#point-set-topology
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But you still want to find largest subspace in which it's dense
Like for vector spaces. The span of vectors doesn't have to be dense in your space
But it's still some closed linear subspace
The closure is
referring to the second bullet here - what's an example where the image of the closure is a proper subset of the closure of the image
an easy map from R to R gives examples of where theyre equal but idk about subset
a stupid way to generate examples would be to make the topology on Y very small (e.g. codiscrete topology)
since then the closure of any non-empty subset of Y will be all of Y
but that's a rather artificial way of generating examples
for something more natural, arctan on R works
here's a more "natural" example: let X = (0,1) and Y = [0,1] with their standard topologies
and f is the inclusion from X into Y, and A = X
\bar{A} = A
but \bar{f(A)} = [0,1] which is larger than f(A) = (0,1)
but I like tterra's examples too because they get more to the heart of the matter imo
by codiscrete topo did you mean just empty set and entire set?
yes
also in that pic, doesnt (3) follow directly from the fact that in a continuous function open sets map to open setss
that is not true
oop nvm then
oh right right
it's true (by definition) that the preimage of an open set by a continuous map is open, but it is not true in general that the image of an open set under a continuous map is open (easy example, inclusion of [0, 1] into R)
im assuming we also define it like that bc the image might not be equal to the codomain...?
bc that was the rationale i came up with when i first read the definition and i asked myself why not just define it in terms of the image of open sets
that could be dumb too idk
In general preimage works better than image in terms of operating on sets
I also think that if you look at the comparison between the epsilon delta definition and the topological one
It becomes clear why the condition should be on preimages
yeah that's on my todo list, but it's been a while since i even look at epsilon delta to say the least 
But as a really stupid example
Consider the function that sends all of R to 0
This is clearly continuous
But has non open image for every open set of R
As another example, let f(x) = x^2 on R and consider any open subset containing 0 such as (-1,1). Its image is [0,1) (or [0, something else) if you picked a different set).
I guess you could say it's because continuity is about ensuring the output is close whenever the input is close (say to x_0), and it shouldn't matter if the codomain has all kinds of extra points near f(x_0), whereas requiring the image of an open set to be open would make them relevant.
If we take a 2-Cw-Complex and embed it in Rn for n>= 5, and take an epsilon-nbhd of it, does the boundary of the nbhd have the same fundamental group of the Cw-complex ?
I think this depends on the embedding a lot.
I'm picturing an embedding of a circle wherein the sides get periodically very close, but I'm not sure this provides a counterexample
I've seen it in a sketch of a constructing a manifold with a given group presentation, but they haven't justified it and I didn't find it in detail any where else
fair. I wanted to know if there is a general method
but I have too few tools 
I'll learn more about how to decompose a general space into CW complexes and learn about covering space theory
Hm. Saying this is not a general method is sort of misleading. If you can’t do something with these tools (or smooth refinements) you truly don’t understand your space, and should start there
I don't have any space in particular
it's not a research question
was just curious if I am given any random space at a topology intro course exam,how could I compute its fundamental group
we didn't do fundamental group computations outside of S^1 and these 3
There are a few tricks
The two major ones are van kampen and covering space theory
For an arbitrary space it could be quite nasty (I think some are still open but I always forget)
Yes I am trying to understand how to apply van kampen
but the problem is I have no intuition on pictures,how to decompose my space to apply van kampen usually 
I would just go do a bunch of examples
There isn’t an algorithm that works for every space
Pictures are spaces
Never writes out the concrete explicit maps 
I mean
I am really bad at pictures
You don’t need them
I can not think in terms of pictures
I always write down the maps/homotopies between the spaces

That is
Uh
I mean it seems like a coping mechanism to avoid thinking about these things
My suggestion would be to figure it out haha
In the same sense that if someone who prefers to think visually complained about writing down an explicit homotopy
I would tell them to just do it
Sometimes your preferred method of thinking just isn’t an option 🤷♂️
A good exercise if you really have to
Would be to parameterize hatchers pictures explicitly
And both see why he doesn’t do it
And why it’s not necessary
😔
I’m better now lol
One of my favorite techniques for proving a theorem in topology is:
- Visualize the argument in the case of dim X =2, 3
- Conclude that the argument transfers flawlessly to higher dimensions.
Corollary: by the d -> d - 2 map we understand all homotopy groups
in the definition of d, delta plays an important part
just observe that the same holds for deltas
delta^i delta^j = delta^j delta^(i-1) should be true
so I plug this equation brainlessly using def of delta in point 2
and i should get equality?
well. You can just understand what those maps are doing
delta^i deletes the i-th coordinate
but w_0 is same as v_0,but with an extra coordinate,right?
delta^i delta^j deletes the j-th and then i-th coordinate
exttra 0
and you want this to be the same as deleting first the (i-1)-th coordinate and then j-th coordinate
which checks out as j < i
but what is w_i in the first place?
in def of delta
they never define it
my intuition tells me w_i:=(v_i,0)
but idk if this is legit
what book are you using
no book,lecture notes
this is the def I am given
w_i is a vertex of Delta^n
but isn't a vertex of Delta^n simply given by (v_i,0)?
well... a triangle has 3 vertices
etc
a square has 4
basically, vertices are the 0-dimensional faces of a simplex
here yes?
let delta ^n-1
then vertices are basis vectors of R^n
so vertices of delta^n are just basis vectors of R^n attached with a zero 
no, that;s not all of them
fair,I think I see now
are you sure this is doable formally?
I started typing out formally the definitions,but it doesn't seem to check out
or there are nontrivial things tod o
Do deck transformations of a non connected covering space preserve fibers?
for instance if j+1 = i, then
\delta_j sends v_0, ..., v_{n-2} to w_0, ... , w_{j-1}, w_{j+1}, ... , w_{n-1}, which is also w_0,..., w_{i-2}, w_{i}, ..., w_{n-1}
\delta_i sends this to u_0, ... u_{i-2}, u_{i+1}, ..., u_n
\delta_{i-1} sends v_0, ..., v_{n-2} to w_0, ... , w_{i-2}, w_i, ... , w_{n-1}, which is also w_0, ... , w_{j-1}, w_{j+1}, ... , w_{n-1}
\delta_j sends this to u_0, ..., u_{j-1}, u_{j+2}, ..., u_n
and we see that the results u_0, ... u_{i-2}, u_{i+1}, ..., u_n and u_0, ..., u_{j-1}, u_{j+2}, ..., u_n are the same cus j+1 = i
what I do if j+2=i?
Idk how to formalize this for j+k=i
I'd start by using the Tex bot cuz this is honestly rly hard to read
for instance if $j+1 = i$, then
$$\delta_j ; ;\text{sends} ; ; v_0, ..., v_{n-2} ; \text{to} ; w_0, ... , w_{j-1}, w_{j+1}, ... , w_{n-1}$$,
which is also $w_0,..., w_{i-2}, w_{i}, ..., w_{n-1} $. Now
$$\delta_i ; ; \text{sends this to } ; ;u_0, ... u_{i-2}, u_{i+1}, ..., u_n$$
This was the LHS. Now for RHS:
$$\delta_{i-1}; ; \text{ sends} ; ; v_0, ..., v_{n-2} ; \text{to}; w_0, ... , w_{i-2}, wi, ... , w_{n-1}$$, which is also $w_0, ... , w_{j-1}, w_{j+1}, ... , w_{n-1}$
$$\delta_j ; ; \text{sends this to} ; ; u_0, ..., u_{j-1}, u_{j+2}, ..., u_n$$
and we see that the results $ u_0, ... u_{i-2}, u_{i+1}, ..., u_n$ and $u_0, ..., u_{j-1}, u_{j+2}, ..., u_n$ are the same cause $j+1 = i$
what I do if j+2=i?
Idk how to formalize this for j+k=i
ProphetX
if $j+k=i, then$ $$\delta_j ; ; \text{sends} ; ; v_0,\dots,v_{n-2} ;\ ; \text{to} ; ; w_0,\dots,w_{j-1},w_{j+1},\dots,w_{n-1}$$ $$= w_{0},\dots,w_{i-k-1},w_{i-k},\dots,w_{n-1}$$
but idk how to apply \delta_i now
because crossing out i-th depends on what value k takes 
ProphetX
how you delete i-th coordinate?
it depends on how j is related to i 
By deleting it
idk
you can't delete i-th component after deleting j-th
you don't know what you delete
i=j+k for some k
which place do i delete?

why not just try it for like a 2-simplex
I have 0 geometrical intuition on this
and see what happens
i tried writing down formulas for 3,5 hours
delete the jth component. you get something that has an ith component, now delete that
and it does not work
but how?
something clearly fails
can you not draw a 2-simplex, delete 2, and then delete 3 or something like that
I only know algebraic definition
the proof works if j+1=i,but idk how to generalize for j+k=i

I don't mean to sound insulting, I'm just having difficulty understand how you're going to compute simplicial homology if you can't describe what a 2-simplex looks like
I am not sure,not that far yet
ok well anyway, regarding an "algebraic" proof @cursive flume
for the LHS, applying $d_i$ first doesn't modify the first $i-1$ components so you can still delete the normal $j$-th component to get $[v_0, \ldots, v_{j-1}, v_{j+1}, \ldots v_{i-1}, v_{i+1}, \ldots, v_n]$
walter
for the RHS, if you apply $d_j$ first then you've shifted all components to the right of the $j$-th component to the left by 1, so to delete what was originally the $i$-th component, you now have to delete the $i-1$ component, hence we apply $d_{i-1}$
walter
but you need apply j first,not i
delta deletes components,not d
delta deletes j-th component
and now the dilemma. how i delete i-th component,after having deleted j-th component?
the deletion maps I describe do the same thing as applying the restriction maps in the opposite order methinks
i'll check it tomorrow,sorry
I am super confused and slightly tilted
been working on this proof for almost 5hours,had 18 trials and all fail
I really do not understand how these definitions work algebraically. I've read this argument on stackexchange and here now, but I can not connect to anything I know
I think the best is to forget about the proof and try it next day or something idk
An affine transformation is a function f : V -> W between vector spaces of the form
f(v) = Av + b
where A : V -> W is a linear transformation and b is an element of W.
Here they mean that we should think of the simplices as subsets of R^n.
It's easy to see by virtue of the definition that for any affine linear transformation f,
for any v1, v2,... vn in V, and any real numbers r1, r2,... rn in R, with r1 + r2 + ... + rn = 1, we have
f(r1 v1 + r2 v2 + ... + rn vn) = r1 f(v1) + r2 f(v2) .... + rn f(vn).
As a consequence, if f has already been defined on v1, .... vn, then its behavior is totally determined on the convex hull of v1... vn.
When the slide says 'define it affinely' they mean that they are telling you what f(v1).... f(vn) here and letting it be defined on the convex hull of v1... vn via the formula above.
5 hours??
do something else after one lmao
...
@plain raven explained it very thoroughly
I lacked some prerequisites
after x hours,I finally managed to do the proof with his patience 😅
it is not a one liner at all, in fact it takes quite some work
so back to this, could you motivate why? 😅
I remember looking at this proof like 16 months ago, I do not remember it taking 3 pages
Now justify that an affine map between simplexes is uniquely determined by how it acts of vertices
And composition of two affine maps is affine

are riemann surfaces associated to multivalued functions covering spaces of C \ branch points?
and if so can every covering space of C\finite set be realized in this way?
topology. Projection prB: BxF->B covering for any B and discrete F? Proof: (prB)^-1=union(BxY_i), Y_i is in F. Questions: Don't different BxY_i intersect, intersection is B? why BxY_i->B homeomorphism?
I’m also asking this because we have a representation of the fundamental group of C\branch points via the monodromy group, and I was wondering if this was a more general technique in covering spaces where you study the fundamental group by looking at the group of induced permutations on sheets of the covering
yup
every compact Riemann surface is a branched cover of CP^1
Branched meaning?
it becomes a covering space after removing some subset of the base, and the points above that subset in the family
but yeah this is the Riemann existence theorem
Neato
you also get an equivalence of categories between monodromy representations of π_1(X) and vector bundles with flat connection on X
vector bundles with flat connection are just linear ODEs on X
I don’t really know much about vector bundles but I’ll keep that in the back of my head
are (-infinity;1]; (-infinity;1]U[2;+infinity) closed in R?
Yes it contains its limit points.
or you could look at the complement
they say in book closed sets are closed intervals but it's half closed in R
closed sets are not just closed intervals
can you send a screenshot of what they're saying in the book
closed in "RT1 : all finite sets and the whole R"
(-infinity;1] is not finite
page 333 in foxit reader (or 318 in book), exercise 2.10
does RT1 refer to the standard topology on R?
it doesn't
yes, it's not usual topology of open sets, sorry
well the topology contains the complements of all finite sets and the empty set
and remember that the complement of an open set is closed
then you get that finite sets and R are exactly the closed sets in your topology
the example you gave and the explanations were referring to the standard topology
If X is a CW complex such that its cohomology is 0 in all degrees, and A is a sub complex
does A have 0 cohomology in all degrees
No, take S^1 as a subcomplex of R^2
In fact, this fails for any simply-connected CW complex A by taking the first space A_1 in the Postnikov tower for A.
That gives A as a subcomplex of A_1, which has trivial homotopy groups and hence trivial cohomology
in fact, A_1 is contractible by the Whitehead theorem.
I tried solving this exercise, but to no avail, any help? \
Let $A$ be a convex, path-connected set, and $A \subseteq B \subseteq \overline{A}$ (closure). Show $B$ is path-connected.
Syst3ms
When you say convex, what space are these subsets of? Just any normed vector space?
well this is always true anyways (iirc)
no need for more assumptions than A is path connected
B-any space, F-discrete, Y_i-point in F, why prB: BxY_i->B homeomorphism?
is not homeomorphism bijection?
B->B, where to map Y_i?
nvm, I think this is only true for connected spaces
and does not hold in general for path connected spaces
path connected spaces are connected
I meant that the closure lemma, i.e. set inbetween the closure of a connected space and the space itself is itself connected
does not extend to path-connected spaces
a counterexample is given by the topologists' sine
so extra assumptions are needed (As given in this case by the assumption of convexity)
The Warsaw circle is connected but not path-connected
how is that related to what I said
If something applies to all connected spaces, it will apply to path-connected spaces
No?
path-connectedness is a weaker property
look at lemma 5.2 here
sin(1/x) continuum shows that closure of a path-connected set doesn't have to be path-connected
^
oh, sure, you cannot make the claim that the closure will be path-connected. But the closure of a path-connected set will be connected
sure, but that's not the question
Then I am not sure what we disagree on
this is a chaos
We're looking to prove B is path-connected, not just connected
This was the original question. I thought at first that this is always true for pathconnected spaces,
but then corrected myself saying additional assumptions as in the question are needed
If y is in B, there exists a sequence y_n in A such that y_n converges to y. Now we should be able to take a piece-wise linear function from y_0, y_1, ... up to y
And it should show path-connectedness
That was one of the approaches I tried
I recall having trouble showing it was continuous though
What space are we in
I don't really recall the full statement
I'm almost certain it isn't any more restrictive than "normed vector space"
because that's what we did all of our topology in
On [1/n, 1] it's certainly continuous
Of course, the only thing is showing it's continuous at 0
I know, we can use the fact that balls are convex
||y-ty_n-(1-t)y_(n+1)|| <= t||y-y_n||+(1-t)||y-y_(n+1)||
Provided y_n and all subsequent terms are in an ɛ-ball around y, the function will also be for that reason
Note that p(t) is in A for t =/= 0
So this is a path in B
Someone already mentioned, to say that A is path-connected is redundant
But we can't say that B is convex
Although cl(A) is convex
we need that to define the piecewise function though
I will correct my message
right
We often care about the closed convex closure, so it's an important thing
So cl(conv(S)) of a set S
It says this is least closed convex set which contains A
interesting
As for example, consider something like the open half-plane and add two points from the boundary to it, then it's not convex
In R^2. So B = {(x, y) : y<0 or x = y = 0 or (x = 1 and y = 0)} would be fine
With A = {(x, y) : y < 0}
B-any space, F-discrete, Y_i-point in F, why prB:BxY_i->B homeomorphism?
B is mapped in B, to where Y_i mapped then?
what do you mean by "where Y_i is mapped"
homeomorphism is bijection not?
yes
yes
for example B={b1,b2,b3}, how to map BxY_1->B
yes
(b1,y1) and (b1,y2) don't intersect?
it's needed to prove prB is cover
when restricted to B x {y} where y is any point of F, this map is a homeomorphism
and this map, means p(b, y) = b for any b in B and y in F
so Bx{y} is one structure, i don't understand that multiplying x very good
A x B = {(a, b) : a in A, b in B}
they are equal only if a1=a2 and b1=b2?
what is with topology a in topology space A and b in topology space B, what about AxB topology space?
yes
A x B is a topological space which topology is generated by sets of the form U x V where U is an open subset of A and V is an open subset of B
hmm reading Hatcher and I'm not getting this, what's the abelian group structure?
nvm I'm dumb
What exactly is deg(f) \iota?
it's deg(f) times the generator \iota?
do group operation on element iota integer times
idgi what's the confusion here 
would you prefer for them to write "\iota \iota \cdots \iota (deg(f) times)"?
He's using the isomorphism of the group with ℤ, where the group operation is +
Not exactly but that's one way you can think of it
I see the exercise X is hausdorff iff the diagonal of XxX is closed all the time, is there any interesting consequence/application/use for this?
Yes. A continuous function from a dense subset to a Hausdorff space can have at most one extension
Equalizer of two functions into a Hausdorff space is closed
Graph of a continuous function into a Hausdorff space is closed
Kernel of a function into Hausdorff space is closed
Can’t you just take preimage of 0 under the difference and say this is a closed set containing the dense subset so the preimage must be the entire set?
I’m not sure how the diagonal comes in
Right. 0
Yes
Kernel of f is {(x, y) : f(x) = f(y)}
By the way
Alright
Ok I’m trying to see the parallels between epsilon delta and topological defn of continuity
If you have a function defined as f(x) = x between -inf and 1 (not inclusive ) and f(x) = x+1 onwards but still not including 1
The pre image of this is still open?
I know I’m being dumb
Yes, in the subspace topology on R/{1}
In other words, the preimage of that set under f is an open set on R intersected with the complement of {1}
What about R though
If 1 was included I see the discontinuity bc the preimage would have a half open set
Which is obv not open
also, if B is a ball around f(1), then if f is cont, then there must be an open ball arond 1 such that the image of this ball is contained in B
That's clearly impossible with the gap
Is that just the defn of cont slightly rephrased
the version of "hausdorff" in algebraic geometry ("separatedness") uses the closed diagonal as its definition
Also is this like quotienting in algebra
When do imbeddigns come back up
Munkres goes on to talk about constructing continuous functions after defining this
Okay I think I missing something
This is another example he gives - why does that point not having a neighborhood that intersects the ciRcle matter
S1 is the unit circle
It's not whether it intersects the circle that's the problem
The problem is any open ball about p in R^2 will intersect a bit of the circle below p
So there's no open neighbourhood of p in S1 which is contained in f(U)
Hence f(U) is not open
Idk why it'd by like quotienting? It's more like an injective homomorphism if you want to have that sort of analogy, that is ,an isomorphism onto its image
lots of differential topology usage
Though the issue in topology is that being a continuous injection doesn't imply it's an embedding, even though in algebra that'd be the case
Continuity weird 
Waiting for someone to mention condensed maths lol
I’m already dense enough I don’t need math to get condensed
Why not just the usual definition of hausdorff
varieties are basically never hausdorff
i was going to type a follow up to that message but my phone died halfway through
the product of varieties is not given the product topology, but rather another one, and it is in that one which we ask that the diagonal of separated varieties be closed
you still recover important properties of hausdorff spaces like "if f, g: X -> Y are morphisms of varieties with Y separated then {x : f(x) = g(x)} is closed in X" and "graph of morphism into separated is closed" and etc.
this is one way to show that the zariski topology on A^2 is not the same as the product topology on A^1 x A^1 ! (methinks)
making this a bit more concrete: Spec A is Hausdorff iff it is T1 iff every prime ideal is maximal => Spec A is totally disconnected
so in like basically any interesting case Hausdorffness is non applicable
how much background do i need to dip my toes into some algebraic topology
im like on chapter 2 of munkres
and ive taken an algebra class
im not looking for proficiency just yet, just to get familiar with what it's about and maybe if i have time to delve deeper into some parts of it
as long as you know some group theory (subgroups and normal subgroups, coset spaces, etc) and some basic topology (continuous maps and so on) you can already get started with stuff like the fundamental group
literally learning about continuous maps rn 
some later stuff like cohomology requires a bit more algebra, you need to know some stuff about homological algebra and chain complexes but honestly people usually just learn that concurrently when they need it
for fundamental groups you mostly need to know the definitions of homotopy between two continuous maps, and what a covering space is
both of these are defined in terms of continuous maps satisfying some conditions

and any resources you might suggest
i found some yt playlists that look solid but still
normally id just find a book but if i start reading a book i'll get bogged down in details and that's not what i wanna do yet
(unless there is a good book ofc)
I personally liked Hatcher when I was learning this stuff but the book is famously long-winded. Tom Dieck is another book that's good.
I enjoyed Hatcher (the parts I read at least) as someone with a very weak algebraic background.
I like the way he always puts emphasis on geometric aspects but I can see why some algebra people hate on it
Concise topology seems to do stuff in quite a different order though, I doubt it's good for a first look right?
concise is not a very good first book
Am I better off skimming Hatcher then?
For the fundamental group, I think Munkres is a good introduction
Since it’s really aimed at beginners
You should learn about connectedness and related stuff before tho
Yeah I think you should do at least some more point set first probs
Alright I’ll stick with munkres another week or so first then
Thanks for the tips
Continuity is just taking longer than I expected
I don't really like Hatcher 
how so?
the writting doesn't really resonate with me
not saying it's a bad book or anything, just not my choice
yeah i can see why that'd be the case
I personally enjoy his style because it makes me feel more like i'm actually "reading" something and not just going from theorem to proof to theorem if that makes sense
Munkres has given me a bit of both of those
Munkres also has an algebraic topology book
also his point set topology book does introduce basic concepts of alg top
i hadnt noticed! i’ll definitely skim them though
im finishing chapter 2 this week so hopefully that’ll be enough to at least not be completely lost
Unrelated but here, why must that basis element exist? I can see why a neighborhood must be there it’s literally another defn of continuity but why specifically a basis
Oh I guess this is referring specifically to the standard Topology on R, not in general
Munkres' algtop book is really bad imo
Super dry and odd ordering of the material
Least enjoyable AT book i've tried

Personally my recommendation would be... Rotman?
He seems like a super clear expositor
R u being sarcastic
No lol i don't have any invested stake in munkres' book
Oh ok lol
If you criticize spanier's book it will raise my hackles
It front-loads the theory of simplicial homology which might be good for some things but it bogs you down in the details when you try and actually develop the theory of homology in general and prove improtant Theorems like the homotopy axiom
+1 on this I really like rotman's book, supplement the pictures from hatcher (he has nice figures)
And if u do c9 of munkres you can skip c1

the dot is just a : that got misprinted
and f|_A is just f restricted to the subspace A
That seems a lil redundant lol but aight merci
When does the pasting lemma come up
when you need to use it
one case I can think rn is composition of homotopies
Sounds like another thing I’ll just have to keep in the back of my mind
nvm then
@jaunty sand no wonder you can get things wrong about the interior if you didn't properly define it
That aside, "union of all subsets" ? Isn't that... just... the set itself?
Then I don't know how's a interior of a set defined ^^'
Open subsets
Wait, the interior has to be smaller than a whole set? So if we had R then you really can't have interior be the same size as R, therefore it needs to be smaller, but that's impossible because it would be sort of incomplete? (Rly weird way to put it Xd)
Wait, the interior has to be smaller than a whole set?
it doesn't
In fact, sets which are equal to their interior are called "open sets", and are very important
Well, it's smaller or equal to
not strictly
But I now remembered that sets can be subsets of themselves hahah
R is a topological space whose open sets are formed by unions of open intervals — things that look like (a,b) where a <= b and a, b can be real, positive infinity, or negative infinity.
so R = (-infty, infty) which is open
Wait what's the interior of (-infty,0)
the interior of a set is the union of all open subsets of that set
do u think (-infty,0) is open?
Me bk, yup it's open
If it were 0] it'd be closed
A = R
A° = R :')
yup, so you should be able to figure out the interior of (-infty,0)
Imo it looks like (-infty,0)
:")
simple problem but what do you call big R and little r for a tauros
i couldnt find the name onlien
major and minor radius
respectively?
of course
kk
thanks
I've also seen meridian and longitudinal
words too hard
i just realized i have been spelling torus wrong 💀
i have been spelling the pokemon
[Disclaimer: I am a hobbyist mathematician so I apologize if I am confusing - happy to add rigor where needed]
Background: Hey folks! I may have thoroughly confused myself over what a topological space, a set, and a cartesian product while trying to understand projection functions and would love someone to help me clear up my confusion. To give some background on what I have been dealing with, I was reading a textbook and there was a section on products and coproducts. The author arbitrarily said something to the effect:
Let A, B be two sets and A x B = {(a, b) | a in A, b in B}.
It naturally follows that there are two projection functions (A x B) -> pi_1 -> A and (A x B) -> pi_2 -> B
Problem: Well, to me, this was not a very natural projection as I hadn't seen this property of projections occurring yet with sets. After much googling and perusing other textbooks, I finally found syntax exactly like what I saw in this textbook section which looked like the attached picture. However, what confused me was why the author was calling A and B sets when based on what I had found, the sort of projection only works for topological spaces. What am I missing here? I am happy to provide more details as needed! Thank you all!
such a thing works for a lot of different structures
the described functions in sets are also functions of sets
the cartesian product is a very common construction
(the cartesian product of sets is AxB)
Ope! I may have been unclear - I understand the cross product, but I don't understand the projection functions and what mechanism they are using to decompose a cross product.
I’m not sure what you mean, you described the function perfectly
(x,y) goes to x or y depending on which projection you choose
Right, so what I am confused about is what are those projections and where they come from in this case to decompose a cross product - I might just need to review the definition of a projection for sets again but I am just struggling about where these projection functions came from. (sorry - I feel like I am still being fuzzy and don't mean to be 😬 )
Did that help with clarifying things at all or nah?
(not to be pedantic, but "cross product" is usually reserved for an specific operation in R^3 -- you mean "cartesian product" here)
it boils down to simply picking one of the "coordinates" in the cartesian product, there's not much more to that
there's some category-theoretic considerations (the product can be defined by its universal property, etc.) but I doubt that's important in the textbook you're reading
assuming it's a point-set topology one
Does anyone have intuition for the universal Urysohn space?
<@&286206848099549185>
Helpers are for the help channels
is the universal Urysohn space related to hillberts cube?
Why is ω+1 compact, where ω is the first uncountable ordinal
Because any neighbourhood of omega contains a set of the form (n, omega] where n is a natural number
then the rest of the sets in our cover, make up for a covering of [0, n], which is compact
Wait what how is any neighborhood of omega like that?
ω is uncountable so there’s definitely some ordinal x such that there are countably many elements less than x, then (x,ω] is not in the form of what you said
The topology of omega+1 is generated by open intervals and intervals of the form [0, a) and (a, omega] (because 0 is a minimum and omega is a maximum)
omega is the set of natural numbers?
omega usually means omega_0, not omega_1
Ok
i've never seen it as denoted as large omega, only as omega_1
By Alexander subbasis theorem we can only consider covers of the sets from the subbasis
First, omega_1 has some cover of the form (a_0, omega_1]. Then a_0 has some cover which restricted to [0, a_0] is of the form (a_1, a_0] or if it's of the form [0, a_0] then we are done. Consider this sequence a_n defined recursively, each step you get an open set (a_(n+1), a_n] when restricted to [0, a_n]. This is an infinite descending sequence of ordinals, which is impossible
Ah ok
So the process has to end at some point, and we get a finite cover of [0, omega_1]
I see that makes sense
this works for any ordinal in place of omega_1
Looks like the universal Urysohn space is homeomorphic to l^2
or, in other words, R^omega
where did you see that? i was confused cuz i thought R^omega was universal polish space, but neither in wikipedia page or book i was reading that talk about it this is mentioned
why are they given different names then?
hmm?
oh nvm
Urysohn universal space is a metric space
not a topological space
still weird that wikipedia doesn't mention that its topology is that of hillberts cube
im very glad to hear this
no
Hilbert cube is different
I realize
R^infinity, l^2, it's all the same
topologically at least
oh right hillbert cube is [0,1]^N not R^N
Hilbert cube is a subspace (in the topology sense) of l^2, but they are different topologically
the latter isn't compact
yes
wasnt there a name for R^N too
R^omega
no i mean name name
like hillbert cube for [0,1]^N
Not that I know
What are the typical example of bases of a top space that are not closed under finite intersection? i thought about R with basis of punctured open intervals, but feels like kind of an unnatural example
How about R^n with open balls?
lol that works yeah
I'm confused about something in May. He says the homology groups of the (M, M - U) all vanish, where M is a manifold with boundary and U is a chart around a point in the boundary, so homeomorphic to half-space
I tried doing the H_k(M, M-U) = H_k(M/(M-U)) thing, to no avail. I don't even know how to visualize the resulting quotient (is it cls(U)/U? etc.)
the usual basis for R is not closed under intersection
(balls of radius epsilon)
That's just open (bounded) intervals, and those are closed under intersections (assuming we treat the empty set as an interval)
Did you mean R^2?
Or take all intervals of radius 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
I'm guessing the questions with intersections were asked because it's sometimes nice to take some basis which is closed under finite intersections
For separable metric spaces at least, this and some other assumptions lead to a construction of a compactification
and it turns out all compactifications of separable metric spaces arise in such way
So yeah, that'd be my guess
you wrote the proof?
yeah
Second sentence, Int(X\B) is a union of all open subsets of X\B
I get your meaning, but I'd be more careful with this, since it sounds like you're taking open subsets of X\B as a subspace and sum them all
yeah
Fourth sentence, it should be "X\U is one of such subset"
oh yeah
Not technically an error, but in second paragraph, you say that U is closed, and we usually say that U is some open set
So a bit unusual notationally
The proof is alright other than what I already mentioned
You can probably simplify it using that int(X\B) is the biggest open set contained in X\B, and cl(B) is the smallest closed set which contains B
Yeah got an inclusion reversing bijection between the poset of open subsets of X contained in X\B and closed subsets of X containing B
X\cl(B) is contained in X\B and is open, hence X\cl(B) is contained in int(X\B)
X\int(X\B) is contained in B and is closed, so X\int(X\B) is contained in cl(B), that is int(X\B) is contained in X\cl(B)
so we get the equality
yeah, you can also use the definition more directly I suppose
if I want to show something is a topology, and I have to show that it's closed under arbitrary unions, do I need to show for example that U1 union U2 union ... union Un is again open with some kind of induction argument every time
or does it suffice to show that the union of any two open sets is open
all you've written here shows that the union of finitely many open sets is open
"union of U_1, ..., U_n is open" and "union of any two open sets is open" both only account for the case of finite unions, but (as you say!) you need to show that it is closed under arbitrary unions
and inducting over n open sets would be the correct way to do this?
it would correctly prove that the set is closed under finite unions
you should proceed as follows: "let ${U_i}{i \in I}$ be a collection of elements of (set), where $I$ is some arbitrary indexing set. then (argument here), so $\bigcup{i \in I} U_i \in \text{ (set)}$."
TTerra
what about for intersections, since the infinite case is excluded
then take everything you've written, replace the union with intersection, and you can do that
but transfinite induction will, if you're into that
something like this work? @gritty widget
part of a proof that the subspace topology is a topology
are finite/countable coproducts of polish groups polish?
it's hard to say given that you haven't defined the category of polish groups
actually, it's hard to say because you didn't specify what category are we in
in that category it'd be Polish of course, by definition
also by Polish group do you mean a group which admits a structure of a Polish space, or do you mean a topological group which is also a metric space which makes it Polish
What are the Adams eigenspaces of algebraic K-theory of a scheme X?
I have never heard of this before and I’m not sure where to look
yes I do!
yeah so there's a few ways to approach this. For references I think maybe Suslin's "homology of GL_n, characteristic classes, and Milnor's K-theory" might be helpful, but generally most references on motivic cohomology and K-theory talk about this.
as to what these eigenspaces are, they're the eigenspaces for these Adams \gamma-operations on Quillen K-theory. The motivation comes from trying to define motivic cohomology as some universal Weil cohomology theory that maps to all the others by a Chern character map. K-theory has such a universal Chern character map, but it's not really a Weil cohomology theory (similar to how complex K-theory is not an ordinary cohomology theory). However the Adams eigenspaces in K-theory give you motivic cohomology if you get the numbering right.
For concreteness let's work with X=Spec(F) for F an arbitrary field, maybe I'm thinking a number field; the general story is kinda similar maybe up to degree shift. The n-th Adams eigenspace of K_{2n-i}(F)\otimes Q is the motivic cohomology group H^i(Spec(F),Q(n)), which is the higher Chow group CH^n(Spec(F),2n-i), hopefully i have the numbering right.
So up to understanding what the hell motivic cohomology and higher Chow groups are supposed to be, that's what the Adams eigenspaces are encoding.
Oh my lord lol
But we can also, at least conjecturally, be quite concrete about what these eigenspaces look like, this is what appears in Suslin's paper for instance. Let's contemplate the Quillen K-theory K_n(F); we have a canonical map that's like
given two finite dim vector spaces $V_1 V_2$ is the product topology on them always identifiable with the metric topology?
𝓗armonic
$K_n(F)\rightarrow H_n(\mathrm{GL}(F),\mathbb{Z})$
nGroupoid
coming from the fact that K_n(F) is computed in terms of π_i(BGL(F)^+) and we have Hurewicz π_i(BGL(F)^+)->H_i(BGL(F))^+,Z)
so now in H_n(GL(F),Q) we can consider the primitive part Prim(H_n(GL(F),Q)) in H_n(GL(F),Q)
we have an isomorphism $K_n(F)\otimes\mathbb{Q}=\mathrm{Prim}(H_n(\mathrm{GL}(F),\mathbb{Q}))$
nGroupoid
so now we can define a rank filtration on K_n(F)\otimes Q as follows:
$\mathcal{F}^\mathrm{rank}_mK_n(F)\otimes\mathbb{Q}=\mathrm{im}(\mathrm{Prim}(H_n(\mathrm{GL}_m(F),\mathbb{Q})\rightarrow\mathrm{Prim}(H_n(\mathrm{GL}(F),\mathbb{Q})))$
nGroupoid
so to the extent that the primitive elements in H_n(GL(F),Q) compute K-theory, those coming from GL_m in GL compute some part of it
conjecturally this rank filtration has the same graded pieces as the Adams filtration!
So this is, at least conjecturally, a really explicit description of what these graded pieces look like: they are those primitive classes coming from GL_m not coming from GL_m+1
have to play around with indexing to get everything right but yeah that's the main idea thanks for coming to my ted talk
hope that helps a little!
Yes it does! Thank you!
sorry for double posting, can someone tell me whether given two finite dim vector spaces $V_1 V_2$ is the product topology on them always identifiable with the metric topology? my knee jerk reaction is yes, if the space is metrizable
𝓗armonic
yes
Uh what?
I think you only need to be careful with like, infinite products or infinite dimensional vector spaces
but in the finite dimensional setting there shouldn't be any surprises
What does identifiable mean here
uhh whether they are the same topology
this is just a question about like, how stuff like product interacts with the metric topology and metrizability
in general if you have two metric spaces their product with the product metric has topology which agrees with the product of the metric topologies you started with
ah
I don't think there's such thing as the product metric
No because you can define a metric l^p style for any p >= 1 tbh
so given some vector space(finite dim) that can be decomposed into direct sum of vector spaces of smaller dim, the product topology of these decomposed vector spaces can be shown to be the same as the metric topology on the same space if I can just come up with a homeomorphism between vectorspaces (but for finite dim thats trivial?)

yes, this depends on a choice of p
usually you choose p=2
any other choice of p gives you a topologically equivalent metric space
okay, would you be happier if I said "a product metric"?
Yes
lol
okay
i interpeted product metric to be the metric on the product of the vectorspaces
yeah
Contractible space of choices
d((x_1,...,x_n),(y_1,..,y_n))=|(d(x_1,y_1),...,d(x_n,y_n))|_p
Are they topological vector spaces?
implicitly yes, since we're talking about metric topologies on them
^
I feel like maybe there's some confusion here but I don't have enough details to tell.
whats your suspicion
the reason i asked this question is because of the analogy between basis of product topology and basis of metrizable vector spaces
the analogy is only insofar as both are "generators" for some structure here
though generators for a topology (a collection of open sets) is quite different from generators for a vector space (a basis)
ofc
Why is the universal cover of a genus 2 surface the hyperbolic space and not just a deformed heptagonal tiling of R2? is it because we want deck transformations to act isometrically on the covering space?
Like - why do we care about a metric structure on the cover at all?
oops i meant to ask whether they exist. by Polish ggroup i mean just a topological group whose topology is Polish
Ah ok. Still, in what category
Full subcategory of topological groups?
I assume so
yeah polish spaces with continuous maps
Polish groups with continuous homomorphisms you mean
From a little browsing I did online, coproducts in the category of topological groups are hard to describe explicitly or derive their properties
I suspect this question might be challenging then
yeah thats why i asked
Quick question, is 2^N homeo to 3^N ? it feels like it should be cuz um idk, well, i thought about since 2^N homeo (2x2x2)^N homeo (2x3)^N i think homeo to 3^Nx2^N but i dont think can conclude anything from here but uh feels like some kind of something like digit bases but in a different way can work idk
2, 3 with discrete topology?
Yeah, both are the cantor set
how to prove?
something something... zero-dimensional non-empty metric space without isolated points is the cantor set
and compact
of course!
i wonder if theres a direct way using something analogous to number base systems
not exactly the same tho
the proof is similar
what topologies do you have on 2^N and 3^N
product topologies of course
yeah, why would you write it as 2^N if its not product topology
never hurts to ask 
anyway, i can't think of an "obvious" homeomorphism between (2 × 2 × 2)^N and (2 × 3)^N right now despite carla's claim
yes its fine to ask im just saying i didnt mean to be rude sorry if came accross that way i just giving explanation why i just said 2^N without any more things
2x2x2 is discrete, and so is 2x3
they have same cardinality so are same
anyway. hm.
#point-set-topology disproves the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
How about doing something like, if x is a binary sequence and x_n is the restriction to <= n terms, then f(x_n) is x_n in ternary, and as n -> infinity I think all of the terms of this should stabilize, and we can define f(x)
yeah i was hoping something like that could work
but like
powers of 3 interfere with first digit of binary
cuz they're odd
yeah that sucks
how about you try to prove that 2^N and 3^N are homeomorphic to 6^N instead
as 6 = lcm(2, 3)
oh that sounds like it might work
or does it
with base thing
powers of 2 will still fuck up first digit
yeah
right
i think blitz said that earlier that both are the cantor set right
oh
Yeah. We're trying to come up with an explicit homeomorphism from 2^N to 3^N
Hopefully the fact that the spaces look relatively simple would help
i think i just thought of something
view 2^N and 3^N as the sets of all infinite binary and ternary sequences respectively
yeah thats what they are
to go from 3^N to 2^N, use the following "encoding" symbol by symbol: 0 ↦ 0, 1 ↦ 10, 2 ↦ 11
that probably wont be surjective then, will it?
oh but it will
you can parse a binary string left to right and always "decode" it into a ternary string
what about the sequence starting as 01
the 0 would get decoded to 0, and the 1 would be the first half of the code for 1 or 2 depending on what the third bit is
the sequences go infinitely to the right or to the left from your perspective
010x ∈ 2^N decodes to 01x ∈ 3^N, 011x ∈ 2^N decodes to 02x ∈ 3^N
just to be clear
infinitely to the right
have you seen this anywhere before or just came up with it? its quite nice so feels like something that should be known
i can say retroactively that this map reminds me somewhat of huffman codes
but also i tried constructing a standard cantor set in a ternary fashion
This should be in #algebraic-geometry
What?
they deleted it
oh lmfao
Yea
Why do we care that deck transformations act isometrically?
More structure = good
How are R^2 and C different as topological spaces?
they are not
Ohhhh they are homeomorphic??
yes
cool ty
Even isometric. There's no difference between them
This isn't really a difference topologically, but R2 isn't a field
While C is
that isnt a difference at all topologically
im sure they know that C and R^2 are different
(Also R^2 isn't a field doesn't quite make sense, because you can just give it the same multiplication as C and this is arguably the only reasonable multiplication to give it)
(0,1) has no multiplicative inverse
So R2 is not a field
Did you read what max said lol
What is the product on R^2 that you are claiming (0,1) has no inverse for?
How to I multiply (a,b) with (c,d)
(ac,bd)
Yes, with this naive product it does not work.
But that's not what I said at all
i mean if someone say R^2 it's assumed they give it is a product of R with itself in whatever category
but yeah this is topology so irrelevant
The question wasn't about the structure of R^2 it was about products on R^2
everyone (here) agrees R^2 is RxR
But if you give it the same multiplication as C then what have in your hand is the genuine C.
I don't think I have a particularly deep point here :-)
but that just seems to be repeating what i was saying lol
You could give R² different multiplications that produce dual or split-complex numbers, and those choices are at least somewhat reasonable.
I suppose you could
(VMM's multiplication rule actually produces split-complex numbers in a different basis.)
is there some formalization of C being the only reasonable multiplication on R^2? like if you assume continuity and want it to be a field
oh yeah. ive heard this result before but never seen a proof and it always seems surprising
I didn't realize that the associative case was so much easier than the nonassociative case
that there are so few of themm
I guess it makes sense
ruling out a non-associative structure seems hard
you have like 0 leverage
Note that if you dont care about having multiplicative inverses, R^2 is also naturally a ring under pointwise multiplication. The function algebras C(X) for X a topological space are extremely important, and C({1, 2}) is exactly R^2, as a topological space and as a vector space (but with a different multiplicative structure than the one on C).
Again, not a division algebra but still an important object.
That's still isomorphic to the split-complex numbers, by the way.
{1,2} gets the discrete topology.
I think the most common choice is the https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Compact-open_topology, but all of the usual choices end up being equivalent for a finite X.
thanks
Yeah. Here since the target space is R, just using the uniform convergence topology is good: a norm is given by max_{x in X} |f(x)|, and it's the topology from this norm.
Note this only works for compact X (as in this is only a norm for compact X)
(Maybe it can still be a norm under very mildly weaker assumptions)
Pseudocompactness
But that's the same as compactness if X is nice enough
While it's not a norm in general, it can still be given a topology using it
And Cauchy sequences still converge in this "norm"
Meaning a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous
I think, C(X) is a complete topological vector space in general
(completeness makes sense in this setting)
Iirc this property plays a very important role for topological groups (don't quote me on that)
Maybe not very important
can a space be homeomorphic to a proper subset of itself?
ever heard of a retract?
Space doesn't have to be homeomorphic to its retract
correct, it doesnt have to
but if you think of common examples
youll find one
(well, chances are you'll find many)
I guess so. But that's more of a coincidence imo
i was just trying to lead them in the right direction
ok, I actually haven't heard of a retraction before
but the Rn example makes sense
thanks
It's doesn't actually help here
A retract is a subset A of a space X for which there exists continuous r:X to A such that r(x) = x for x in A
do you think my question was meant to be the entire explanation
theres a reason i phrased it as a question
in any case, they hadnt heard of it so it doesnt help.
but i was going to try to probe out an example from them
"what is the definition of a retract 'missing' to be a homeomorphism? can you think of any examples that arent 'missing' this?"
you get the gist
I don't get it, but whatever
i mean, this is literally how i come up with examples for things
math server makes first contact with the concept of a leading question
think of a weaker definition (though retract isnt quite weaker but you get what i mean) and then look for things that strengthen it
Rly boring examples are just to take a set in bijection w a subset of itself and give them discrete top lol
ah, the general topologist's example.
But ye the R^n examples r obviously better and actually useful
I wouldn't say such examples are boring https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toronto_space

Oh interesting
Haven’t seen a formal treatment of it but I read about deck transformations on Wikipedia. Am I correct in saying that the monodromy group of a non injective analytic function with finitely many critical points is the group of deck transformations of the covering space associated to the multivalued inverse analytic function? Can this make computations easier, or at least allow getting a presentation more easily by using the property the group of deck transformations is the quotient of the fundamental group of the base space by the image of that of the covering space?
Or is this just the standard way to compute monodromy groups
I think i learned slightly different vocabulary here, I don't remember what monodromy is but Lectures on riemann surfaces by Forster is a good place to see treatments of the connection between deck transformations of a covering space and analytic functions of a complex cariable
chapter I.5
Oh yea ty i meant to say that
hey, ive been reading about the Brouwer Fixed-Point theorem and the approach to the proof using discs and Ive noticed you could use it to prove the hairy ball theorem? Are they related or im just doing some random association??
Alright I’m not sure I have the background for it but I might give it a look
I specifically want to find systematic techniques to compute the monodromy group of finite blaschke products if you’re more knowledgeable in that
Carla_
Why in the borel hierarchy $\Sigma_a^0$ is defined as countable unions of elements from $\Pi_b^0$'s for $b<a$ and not also from ones from $\Sigma_b^0$ for also $b<a$ ?
Carla_
(i am aware that the original definition is equivalent to this one for nice enough spaces, but why not define it like this for spaces in general?)
why we don't include open sets in the definition of F_sigma sets for example
@gritty widget
my understanding is that each next step we obtain by either operation of complement or countable unions, which are the most basic
Are there "non-nice" spaces where this is not equivalent?
spaces which aren't G_delta
so for me, the structure for nice spaces is more an afterthought
Ah, I had the definitions slightly wrong.
are you learning DST Carla
or was it part of your research about Polish groups
I'm asking out of curiosity
i am learning DST, im reading Kechris
there are spaces where it is not equivalent thats why i find this definition weird
do you understand what I said already
for me your new definition is weird
all you're doing is try and make those standard inclusions work in general
Any hints for this one? : Prove that for any $A \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ the set of $a \in A$ such that $a \not \in cl{A \setminus {a}}$ is countable.
Catematician
For every such a we can find open U_a with U_a cap A = {a}
Hmm honestly still no clue. I feel like taking the union of those U_a's is the first step, but can't find any contradiction with uncountability.
Basically, use that R is second countable
We can choose U_a to come from a countable family of open sets
The mapping a -> U_a is one-to-one
So the set is countable
Sorry, maybe I could try a better hint
I thought about something like that, but it is not clear to me that you can choose such U_a from the countable family that make up A. I guess I'll think about that.
Thanks.
easiest to me is e.g. pick a rational in each ball
R has a countable basis
Just pick V_a which contains a and is a subset of U_a from that basis
This way you obtain a new family V_a
You don't want to only use separability here
You want to make use of the second countability
I suppose it's easy to forget about second countability of spaces, but as much as we like to think in terms of separability, it's not actually that useful, and it's the equivalence of separability and second countability for metric spaces that does the heavy lifting imo
Dugundji has exercises, Engelking as well
practically every exercise about topology is about open sets in some way
Anyone has any insight on this?: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4504026
Sorry I misread
they are both equivalent
why define a metric by a series when you can do it more simply and explicitly?
in DST such spaces are the most interesting so it makes sense to work with a predefined metric like this
Other than that, there's no reason tbh
Other than just simplicity
topologically they are equivalent, but they are not isometric
Irrelevant
Are there generalizations of the clutching construction on spheres to classify vector bundles on other spaces?
Yes the clutching construction works for any space X with two closed subsets U and V which union to X
TheZachMan
Compile Error! Click the
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Do you have any resources that discuss this in detail? I'm a bit confused by hatcher's presentation
I am also reading atiyah
Hey folks
I am studying principal G-bundles and i'm curious if it's possible to make my life easier by reducing my principal G bundle over some bad space X to a principal G bundle over a simplicial complex
Let G be a topological group. Let p : E -> B be a principal G-bundle over a space B.
Let K be a simplicial complex; formally speaking here i mean K is the geometric realization of an "abstract simplicial complex".
K is equipped with a distinguished open cover called the star cover. For each vertex v in K, the 'star' associated to v is v together with the union of all open cells that border v, so if {v, v'} is a line segment in K then the star at v contains the open interval from v to v' but not v'.
I have a continuous map f : B -> K, and when I pull back the star cover along f I get a cover of X.
The principal G-bundle p trivializes on the pullback of the star cover along f, i.e., on each set of the form f^{-1}( star(v)), p is trivial.
My question is, given that I have this trivialization on the pullback of the star cover, does there exist some principal G-bundle q over K whose pullback along f is p, up to equivalence of bundles
It's a bit of a complicated question so I'll ask it another way. I have two spaces, X and K, both equipped with an open cover, say {U_i}, {V_i}. Same index set. I have a map f: (X, {U_i}) -> (K, {V_i}) sending U_i into V_i (in fact U_i is exactly f^{-1}(V_i).
f should induce some kind of map H^1(K, {V_i}, G) -> H^1(X, {U_i}, G) from Cech cohomology classes to cohomology classes. Here G is a not-necessarily-Abelian topological group.
I'm looking for some kind of theorem that would say that this map is surjective under certain conditions on K, f, the open cover, whatever
"are they order isomorphic?"
Let $A \subset \mathbb{R}$ and let $X(A) \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ be union of lines with endpoints connecting $(0,1)$ with the points $(a,0), a \in A$. I want to show $X(A)$ is complete with euclidean metric iff it's compact. Kinda stuck with both directions. Hints appreciated.
Catematician
X(A) is complete iff closed
also A is a subset of X(A)
So you're trying to show X(A) is bounded if closed
Oh okay that's useful, thanks again.
Would this kind of argument work btw? Assume closed and unbounded, say from the right side. Then complement should be open, but for example for a point (1,1) we can't find an open neighborhood contained in the complement?
By line, do you mean segment?
Yeah
If A were unbounded, then we could find a sequence (a_n, 0), we can assume a_n converges to infinity. Now consider point on the segment from (a_n, 0) to (0, 1) which lies below (1, 1), call it x_n. Then x_n should converge to (1, 1). But (1, 1) isn't in X(A). This contradicts that X(A) is closed
Okay I understand this, but is my reasoning wrong?




