#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 6 of 1
saying that something is a subset of something else does not make it a closed set
to show that the set of invertible matrices is open in the zariski topology, you have to show that it's complement, the set of non-invertible matrices is closed
by definition of the zariski topology, that just means you have to show that the set of non-invertible matrices is the zero locus of a set of polynomials
Ok, I have in my notes that "The Zariski topology on an affine variety X is the topology where the closed sets are subvarieties. The open sets are compliments of closed sets"
which makes me have 2 questions:
-
In this example it says the topology is defined over the affine variety (in the problem I have I understand the affine variety to be the set of 2x2 matrices). But you seem to imply that the topology is instead defined over the field that defines the affine variety.
-
I had read online that a subset of an affine variety is itself an affine variety. So is a subvariety something different? If not, why is it not sufficient to just show that the variety of non invertible matrices is a subset?
- this is the correct definition yes, when you say "affine variety" you typically mean an algebraic variety which can be embedded in affine space.
By affine space one usually talks about the set k^n with the zariski topology
2)A subset of an affine variety is not always a variety, for instance the zero locus of y-sin(x) is not an affine variety in R^2 as it cannot be cutout by a set of polynomials.
(though R^2, with the zariski topology clearly is an affine variety)
Ah 2) clears up a lot for me, thanks! But you didnt totally answer 1). Is a topology defined on an affine space, or on a field?
No offense, but I feel like you're missing quite a bit of elementary point-set topology.
Here's how you typically define the zariski topology on k^n (note that here n may equal 1, in which case the underlying set is just the field)
First, you define the zariski topology on k^n by declaring that the closed sets are exactly those which are cut out by polynomial equations
Then you define the zariski topology on affine varieties (subsets of k^n cut out by polynomials) by taking the subset topology from k^n
Later on you might talk about projective varietes or schemes, but we're quite far off of that right now
If you don't know what the subset topology is (or what a topology is for that fact) you should definitively read up on that before reading about the zariski topology
Btw saying this is the typical definition is not quite accurate, but it's close enough for our purposes
Yeah, ok. I will read up on that a bit more. Is the question I'm asking nonsensical somehow? Because it seems like a pretty straight forwards question to me. Is a topology defined on a field or an affine space? Because I have written in my notes something that implies it can be defined on an affine space, but I want to know if that actually implies its defined on the field that defines the affine space.
yeah so you first have to learn about point-set topology before doing classical ag or related stuff.
A topology can be defined on any set, the definition has nothing to do with a field or affine space.
You should at least have a grasp of the subjects in the first half of munkres's topology before starting with classical ag
ok, any set, thanks
theres two topology channels i just guessed knots werent a differential geometry thing
I think using R^2/Z^2 is nice, as any (closed) path in R^2/Z^2 lifts (uniquely, after picking a basepoint) to some path in R^2, which you can use to define your map
Though they are likely other methods too
What sets are clopen in the usual topology on Q?
Intervals with irrational endpoints
For example
Any open set O in Q can be written as U \cap Q for some U open in R. We can write U as a (countable) union of disjoint open intervals. However, we can also do the same with the complement of O in Q, so I'd wager that the clopen sets are exactly the countable disjoint unions of open intervals with irrational endpoints (?)
Hm
Huh. They form a basis so that can't be true
Otherwise every open set would be clopen
I don't think so no
Pretty sure (-infinity, 1) can be written as a disjoint union of such intervals by considering increasing sequence of irrationals which converges to 1
And it's not clopen
@unreal stratus I think bounded clopen sets are a finite union of these though?
No, this is false too
So yeah. Not much to say other than, every interval with irrational endpoints is clopen and every clopen set is a countable disjoint union of them, of positive distant apart each, but not necessarily conversely
So the characterization of clopen subsets of Q ends here it seems
there are both clopen and not clopen examples which satisfy this i.e. being infinitely countable sum of disjoint such intervals of positive distance apart (each can be made to be bounded)
Ah I understand
So since there are uncountably many irrational numbers, there are uncountably many clopen subsets of Q with the standard topology? Or am I way off
Or, wait
Each interval contains a rational, so it'd be countably many
Yes, there is continuum many of them
you were right the first time
Thanks!
(Sorry for the large bit of text but) what's the easiest way to see that this homotopy of fφ induces a homotopy of f? It seems Hatcher is skipping over some details but perhaps I'm being silly
potato
We're assuming $f$ already takes $X^{k-1}$ to $B$. The homotopy we're constructing will be defined on $X^k$, and it will be rel $X^{k-1}$ (i.e. it will fix that subspace pointwise) so all we need to do is define a homotopy on `the rest' of $X^k$, which amounts to defining it on each $k$-cell rel its boundary.
daveamayombo
But yes, I think it's fair to say this uses $\left(X^{k-1} \coprod D^k \right) \times I \cong X^{k-1}\times I \coprod D^k \times I$, together with the fact that $X^k$ is a quotient of that space, and the map we're defining passes to the quotient.
daveamayombo
does $\coprod$ in this context mean disjoint subsets of D^k?
Daifeng
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
if so, use $\sqcup$
Daifeng
or is it really the coproduct?
Fwiw, something like $X^{k-1} \amalg \coprod_\alpha D^k_\alpha$ would have been more accurate, where $\alpha$ indexes the $k$-cells, but yeah, I meant coproduct.
daveamayombo
I'm on my phone, so latex-fu is limited. 🙂
it's just i've seen people use the coproduct symbol to denote a disjoint union
What's the difference in this case? We're talking about topological spaces.
understood. I just sort of got confused with the notation
Ok! Got worried for a sec I was missing something.
though are you implying that coproducts and disjoint unions are interchangeable? 😲
I mean that a coproduct of a family of spaces (in Top... no basepoints, no homotopy, nothing fancy) is the disjoint union of those spaces.
ahhhh just a definition
that's neat
or is it a lemma?
Sure, you can use that to define what disjoint union of spaces means, I suppose. But I think it's common to describe / define the disjoint union and its topology directly, and one can then show immediately that it satisfies the universal property of a coproduct.
Given a family $X_\alpha$ of spaces, a point in the disjoint union is a pair $(\alpha, x)$ where $x \in X_\alpha$. And the topology is... hopefully what you'd expect.
daveamayombo
makes sense...
Sure, thanks
Whitehead's book has another proof of this lemma which I may look at too tbh
a morphism from Z^2 to Z^2 is uniquely determined by where you send (1,0) and (0,1)
suppose (1,0) gets sent to (2,0) and (0,1) to ( 0,3 ) (for simplicity's sake, you can generalize this afterwards), how would you go about defining a map R^2 -> R^2 which induces this map once you take quotients and fundamental groups? (Think abt matrices)
@plain raven Silly question, but you mentioned with proofs like this that it can help to draw a picture - how would you go about it when the diagrams like these are 3D? lol
Especially since we're working with pairs
I suppose this is the sort of thing where purely syntactic reasoning would be more useful lol
Just a quick sanity check: if phi is bijective and phi and phi^-1 both map basis elements elements (of the topology) to basis elements, then phi is a homeomorphism. Correct?
Yeah
That phi does that means phi^-1 is continuous etc
Yes thats the basic idea
You should try to think about linear transformations of R^2 which are well defined on equivalence classes mod Z^2
Lets call q: R2->R2/Z2 the quotient map
So fir my example, you can look at the linear map R^2->R^2 given by the matrix( (2 0)(0 3)), call that one phi.
You can compose these to get a map qophi : R2->R2/Z2
Using the universal property of quotient maps, this induces a map R2/Z2-> R2/Z2 (you should check this)
You should be able to check relatively easily that this map induces the desired map on the fundamental group, you should also try to visualise what this map is doing
if you want i'll try and draw a picture later
idk i would have to sit down and read through it
Compact metric spaces have a dense countable subset, is that true?
Yes. Use the fact that compact metric spaces are totally bounded
If we have some pushout square and I replace each space with its product with I (as in X x I, A x I etc) and use the "obvious" maps X x I -> A x I etc, does it remain a pushout?
It seems so: if I have some other space Z and the necessary diagram commutes, then for each t in I I'll get some map Y x {t} -> Z; then the only thing we need to show is that the overall map we get from stitching these together is actually continuous, which is easy if I've not done something silly
I'm asking just because tom Dieck seems to appeal to something like it here
(pls ping if you respond aha)
random question: how does one go about proving that two different metrics induce the same topology on a space?
my problem is specifically asking about three metrics on R^n but i'm simply not sure how to do this in general
in general, you have to show that everything that is open in one metric space is open in the other and vice versa (a set inclusion of topologies).
In a metric space, this is equivalent to showing that for all epsilon > 0, there is delta > 0 such that B_d(delta, x) \subset B_d'(epsilon, x) and vice versa switching the roles of d and d'
(and the above is exactly the statement that the identity map is a homeomorphism between (X,d) and (X,d'))
note that by doing this in one direction you will essentially prove that one topology is finer than another
so proving it both ways will tell you that both of them are finer than each other and therefore equal
being finer is also equivalent to the identity map being continuous
Hello. Is my understanding of the standard topology on R correct? Let T be the standard topology on R. Then T = {U (a,b)}, U is meant to be union, be it infinite or finite.
the open intervals are a base of the standard topology of R
Yeah. The topology consists of unions of open intervals (the union might be empty)
If U is a manifold properply embeded in M and M is a manifold embeded in N then is U embeded in N
More generally is embedding a transivitve property
just compose lol
If f: [0,1] to X, where X is an ARBITRARY metric space and f is continuous map, then f([0,1]) is closed. This is because [0,1] is equal to its closure and f is continuous hence image of a closure is closure of the image.
if f is continuous, then the image of a closure is contained in the closure of the image, not necessarily equal
When is image of compact also compact? I know if X was R it would be
image of a compact is always compact
Ok
if X is Hausdorff, then any compact subset is closed
yeah
Thanks
Image of compact is always compact when f is continuous because any open covering of the image would have an open covering in the pre-image that admits finite subcovering. So would any open covering of the image have a finite subcovering that is the image of the finite subcovering of the pre-image?
continous functions in general do not have to take open sets to open sets. For example f: (0,1) \raw {0} is continous
Yeah
but it will produce a not-necessarily-open finite refinement of the original cover
from which you can easily get a finite subcover
yoinking an example from the internet
no, take the cofinite topogy on a countable set
its T1, but every subset is compact
Will someone critique this proof?
Quickly without looking at the proof, consider $C = C\cap \overline{A} \cup C\cap \overline{A^c}$. If the sets $C\cap \overline{A}$ and $C\cap \overline{A^c}$ were disjoint, then this would contradict that $C$ is connected, since they are non-empty by assumption. But $\overline{A}\cap \overline{A^c} = \partial A$ by definition, so $\partial A\cap C \neq \emptyset$.
Blitz
Where did you get U from?
About the proof, I don't understand it. What's the purpose of this set $U$? How does what you wrote prove that $U$ intersects $\partial A$? $U$ doesn't have to be open in $X$
Well I was thinking that if a is in the boundary of a then every neighborhood of a intersects A and A complement
That's true. But there's no obvious choice for "a"
All right thanks for the feedback. It didn't feel right
Hey, I don't think I really understand definition of cw complexes. I'm trying to show that the interval (0,1) is a CW complex, but how can it be constructed by cells? I realpy don't see it. For [0,1], we can starz with the end points and then attach the line in between. But what about (0,1)???
Also, what are some simple examples of spaces that are not cw complexes?
How to see which spaces are and which aren't?
I think it's easier to see that R is a CW complex. Think what the 0 skeleton could be
(Which is enough, as R is homeo to (0,1))
Well I guess we could take infinitely many points and connect them
Perhaps at integers
Yeah exactly
Yes
At all real numbers?
Just do at Z
With such reasoning any space would be cw complex
Since you need to have the right topology
You can't just say take every point as a 0 cell
Because the weak topology would be wrong?
Yeah
Ok thank you
do you know that all finite cw complexes are compact?
I did not know that, but it seems reasonable from what I was thinking
you can try to prove it. In general X,Y is compact Hausdroff and A is a closed subset of X, then X ∪_A Y is compact (Hausdroff)
use induction to show finite cw complexes are compact
Ok thanks, i'll try it in the morning
(tho it only tells you you it's not finite cw complex)
I think it's a nice result
tho i think you can give (0,1) cw structure
Would it be ok to choose points 1/2, 3/4, 1/4, ...
And then connect them?
@wooden falcon can you explain to me what's wrong with taking all the points in any sets to be 0-cells?
As compared to taking all integers
And comnecting them with 2 cells
Which is what we do to show that R is cw complex
Well, we can say that it is a 0-dimensional cell complex then?
Ok fair
Do you have any tips on how to learn algebraic topology on my own
Im only going through hatcher now
I need to learn mostly about homotopy theory
For my thesis
thats a fine starting point
are you liking hatcher?
if you don't there are other books/refs
not everyone likes hatcher
I like parts of jt
But some parts I find pretty confusing
The main topics I need are homotopy equivalences and weak homotopy equivalences
you can try rotman, read chap 0 1 3 and jump to ch 11 ( homotopy groups)
Ok I'll take a look at that
probably not a good advice
Are there well-know examples of inductive limits in topology?
are you talking about filtered limits specifically
a CW complex is the inductive limit of its n-dimensional skeleta
Nope. Any examples from general topology?
Nobody
That's a good example. Similarly with the sphere S^\infty, which is the inductive limit of n-dimensional spheres S^n.
If you have a space $X$ whose underlying subset is equipped with an equivalence relation $\sim$, then the projection $X\to X/\sim $ can be expressed as a coequalizer
diligentClerk
That's a good one.
A very simple example is that if you have two spaces $X,Y$ then their disjoint union $X\coprod Y$ is usually equipped with a "coproduct" topology, where $U\subset X\cup Y$ is open iff its intersection to $X$ and $Y$ is open. this is an inductive limit
diligentClerk
Any n-dimensinal manifold can be expressed as the inductive limit of a diagram of open subsets of R^n.
The coproduct being an inductive limit follows from the fact that inductive limits are colimits and coproducts are colimits, so yeah.
Where did this concept of inductive limit originally come from? Was it in topology?
I wonder if there are any good examples from functional analysis.
Inductive limits are found in topology and algebra. There are some examples in analysis like sometimes you can represent a frechet space as an inverse limit of banach spaces
I mean an inverse limit is dual to an inductive limit so maybe that's not a great example
OK, I found an analysis book with some examples. It says that that coproduct of a family {Xi : i in I} of convergence vector spaces is the strict inductive limit of all the finite products of the Xi.
Oh, there is a more complicated example involving distributions and test functions.
I suppose the reason for using directed sets is because you need to be able to find a bigger space for any two spaces you pick in the system.
If you have a procedure to glue spaces, you can always make a bigger space by glueing the smaller spaces together.
yeah. the directed sets are not necessary to for the concept to make sense but they do confer technical benefits
is that {a,b} or [a,b]???
The latter
Cool exercise
ok curly brackets would've been really weird anyways
||This is just about (a, b) being non-empty and not having maximum and minimum||
Well e.g. the closure of (0,2) in N is not [0,2]
Honestly, this is just an application of the following characterization of closure: $$x\in \overline{A}\iff \text{for all neighbourhoods }U\text{ of }x, U\cap A\neq \emptyset$$
Blitz
This, applied to points a and b.
as edward pointed out, it can have maximums and minimums, a natural non-discrete example being ordinals
?
For that example, the closure of (0, 2) isn't [0, 2]
What is a "concrete" description of a stable infinity category whose homotopy category is the derived category of a ring R? Like how spectra are the stabilization of Top
wouldn't it be the infinity category of chain complexes, presented by the usual model structure on chain complexes?
im pretty sure the htpy category of that is the usual derived category
take this with a grain of salt tho, im still learning infty categories ^^
But yeah just take the usual model structure on unbounded chain complexes
well if its bounded complexes, then every one is qiso to a bounded complex of projectives iirc
so what effect does restricting to perfect complexes have in the unbounded case?
i dont think i've ever worked with unbounded complexes tbh
oh i see
agreed
also fits nicely with dold kan then
if by simplicial abelian groups we mean functors Delta^op -> Ab, then we get an equivalence of categories between simplicial abelian groups and bounded below chain complexes, induced by the normalized moore-complex functor. This functor is also homotopical and descends to an equivalence of homotopy categories
So I'm used to simplicial objects not having negative degrees
we covered this in a course recently
took us 3 lectures, and the only reason we did this was to get that every simplical / topological abelian group is ismorphic to a product of EM-spaces in the homotopy category
so a literal ablian group structure is "too boring"
and then we proceded to prove Segal's theorem that very special Gamma spaces are infinite loop spaces for the rest of the whole lecture course lmao
"Homotopy Coherent Algebraic Structures"
wild course
Nobody
wait is that just notation or is this actually related in some way?
I know the suspension spectrum as S^n smash X in degree n
does that have anything to do with abelianization?
ohhh
Nobody
is moore spectrum the same es EM-spectrum, just a different name?
I've only heard the latter
Nobody
that is indeed very neat
are CW complexes are metrizable in general?
well cw complexes are normal
but i dont think they have to 2nd countable or the like
oh hm there is this metrization theorem saying that a space is metrizable iff it is paracompact hausdorff and locally metrizable
but yeah i guess in general cw complexes are not necessarily metrizable
a connected CW complex is metrizable iff. it's locally finite apparently
but thats not really a problem
i guess it depends on what you do
but cw complexes are really nice spaces
the problem is that you take lots of quotients in building them
since any point in cw, there is a open set that lies in exactly one open cell e_n
they are locally metrizable?
i don't think either
if you pick the point as the 0-cell
yes
i was thinking abt S², same conclusion
x lies in unique open cell, not necessarily every nbd
yep

Phil
$\bigvee_{n \in\mbb{N}} (-\frac 1 n, \frac 1 n)$
it's a nbd of the special point *, does it contradict something somehow
maybe uncountable products??
ok I think I have a proof why it's not metrizable. It's kinda same proof of why R inf with box top is not metrizable. Take ∨ [0, ½] in ∨S¹. Then Π [0, ½] is compact and quotient is again compact so ∨ [0, ½] compact, but not sequentially compact.
@lunar yoke
ok
ill just believe you
a year ago I still knew pset topology
I've only done topology since
but only the category-perspective kind really
every pset topological thing is swept under the rug nowadays
we just work in a nice cartesian closed category and everybody is happy 🙂
pse is more of a tool than a field now
ppl have a strong metrization theorem and they're happy with it
to me its more set theory than topology tbh
but yeah i gotta study for this exam i have on tuesday now
can i just say that if x is in the closure of (a,b) it is either between a and b or equal to a and b?
Just say that [a, b] is a closed set

being rigorous about the equality condition is weird tho
i can tell when it's not equal - is it only equal when (a,b) is precisely an open interval in X
ehhhh nvm, if a=b in N, then (a,b) = empty set but cl(a,b) = a = b
i think im confused by what (a,b) could be
like could it actually be clopen? or does that fact that it's written like that mean that we're only considering the closure of open intervals a to b
ohhhhh so the bar over it changes how i should read it
Huh?
like the parentheses in this case arent saying "it's an open interval"
(a, b) = {x: a < x < b}
Not sure how useful the limit points perspective is
it's equivalent to the set of all points with open balls intersecting X tho right
We don't have open balls here
It's not a metric space
Just open rays and open intervals
Try writing what it means for a to be in cl((a, b))
i mean i was thinking about it as open balls but i hadnt thought abt metric space, prof hasnt introduced that yet technically
is it more helpful to think of closure as the intersection of closed sets containing (a,b)
also since you said you need a metric to consider open balls, does that eliminate the idea of neighborhoods as well?
im assuming those are equivalent ideas right
No. But instead of neighbourhoods try thinking of "basic neighbourhoods"
Like how you were trying to reason with balls, we can reason using open intervals and open rays
i mean now that i think about it, prof defined neighborhood of a point as an open set containing the point
so i can see how that might be different from an open ball
It's good practice to think about neighbourhoods as arbitrary sets which contain an open set which contains your point
Both definitions are common though
If you take open interval (c, d) with c < a < d, then (c, d) intersecting (a, b) means the same as open ray (<~, d) intersecting (a, b)
So a being in cl((a, b)) means that for every c > a there exists a < d < c such that a < d < b
I've assumed this is a total order
So that means those points sit "densly" to the right of a
For all c > a there is d with a < d < c
where did b come from here
Or, equivalently, open ray (a, ~>) has no minimal element
b was always here though
oh it's still just the interval (a,b)?
Yes
ok i think i see what you mean before but how does that get to equality
I've written out what it means for a to be in cl((a, b))
Similiar statement holds for b
cl((a, b)) = [a, b] means precisely that a and b are in cl((a, b))
oh im definitely overcomplicating this then 
What's the advantage of this line of thinking instead of just saying that a "neighborhood" is an "open set containing the point"? In Munkres he talks about both conventions but chooses the latter without explanation
Look up the point-less topology
It gets used a lot
Ok I will
In which topology
order topology

ok that's what i thought
I was thinking of neighbourhoods in functional analysis when we often use that they can be taken to be closed, convex, balanced
For the first definition such statement doesn't make much sense
Ah ok. I've yet to take FA but plan to
Every set is clopen in itself
Depends on the order
sorry for belaboring an otherwise simple question but i dont see then when cl(a,b) is not equal to [a,b]
It can be [a, b] or (a, b]
So there is an order topology for which the closure of (a,b] is (a,b]
it's gonna be when a and/or b are not in cl(a,b) ofc
but in what ordering is that the case
ooh wait
(0,1] in N
yes, for example
closure is just 1 right...?
Is there an immediate predecessor of 1 in N with your ordering
i mean just the natural ordering on N
Yep
Finite sets are closed inT1
In what spaces?
Yeah
I'm just thinking about order topology on N
As per @odd flame question
You guys might be surprised but I did great on my first topology test
good job
But most of the questions were about topology on metric spaces which make a lot more sense to me
Thank you
If you liked it then I have homework for you
When does subspace topology coincide with order topology on a subspace?
I will answer your question
Well
A basis for an order topology is all open intervals (a,b) in X, all intervals [x,b,) where x is the smallest in X, and all intervals (a,y] where y is the largest element in X
According to my book
Sooooooooo
Open rays are the open sets in X
An order topology is generated by open rays
Or
The topology generated by open rays contains the order topology
metric topologies are a scam
could i do c) by induction using b) as a base case?
So intersect the subspace with the open rays and get order topology on a subspace
imagine living only in first countable spaces
What are they
I don't have to imagine living in a metric space. Because I do. Or do I?
I think c might mean uncountable union
induction (the usual kind involving the naturals, at least) only works if the indexing set is finite. since (c) is true for any indexing set, you shouldn't assume this
Also
HOWEVER! if you have a finite indexing set, you actually have equality
transfinite induction is pretty common in point-set topology, so i wouldnt confuse them
but yeah, here you wont get anywhere with induction in this one
edited for clarity
there's always gotta be someone who brings up transfinite induction 

im sorry, #foundations is leaking
you're fine
i may be taking a set theory course this semester so i should probably get acquainted with such things
if i dont bring up transfinite induction every 5 minutes my blood sugar goes down actually
Tell me more about transfinite induction
it's finite (but not really)
(b) is true?
yeah
(this is what follows from part b and an easy induction over naturals)
so do i just have to do c) by let x be in this, it must also be in that
its somewhat technical, but let me tell you a topological example. you have your open and closed sets, say, in R, and you want to know what subsets of R you can actually get from those sets
for example, intersections of closed and open sets are in there
and unions of families of closed sets (which are not necessarily closed if the union is infinite)
then you might take those sets and consider their unions and intersections
and so on and so on
Oh ok
for reasons, we restrict ourselves to just countable unions and intersections
so X_1 = set of all closed and open sets, X_2 = set of all countable unions and intersections of sets from X_1, X_3 = ...
and so on and so on
I GET IT
the point it is that its not enough to take X_n for natural n
because what if you take one set from X_1, one from X_2 and so on, then their union and intersection wont be in any of X_n's
Ok...
so you set X_N = union of X_i, X_{N + 1} = set of unions and intersections from X_N
and so on until X_2N, and then X_iN for every i
and then you will get X_{N * N}
which looks like this
in the end if you repeat this enough you will get a set that is closed with respect to unions and intersections
and those are called borel sets
and the formal way of speaking of those "and so on and so on" is called transfinite recursion
proving things about them is called transfinite induction
A contractible space is homotopy equivalent to a point
Let’s say X is contractible and V consists of a point v_0
The only map f: X to V is the constant map
g : V to X is defined by g(v_0)
I see
fg = id_V no problem
gf(x) = g(v_0)
so need to compose a homotopy h
h_0(gf)=gf
h_1(gf)= id_X
but then gf has a left inverse
so it must be injective
and gf maps everything to a point
so X is a point?
There are definitely contractible spaces that are not a point so something is wrong here

Hi there! Can I get a double check on a proof? We're only on the topological properties on the real line right now
did you mean in the second line to write that the segment is contained in A_m?
you also wrote that on the final line
"contained in" as in "is a subset of", not "is an element of"
the "and for all a in A_m, a in r" is wrong
and you need r to contain x
which also means you can delete the entire following sentence ("then by definition, ...")
oh you're right I looked at the definition wrong
you might also want to clarify that r should be an open segment
whatever that means
ah I see
okay I'll keep working on it then. Thank you for the pointers!
Okay I think I have something closer
is that more in the right direction?
is this not just part of the definition of a topology? any arbitrary union of open sets is itself open?
you are correct

they're being asked to prove that this is the case for open sets in R
defined using open intervals and the like
(they're doing countable unions for some reason, but the proof goes through verbatim for arbitrary indexing sets)
yeah correct. We're only on the real line right now taking baby steps. We haven't actually defined what a topology is yet (I believe we will this week though)
this is good, but needs a bit of cleaning up
instead of the third sentence just write "Since A_m is open, there exists a(n open) segment r contained in A_m containing x"
restating the definition of an open set is unnecessary
just apply it with A_m and its element x
great thank you! 🙂
I'm being intentionally explicit to drill the definition in lol. But I understand! I should clean it up before turning in
This doesn't require any sort of induction, just use the property a)
That's wrong. The subspace topology can have more open sets
Blitz
For a subspace remove 0 from it
If X and Y are simply connected, is pi_n(X v Y) isomorphic to the direct sum of pi_n(X) and pi_n(Y)?
Nobody
Oh nice, thank you. Couldn't figure out an explicit counterexample on my own
Nobody
In this long exact sequence, i* is induced from an inclusion i, and j* is induced from a quotient map j (on chain complexes). Does this mean that i* is injective and j* is surjective or is this sometimes not the case?
No, in fact you can tell when this is the case by examining the long exact sequence
For example: R^2 is contractible, but you can have subspaces with interesting homology, so the map induced by inclusion certainly isn't always injective
I think I'm having a blindspot with this problem. Could someone possibly point me in the right direction?
I think I’m having trouble understanding what T_1 looks like
Indeed, so for a sanity check, the disjoint union of any open ball in V1 with any open interval in V2 (not contained in the ball) will be open in that disjoint union topology but not in the topology of V?
Not quite, for example the interval in V2 could also be contained in V1, and so taking the preimage in V1 U V2 wouldn’t give an open set
Ngl though I’m also kinda stumped
Nobody, were you able to dream up an example or was your hint based on an intuited direction to go with this problem?
Thank god, I think my previous possible example was a crazed attempt to make the problem work
Alright thank fuck I’ve been thinking about this nonstop too and couldn’t figure out why I was being dumb
My prof’s hw assignments. Though he just pointed out the solution - The open unit ball around (-1,0) union with the open unit interval at 0
(He’s saying that it’s open in the quotient topology but not open in V) I’m pretty sure he’s correct, but I swear I’ve considered this example before but figured it was open in V
Oh of course it's not
I thought of it as well and also discounted it for some reason
It's because of the point at the origin
You can't get an open set containing it but not any of the rest of the boundary of the unit ball
It’s funny cuz this was the first example I thought of when doing the assignment a few days ago
If \Phi([f])=\Phi([g])
Then f and g are homotopic disregarding the base points
WLOG f(s_0)=x_0
g(s_0) is some different point in X
there is a path h between x_0 and g(s_0)
so that hg\bar{h} is homotopic to g freely and homotopic to f relative to the base point x_0
however I don’t see some element in pi_1(X, x_0) conjugating them
h is just a path it is not a loop
Perhaps a low question, but say we're looking at elements in the K-topology. Would, for example, (-3, 0) U (1, 4) be in that topology? (-3, 4) obviously is, but since we can also take away K from any of the intervals, is this how it would be perceived?
(-3, 4) and (-3, 0) U (1, 4) are different elements* obviously
Oo no that's definitely wrong, oops. Scratch that
Because K = {1/n, n \in N}, so (a,b)\K is just removing the specific points of K, right, not (0, 1)?
homotopy doesn't require it to be non-intersecting
just contract the circle to a point
Hi! Can someone help me with this?
I am unable to show that the closed unit ball and its surface are no homeomorphic
both are compact and connected
so what approach should i go for here?
useful trick
if X is homeomorphic to Y, say by f : X -> Y
and A is a subspace of X
then f is a homomorphism from A onto f(A) and X\A onto Y\f(A)
so if you want to show that X is not homeomorphic to Y
you can show that for some carefully chosen subspace A, X\A cannot be homeomorphic to Y\f(A) for any conceivable choice of homeomorphism Y
Let A = {-1, 1} be a subspace of S^1 containing two distinct points. Then || X-A has two connected components. But deleting any two points from the closed ball \overline{B}(0,1) gives a space which is still connected. ||
@flat plinth
I am confused on one thing
I can only show that I can only show the closed B(0,1) is still connected after removing two points only by showing that it is path connected
Oh wait path connected always implies connectedness
Then it's fine
You got it
Yes - it may be helpful to keep in mind that it's often easier to show stuff is path connected since you can sometimes just write down a path
or draw a picture
I applied it to the next case for \overline{B}(0,1) and \R\times {0}
they can't be homeomorphic and my reasoning is as follows
This can't happen since if this were true then the restriction of the homeormphism to $B(0,1)$ would be a homeomorphism to its image. So, by transitivity $R^{2}$ is isomorphic to a necessarily connected subset of $R \times {0}$ i.e. an interval or a half line but this can't happen for as above deleting a point from $R^{2}$ keeps it connected but this is not true for an interval.
QNovus
Is this correct?
I dont understand why (in cellular homology) H_m(S^k) = H_m-k(S^0) ie how the k fold suspension of a top space affects the Hom functor
Is it as simple as diagram chasing for cellular homology (like the ones in Hatcher) or is there something deeper?
Also is there a reference on equivariant chain complexes that are motivated by lens space? I dont want to work this out myself
Ok never mind on the the first 2 questions; still in need of the reference
I will probably work it out but in a reluctant manner
What is top?
category of topological spaces
Oh
cant you just use that the image of a compact set under a continuous function is continuous
oh nevermind i misread you.
your reasoning for R x {0} works, yeah
I don't think you need to mention R^2 though. the open unit ball also remains connected if you remove a point
Noob question: If V is a subspace of X, are the closed subsets of V closure the same as the closed subsets of V (subspace topology?)
No
If V isn't closed, V closure itself is a counterexample because it's not even a subset of V
you are very right
If V is closed, then V closure is V so then trivially yes
And all sets closed in V are also closed in V closure because a subspace of a subspace has the same (subspace) topology regardless of which set you consider it a subset of
right, but proper closed subsets in V closure need not be so in V
Yes
Although any counterexamples I can quickly think of aren't in V at all
I think it's any counterexamples actually
they are closed subsets of X intersected with V closure right, so only the ones without points in the boundary should be in both
Yes
I suspect the answer is no but, are they at least in 1-1 correspondence?
Closed subsets of V closure without points on the boundary are entirely in V
A Seifert surface of a knot is a surface whose boundary is the knot. The genus of a knot is the minimal genus among all the Seifert surfaces of the knot. Is there an algorithm to find the genus of a knot?
is there some way to approach this using long exact sequences?
how do you show that for an open set X, cl(X) \cap cl(X^c) = cl(X) \ int(X)?
X is open so X = int(X) and cl(X^c) = X^c
ye
got it ty
another q, (X is open again) why is int(X') always empty? (X' is the set of all limit points of X)
That doesn't sound true. If X is R, then X' is also R, which definitely doesn't have empty interior.
hmm, youre right
do you mean the boundary of X?
int(cl(X) \ X) = Ø
im trying to understand this line
where its given that X is open
wouldnt the boundary here be X' itself?
the boundary is exactly cl(X) \ X. this is not the same as the set of limit points of X
wait, no it isn't.
it's cl(X) \ int(X), which is the same for X open
is cl(X) = X \cup X' not true?
it is, but X and X' are not disjoint in general
yeah, got it. my mistake
equivalently, the boundary is the set of limit points of X which are not interior points of X. suppose there is an open set contained within the boundary - what does this imply?
points of that set will be interior points?
that's true for any set
those are both equivalent definitions of a boundary
The first part is only true for open sets
If there is a non-empty open $U\subseteq \partial X$, then $U\cap \overline{X}\neq \emptyset$ so that $U\cap X\neq\emptyset$. But this is impossible for open $X$, since then $\partial X = \overline{X}\setminus X$
Blitz
in general, int(bd(X)) can be non-empty
why is it useful to know that a topology is contained in another
because it gives us various implications about how compactness, closed/open sets, continuity, convergence of sequences, etc. relate to each other with respect to both topologies
not much else to say
HI can someone please help me with this?
i get one side
if V has the property that any bounded sequence in V has a convergent subsequence
then since any sequence in S is bounded
it follows that has a convergent subsequence
oh wait
but it doesn't necessarily need to be in S
so i can't prove sequential contintuiy this way
ig
Why is everyone posting functional analysis questions here
#advanced-analysis is the place for that
The theorem follows from Riesz lemma
We seem to be talking about different things
Riesz lemma says that if $Y\subset X$ is a closed proper subspace, and $t\in (0, 1)$, then there exists $x\in S_X$ such that $d(x, Y) > t$.
Blitz
yeah got it!
thanks i'll look into it
Using it we can construct a sequence $s_n$ in $S_X$ such that $|s_n-s_m|\geq \frac{1}{2}$ if $X$ is infinite-dimensional.
Blitz
And from this the exercise will follow
Oh sorry. I thought this exercise were saying that S_X is compact iff X is finite-dimensional
nah
i got scared when you mentioned an infinite dimensional
result just to get this
😦
that's a relief
Yeah this one is easy.
any hint tho?
Taking a subsequence you might assume that the norms converge
If they converge to 0 you are done
yea infinite dim spaces are scary 
If not, divide by the norm
This is how you prove it assuming S_X is compact
Alternatively you can just say f:[0, 1] x S_X to B_X given by f(t, s) = ts is continuous, so B_X is compact
Now x_n is contained in rB_X for large enough r
oh ok
First part of this exercise is basically, B_V is compact iff S_V is compact
B_V being the unit ball and S_V the unit sphere
And one part of it follows from this map f being continuous and onto.
Second follows from S_X being a closed subset of B_X
i get this cuz any bounded sequence can be scaled to be in $B_V$ so B_V is (sequentially) compact iff S_V is compact
One can prove it more explicitly but using f is the clever solution
QNovus
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Let $B$ be an extremely disconnected compact hausdorff space (sorry) and suppose we have a sequence of closed subsets $S_1,S_2,\ldots$. If $B = \liminf_{n\to\infty} S_n = \bigcup_{N=1}^\infty \bigcap_{n=N}^\infty S_n$ is there some $N$ such that $B = \bigcap_{n=N}^\infty S_n$?
shamrock
Recall that an extremally disconnected space is one where the closure of every open set is open
By the baire category theorem there is some N where the intersection has nonempty interior
But idk where to go from there
I thought I could construct a counterexample using free ultrafilter stuff but it's not clear to me hmm
So here's something
It would suffice to show that for every x in B there is a nbhd of x contained within some \cap_n>=N S_n
Then pass to a finite subcover and etc
A galaxy brained thing to try here
Would be to look at the c* algbera of functions on this space
And try to apply uniform boundedness somehow
nah, I don't see it
Well hmm
Maybe I can try to do partition of unity things
So we can find functions φ1, φ2,... such that supp φi < B \ Si and Σi φi = 1
And then uh
Oh yeah so if x in Si then φi(x) = 0 necessarily
So for every x there is some N such that for k > N, φk(x) = 0
So can I show from this that there is some N such that for k > N we have φk = 0 identically?
Actually maybe I should take this and suppose not
So take an x
And suppose that for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$ there is a sequence ${S_{n_k}}{k=1}^\infty$ and $y_k\in U \setminus S{n_k}$
shamrock
hmm
pick N large enough that x in S_n for n > N
and wlog n1 > N
hmm
U \ Snk is always open
so we have all these open sets
none of them contain x
none of them are nonempty
Consider unique continuous surjection $f:\beta\mathbb{N}\to {0}\cup {1/n} = \alpha\mathbb{N}$ defined using any bijection between $\mathbb{N}$ and $\alpha\mathbb{N}$. Let $A_n = {0}\cup {1, 1/2, ..., 1/n}$, then $f^{-1}(A_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence of closed sets whose union is $\beta\mathbb{N}$
Blitz
Ugh, thank you for the example
This makes things very frustrating
This means two colimits of condensed sets that I wanted to be the same are (probably) not the same
it was an interesting question
for a moment I even started believing it's true myself
Haha yeah it seemed pretty plausible!
Ah hm this might actually not give me a counterexample
Here's the actual thing I was wondering about
Say B is extremally disconnected and you have two sequences of functions {fn}, {gn} from B to a compact hausdorff space X. If you set Sn = { x in B | fn(x) = gn(x) } and this holds, does the conclusion hold?
So I had thought every closed set in a compact hausdorff space was the zero set of some function, ie compact hausdorff spaces are perfectly normal, but it seems like that isn't true?
Hm it's possible I'm being silly though?
If you take a compact hausdorff space X and collapse a closed subset C to a point you still get a compact hausdorff space, since the subset (C × C) union Δ will be closed in X×X
So now
Take sets Sn that form a counterexample like you did
Let $Y = \coprod_{n=1}^\infty B/S_n$ and let $\hat{Y}$ be a compact hausdorff space containing $Y$
shamrock
Then we can define $f_n = B \to B/S_n \to Y \to \hat{Y}$
shamrock
And g_n is just constantly the point fn(Sn)
So fn(x) = gn(x) iff x in Sn
Cool (not cool)
is $\pi_0(G)$ of a topological group $G$ abelian?
Potitov06
This sounds false, the simplest counterexample that comes to mind is if G is discrete, then pi_0(G) is just G
show that for any matrix A,B det(AB-lambda id)= det(BA-lambda Id)
i posted it here because it uses topological properties and not eigen values or something liek that
Is there a nice description of this map q? I find it very hard to visualise (and not sure if Hatcher is handwaving a bit since another text does a diagram chase to define q)
Hey, could anyone check my solution, please?
is the 1st homology group of RP^2 equal to Z/2Z
how do you want to show it?
i made RP^2 into a delta-complex and computed its first homology group "by hand"
But yes that is correct
I guess one standard way of doing it would be to use cellular homology, which gives you all the groups
my work (messy and probably missing details)
Not so messy -- looks all correct!
Maybe the thing with d isn't really needed tho? It's homologous to c.
Well, that d - c is the boundary of the lower-right 2-simplex, so c and d represent the same homology class.
Yeah, exactly. 🙂
And that being the case, you probably don't need to introduce d in the first place.
hmm...
but i'm computing the quotient while working inside the group of 1-chains
so i feel uneasy just hastily identifying everything mod im(del_2) for fear of accidentally missing something
Well, d is defined to be -b-a, right? So it's sort of a convenience for referring to that element. That's all I mean -- you could keep calling it -b-a or something.
I'm splitting hairs -- I still think it was correct.
Yep! In any case, H_1 is generated by c, or by d, or b-a.
good to know i am able to compute homology groups in such simple cases
i was also able to calculate the second homology group of S^2 constructed as two triangles sewn together
and got Z
One thing that might simplify the argument: <c, a-b> = <c, c+a-b>.
Yeah, nice!
*exactly
Tbh I think I'm fine rn but just checking what I wrote above is fine lol
Just realising a lot of stuff on, say, Hopf invariant one doesn't define the maps like precisely but that's probs okay
Yeah
Yeah and then u gotta attach the like last D^k x D^ell bit
basepoint × right union left × basepoint
yee
I guess this is just how like product of cw complexes works though so this is more basic than i imagined anyway
Just a bit sus as when people say like
Well let's think about what the product structure should be
"the" standard cw complex structure on the n-sphere they can mean a couple of things
cause like you can also put the one where you take S^n and then attach two hemispheres to give S^{n+1}
I'd expect that you get n * m cells
You take all pairs
and attaching maps will be like
It'll be sort of exactly this map won't it?
Yeah exactly, so I guess here you just get 4 cells but that's fine because you just have a zero cell, then the two you mentioned above, then this thing as the last step
yh
But what you want is something from a higher dim sphere
Yeah but I think that just comes from the fact that like
the final cell is of dimension k+l innit
Yes
And then take k=l and we have a map S^{2n-1} \to S^n \times S^n$ which lets us have the wh product, sexy
Yeah
And then the general case of cw complexes followed
ye
Okay okay so
Wait like I mean I don't think I have any more qs, just wanted a check aha
Ah sorry
Because yeah it's just product of characteristic maps innit
It seems reasonable to me
Well sort of
You do that
But you precompose with S^(n+k-1) -> S^(n-1) × S^(k-1)
right?
And we were trying to figure out what this map is
Idk maybe I'm confusing myself
But this won't have the right domain
Ah I think the way you were writing it here makes sense(?)
You have two bits of the boundary
you just ignore the other factor on each
And run the attaching map
At least I think so
Yh I guess like what I'm saying is like
U take product of char maps to get the new char maps
And then restriction to boundary is the attaching map
Right
(Where im talking in Hatcher terminology)
But ye come to think of it this is just a theorem in Hatcher anyway I guess lol
Nice
Ah and yes the attaching maps for the sphere are just the quotient maps D^n to D^n/boundary
So it all fits together anyway, sexy
noice!
Anyway thanks lol I think I just skimmed over stuff on pointset top of cw cpxs at the beginning and am having to pay for it aha
like hadn't dealt w products lol
Thank
Hello. I've been given a theorem by my teacher which I have to prove, just wondering if it's really true since I'm having trouble proving it.
Definition of continuity we are using:
f: (X,T_1) --> (Y,T_2) is continuous if U is an open set in Y, then f^-1 (U) is open in X.
My idea: For all B in B_2, we have that B is in T_2 and hence open in (Y,T_2) which implies that f^-1 (B) is open in (X,T_1) and so f^-1 (B) is in T_1. How do I conclude f^-1 (B) is in B_1?
(i misread originally, i think you identified the issue)
i think you can play around with some examples
more specifically consider X = Y but choose different bases and look at the identity function
So lets say I take f(identity function): (X_T(with basis B_1)) --> (X_T(with basis B_2)), where B_1 and B_2 are entirely different. Assuming f is continuous, take b in B_2. Then f^-1 (b) = b is not in B_1, hence a contradiction?
i may be sleepy, but that theorem does not seem true to me. if (X,T_1) and (X,T_2) are both the real numbers with the standard metric topology, but B_1 is the set of open intervals and B_2 = T_2, then clearly the identity is continuous (since the topologies are identical), but not every open set is an open interval
in fact, i think that counterexample works for any two distinct bases of the same topology on the same space
yeah your counterexample is correct here, there's no way to conclude f^-1(b) being in B_1.
Thank you.
To prove any subset of discrete topological space is closed, is it as simple as noting the complement of any subset is open by definition of discrete topology?
how do you define discrete topological space?
You could define it as every subset is open. Or every singleton is open
For example
Subset open
Alright thanks. Seemed too simple
question
how do I show the map from open unit interval onto the reals given by the following is onto
MyMathYourMath
cause if r is in R then this has two solutions
if we set $r = \frac{2x-1}{1-\vert 2x - 1 \vert}$ then solving for $x$ we get two solutions
MyMathYourMath
but that literally means you hit every r
twice at that
assuming you've solved the thing correctly, I didn't check
MyMathYourMath
$x=-\frac{1}{2r-2}$
The calculation should be wrong, this is a bijection
MyMathYourMath
thats where im stuck @gritty widget
anyway. This is not exactly topology
sorry it was given to me in a topology course to show open unit interval and R are homeo
is it conitnuous since the denominator is never zero and its just a rational function thus continuous
denominator is zero for x=1 though
oh right forgot you restrict to there
well you did it the right way
onto does not mean 1-1
i know but the map is certainly 1-1 , is it not?
by unit interval do you mean (0,1) or (-1,1)
(0,1)
i feel like surjective and injective are more clear terms LOL
You are given that 0 < x < 1
then its bijective
so it's not just that you can say "yes those two solutions work"
well yeah for positive r one of them is negative for example
ok not exactly but you get what i mean
man
this pointset & analysis stuff is really not my thing anymore
lol
all math is triangles change my mind
no i agree
"this diagram commutes bc just look at it"
@lament needle can you help me out lol
what is the question, the surjection onto R?
yes for this map
this
well you basically need to figure out for which r your solutions of this equation lie in your domain
like do you always have at least one of them in (0,1)
then its surjective
i see, so it has to do with restrictions on r?
you want to show surjecitvity
given r in R
you need x that hits it under the function
in general to show a map $f: X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective you show forall $y\in Y$ there is some $x \in X$ such that $f(x) = y$
matthew
yes
and X = (0,1), Y = R for your example
i mean you gotta do the actual computations yourself im too lazy for that lol
lol
Any actual computations are beyond me
so true
does this make sense what we are saying
ppl think its bad that in infinity category theory you basically cannot ever construct anything, but its actually a blessing in disguise
its best to understand what it means for a map to surject in whatever context its asked then hopefully its clear how this occurs
i know what it means to be surjective
this is for a bijection?



