#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 701 of 407
In particular, the coefficients of a polynomial can be expressed by a symmetric expression of the roots (think Vieta's formulas from school)
Therefore, since elements of the Galois group permute the roots, and symmetric expressions are not changed under permutations...
Commutative diagram is the name I'm looking for. Thanks!
This is quite a lovely question, the way I thought about this is that $D_8$ is generated by a reflection and a rotation. So a very natural polynomial to think about is $x^4-2$, whose roots are $\sqrt[4]{2}, i\sqrt[4]{2}, -\sqrt[4]{2}, -i\sqrt[4]{2}$. The Galois group of the splitting field of this polynomial acts transitively on these roots so is isomorphic to a transitive subgroup of $S_4$. There are two automorphisms that are interesting here: $i \mapsto -i, \sqrt[4]{2} \mapsto \sqrt[4]{2}$ (reflection) and $i \mapsto i, \sqrt[4]{2} \mapsto i\sqrt[4]{2}$ (rotation). Any permutation of the roots (automorphism) is entirely determined by these two maps, and these two maps behave exactly the same way as the generators of $D_8$ so it's completely obvious the Galois group is $D_8$. The construction used in the proof of the Primitive Element Theorem on $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}, i)$ gives your $\eta$.
Greenman
I have a question about filters
Z(X) is the collection of zero sets of real-valued continuous functions on X
X is some topological space
So now you know what a z-filter means
A z-ultrafilter is a maximal z-filter
How does the stuff in blue follow?
(We know that every family of zero sets that has FIP is contained in a z-filter)
Hear me out: A z-ultrafilter F is a subfamily of Z(X) (as it's a z-filter). Suppose there is a zero set Z(f), such that F U {Z(f)} satisfies FIP. Then, F U {Z(f)} is contained in a z-filter F'. However, F' contains F, which is an ultrafilter; so F' = F. I guess I have figured it out (?)
A follow-up question: Suppose M is a maximal ideal in C(X), so that Z[M] is a z-ultrafilter. If Z(f) is in Z[M], can we say that f is in M? In general, we can't, but I think the fact that Z[M] is a z-ULTRAfilter may have something to offer
Yes, you can. Suppose f not in M. Then the ideal (f) + M strictly contains M, so (f) + M = (1) by maximality, so gf + h = 1 for h in M. For any point p in Z[M] we have g(p)f(p) = 1, so f(p) ≠ 0, so p not in Z(f). So Z[M] and Z(f) are disjoint.
So if Z(f) is contained in M and Z(f) is nonempty (ie f is not a unit) then Z(f) and M are not disjoint so f is in M
This is assuming Z[M] = intersection of Z(h) over all h in M, like the vanishing locus in algebraic geometry. Let me know if that's not right
I want to prove that dual of finitely generated projective module is also finitely generated projective. I've already proven that dual P* is projective but not sure about how to prove that it's also finitely generated
Let's suppose P is generated by A={p_1,...,p_n}. What if i consider {f_p | p \in A} ?
would it form a basis?
where $f_p(x)=\delta_{xy}$
backpack
and delta denotes kronecker delta notation
I think it follows because P is a direct summons of a finite free module
So you have a split exact sequence
0 -> P -> F -> P’ -> 0
When you take duals this will remain split exact so that P* is surjected on by F* which is finite free
does \leq apply to rings and subrings as well
$S \leq R$ is often written to mean $S$ is a subring of $R$
xdres
or do you mean putting an order on the elements of a ring?
no that's what i meant
ive only seen $H \leq G$ refer to groups/subgroups, was making sure
μ₂ (46/47 🪲)
I would say it's more common for vector spaces/groups than rings actually
replace "often" with "sometimes"
yes that's how i saw that P* is also projective but I don't quite get how it imples that it's finitely generated
Because F* is isomorphic to F
This is giving you a surjevtion from a finite free module, which is practically definitionally equivalent to being finitely generated
I'm beginning Galois Theory right now and have a simple assignment, to describe the Galois group and subfields of the 15th cyclotomic polynomial. I have the Galois group completely understood; it's Z4 x Z2, and so I have all the subgroups and everything. However, I'm not sure how to find the fixed subfields corresponding to each of those subgroups.
As an example, let $\alpha = e^\frac{2\pi i}{15}$ and $\sigma : \alpha \rightarrow \alpha^2$.
Then the subgroup ${e,\sigma, \sigma^2, \sigma^3}$ corresponds to the subfield $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha + \alpha ^2 + \alpha ^4 + \alpha^8)$
Espio
How can I find the subfields, starting with the corresponding subgroups?
They correspond with the fields that they fix
Yes, definitely, I'm just not sure how to find those fixed fields
I'm sure there's some little obvious thing I'm missing
Should I just try to find a "large" element that the subgroup fixes?
Hi, I wasn't able to figure it out. Can you please help me? I have this homework due on Wednesday and I still feel like idk what I'm doing.
To be more explicit, here's the chart my professor gave for the 15th cyclotomic field. I just don't know where he got the fixed subfields from; it seems random/patternless
All I got was that lcm(|gh|, |g|) = lcm(|gh|, |h|)
I don't know what to do from here, again I feel that this is a number theory problem but idk any number theory
Hmm yea I agree with you, struggling to see the pattern myself
It's easy to verify that the subgroups fixes those fields, then degree argument to say you're done, but where did those elements come from.....
In mathematics, in the area of number theory, a Gaussian period is a certain kind of sum of roots of unity. The periods permit explicit calculations in cyclotomic fields connected with Galois theory and with harmonic analysis (discrete Fourier transform). They are basic in the classical theory called cyclotomy. Closely related is the Gauss sum, ...
This seems relevant @spiral wolf
Thank you, I'll read that page
Yeah, these Gaussian periods keep popping up in this class but the professor has never explicitly named them or explained them, he just kinda takes it for granted that the algebra is correct and while I can verify his steps I never understand where it comes from
That doesn't seem very nice of him :/
Perhaps it's not so important that you come up with this stuff quite yet? Just that you're able to verify that it's correct maybe
To me its kind of obvious because I visualize the roots of unity on a unit circle and summing them up in various ways corresponds to adding unit vectors in R^2. The geometric symmetry combined with right angle trigonometry usually does the trick for computing explicit instances of these sums .
But yes, lecturers should make it clear when and where they use geometric intuition
The assignment WAS to come up with it -- when all of us emailed him saying we couldn't he just posted the solutions and asked us to show proof of verification
Fair enough. I agree with you that it's not obvious!
Yeah, I get the geometric intuition as far as adding the roots go. I'm not sure how to visualize what gets fixed by each subgroup
Also to find fixed subfields, a common method is to adjoin 1 element and then act on it by some element of the Galois group. Then form a sum over all those conjugates.
Hm. So would that be how you find the first one, Q(a+a^2+a^4+a^8)? That was the only one that made any sense to me at least, lol
another wew lad 
what permastudy does to a mofo
Maybe there is some degree of "guesswork". For example with the subgroup $<\sigma>$, you can spot that the automorphisms in this group permute elements of the set ${\alpha, \alpha^2, \alpha^4, \alpha^8}$, then use "geometric intuition" to see that the sum is $\sqrt{-15}$. Once you have that $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha + \alpha^2 + \alpha^4 + \alpha^8) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-15})$ you're done: since the group is size four so you know it fixes a field of degree at most two (and it certainly fixes this one).
Yeah, I'm not as worried about simplifying it down to sqrt(-15), as long as I can come up with a subfield in terms of alphas
Greenman
Basically the only non-obvious step to me here is why we should expect the sum to come out with anything nice at all, but I think the others have nice suggestions
Omay so you have the 15th cyclotomic field right? The field is obtained by adjoining zeta_15 to Q. A field automorphism is determined by where it sends zeta_15. The Galois group is isomorphic to the group of units mod 15. Now you just gotta pick a subgroup of the Galois group and find the elemtns invariant under that action. So let's say the first subgroup you picked was cyclic of order 4, generated by sending zeta_15 to zeta_15^2. (Check this has order 4 since 2*2=4, 2*2*2=8, 2*2*2*2=16 =1 mod 15).
Now do the sum of conjugates trick i suggested. So the conjugates of zeta_15 under the action of this automorphism is zeta_15, zeta_15^2, zeta_15^4, zeta_15^8. So the sum of these conjugates is indeed invariant under the action: zeta_15 + zeta_15^2 + zeta_15^4 + zeta_15^8 is invariant under the automorphism which sends zeta_15 to zeta_15^2. Now all the remains to to check that this has the right degree over Q, and you're done. Once you check the degree is the correct degree, you know the field obtained by adjoining this sum of conjugates to Q is both contained in the fixed field, and has the correct degree for the fixed field, so it must be the whole fixed field.
There i explained my whole thoughts process for obtaining the first subfield in that list
Gotcha. So for the second subgroup in the chart, the conjugates of zeta_15 are: zeta_15, zeta_15^13, zeta_15^4, zeta_15^7. I then check that their sum is invariant under the automorphism that sends zeta_15 to zeta_15^-2 = zeta_15^ 13, and then check that this is degree 2 over Q.
Supposing this is correct, awesome. However, I'm not sure how the professor got zeta_15^5 - zeta_15^10, which isn't even composed of units mod 15
I'm not sure if those conjugates are correct, but I havnt carefully verified it.
Perhaps as a simpler example, consider the automorphism sending zeta_15 to zeta_15^4 (order 2)
The conjugates would be very simple, zeta_15 and zeta_15^4, but the professor gives the field as Q(zeta_15 + zeta_15^2)
Yeah, your logic makes a lot of sense to me and certainly could be right, but it doesn't seem to be the logic the professor is following, so I'm just confused
,w minimal polynomial of e^(2pii/15) + e^(22pi*i/15)
It should be zeta_15 + zeta_15^4 not zeta_15 + zeta_15^2
Awesome
Wolframalpha.com was very helpful when I was learning galois theory
Also very helpful when I use galois theory
Yeah, I have access to Mathematica and use it a bunch, there's always stuff I never knew though lol
,w minimal polynomial of e^(2pii/15) + e^(26pii/15) + e^(8pii/15) + e^(14pii/15)
Nice!
Do you have a reference for the thing about summing the conjugates? I don't see why the sums should turn out to be nice. but it's a good trick I will remember.
The reason the sum of the conjugates is invariant under the action of the automorphism is because the conjugates are permuted by the automorphism. If you permute the terms in a finite sum, that doesn't change the value of the sum.@strong yacht
This is why its invariant.
Yes I understand the invariance, but why does it sum to nice things
Like how the first one sums to sqrt(-15)
Oh that. There are several approaches: one is algebraically, whats the minimal polynomial of this sum of conjugates? What's the degree of the simple extension? If its a degree 2 extension, then you know its a quadratic extension, so its Q(sqrt d) for some d. Now just figure out which.
There's also a geometric/trigonometric technique that works often with sums of roots of unity. If you plot the points on the unit circle, and add them up as vectors in R^2, you can draw some right triangles sometimes or use some symmetry of the figure to deduce what the value, or length, of the sum vector is.
This is a regular 15 gon
Let me mark the points that are involved in the sum
Actually I have no idea how to deduce this geometrically
It's not obvious, right?
Is it easy to see that this is a degree 2 extension?
I mean, from the fundamental theorem of galois theory, yes
Yes I agree with you
That's why you have to check the sum does sum to a quadratic thing right?
Well, knowing its a quadratic extension means that Q(sum)=Q(sqrt d) for some d.
Oh sorry, I did not know it was a quadratic extension
I thought we were checking that fact by computing the sum
If you know the fundamental theorem of galois theory, then you know that the fixed field of an index 2 subgroup has degree 2 over your ground field
The subfield we are considering rn is the fixed field of an index 2 subgroup of the galois group
Are you familiar with the fundamental theorem of galois theory?
I think I am - but we don't necessarily know that the fixed field is specifically Q(alpha+alpha^2+alpha^4+alpha^8) - this is certainly fixed by <sigma>, but not necessarily the fixed field (but contained in the fixed field)
Maybe I misunderstood - I thought the prof proves that this is the fixed field by doing the computation alpha+alpha^2+alpha^4+alpha^8 = sqrt(-15), which proves that this is a quadratic extension so it must be the fixed field
Okay good point
Its contained in the fixed field
But also, the fixed field is necessarily degree 2, do you agree with that?
By the Fundamental theorem
Yes I agree
Okay
Maybe there is a better way I could have phrased my question
So we have some field thats contained in the fixed field, which is degree 2, but also this thing we have is not the trivial extension of Q, so its degree must be >1. So this field has degree <=2 and >=2, so this field must have degree 2, and its the full fixed field of the automorphism.
This is a little degree argument trick 
Right, i agree in this case maybe it is easy to see without the computation, in other words the prof did not need to do that computation at all (though I'd still like to know the trick for it)
What about other cases? In general, do we have Q(adjoin sum of conjugates) as the fixed field?
I see containment in the fixed field
Still the question remains, for what d is Q(this sum)=Q(sqrt d)?
You need to do a degree argument, either by computing minimal polynomial, or counting conjugates in the total field, or any other trick
Ah right i see
Ahhhh I see
Degree argument to get that it is the fixed field, but still we need to write it in a nice form right?
Yeah, degree arguments are a very powerful tool in galois theory
To write it in a nice form is kinda tricky because what counts as "nice"?
So in the original image, you see how the guy wrote sums and minuses of the conjugates of the Galois subgroups to obtain expressions?
If I were grading the problem, I would give full marks for just writing Q(sums)
Yeah I see where you're coming form
I think the written stuff in that image was a red herring all along, right?
But for my own sanity, I would try to reexpress the extension in a more familiar form, so that I can know for sure that didnt make a mistake
Ok I'm with you, the image made me think there was a reason for why the sums were so nice
I think its included to help you be more familiar with the subfields
Thank you, no doubts left about it now 😄
Its not strictly necessary to "evaluate the sums" in a nice way to answer the question
Also
Yes exactly, my mind thought that it was the argument the prof was using to show they were the fixed fields
Differnet people can answer the question in different ways, some people might answer the question by writing Q(sqrt -15) where as others would write Q(sum)
Both are valid answers, so the prof includes all likely answers in the answer sheet
That's another good point
But still, there is the fact that the sums actually are nice
Yeah
I have two questions about rational cohomology :
First given any group G, why we have
$dim_{Q}(G_{ab} \otimes Q)=dim_{Q}(H_{1}(G,Q))$?
Second given an exact sequence of groups $1 \rightarrow A \rightarrow G \rightarrow H \rightarrow 1$ where A is an abelian group, why we have
$H_{1}(A,Q)$ being isomorphic to $H_{1}(A,Q)_{H}$ ?
Cogwheels of the mind
G_ab is the abelianization of G, =G/[G,G]
Ah
Z[M] is just the collection of all Z(f), where f is in M
Oh, my bad!
To recall, you know that the order of g^N divides the order of g, but we also know that (h^-1)^N^|h|=e, so the order of (h^-1)^N=g^N divides the order of h, but |g|,|h| are coprime. If a number divides two numbers, what does it also divide?
Wait sorry I said it wrong
Let me edit
Ok now it's fine
Feel free to @ me when u see this
We know that if P is a projective space then there exists a free module F and submodule K such that F= K + P. But why if P is finitely generated then F must be finitely generated as well?
Does the Cayley graph of any finite symmetric group always have a Eulerian path?
P is finitely generated therefore there exists a free module of finite rank F and an epic homomorphism F—>P. Let K be the kernel of this homomorphism we therefore have an exact sequence 0—>K—>F—>P—>0. Since P is projective this exact sequence splits, therefore F is isomorphic to the direct sum of K and P.
oh got it
now the only thing i have to do is proving that Kernel is finitely generated since it's not trivially finitely generated as a submodule
I’m having trouble showing that y^4 +xy^3 + xy^2 + x^2y +3x^2 -2x is irreducible over Q[x,y]
I’m missing the smart use of a reduction morphism or substitution
I think I figured it out
Evaluate x at 1-y then reduce mod 2
Of course K is finitely generated, because that sequence splits, you have K—>F—>K being 1_K for some F—>K. K is finitely generated as a quotient of F
I will call a group $G$ extensive if for any two subgroups $H$ and $K$ of G and an isomorphism $\psi : H \rightarrow K$ there exists an automorphim $\tilde{\psi} \in \text{Aut}(G)$ such that $\tilde{\psi}|_{H} \equiv \psi$.
\
\
Could someone give me examples of non-simple and non-trivial groups which are extensive (in the abovementioned way)?
MISTERSYSTEM
Pls help me in this problem "A ’maximal’ subgroup H of G is one that is maximal among proper subgroups of G, i.e., H is proper
and it is not properly contained in another proper subgroup. Prove that if a finite group G has exactly
one maximal subgroup, then it must be cyclic."
Take an element of the maximal subgroup M, call it x. Suppose G isn’t cyclic. Then <x> is a subgroup of M so you can pick y outside of M and hence outside of <x>. What can you say about <y>
I'm not sure the point of you introducing x there? "Suppose y is any element not in M. What can you say about <y>" is how I'd think of it
I'm confused what should I do with y
Yeah fair I wrote as I thought so my argument shifted midway
Which I suppose makes it confusing sorry
Every proper subgroup is in some maximal subgroup
Okay ı understood that but now how can ı proof ıt, G has only one maximal subgroup
prove*
well, <y> isn't in M right?
Okay, so I am currently learning about constructible numbers. Technically it is geometry, but I am learning this in Galois theory, so I'll ask here. I was wondering if someone can help me understand why the y-axis in the complex plane is constructible.
I think you start with Q[i] in that approach
Sadly no
Btw, Exercise 1 doesn't tell us any tips
Oh wait, I got it. By drawing a circle of radius 1 centered at 0, and creating a line through 0 and 1, we get that -1 is constructible. Then we can create a circle of radius 1 for both 1 and -1. Their intersection creates a point on the imaginary axis.
Then we draw a line from 0 and that point, and that line is our y-axis
Out of curiosity, what would be a number in the complex plane that isn't constructible?
Quite famously cube root of 2 is not constructible (it was an unsolved problem for a long time before Galois theory, the Greeks considered it)
Manifold is right and here is the more general theorem from my notes
You can only construct numbers if their degree is 2^k for some k
I may sound silly, but what does 1 step constructible mean?
Can it be an intersection of a line and a circle. Or do the two shapes have to be the same?
Shapes can be different I believe
Wow, so you are a firefighter, a teacher, an astronaut, a doctor, a police officer AND a mathematician? Respect man
I'm suprised you didn't get that comment sooner
Do anyone know how i can show that the groups Sp (2) and SL (2, R) contain exactly the same real 2x2 matrices, ie that they are trivially isomorphic with each other.
Why is the union of a nested set of ideals (as in the ascending chain condition) an ideal?
if you take two elements of the union, they are both contained in some common sufficiently large ideal in the union
thank you 🙂
np
Any recommendations about textbook on Character theory of finite groups
We use Irvin Martin Isaac's book but I don't think it's for beginners especially chapter 1
I have studied character theory mostly in the context of representation theory. If that's your main motivation, then Fulton-Harris has a first chapter covering some basic (complex) representation theory of finite groups and it has a nice introductory presentation to character theory. If you want something a bit more advanced, you may check Serre's "Linear Representations of Finite Groups".
Fulton-Harris and Serre respectively.
Fulton-Harris is such a weird book
Because it’s just two algebraic geometers that made a rep theory book
Tbh, I have only used it to study representation theory of finite groups, idk how it deals with rep theory of lie groups and lie algebras.
And I guess it is fine for rep theory of finite groups
But can you notice a bit of influences from algebraic geometry in the later chapters?
Is this true? $|\bQ(\sqrt[n]{2}):\bQ| = n$
jesse
or is only for certain n
n > 1 sry
this is a dumb question god
yeah so its minimal polynomial is $x^n - 2$ and so it has basis ${1, \sqrt[n]{2})^2, ..., \sqrt[n]{2})^{n-1}}$ and so yeah it has degree n i think
Latex.
jesse
okay so maybe I'm missing some condiiton but I think its right ikd
right, and in general [F(u) : F] is the degree of u's minimal polynomial
Okay the thing I'm confused about is that
In the book they write "If a is algebraic over F and it's minimal polynomial is degree n then |F(a):F| = n". But isn't \sqrt2 not algebraic over Q? Am I misunderstanding something
Isn't a number algebraic in F only if it's a root of a polynomial in F[x]?
sqrt(2) is the root of x^2 - 2 in Q[x] so its algebraic over Q
oh fuck lol
Okay sorry I am confusing myself yes of course
this makes sense now
thank you
npnp
Their product, right?
@chilly radish
7
what is the question am I high?
do i have to show that a finite union of irreducible closed spaces implies set of irreducible components is finite?
because isnt this straight from definition?
is 7 a question or just a statement?
Do we require n and r to be positive here?
basically yea lol
er
not rlly
you basically use "noetherian induction" as given in the hint
let Z be the center of a division algebra over F
how to show Z is a finite dimensional extension of F?
can someone give me an example of a relatively simple application of the primitive element theorem? (if F char 0 and a, b algebraic in F then there is c in F(a,b) such that F(a,b) = F(c))
it doesnt seem very useful
what becomes easier when you only have one element in your field extension? I can't imagine this is at all nice if a, b are actually given, for instance
or even a really awful complicated one I guess
i just want to see why this even deserves a name
also i dont have a proof for this on hand but why does char 0 matter
the silence is proof that this theorem is dogwater
steinitz should stick to proving cool ag theorems.
Just looked at my notes again and basically uh so our notes didn't use char 0 but char 0 means ur extensions are separable and the field is infinite which simplifies matters
ah okay
I looked at another version that wanted subfields of C lol
but that makes sense
Like our proof basically revolved around saying if K this infinite field and L/K a finite extension, say L=K(a, b), then there are only finitely many intermediate fields
And then u find distinct c, d such tbat K(a+cb) = K(K+db)
which lets you find ur alpha
But yes the thm is more general
Lol idk the use tbh
idk much field theory
Although apparently it was used more in like old galois theory before artin idk
One to one correspondence & injective are exactly same thing right ?
I don't understand why it isn't required to show phi (U) is unique for each U
I may sound silly, but I'm not too sure of the 'high school geometry' specifics to get the parallel line l'
Can someone help clarify for me
Topic: constructible numbers
basically it's saying that you can construct a parallel line through another point using a compass and ruler
How to prove that f(x)=x^7+7x^2+2 is irreducible over Q[x]?
I think this is a bad way to state this theorem. Notice that since every U in S contains the kernel, when we do p(U), we are sorta "losing" everything that the kernel contained (b/c it's getting sent to 0). So when you actually get that p is a map between R and R'/ker(p), because p(U) = {a + ker(p) : a \in U}. Does that make sense?
So then for U' in S', we have that p^{-1}(U') = {a : a + ker(p) \in U'}.
could anyone help me with this problem
i think i should use the first isomorphism theorem but I dont know what map i should define that has kernel I
i was thinking maybe phi(f(x,y)) = xyf(x,y) but idk if this is right
So now you can symbol bash to show that:
${\varphi(\varphi^{-1}(U')) = {a + ker(\varphi) \colon a \in \varphi^{-1}(U')} = ... = U'}$, and also
${\varphi^{-1}(\varphi(U)) = {a : a \in b + ker(\varphi), b\in U}}$.
And so you can show that the second one is equal to $U$ also. Thus we have a bijection.
jesse
@round light
this is awful + ugly etc but
idk i dont get the proof in the book you posted at all lol
you got mat401 tmrw too? 
i just started studying a few hours ago im screwed lol
i skipped that problem b/c i dont know nayhting about rings in two variables and didnt want to bother lol
oh shit
i skipped the last 2 homeworks also so i still need to study galios stuff
have u taken a class w kudla tteppa
nope
get him 2 teach u langlands
langlands
the whole thing
also i was talking to someone about 488 and they said that it was fucked
why do u love it so much
448?
ya sry
why was it fucked
488 is the racist version
i liked it
idk they just said it was hard
skill issue
very true
i told them the person i know that took it is painfully geometry brained
so tahts hwy u liked it
to be fair it was a little tricky at some points
for example during all the sheaf stuff
and some of the stuff on integral extensions was hard
it was a bierstone course so of course it's gonna be hard
R^2
You can show that any f(x,y),f(x,y)+I=ax^m+by^n+I for some a,b,m,n
How woiuld you find the class equation of an abelian group?
is xy in R[x,y]?
$$|G| = |Z(G)| + \sum_{i=1}^r |G:C_G(g_i)|$$
suck2015
suck2015
which meeans the sum term would be 0
however most sites I've seen list the equation as 1+1+1+1+1?
@terse crystal would it be easier to use the first isomorphism theorem?
It’s a concrete question, specific calculation is needed
okay thanks
@terse crystal sorry for the ping but would you have any insight on my q?
why not just f(x,y) -> (f(0,1), f(1,0))
nvm im not ok in the head
wait i thinkit works
yes i think this works
because the kernel will be when f(0,1) = 0 and f(1,0) = 0 so its I
yeah
i had a brainfart and thought homomorphism was f(x1+x2,y1+y2)=f(x1,y1)+f(x2,y2) for some reason
f(x,y) = bx + ay gets mapped to (a,b) so its surjective
then R[x,y]/I ~= R^2 by the first isomorphism theorem
It should be 5=5
yeah alr
thanks @glass grail
Well, yes, but better than that, it divides their gcd. By definition, it is a divisor of both numbers, so it divides the greatest common divisor
Yes so it is 1
Lit
Sorry, got busy I'll go through what you have said
no i mean the sum
Do you have any tips for proving that the rational under addition are not isomorphic to the product of two groups
Two non-trivial groups
just find elements wth different orders
or an element of a certain order in one group that's not in the other
oh wait isn't that a ring? sorry
This almost finishes the proof, no you just gotta say smth about the fact that g^N=e=h^N, and how this implies |g||h| divides |gh|
There is no sum. That sum is taken for all conjugacy classes that have more than 1 elements
An abelian group doesn’t have such conjugacy classes
yeah i understand , since the abelian group = it's own center
but why is the equation written as 1+1+1+1+1?
so.. it's doing 5/5 (essentially by group index) for each element in the group
thus 1+1+1+1+1
since [G : C(g)] = 1 for each element in Z_5
Yeah
Try proving that any two nontrivial subgroups intersect nontrivially. This is not true for a direct product
but then Z(G) would be 0? which is wrong
|G| = Z(G) + sum([G:c(g)])
5 = Z(G) +( 1 + 1+ 1 + 1 + 1)
….
That’s just two different sum
One is over conjugacy classes containing more than 1 element, one is over all conjugacy classes
Why make it a big deal
oh ok
sorry ive just done s_4 and i got terms for both Z(G) and the sum
i guess what you've said here makes sense, sorry for any trouble
Cool idea
I think I got the order problem
We know that N<= lcm(|g|,|h|) = |g|*|h|
Suppose N is less than this number
Then N cannot be a common multiple of both |g| and |h|
Thus, either g^N cant equal e or h^N cant equal e, a contradiction
The question comes before the subgroup section of the book so I'm not sure if I can use that
That's... Weird
Sorry I'm not sure I see how to do this otherwise
You don't really need contradiction here
g^N=e so |g| divides N. Similarly |h| divides N, so their lcm also does, but they're coprime, so |g||h| divides N
You already proved the other direction so we're done
This is basically what you said without the contradiction
Yeah we're using Aluffi so its a bit different to most treatments
I was thinking about using the universal properties for products/coproducts somehow
Thank you for all the help
Np
Lemme think
But you know the universal property and isomorphism before knowing what a subgroup is?
yeah lol
first chapter of aluffi goes into category theory, even before defining groups

Not sure, I am a noob to this stuff
Why are u not in ivory
i asked to be kicked out for a bit
but im studied as much as i can for this godforsaken exam
I c
and i cant keep talking to first years in their mathcord

done
thx
You're welcome
aha you're reading gillman and jerison! I love that book
YES!
the proof is just that if I is the z-ideal corresponding to some zero-set A, then I = {f : f|A = 0}. The corollary says that the intersection of prime ideals containing I is equal to { f : exists n with f^n in I }. So the Theorem is saying these two are equal. Clearly I is a subset of the latter, since we can take n = 1. And if there is some n such that f^n is in I, then Z(f^n) = Z(f) so in particular, f^n(x) = 0 for all x in Z(f), and Z(f) contains A, so f^n(x) = 0 for all x in A. So f^n(x)|A = 0, so f^n is in I. Hence the reverse inclusion also holds.
what do you mean by "I is the z-ideal corresponding to some zero-set A"
Hausdorff
oh shoot, I've been only working with compact spaces for the last while so I kinda skipped ahead and only in that setting. More generally, Suppose I is a z-ideal. Let f^n be in I for some n. Then Z(f^n) = Z(f), so because f^n is in I, it follows that Z(f^n) is in Z[I], so Z(f) = Z(f^n) is in I, so f is in I.
okay so my question basically is, why do you start the proof with " Let f^n be in I for some n."
i understand the rest of the proof
ah okay, because you want to prove it is the intersection of all prime ideals containing I, and by the Corollary, that's the same as showing its equal to the set {f : f^n in I for some n}
Clearly I is included in that set, so you just need to show the converse
Hi, I'm reading through this proof. Could anyone help explain why the highlighted line holds? Thank you! 
This is a fact about primes ideals in general. If $P$ is a prime ideal and $P\supseteq IJ$ for ideals $I,J$, then $P\supseteq I$ or $P\supseteq J$. This is because if there is some $x\in I$ that is not in $P$, since $xy\in P$ for any $y\in J$ we must have $y\in P$ as well. Then you can extend this to any finite product of ideals by induction.
I see. Thank you!! 
@teal iron Sorry for the tag, but I have another question - could you help me show that every maximal ideal in C(X) is a z-ideal?
My approach is as follows: suppose Z(f) is in Z[I]. If f is not in I, then (I,f) = C(X) by maximality of I
So that the constant function 1 = h + sf, for h in the ideal I, and s in C(X)
This answer has a similar starting point, except they assume Z[I] to be something else, so it doesn't work
thank you
Whats the difference between $S_n$ and $S_{(n-1)}$
Essentially I'm trying to find the difference in elements
suck2015
i know $|S_n| = n! $ and $|S_{(n-1)}| = (n-1)!$
suck2015
i wouldnt even know how to answer this, im sure you will find more differences...
well, one is a subgroup of the other
it's a little unclear
what i was trying to say is if you could show S_{n-1} being a subgroup of S_n
or atleast isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
my reasoning is that if we fix 1 element of a permutation in S_n, there are exactly (n-1)! permutations that do this (including the identity)
ah yeah how do you show that?
basically what you said
well what i said shows that there's a subgroup of order (n-1)! containing the identity
oh wait, if 1 eelement is fixed, then it's the group of permutations on (n-1) elements ?
any permutation on {1, ..., n-1} is just a permutation on {1, ..., n} that fixes n
and vice versa
hmm ok, thanks
Do anyone know how i can show that the groups Sp (2) and SL (2, R) contain exactly the same real 2x2 matrices, ie that they are trivially isomorphic with each other.
I suppose {f_x} forms a linearly independent subset but doesn't generate every element right?
I also see why F* is isomorphic to direct product but don't understand why last sentence leads to contradiction
Hausdorff
What's next?
Take p of smallest degree in x, suppose it isn’t divisible by y^2 - x and perform euclidian division or something around those lines
That’s usually how you go about showing these kernel identities
Idt that works here
F[x,y] is not euclidean
Only noetherian
Not even a PID
It’s fine though cause coefficients are invertible here
So you can still perform division

You can do euclidian division with y^2-x because its leading coefficient is invertible
As a polynomial in x over F[y]
Hmm okay yea that might work
In general if you quotient by something with a linear term for a polynomial ring you tend to be able to apply this argument I’m pretty sure
Cause you can do division with remainder and be left with a polynomial that’s constant in your isolated variable
In this case x
Yea you're right
Cuz you can scale the leading term of both polynomials and the euclidean division algorithm works without a hitch
does bilinearity of the lie bracket give me that [x,cy] = c[x,y]
where c is a constant ofc
oh so every element of {f_x | x \in X} is from the direct product but since X is infinite, direct sum and direct products are different thus {f_x | x\in X} may not be a subset of F, right?
Im not sure im understanding your reasoning, but the isomorphism would give $\bZ^{\oplus |X|} \cong \bZ^{\Pi |X|}$ and that is a contradiction
kxrider
im sorry but I don't see why F* should be isomorphic to $\bZ^{\oplus |X|}$
backpack
F* is a Z-module?
Suppose ${f_x : x \in X}$ forms a basis for $F^$. The isomorphism $F^ \to \prod \bZ x$ given in the hint sends ${f_x : x \in X}$ to a basis which generates $\bZ^{\oplus X} \subset \bZ^{\Pi X}$.
kxrider
but since the image of the basis would generate the image, this gives $\bZ^{\oplus X} = \bZ^{\Pi X}$
kxrider
i mean basically you have $\operatorname{span}{f_x : x\in X} = \bZ^{\oplus X}$ while $F^* \cong \bZ^{\Pi X}$
and this is bad
kxrider
F* is dual of F and is Z-module so yes
thank you kxrider
I'll inspect your solution thanks for your time
np. I think maybe the important takeaway is that $span{f_x : x \in X} \hookrightarrow \bZ^{\Pi X}$ just generates $\bZ^{\oplus X}$ in $\bZ^{\Pi X}$ but we know this inclusion must be proper
can someone explain to me what the {1,\tau} means?
kxrider
Say $$f(x) = ([x]_m,[x]_n)$$ where $x\in\mathbb{Z}$. Why does m and n have to be coprime for f to be onto?
beeswax
Take m=4 and n=6 for example you will never hit something like (3,4)
I see. To prove that it's onto, would the best approach be contradiction?
It will be explicit construction
Consider m' such that mm'=1 mod n and n' such that nn'=1 mod m
Then
Consider x=bmm'+ann' . This will hit (a,b) for any a,b in the appropriate domain
(m' and n' exist because of coprimality)
ah
Think $Hom(F^{\oplus X}, F) \cong \prod_{x\in X} Hom(F,F) \cong F^{\Pi X}$. What are elements of $F^{\Pi X}$?
kxrider
I can see from closure that all these new cyclic groups generated by elements under the hyper operation series will include the latter groups, but I have trouble understanding how these groups have specific equivalence relations between each other. I only get a sense of congruence and that there exists a mapping, can someone show me how to understand subgroup and supergroup equivalence?
so it's copies of F indexed by the basis set
yes, so like, what do individual elements of this product look like?
F^{prod X}, not prod Hom(F,F)
by sequences of maps, do you mean like maps Z --> {some set of functions}?
sequence of elements from the field in which even all coordinates can be nonzero
to avoid causing more confusion, the point is that elements of F^{prod X} are functions X --> F
that's what a "sequence indexed by X" is
but using sequence is perhaps confusing since we think of sequences being countable
anyway that's it
it's clear now thanks
Suppose Z(f) is in Z[I]. Then there exists g in I such that Z(f) = Z(g). If f is not in I, then as you said, (I,f) = C(X) by maximality, so 1 = h + sf for some h in I and s in C(X). hence Z(h) and Z(sf) = Z(s) cap Z(f) are disjoint. Since Z(f) = Z(g), it follows that Z(h) and Z(sg) = Z(s) cap Z(g) = Z(s) cap Z(f) = Z(sf) are disjoint. But g is in I, so sg is in I. Hence sg and h are elements of I with disjoint-zero sets. So Z((sg)^2 + h^2) is empty, so (sg)^2 + h^2 is invertible. So I contains a unit, contradicting that I is not C(X).
Alternatively you can use the theorem in the book that the pullback of Z[I] is always an ideal that contains I. Then by maximality of I, these are equal, and hence I is a z-ideal.
its nice to have an alternative way to refer to elements of the dual rather than elements of the space Hom(oplus_x \in X F, F)
Can anyone explain the little group method? please
idk how trivial this is but can i usually state without proof that the units of a subring are also units of the "super"ring it's in
probably
No
fuck no i mean 2Z
Depends on whether subrings need to share the identity of the ring in your convention
yes, if something has a multiplicative inverse in the subring then it has the same inverse in the superring
it's obvious enough to state imo
mildly related but what's special about commutative rings
besides being commutative ofc
“Good” definition of prime ideals.
Free modules over commutative rings have well defined rank
Free modules are modules with a basis (in the same sense as for vector spaces). This definitely comes up in AT (like homology theory)
But with noncommutative rings, you can have free modules with a basis containing any finite number of elements for example 
Free groups are the same kind of thing. They all have the same universal property
I think the most immediate thing is that the ideal generated by some element x \in R is xR ("everything with a factor of r")
noncommutative abstract algebra seems sort of gross to me because you can't do so many things
Ah yea right, the structure of ideals suck in noncommutative rings 
Can someone explain adjouin notation to me? I.e, Z[x]
What’s the mathematical definition? The wiki article is using different notation
Commutative algebra isn't equated with the study of ideals for no reason
In this case it must mean that whenever there is a k: X -> B such that fk=0, then there is a unique m: X -> A such that k=im.
Hmm, or is that even right?
I'm not sure "universal with respect to this property" is unambiguous enough to pinpoint that expansion if you don't already know what a kernel is supposed to be, though.
looks like universal properties of tensor products and localizations
Universal properties look like that.
so for cokernel it would be
whenever there is a k: C-> X s.t. kf =0, there exists unique m: D ->X s.t. k = me
if there is g: A' -> A such that ig = 0
ig is a map from A' to B such that fig = 0
so ig is a kernel of f
but i is also a kernel of f, so fi =0, and by universal property there exists g' : A -> A' such that igg' = i
yet ig = 0 so igg' = 0 and i = 0?
in my textbook, an ideal of a ring is defined by being
- nonempty
- closed under subtraction
- closed under multiplication by the ring
is the second requirement a standard definition? i havent found any other sources that do it like that. the way i keep seeing is that its a subgroup under addition. our textbook is dumb and the chapters go like Ch 2. Rings and Fields and Ch 4. Groups so im wondering if this is because of that stupid ordering
This is equivalent to being a subgroup
Let’s prove it, but let’s even not assume it’s abelian
If H is a subset of G that’s nonempty and closed under division
take arbitrary g in H, then gg^-1 = e so e is in H
Then, eg^-1 = g^-1 is in H so it’s closed under inverses
Then, g(h^-1)^-1 = gh so it’s closed under products
that makes sense. im just wondering if its standard, rather than questioning if it's valid
Ahhh
Well, normally you might say “a subgroup such that…”
But idk, definitions are whatever
Idk if there’s really a standard because everything is ewuicalent so ppl just do whatever
I would say it’s probably not that common tho
can someone explain why ht(p)=dim(A_p), where A is a ring and p is an ideal of A
when every element has its inverse in it(which it must as an ideal), then addition and subtraction are analogous. So if you were to just say its closed under addition, you would have the additional requirement that all elements in the ideal must be invertible
There’s a bijection between primes of A_p and primes contained in p
I suggest you pick up a book on commutative algebra and read the first few sections, localization will surely be covered in it
Can someone tell me if this is true?
I think it is, since if k[A] is semi-simple, then it is Artinian, and if A is not of finite order, then we can come up with an infinite descending chain of ideals, hence contradiction
And otherwise if A is of finite order, then the only maximal ideal is {0} so k[A] is semi-simple
Are in general, automorphisms of an object, a measure for the complexity of the object itself?
I know this is vague, but I'm trying to motivate galois theory a bit
Ambiguity is a better word maybe, but I'm also interested in the answer since I've heard in AG seminars that automorphisms complicate things in general
automorphisms are a symmetry of the object so in a sense yes the more symmetries the more complex unless the automorphism group is of prime order or something and a really easy infinite class of groups
In algebraic geometry automorphisms screw up things being an actual scheme, and force you to use stacks and stuff
One idea in this direction is that you can glue stuff if you have a cocycle condition on things which says certain pairs need to be equal
You know that the two things differ by an automorphism, so if it has no automorphisms then you trivially know they’re equal
In the case that automorphisms exist there might not really be a way to do things up to isomorphism so you’re forced to consider things not up to isomorphism while remembering they’re isomorphic
And this leads to needing groupoids and crap, and you just keep going and then you have a stack
That’s my 1 minute shit explanation
If you're trying to motivate Galois theory, check out this vid, really helped me motivate it a few months ago: https://youtu.be/CwvuZ8aHyH4
This video is an introduction to Galois Theory, which spells out a beautiful correspondence between fields and their symmetry groups.
__
SOURCES and REFERENCES for Further Reading!
This video is a quick-and-dirty introduction to Galois theory. But as with any quick introduction, there are details that I gloss over for the sake of brevity. T...
gristality of the cardinuum
I proved this, call it proposition A
the part i'm having trouble with is proposition B:
gristality of the cardinuum
the book says that, by proposition A, it suffices to prove proposition B for the case where I = 0
but i just don't see how
book is d&f
Prime ideal P of R containing I correspond to prime idea P/I of R/I.
(Intersection of P containing I)/I=intersection of P/I=nilrad(R/I)=nilrad(I)/I , and nilrad(I) is contained in (intersection of P containing I) so those two equal
Sorry R not A edited
?
There exists a one-to-one correspondence between ideals J containing I to ideals J/I of R/I
You can easily prove that J is prime iff J/I is prime in R/I
(P/I)/I = P/I?
Here
i'm looking at the first equals sign
mod both sides of this by I
to get what you got on the lhs
I wrote over I you missed it
?
what do you mean
wrote what over I
(intersection of P/I)/I = intersection of P/I?
yes, i'm totally lost here. it's 5am. i think i'll ask my prof tomorrow
Here
Make sure you didn’t misread anything
@frail zealot @next obsidian @strong yacht thank you for your answers
i didn't misread it, i just didn't understand how you got that
How do you count the subgroups of index two of $\left(\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}}\right)^n$?
Gio
start with small examples like the klein 4 group and see if you can work out a pattern
it should be 2^n-1 but I can't prove it
how many elements of order 2 are ther ein (Z/2Z)^n
2^n-1
right, so you can quotient out by the subgroups generated by those elements
and so you get one subgroup of index 2 for each element that way
and that's it, you're done
how are they of index two if the order is 2?
you're right what I said is total nonsense wtf
oh we might be saved if we can then show that we have a direct product of groups there
I know groups actions on a set give a homomorphism into the symmetric group on the set, but what if I have a group action on a group? Does that give a homomorphism into the automorphism group of the group?
I’m pretty sure you just do it component-wise IIRC
Let $f(x) = x^4 + 2x^2 + x + 3 \in \Q[x]$. How can I compute the galois group of $f$ in a manner that's practical on a qualifying exam?
tr.deg.Shamroc/k
Even calculating the discriminant is kind of hairy here bc I would need to memorize the formula for it and successfully calculate it by hand under time pressure
@latent anvil it is S_4, since it is irreducible mod 2 and it factorises as a linear * a cubic mod 3
And also because of the following theorem
how do you deduce it contains a 3 cycle using the factorization over F3?
There's this theorem, but that relies on committing the discriminant, no?
And that's a huge time sink and is error prone
No I don't think you need to compute the discriminant at all
So how do you get information about the galois group from the factorization over F3?
This is what I used, doesn't say anything about discriminant here
If you do need the discriminant, I didn't know that
Oh, maybe the repeated roots condition is equivalent to the discriminant not being divisible by p
That would be sick
Do you have a reference for that theorem?
Ty
Page 62
Right so if you have a monic polynomial the discriminant is some sign times Π (ri - rj) where r1,...,rn are the roots
Then p divides the discriminant iff p divides ri - rj for some i, j
Iff the polynomial has repeated roots over Fp
And that's much easier to check
Yes, very easy to check, can compute GCD with formal derivative yes?
Yep
quick question which should be obvious but I cant figure out
how can I show that all elements of a ring with unity will be of the form n*1?(this should be true right?)
n being? if you want it to be an integer, this is false.
note n*1 =n, so your question is equivalent to asking if elements are of the form n
really?? that was unexpected
it should be expected
there are rational numbers that aren't integers
there are real numbers that aren't integers, complex numbers, etc.
hmm for some reason i was thinking that 1 should generate the whole ring through addition
the only such rings are quotients of Z
that is true in commutative rings I believe
oh only Z quotients
ah yes, R^2 fails
unity
Well Z is the initial object in Ring anyway
So 1 under addition generates a ring iff that map is a surjection i.e. quotients of Z
if R is generated additively by 1, then Z -> R, n -> n*1 is a surjective homomorphism. apply the first isomorphism theorem to get R = Z/kernel
i was sniped
lol
I have trouble seeing the implications in the proof. How does (M_n) being an a-filtration imply that M’_n=a^nM is subset of M_n. Similarly How does (M_n) a-stable imply a^nM_n0 a subset of M’_n=a^nM?
source: Atiyah Macdonald. Introduction to Commutative Algebra
for your first question, repeatedly applying the definition of an $\mathfrak{a}$-filtration gives $$\mathfrak{a}^nM = \mathfrak{a}^n M_0 \subseteq \mathfrak{a}^{n-1}M_1 \subseteq \cdots \subseteq \mathfrak{a}M_{n-1} \subseteq M_n.$$
TTerra
the other question is similar. $$\mathfrak{a}^nM_{n_0} = \mathfrak{a}^{n-1}M_{n_0+1} = \cdots = \mathfrak{a}M_{n_0+n-1} = M_{n+n_0},$$ and this is a subset of $\mathfrak{a}^nM$ since $M_{n_0} \subseteq M$ implies $\mathfrak{a}^nM_{n_0} \subseteq \mathfrak{a}^nM$
TTerra
@grand sigil does this answer your questions?
is this rly true
that's dope af if true
if the composite A -> C is zero then ofc it's a complex and any two rows exact gives the other row exact if they are complexes
Sort of but I think I misunderstand. I see how we are defining (M’_n) to be a^nM. However I do not see how a-filtration gives us a^nM_i subset of a^n-1M_i+1. I thought it only means aM_n subset of M_n+1. Im going to spend more time later clarifying my misunderstanding.
Thanks for the help
$$\mathfrak{a}^nM_k = \mathfrak{a}^{n-1}(\mathfrak{a}M_k) \subseteq \mathfrak{a}^{n-1}M_{k+1}$$
TTerra
it could be, it depends on gamma
it just says its 2^r for some r >= 0
it could be higher than 2, for example, by the tower law. So like [Q(fourth root 2) : Q] = [Q(fourth root 2) : Q(sqrt 2) ][Q(sqrt 2) : Q] = (2)(2)=4
Thanks a lot that clarified what you did.
can you have polynomials of infinite degree in a polynomial ring
No worries if no responses because I will try and read about later, but does anyone know what prime/maximal ideals correspond to on rings of smooth functions on a manifold. And if so what do quotients and localizations correspond to?
for compact manifolds, maximal ideals are in one-to-one correspondence with points. i don't think that's true for non-compact manifolds. i don't know if in general you can say anything nice about the prime ideals there
by "one-to-one correspondence with points" i mean that every maximal ideal in C^\infty(M) is of the form {f : f(p) = 0} for some (unique) p in M. the quotient in this case is the field of real numbers, and the localization is the set {f/g : g(p) \neq 0}, which is just C^\infty(M) again
that last part being because we can take reciprocals of smooth functions and stay a smooth function
which you might want to compare to the following statement: the reciprocal of a polynomial function is not a polynomial function
whitney has a paper on ideals of smooth functions that you can find somewhere on google that might give you what you want
this is cool
i think it might be true more generally that every closed prime ideal is maximal, and corresponds to a point
Thanks a lot
There is a small error in your proof, just replace \cap by \cup everywhere
All good otherwise, thanks!
Yes, send 1 to 1 and extend in the unique fashion
I do not see how 1+a a unit implies \cap a^nM = 0
Does this come from 1+x unit implies x nilpotent?
Look at the theorem this is a corrolary of
Namely, that intersection is the set of x in M annihilated by some element of 1 + I, i.e. {0} since all of those elements are units.
I was thinking of this, but then I couldnt find a reason for why units can’t be annihilate x in M. All I would know is that Ann(x)=(1) for all x in M
If Ann(x) = A then x = 1.x = 0
That is very clear. Thank you for the clarification
Np
@grand sigil how do you define topology using a?
It's the I-adic topology, where the base at 0 is given by M, IM, I^2 M, I^3 M, ... for an ideal I
You have to extend it linearly tho
Otherwise you haven’t said much about the other points’ neighborhoods
Sorry i meant for that to be implied lol
because aren't topological rings like topologically homogeneous
Yeah
You want the mult and addition map to be continuous and since addition is invertible you can always just look at nbds of 0
Is there an intuitive idea of what a character of a representation is?
how exactly do you lift the cycle c to b in B_n
C is just a chain complex not an exact sequence
there can be stuff in Z_n that are not in B_n
the context is you have a SES 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 of chain complexes, right? The chain map B -> C is surjective
For part a), it seems sufficient to show there is an automorphism which takes a to a+1. Any hints on how to find this?
there is a theorem about extending isomorphisms of fields to isomorphisms on simple extensions of those fields. does that ring any bells?
No I don't think it does.
I was dumb I thought it was the B_n(C)
ah yea okay i figured, that's kinda confusing lmao
Spamakin🎷
Not quite sure how to do this
What ways can you 'conjugate' that expression you set alpha to?
wdym
as an example, i can change that interior + to a minus... plug it in, and get another root
yea
so that is an automorphism. Really you're relying on the idea that automorphisms take roots to roots.
Hm
so I have 4 choices for where to map alpha
and i must go to some version of i I guess
i and -i?
btw this is the result that should help you. nothing super complicated
So, I need to take an automorphism and push F(a) through it, and show that a+1 is a root to that polynomial, so that I may invoke theorem 1.8 to produce an isomorphism of F(a) onto F(a+1)? @thorn delta
that polynomial meaning the image of the polynomial under sigma
yes, you start with the identity F --> F. It maps f to f, so you can construct an automorphism sending a root of f, say a, to another root of f, say a + 1
I see this makes a lot of sense, thanks @thorn delta.
npnp
I'm having a bit of trouble showing the following:
Let K be a subfield of C. If we had an polynomial f in K[x] such that
.f has a root in some radical extension of K.
Then it is true that f has some irreducible factor p such that the Splitting field of p over K has a solvable Galois group.
It is obvious that I need to apply Galois's theorem there, which states that
- Some polynomial g \in K[x] has all its roots contained in some radical extension of K \iff the Galois group, (ie the galois group corresponding to the splitting field of g over K) is solvable.
So we know that our poly f has some root in a radical ext of K, say alpha. My thought is to look at the minimal poly of alpha, which must be an irreducible factor of f, and call this p. Now if this radical ext has all roots of p we are good, but the issue is that might not be true. If this radical extension was normal, we would be good since it must have all roots of p, but it is not true that all radical extensions are normal....
The only thing that I have which relates radical extensions to normal extensions is that the normal closure of a radical extension is radical. But I don't think this is useful here.
Opps nvm, it is clear this is exactly what I need. This statement is basically trivial using the final line xD
Since E is finite, it has positive characteristic, call it p. So we can just take 1 and add it to itself to get {0,1,...,p-1} and they multiply just like they would in Z_p because they're integers mod p.
idk if that's satisfying enough
One way of viewing it: the map Z -> E has kernel pZ, p the characteristic of E (ig this is how I'd define characteristic in fact), and so we have an embedding Z/pZ -> E by the first iso thm
If I have an primtiive n-th root of unity (not necessarily n prime) then the degree of its simple extension is counted by the Euler totient function at n right? IE that extension has degree equal to counting the integers less than n coprime to n
Is this Galois Group (it is a Galois Group right?) this a Klein 4 group?
I think it is because the 4 roots are +- sqrt(2) +- sqrt(3). Thus permuting sqrt(2) with -sqrt(2) (and sim for sqrt(3)) gives the 4 mappings of one root to another. However looking at it in this angle gives a group of C_2 x C_2 = Klein 4 group
Dumb question isn't it primative iff n is prime? if n isn't prime we just say n-th root of unity I thought.
But yes I believe that's correct
yea, i meant just n-th root. not primtitive mb
huh
an n-th root of unity is primitive if it is not an m-th root of unity for m < n
n doesnt have to be prime
the statement is true though
Looks good
If the degree of the splitting field degree is 8 then I think the Galois group is D_8 (for quartics), at least I think this is always true
But the question asks you to find it out using what you have
The roots can be written as (x-a)(x+a)(x-ia^-1)(x+ia^-1) where a is what you said it was, if you label the roots as {1, 2, 3, 4} instead, complex conjugation gives you the aut {1, 2, 3, 4} -> {1, 2, 4, 3} i.e. the transposition (3, 4)
Your target is D_8 which is <(1, 2, 3, 4), (1, 3)>
Hmmm
Yea I found some automorphisms that generate a Klein 4 group and a cyclic group
So it must be D_8
Ah ok nice
Wait what?
This is a degree 4 extension is it not?
How can you have D8 for the Galois group
I thought the question said it is degree 8 in the first part
Oh different question lmao
Ahh
I was looking at the Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
How do you find more auts to this actually
Galois group acts transitively so e.g. there must be an aut that sends 1 to 2, but I know nothing else about this aut
Every finite field E is a finite extension of a prime field isomorphic to the field Zp, where p is the characteristic of E.
Why is this true
what part of the answer 10 mins ago didnt you like
Wtf lmao
I was trying to show that cube root 2 is not in Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3),..sqrt(p)...) and I was initially under the impression that simply showing that it wasn't rational or a square root would suffice, but now I realized that I must make sure it is not a linear combination of square roots over the rationals. I tried to suppose it was a linear combination and square it meany times to get a contradiction but didn't get anywhere. How should I proceed?
Does the Tower Law help? If it was a (finite) linear combination then Q(cuberoot(2)) contained in Q(sqrt(a_1), ..., sqrt(a_n))
By tower law do you mean [M:K]=[M:L][L:K]?
Indeed
Thank you lol
no problem
Question: given a group of order 2^m, is it guaranteed to have subgroups of order 2^i for all i?
Yes by induction
Any p-group has a nontrivial center so you can mod out by the center then use induction
I guess you need to handle the case that the center is everything, but then you can use the classification of finite abelian groups
Hmm, so I see we can use Lagrange's theorem for order p^2. But I'm not sure how you'd use induction for p^n?
After you have a nontrivial center you get can an element x of order p in the center so you can just quotient by (x) which has a subgroup isomorphic to a subgroup (of the original group) of order p^{n-1}
Yeah i think a subgroup of order p^{i-1} in G/(x) is isomorphic to a subgroup or order p^i in G?
@lethal cipher hope that helps
limbostar
I mean \chi(e)=\chi(g)
Every normal subgroup is the intersection of the kernels of some characters
If all of these kernels are trivial then the only possible intersection is trivial (or the entire group if you just take the kernel of the trivial character), thus the group is normal
This follows from the fact that you have the kernel of the character equal to the kernel of the representation for representations into GL(n, C), and the kernel of any homomorphism is a normal subgroup - the other direction is a bit harder to prove but I do think you use lifted characters in it
I forgor
That helps so much thank you
Any n=(p^r)m, where p doesn’t divide m, there exists subgroups of order p^s where s<=r. The number of those subgroups is also =1 mod p. I don’t know why most proofs only prove the case where s=r, but the proof of sylow theorem by bourbaki doesn’t say anything about r=s
If a group G is acting on a set of n elements by permutation, does G have to be a subgroup of S_n?
hey i need some help with galois theory
i'm supposed to draw the lattice of intermediate fields of the extension E/Q, where E is the splitting field of x^4-6x^2+6
so far, i've shown Gal(E/Q) = D4
but idk how to find the generators of the group
E = Q(sqrt(3 - sqrt(3), sqrt(3 + sqrt(3))
yes
I'm not entirely sure why the center is non-trivial and how we know there is an element of order p in there. Other than that, I think I understand how that fact gets me to the one I want.
hello, i am a bit confused on how to determine the elements the symmetric groups S_n. why is S_3
and not the set of all permutations of (1, 2, 3)?
Those are all the permutations of 1 2 3
Crown, are you familiar with cycle notation?
yes
not too sure how to word it, but now i am guessing instead of having {(1, 2, 3), (1, 3, 2), (2, 1, 3), (2, 3, 1), (3, 1, 2), (3, 2, 1)}. S_3 is the set where if i do (1, 2, 3) times any the elements in S_3 i will get an element from the set above?
Ah, I see. So let's take a step back for a small moment. (12) sends 1 to 2 and 2 to 1,while fixing 3.
So 123 maps to 213
And 213 is indeed an element of this set
Each cycle represents one of these permutations you've mentioned
So the two sets you have listed, the one in cycle notation, and the permutations of 123, are indeed the same set.
But the problem with writing S_3 like {(1,2,3),(1,3,2),...(3,2,1)} is it can be hard to keep track of what each permutation does. This is especially true when you are looking at a larger symmetric group S_n.
Cycle notation is a very clean way to tell us exactly what the permutation is doing
ahhhh okay i understand now
Glad to hear it
Precisely
If the number isnt mentioned in the cycle, 2 in this case, then the permutation fixes that number
thank you very much
Plus the benefit of cycle notation is that it tells us what the permutation is doing essentially
So you can write (13)(24) for the permutation that makes 1234 to 3412, so you can multiple the cycles, and it turns out you can write any permutation this way
And the order doesn't matter
When the cycle is disjoint it doesn't matter. I just want to make that clear
that reminds me, how exactly do you multiply disjoint cycles?
i was searching around on google, but all the examples were not disjoint
If you want to write it in cycle notation you just put them right next to each other
If they are disjoint, ya kinda don't. (13)(24) is exactly that: (13)(24)
When they aren't disjoint is when it gets a bit trickier
so i can go from 3412 -> (13)(24) but not the other way around?
Actually, (3412) and (13)(24) are completely different permutations
3412 sends 1234 to 2341 and (13)(24) sends 1234 to 3412
They are not the same
No problem!
One more thing to keep in mind, cycles are functions, and they are a group under composition. So when composing functions, you combine cycles together from right to left
Example: (12)(23) in the right 2 cycle, 2 gets sent to 3, and 3 gets sent to 2.
In the left 2 cycle, 1 gets sent to 2 and 2 gets sent to 1.
So composing the functions gives the following images for 1,2, and 3:
1->1->2
2->3->3
3->2->1
So (12)(23)=(231)
(1 2 3)(1 2) = (1 3)?
1->2->3
3->3->1
2->1->2
Yep, that checks out
very cool
S_n is highly NOT abelian. Of course, S2 is the only exception
Wait (12)(34) and (34)(21) are the same
Wait...disregard
I meant (12)(23)=/=(23)(21)
Grabbed the wrong example. Thanks for catching that
ahhh okay
Iirc, the identity element is the only element that is in the center (abelian with all elements).
Except when n=2
Lol, yes of course
I don't at all understand rschwieb's answer here. I know about Lattice Isomorphism Theorem. But this does not seem to clear anything up.
I'm trying to show that $\sqrt{I} = \cap P_I$
gristality of the cardinuum
gristality of the cardinuum
gristality of the cardinuum
What I can tell we're really doing is a little clearer to me when I rename things a bit
(I already was able to verify that nilrad$(R') = \cap P'$. And I'd like to let $R' = R/I$.)
gristality of the cardinuum
if you have the result for the nilradical in the quotient, take the preimage under the quotient map
i needed to do the following to the LHS
gristality of the cardinuum
by LIT this corresponds bijectively to
gristality of the cardinuum
the above is what you're talking about?
ah
yeah, it has to be
all you really need is that prime ideals have only prime ideals under the preimage under the quotient map
ok, ok
Does anyone know how extended elements of Galois groups work?
So if you have x in Gal(L/K)
how can you extend this to some y in Gal(F/L)
or do there need to be special conditions on the type of extension?
Not Gal(F/L) but Gal(F/K) I think:
F is a splitting field of f over K, F is also a splitting field of f over L.you just extend it like when you extend an automorphism to an automorphism on the splitting field
Thanks for catching the mistake
Nontrivial center just comes from the class equation. I also misspoke, subgroups of order p^{i-1} in G/(x) correspond with subgroups of order p^i in G that contain (x)
And if the center has an element x with order p^r then x^p^{r-1} should have order p
What's the difference between a Weyl chamber and an alcove?
do you want a different kind of answer for each of the four channels you posted it in?
ahhh, sorry, it's just I don't know if different people go to different channels
I'm having the following problem. I have a finite group and an integer n such that x^n annhilates any element x of the group i.e. yields the identity. Can I conclude that the order of the group divides n?
any answer that explains the difference will do. It seemed like it could likely be relevant in the channels I posted, and I didn't know if there would be someone who knew what they were in each channel.
didn't mean to spam
I tried showing it using the division algorithm but it tells me that for any element there is an m strictly less than the order of the group which annihilates the group. But I'm not sure whether this is possible or not?
Kraft Macaroni
it's possible, look at the klein 4 group
So apparently S_4 can act on three elements?
Ah of course
Is there anything I can say then?
Surely the order of the group is less than or equal to this n no?
and if I take O to be the smallest annhilating power in G then this indeed does divide n
wait now that I think about it this is wrong too
[on the topic of rings and ideals] if <2> is an ideal of Z how does that ideal generate say, 3, or 9? i'm having this issue from trying to understand why <2+3> of Z is equal to <2>.
<2+3> includes every term in Z, but <2> seems to only include 2Z which doesn't.
Is Z/1Z = {0} or {1} ?
{0}
Neither or both or one depending on what you mean

well 1 = 3 - 2 so once you have that you just generate all of Z
i get that you can do that from <3+2>
but from <2> you don't have 3 in the ideal to do that, right?
yeah bc its just 2Z

