the first intuition, is that you have this non-commutative(quantum) system, and that is reflected in its function space
Ok so thats physical intuition, lets get into the math
So we start of with this result of Gelfand-Naimark
for a commutative C* algebra, you can form what is called its spectrum
this is the set of all maximal ideals which is also the set of all characters, and this can be given a nice topology to be a LCH space.
and basically gelfand Naimark says that a commutative C* algebra A is isometrically isomorphic to C_0(Spec(A)
and what this means really is every commutative C* algebra is a function space of some LCH space, and vice versa
and this is almost an equivalence of categories, so we can say commutative C* algebras is basically topology
and then it motivates saying that C* algebra in general is non-commutative topology
The reason this is justified is how we have managed to extend a lot of topology/geometry to this setting
The way to think of this imo is that you are identifying a space with its function algebra, and the non-commutative function algebra corresponds to some abstract space (there is an analytic spec like in AG but i wont go into that)
my blog will tell you how compactifications have an analogue in unitizations, and how you can use this for a nice characterization of stone-cech compactification. I think this is an accessible example
What sold me was K theory, essentially K theory is about vector bundles, turns out all vector bundles are contained in a trivial bundle
so you can think of a vector bundle as assigning projections at each point (to project to the subspace)
i.e some projection matrix in M(C(X))
turns out operator K theory just replaces C(X) (which are all the commutative unital C*s) with a general C*
and that this is extremely useful
like you are literally just changing a C(X) for a C* algebra
it quite literally is just making matrix entries non-commutative
I also know I was asked for an explicit example of a non-com top space
so let me talk about non-commutative torii
so basically look at the regular torus T^2 right
lets think about the functions on it, C(T^2)
my claim is that this is the C* algebra generated by 2 unitaries u,v that commute.
the proof? use Gelfand-naimark, and note that a character is determined by where u and v are sent. Since these are unitaries these land in the unit circle. So its a S^1 x S^1 choice right
so the character space is S^1 x S^1.
computations
This is no longer a commutative algebra however notice its basically just the torus with this small twist rotation factor
so it makes sense why this is a non-commutative torus
you can generalize this to higher dimensions, i encourage you to think of that
you can do stuff like the irrational flows etc on this non-com torii too which is cool and maybe shows that this is still behaving like a top space
I close out by saying that non-commutative topology is just pure C*
you can decide to add extra structure on it and do what we call non-commutative geometry
alain connes basically built this field up and all your favourite things in commutative geo probably has an analogue in non-com geo
I havent learn too much of this yet, mainly because connes book is a monster
one example i have seen is a spectral triple which is a triple of a * subalgebra of B(H), a hilbert space and a distinguished operator satisfying some property
and the commutative case of this corresponds to basically a spin^c manifold with its dirac operator.
so thats a non-com spin^c manifold right there
There is also non-commutative dynamics
you get to study dynamics of C* algebras and group actions of C* algebras by nice groups
and for the latter you can form a new C* algebra called the crossed product which encodes info about this action
this can be used to study the action very well, and in particular it can be used to study the commutive case
i.e topological dynamics
the last thing is non-commutative measure theory
a special class of C* algebras called von nuemann algebras (or W* algebras)
in the commutative case are L^infty(X) for some measure space X
so studying these is non-com measure theory
i am not really too big into measure theory so i cant say much beyond that but i know its something people have studied.
thats it thanks if u made it to the end of this giant wall of text
link to the top lol
Hello
What are some (non-trivial/non-boring) examples of:
(1) spaces that are homeomorphic to interval [0,1) ?
(2) spaces that are homeomorphic to { cos(2pi*x) + i sin(2pi*x) | x in [0,1) } ?
is "topologist's sine circle" homeomorphic to (1) or (2) ??
also there is "Warsaw circle" to consider too... https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Warsaw+circle
1 and 2 are the same, and both Warsaw circle and topologist ... are different (they are compact for example)
do you mean (1) (2) are homeomorphic? I think (1) is non-compact but (2) is compact...
My bad. 2) is a circle
Still, all 4 spaces are not homeomorphic
Reason is local connectedness
That the last 2 are not homeomorphic would require me some work, but the idea is that the string needs to map to itself, while approaching from one side you get a limit for topologist ... but for Warsaw circle, you don't get a limit
😀
all vector bundles are contained in a trivial bundle
is this always true? I can only find references which deal with compact base spaces
doesn't seem to hold in general but for the interests of K-theory ig you usually work with stuff likek compact hausdorff spaces or the homotopy type of finite cw complexes or maybe paracompact spaces anyway
and the statement posted above holds for the first two types of spaces at least
suppose X = {0, 1} and Y is a topology on R generated by the opens (-oo,0) and [0,oo). X and Y aren't homeomorphic, but they seem pretty much the same from the topological point of view because the continuous functions Y -> A are in 1-1 correspondence with the continuous functions X -> A. is there a name for this relationship between spaces?
X is the Kolmogorov quotient of Y
Which is the T_0-fication of a space
if you really had a bijection Hom(X,A) = Hom(Y,A) natural in A, then X would already be homeomorphic to Y by abstract nonsense
I think they had that A is good enough somewhere in their mind, but didn't write it
T0 is enough I think
struggling on a proof that the intersection of two compact subsets of a haussdorff space is compact
i know that a compact subset of a haussdorff space is closed, but I'm not sure how to use that
Suppose you have an open cover of the intersection.
yes
Extend it with the complement of one of the compact subsets, yielding an open cover of the other one.
hm
uh
yes i get it
then that has a finite subcover, but the only potentially infinite part of the cover is on the intersection
so if you remove that complement again you get a finite subcover of the intersection
Or in other words, that complement is obviously useless for helping cover the intersection.
yeah
yeah that might be the case, the vector bundle construction is on compact spaces tho so its fine.
the intersection is a closed subset of one of the sets so compact
i thought that but i couldn't find the theorem anywhere in hatcher
so I wasn't confident it was a thing
- compact subsets of Hausdorff space are closed
- closed subsets of compact space are compact
Also just to give you a nice counterexample for the nonhausdorff case: take the real line and adjoint two points A and B, whose only open neighbourhoods are the entire space X and X minus the other point
||Then any open cover of X minus {A} has a subcover of cardinality 1 and similarly for X minus B, so each id compactz but the intersectionis just R||
I guess this space is also T1
you can find it in Rudin (though maybe its an exercise)
smh my head all topological spaces are hausdorff 
I don't see why because X x I deformation retracts separately onto X x {0} and X x {1}, we can conclude i is surjective?
i know that i is surjective if X x I deformation retracts onto X x bd(I), but that's not what we have
well in fact i would be an isomorphism in that case
nvm i see. they are just identifying Hn(X x bd(I)) with its natural direct sum decomposition
Anyone?
let $f(z) = z^n$. How does one rigorously see that $f_* : H_1(S^1) \to H_1(S^1)$ has degree $n$?
kxrider
It maps the curve γ = (t->e^2πit) to γ^n right?
And fundamental group of S^1 is cyclic group generated by γ, so a homomorphism mapping γ to γ^n is the nth power map
sure, if all is right in the world, we'd expect gamma to generate H_1(S^1). this comes down to showing that n(gamma) - gamma^n is a 2-boundary, which is where im a little stuck
Wait, why did I think H_1(S^1) was the fundamental group?
Define a map F from [0,1]^2 to S^1 such that
F(s,t) = e^{2pi(n-t)s}
Then F(s,0) = γ^n(s), F(s,1) = γ^{n-1}(s), F(0,t) = 1, F(1,t) = γ^{-1}(t) where γ^i(s) is notation for e^{2pi i t}.
Does this show γ^n = γ + γ^{n-1}?
(From which γ^n = n γ by induction, at least for n > 0.)
Hurewicz here i guess aha
If I have x1,…,x_n distinct points in Hausdorff space X, to show there exists pairwise disjoint xi in Ui for all n=1,…,i can I just take arbitrary point x and by definition there exists disjoint sets containing x and xi for all i 1 thru n
Seems obvious intuitively but not sure about rigorously explaining. Seems like it should follow almost directly from def
Induction on n
Take disjoint neighbourhoods pairwise and intersect/take unions appropriately, say
I know that A is composed of elements of form (1/9)^j * (1/10)^i
does this help with this question in anway
i'm struggling to find the intersections since I end up excluding some elements of A
Look at the first n digits in the decimal expansion
in a general decimal expansion?
I haven't actually read this stuff properly
I just know some definitions
If adding some numbers and dividing by a known constant is computation-intensive, what isn't? 
potato
I can't seem to find a nice proof for whatever reason; ig the key idea is it's like the orbit space of the action of U(n) on the (orthogonal) Stiefel manifold of n-planes in C^infty, with that mfd being contractible ig?
oh okay so ig it boils down to applying this? This appeals to a given construction (Milnor's) tho
If I have connected subspace A of X and B supspace of X, how can I showed B connected if A subset B subset A closure?
Tried saying there exist U,V non empty open subsets that form seperation of B. Then A subset of U or V since otherwise their intersection will form seperation. But now stuck
If A is a subset of U, try taking closures and see what you can get from there.
I think I can get a contradiction if I have V intersect U closure is empty. Not sure if this is true though
It's true. U is closed in B, so it is its closure intersected with B.
So its closure cannot intersect V.
In symbols, $U = \overline{U} \cap B$, so $$\emptyset = U \cap V = \overline{U} \cap B \cap V = \overline{U} \cap V,$$ since $V \subset B$.
rakko
Makes sense thanks
still kinda stuck
Yeah so a cool thing is to follow the hint moldi gave one considering the first n digits of the decimal expansion and like
Using that to define the nth set in ur intersection
but within the nth set would it be a finite union of singletones?
But yes I remember finding this question annoying due to nonuniqueness of decimal expansions
0.1 = 0.10000000...... right?
That is one way of doing it
I think there's actually an even easier way of doing it actually
Rather than worrying about the first n digits, you can just worry about the nth digit
thats what i was thinking before
but isn't that an infinite union of singletons for every set
and so we cant be sure if it is still closed
what does this mean i mean
like say we focus on digit 1
I mean every infinite set is an infinite union of singletons
hmm im kinda confused
but yes like if we allow for all the numbers with, say, first digit 0 or 1
cuz i thought an infinite union of closed sets is not closed
not necessarily
well it may not be closed
It is just yes it may not be closed
But yes you can show that the set of all reals in [0,1] with first nth decimal places 0 or 1 is closed
e.g. by considering it as the preimage of a closed set under a continuous function, say
also as a like health warning uh
don't get too bothered about rounding; I think the best interpretation is that whenever you have trailing 9s you just round up (that's what I did)
ok so I don't need to consider 9's?
uh well you do but like
I was just gonna say don't get too caught up about whether e.g. 0.19999.... is in A lol
ig like write a convention (I mean the most obvious to me is that if a finite expansion exists we pick the finite one)
but yeah I remember this question giving me a bit of a headache due to possible ambiguity xd
did you mean 0.0999999....?
ah yeah that makes sense
is there a trivial function for this?
would it be continuous? Since the function would just map to integers
ye lol i messed up but it does work if you do first n digits actually
lol i did that originally in the sheet and thought it might work to just consider nth digit, sorry mb
np it helps me think
would an arbitary f : Z -> R work
where Z is restricted to [0,1,....9]
not sure what you mean by "arbitrary" here, and I assume you have the domain and codomain the wrong way round
i was thinking of mapping the nth digit to something in the reals
I don't get why that is useful
the poitn is that you want a function from [0,1] -> Z or [0,1] -> R, so that you can conclude a subset of [0,1] is closed
oh yes my bad
Mapping [0, 1] into Z is pretty trivial
But mapping Z into R is pretty trivial too
First case the maps are all constant
Second case the maps are all continuous
Don't you want something like... {0, 1, ..., 9}^omega to [0, 1] maybe?
Then f({0, 1}^omega) is compact
omega = natural numbers
= first countable ordinal
= first countable cardinal
So it's just a countable product of discrete spaces
Homeomorphic with the Cantor set
lost me ngl 🤣
could I find a continuous map with this
would that show that [first n digits in decimal expansion either 0 or 1 ] is closed?
f is continous and is mapped to a closed set so must the preimage?
No
If you insist on doing it this way then show it's a finite union of closed intervals
The proof using countable product of {0, ..., 9} is nicer imo
i have not worked with these definitions yet
ill try the other way
I am wondering if there is some meme way of doing this problem tbh, might have a think
Meme way?
Oh dw i had an idea for an alternative approach but doesn't work
problem is trying to show that the product of path connected spaces is path connected - isnt the projection map here backwards?
reading a SO post on it, isnt this answr projecting from X the product space into X_i the component of the product...?
Projections go from the product to its components. There is nothing wrong with this answer.
my confusion is that in order to show that the product X is path connected, dont we need to build up from each X_i being path connected
That's what's being done, though.
Paths in each component are being used to build a path in the product.
They start from two points x and y in X. Project them down to x_i and y_i in X_i and use its path-connectedness to get a path \gamma_i in X_i from x_i to y_i. Then the definition of the product gives you a path \gamma in X which projects down to \gamma_i under each \pi_i.
That's a path joining x and y in X, which is what you were looking for.
The "building up" you require is the "the definition of the product gives you..." part.
so you're also using that the inverse projection map is continuous...?
i mostly see it tho 
What is the "inverse projection map"? The projections are not invertible.
Which step?
seeing the path for any pair of points in X_i is easy enough, literally just follows from the definition
so i guess "definition of the product"
projection map is X -> X_i and the path is X_i <- [0,1]
feel free to sully me i could just be silly
It's basically the universal property of the product.
More concretely: define $\gamma\colon[0, 1] \to \prod_{i\in I}X_i$ by $$\gamma(t) := (\gamma_t(t))_{i\in I}.$$ This is continuous since each $\gamma_i\colon[0,1]\to X_i$ is, and $\pi_i\circ\gamma=\gamma_i$.
rakko
This is a theorem in Munkres, if you want a reference.
Theorem 19.6.
I have a copy of it.
so i guess a somewhat adjacent question, is there a space that highlights the difference between box/product topology well?
Any infinite product, since that's where those topologies will differ.
On the same page as the theorem I cited is an example using the countably infinite product of R with itself.
The diagonal function f(t) = (t, t, ...) from R to the product is continuous if the codomain has the product topology, but it's not continuous if given the box topology.
The exercises have more.
Explicitly if I am given two functions and I dont know if they are in same homotopy class how do I know if there exists a homotopy between them?


