#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 695 of 407
But what exactly am I meant to deduce
Normal subgroups from 1st iso?
And so it tells me how to quotient?
there are 4 diagonals, right?
so your action gives you a group hom phi: G -> Sym(4)
order of sym(4) is uhh
24
i think thats a pretty good hint
show its injective or surjective
then your G is Sym(4)
i think this can be done as a purely geometric argument
just get a rubiks cube and rotate it
i literally have one kek
uh
so what I can do is go through the 3 types of rotation
And show none of them leave the diagonals invariant
hence the kernel must be trivial
but uhhh its a bit hard to convince myself in some cases so ill have a think
you can also try rotating around a diagonal
by uhh 120(?) degrees
and then do something orbit stabilizer
im also bad at imagining things
(i would let sage do the work
)
sage š„°
well i certainly managed to convince myself with a prop
thanks
kinda surprised it is S4
What is our goal here?
figure out group of rotations of cube
Ah, okay.
initially i was expecting to figure this out in terms of semidirect product or something
to decompose via finding normal subgroups
cus idk - I thought it would be related to C4, S3 or something
they live in S4, so it is related i guess
Rotating 180° around an edge midpoint transposes two diagonals, and you're free to choose which two. So you get at least the entire S4.
right thats a clever way to see
looking it up, I see S4 is V4 semi S3
V4 being the normal
maybe theres some way to see this
The group acts on the three face-center axes.
š will have a go that way
Does this diagonals approach work for higher dimensional cubes?
and/or polyhedra
It seems to be a good technique
but I cant see it guaranteed to give an answer
you want to let the group act on something
that will always help
if you choose the correct something you are probably done
may i interject
about G/H again
so is it basically like
the group G if we think about everything in H as being in an equivalence class with identity
just like gluing multiples of k in Z/kZ
yes
And now you want this H
to act as the identity
in the quotient group
This is why we require the normal condition
gH = Hg
(gH)H = H(gH) = gH
So H is an identity
coset multiplication between H and any coset gH yields gH yes
i get how it becomes a group
H(gH) is only gH because (Hg)H = (gH)H
I skipped some steps above
i think im just missing some intuition about G/H notation-wise and first iso-wise
yh sure
well notation wise
youve glued things together
you are working with sets
the elements of the quotient group have to be sets
As for this, my intuition isn't quite there for why it works
I suppose
I think the intuition about the notation is simply that G/H has |G|/|H| elements.
Well mathematically we write quotients this way - all quotients correspond to the same kindof idea
my first instinct first seeing it was like
G sans H
which now seems kinda true?
but not really
yeah ik lol
It still smells of something useful.
G/H is G where we have killed everything in H as dead as we can, namely by mapping it to the identity.
Also if G happens to be a product group and H is one of the factors, then G/H is (isomorphic to) the other factor.
The moons rotate about the planets which rotate about the sun.
We can consider the movement of the moons to be like the elements of the group.
We can then 'quotient' the movement of the moons around their respective planets. And now we are basically only considering their motion around the sun - ie only the planetary motion.
An analogy that sorta works. Its like you draw all the circles for the orbits (big circles per planet, small ones per moon), and you erase the small circles of the moons orbitting planets by 'quotienting'.
oh my god what have I walked in on
it's just the group defined by g_1Hg_2H = g_1g_2H 
trying to provide intuitive explanations for something nitezba barely has a mechanical understanding of is absolutely counter productive
no i think i do have the mechanical understanding
yh I think u clocked it
ive done the lame operations
Well alright - at least it should hopefully be clear ker will be normal?
using the homomorphism property
sorry I shouldn't've reacted so hastily
I just saw orbital mechanics and shat my pants, proverbally
i understood this first actually
yh ok good
so it remains to see
what exactly G/ker f looks like
and how might it relate to the image of f
So we want to construct an isomorphism
but i think that's it
ok hold up
back to the very beginning
for showing that G/{1} is isomorphic to G
yh
can i just show that G/{1} is actually just G and that's it
no
its not just G
G is a box of chocolates
G/{1} is a box of chocolates, each of which is in a wrapper

They are not the same set - there is an isomorphism to find
oh oh oh
G = {g : g in G}
G/{e} = {{g} : g in G}
me looking for the isomorphism 
yh
yes, quotients always are
{g} = g{e}
You need to be clear what the group operation defined on G/H is
(aH)(bH) := (ab)H
isn't it always coset multiplication
it is
thats what i wrote
but being explicit about it can help when you're trying to find isomorphisms
for this particular example, it isnt too hard to guess this is sensible
f : G -> G/{e}
f(g) = {g}
It remains to show this is an isomorphism
love how well definedness is trivial
ok im just gonna shart out a proof
brb
my brain
pooped
this shouldnt even be that hard i just overcomplicate
i feel like im writing something awfully longwinded to show an isomorphism between two things that are clearly isomorphic
though i guess "clearly" is awfully arrogant of me
nah it's pretty clear lol
holy... hell
and by properly i mean a 1 line algebraic proof
chatters I just realised
how have I not noticed
not done since i was gonna do injective too, though ig that's enough reasoning for both inj and surj
just to be sure, it is accurate though right
G and {{g} : g \in G} are clearly the same size (and finite... wait fuck)
kek
here imo you just show that g -> {g} is the inverse map
i dont see anything no good
much easier
I'd just state but for a first year might as well show
good thing im a third year 
no fuckin way this is a third year course
are you an engineer or like mathematical physicist or something?
i started taking relevant classes late
also i took a gap semester so this is really my fifth semester
but classes only being offered in the spring and shit like that messed me up
blunderrrrrrrr

im also a CS major, if it wasn't for that i would've spedrun my requirements by now
double blunder

are there any uses for vector spaces over finite fields or is there anything interesting about them? i can't find much material on them but maybe i just don't know where to look
Representation theory over finite fields is the obvious example that comes to my mind
Loch is doing something on elliptic curve cryptography which has finite field vector spaces in it
F_p[x] seems important to like... everything lol
are antihomomorphisms a thing
or did my professor pull this extremely far out of his ass
Hey I am a bit confused with the intuition in problem 6 regarding the whole idea of a sphere of radius k and how t is defined to show that x is not an element of both s_t(a) and s_t(b)
this is in Pinter's Abstract Algebra book chapter 3 exercises.
Should have put The art of computer programming in there as well
much algebra
they reverse the order of multiplication
I dont see why the representatives being the same implies that the cosets are equal
and i thought cosets are described as equivalent instead of equal for this exact purpose
What would the inverse of a direct product be?
Like, say I'm studying the group 2/2Z x S_3
What would (1, (2,3))^-1 be?
Coordinatewise inverses, because multiplication is defined coordinatewise
Makes sense
Order of (123)(45)
Is 6
its not asking subgroup
its asking a single element
i know that
for example
for permutation on set (1 2 3 4 5)
an element would be to change that to (2 3 4 5 1)
which would be order 5 right?
Second try: Let N be the group of nilpotent nxn matrices. Let GLn be the general linear group over the complex field.
Let A be in N.
Is it true that for every C in N there exists an X in GLn such that C=XAX^-1?
If so, how do you prove it?
I just told you an element of order 6
No
wait how is that element order 6?
You can have two different matrices with different Jordan forms
Lcm(3,2)=6
What do malg and mgeom mean?
why is the same question, word for word, posted both here by @olive monolith and in #linear-algebra by @chilly ocean ?
Oh I see. You answered this in linear algebra
Which is?
what does the algebraic closure of Z/pZ look like, informally?
Direct limit of F_{p^n}s 
Splitting field of all irreducible polynomials in Z/pZ
Direct limit? I thought it was inverse limit⦠I mean colimit
for real?
Direct limits are colimits
i thought that was something like the p-adics
Inverse limits are limits
p-adics have characteristic 0 
Inclusion of F_{p^n} into F_{p^m} when n | m
Inclusion F_p^m to F_p^n where m|n I think?
It is essentially the union of all the finite fields
also is a direct limit like stuff -> limit or limit -> stuff
stuff to limit
It lies in some F_{p^n}
our instructor was going to prove it but then left as an exercise and he wrote that A,B are not necessarily unitary
Wtf is a unitary module
One where 1*x=x i think?
so am I supposed to show that if P is unitary projective module, then A,B must be unitary too
right?
Isnāt that just a moduleā¦
Yeah
. But i think i saw somewhere in D&F that some people don't require that
we never assumed every ring has an identity
Hmm
This requires surjectivity
Idk Iāve never seen this
Also thatās hurbed
Rings deserve a1
and so not every module contains identity
A module always contains an additive identity
A module also canāt contain a multiplicative identity
So I donāt get what that means
why?
if a ring has an identity and 1*a=a then you call it unitary
I mean the action by the multiplication
We say a module is unitary or not, but we don't say a module "contains" the identity ... so that's probably why CHMOLUMBIA didn't get what you've said
ooh yeah why did i say that
i probably wanted to say if R contains identity and then 1*a=a
yeah
ah its so beautiful
Now I understand why finite fields aren't boring 
You can think of it as the union over n of F_p^n
p-adics are the inverse limit of Z/p^nZ, while the algebraic closure of Fp is the direct limit of F_{p^n}, not the same thing at all 
We have group actions...
Ring actions?
a ring acting on an abelian group is a module
more generally you can look for maps R -> End(X) for some abelian group X i think?
when does End(X) have a canonical ring structure
what does X need to satisfy
the thing about group actions is that for every set X, Aut(X) has a group structure
so you can consider homs G -> Aut(X)
i dont think you can endow every X with a ring structure
at least not canonically
ic
so you need more special X
whats the problem?
automorphism in Set are bijections are they not
yah ok
you can work in other categories
if you work in Vect, you get representation theory
for groups
traditionally all kinds of representations were studied
group actions are permutation representations, whats today called representation theory are called linear representations
but you can study other kinds of things
so in this more general sense i guess a group action is just a group hom X -> Aut X, but automorphisms can be in Set, Vect or wtv
if you want ring representation theory you need some X you can endow with ring structure
it might just turn into module theory
somethin Ab-enriched categories?
some thinking to be done. But I suppose so for module
when i looked it up i could only see that
hmmm
ah nice, moldi is here to explain the cat memes to me
Ring is a preadditive category with 1 object, so its actions are functors into preadditive categories 
Similar to how monoids/groups are categories with 1 object, so their actions are functors into categories
An R-module is a preadditive functor from R as a preadditive category to the preadditive category of Ab groups
A more down to Earth explanation for why we don't consider actions on sets is
Groups and monoids arise as Auts and Ends of sets, in the sense that the symmetric group is the prototype for a group (and Cayley says that all groups arise as that) and endomorphisms of sets are the prototype for monoids
Similarly, the prototype for a ring is End(abelian group)
So it makes sense to talk about actions of rings on abelian groups
This is... profound 

oh nice, so i was correct
'Monoids arise as Ends of sets'
i have yet to clock this hmmm
ah ok i think i have a clue
Surjections cannot be undone when they are not injective
I can see the endomorphisms under composition will result in a monoid now yh
So Aut(abelian group) would be prototype for field?
vector spaces
Not quite, you also have 0 in field lul
But yeah field is like aut(abelian group) along with 0 map
Rather division ring is like that
Field is commutative division ring
And conversely every monoid embeds into End(X) for some set X. Namely, you can take X to be the underlying set of the monoid itself, and let each element act by pre-composition.
yh I'm trying to clock that right now 
We certainly have finite monoids (that aren't groups)...
But we have to consider infinite X
To find which X the monoid embeds into its End(X)
right?
Yeah, but that can just be the set of elements of the monoid itself.
It's a very direct parallel to Cayley's theorem.
hmm I feel like I'm missing something
End(X) are all the surjective morphisms from X to X right?
No they are all morphisms

Endomorphism is just f : X -> X =.......=
=........=
Yeah ok that makes a lot more sense

You can compose any 2 maps, but there not necessarily any way to undo it
No wonder I was thinking in circles
I don't think that quite works. For example, if our abelian group is ZĆZ, then the maps id and f(x,y) = (-x,y) are both automorphisms, but their sum is neither 0 nor an automorphism.
(Even id+id over Z is neither, too).
True
So for a division ring we need the special case where Aut(G)+{0} is closed under addition.
The direction that's tricky to generalize is "If G is abelian, then End(G) is a ring".
Because we need the compatability of operations right
or wait hmm
The endomorphisms of G have to preserve the structure of G
f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)
So we have this
mmm I don't get why this might not be true 
One way to look at it is that when S is some structure, then End(S) naturally inherits all the operations on S (in this case addition). However, Aut(S) as a subset of End(S) is always closed under composition, but not necessarily closed under those inherited operations, which makes it problematic to view Aut(S) as "a thing of the same kind, but with an additional operation, namely composition".
For automorphisms of sets this is not a problem, because there are no inherent operations on sets to be closed under.
Automorphisms of groups gives us the problem: Aut(G) is not closed under the addition it inherits from G.
Right, as highlighted by this example, I see
Similarly, if M is an R-module, then End(M) gives us a prototype example of an unital associative R-algebra, but Aut(M) is difficult to give more than a group structure.
Hmm, on further thought this is not quite correct. If G is a non-abelian group, End(G) doesn't inherit an analogue of the group operation, so it's more subtle than that. The group operation does inherit to the set of all functions G->G (not necessarily group morphisms), though. This produces a "near-ring" which lacks distributivity from the left.
A new world of abstract objects I have yet to delve in
I would like some help (don't give me the answer) please, on :
gcd(n,m)Z include nZ + mZ
where Z is the set of integers
consider the minimal element of $(n\mathbb{Z} + m\mathbb{Z}) \cap \mathbb{N}$
LochverstƤrker
Oh you changed
I did
ye, i had a typo before i edited
I'll think about that
If I don't find anything I'll ask again if you're ok
the minimal element of the set i defined above generates nZ + mZ
so you have to show that it is in gcd(n, m)Z
Do you have trouble understanding why gcd(n,m)Z contains nZ+mZ or the other way around (gcd(n,m)Z is contained in nZ+mZ)?
Second one
Then it's basically Bezout's theorem
The version I had in mind was "there exists u,v such that nu+mv=gcd(m,n)", but that follows easily from the one you stated
Let $I$ be an ideal in an integral domain $R$ with field of fractions $K$. We can consider the set $X = {x\in K : xI \subseteq I}$. Clearly $R \subseteq X$. Is there a name for when $X = R$?
LochverstƤrker
(alternative question: how should i call it)
In what context did this come up?
Haven't heard of something like this, but all the names I'm coming up with are taken
Maybe something like indivisible ideal?
That doesn't fully capture it either tho
Hmm
context of the ideal class group, when is the inverse of an integral ideal also an integral ideal
might just be equivalent to that and i call it invertible (i.e. dont give it a name)
was just wondering if there is some other context where this appears and if it has a name there
i mean inverse being an integral ideal as well
i work in dedekind domains anyway, so considered as fractional ideals everything is invertible
What does integral ideal mean here
a normal ideal, i.e. not fractional
at the end of the day i define an equivalence relation ~ on the set of ideals where I ~ J iff (a)I = (b)J for some a, b in R with ab != 0
now [R] is the equivalence class of all principal ideals and call I invertible if there is an ideal J such that IJ = [R]
question: when is I invertible
@prisma ibex @tribal moss @stark sigil update on the thing i came here with yday: turns out i should have looked at & attempted to generalize a result in a paper my advisor sent me, as opposed to trying to prove it entirely from scratch

š
yeah see haha I told you this is like, massively nontrivial
how did the meeting go?
Heh.
Even if some factorization of c doesn't have any unit, but still p is an irreducible.
Then why is the sentence true
i'm not really sure what your sentence means
the point is that if p = uc and c = ab, then if a is not a unit, then p = uba implies ub is a unit, and therefore b = u^-1 ub is a unit. so c is irreducible
i.e. a factorization of c must have a unit
Why ub is a unit
p = (ub)a and since p is irreducible, a or ub is a unit. Since a is a not a unit, ub must be a unit
Why b is a unit...@thorn delta
b = u^-1 (ub), a product of units. More explicitly,
b^-1 = (ub)^-1 u
I see
when solving a polynomial equation in a modular ring (of a composite number) how do you find all of the solutions? (without just checking every possibility)
working with $x^3-x=0$ in $\bZ/8$
nix
which factors to $x(x-[1])(x+[1])$ which gives solutions $x=[0],[1],[7]$
nix
im assuming you need to use the zero divisors to get the others, but is there some sort of algorithm/method to do that reliably?
factor theorem
as you demonstrated
Since you're in a finite field, you can even brute force through all possible numbers
and find all possible linear factors
"factor theorem"? i havent heard of that. unless you mean like the basic basic algebra factor theorem.
is there a non-brute force method that would work if it was something like Z/128?
yeah for polynomials in C
factor theorem or even remainder theorem applies
Polynomial rings over fields are Euclidean Domains
Euclidean algorithm exists in them
(I can't remember/be asked to remember if you need the polynomial ring to be a Euclidean Domain for the factor theorem to apply, or can you take a slightly weaker premise)
But anyways - euclidean alg exists, and factor thm applies.
Some clever tricks that are unlikely to generalise for all cases?
Factoring polynomials isn't a trivial thing over non-finite fields in the first place.
I don't know why you feel it should be easier just because the field is finite š¤
If anything I feel it gets harder (except for the fact you can brute force)
idk
not "easier" per se. i just mean a more algorithmic approach that isn't just brute force computation. i assume a method of that sort would involve the zero divisors.
I give you a polynomial in Z[x]
how do you propose to factorise this over C with an algorithmic approach?
its not the factorization part that im talking about. its finding the zeros. because when it isnt an integral domain, you cant just set the factors equal to zero and call it a day
Oh in fact I was talking crap earlier --- you aren't even in a finite field
You're just working in Z/nZ[x] for n that might not be prime š¤
š¤ yh I don't know anything special to help --- it really is brute force to my knowledge
And you almost certainly won't be asked for something in Z/128Z unless it's obvious
If you aren't even in an integral domain though...
the polynomial ring that is... factorisation may not even be unique???
yeah what i mean is that i got the solutions 0,1,7. but 3 and 5 are also solutions (because it isnt an integral domain), and im not sure how i could come to that conclusion without having brute forced it. if there is no method to do that then... well that kinda sucks...
im going to try setting each factor equal to a zero divisor and seeing if i can make any deductions about which ones could or could not work
and like what are irreducible factors aren't obvious
right
haha
well... personally i think its kinda cool. i like that all of the solutions arent obvious by inspection. i just wish there was a "smarter" way to find them.
So anyways - I don't even see the point of factoring much?
in Z/8, all of the zero divisors are just the even numbers, right? 2,4,6?
for solving your polynomial equation
yh
Like if u see a factorisation, use it
But regardless, u kinda have to brute force
cus you have have non-zero factors solving it
it gives you the obvious factors, at least. which is a good start.
if you have a root in Z/p^nZ that maps to a root in Z/p^{n-1}Z, so you can look for roots in Z/pZ first and then go in the other direction
if your polynomial is nice, hensel lifting gives you a unique root
if you check polynomials mod n and n isnt a prime power, you use the chinese remainder theorem first
@toxic zephyr
My number theory weak I see š
oh interesting. so in Z/4 (x-[3]) is a linear factor (from the (x+[1])). is it not a coincidence that x=[3] is also a solution in Z/8?
its not, 3 in Z/(4) must lift to a root in Z/(8), either 3 or 3+4 = 7
since 3 and 7 get mapped to 3 under Z/(8) -> Z/(4)
so you have a little less cases to check
wow thats so cool š
and if you look at the hensel lifting theorem, it can be better
man now i really wish i had taken number theory this semester. its only offered in spring at my college, but im already taking a bunch of other harder classes š¦
looking into it now
this is usually taught in like a second course in number theory though
its important for the theory of the p-adics
~~but also yes, both of you should take number theory ~~
i did. i forgot it.
oh I actually know the hensel lifting theorem
the weird thing is you can do newton method to compute the lift
or rather, they are formally the same thing
so a lot of people know hensel lifting
yep.
I uh- do not remember much of Number theory from 2 yrs ago
Some relearning to do when I look into p-adics ig
ProphetX
this might be better in #diff-geo-diff-top
ah sure,sorry
i thought to post it here since it's a purely algebraic problem
composition of maps 
if $\theta(f)=g \circ f$, where g is some map
ProphetX
is $\theta^{-1}(f)=g^{-1}(f)$?
ProphetX
I'd say no
what makes you say no
let $\theta^{-1}(f) = g^{-1}f$
then $\theta(\theta^{-1}(f)) = gg^{-1}f = f$
$\theta^{-1}(\theta(f)) = g^{-1}gf = f$
Wew "Peenie Wallie" Tbh š¦
I believe your intuition might be wonky 
Follows trivially from functoriality of Hom(A,-)
I don't speak.... hmm... I think that's ancient Mesopotamian
I'm mostly memeing
tbf, yes you're right (I think I get what you mean by that anyway)
ok a pure algebra problem
Let Y iso Y'. Then Mult(X,Y) is iso to Mult(X,Y')
how to prove this?
what's Mult again
Multilinear maps
ah ok
the iso I think will work is just taking f in mult(x, y) and then composing it with the iso from y to y'
that's what i did
would that work ShiN, if you're still here
Can circ f
that's why i asked what is the inverse of that map,since it should be iso
this is basically it i think,no?
that's the proof of what you asked me to prove, composition of two isomorphisms is always an isomorphism so should work
You need to conjugate by the iso
wdym
That should work
so Theta(f)=iso circ f is not good?
Oh wait nvm
I was getting confused with smth else
That should worj
Lemme.think for a sec
Yes that should work, if the iso is linear then this preserves multilinearity and exhibits an obvious inverse
It's also clearly linear itself
that's the question
what's the obivous inverse
is it Can^{-1}(f)?
what wew lads said
Just composition with the inverse of the iso
Oh lemme look at the sc
Yes
yeah the one thing I was worried about was preserving linearity
It should be composition with Can^-1
i've been on this proof for 5days
Well I think we're assumig a linear isomorphism
18 pages still not finished
So this shouldn't be a problem
pre or post composition?
Jesus
yes
oh yeah DUH x and y are some modules/vec spaces
I need to get out of "group mode" sometimes
finite dim vector spaces
physicists go easy mode
no general

how to show that V and V^{**} have same dimensionality in finite dim?
if I can show that the dimensionalities match, then i'm mostly done with the profo
You showed you have a linear bijection didn't you
That implies equality of dimension
Always
wdym I showed I have a linear bijection
I showed surjectivity by dimension arugment
I only showed injectivity properly
Oh my b
I missed that
You can prove that V and V* always have the same dimension. Choose a basis for V, construct the dual basis for V* and show that it's indeed a basis
i'll try this. then the argument would be: V and V* have same dimension. But V* and V* * have the same dimension too. therefore, V and V * * have the same dimension
right?
ok so I think first thought is it can't also be a right ideal right?
I came up with I = 2 x 2 real matricies with 0's in the right column
that's a left ideal
and also not a right ideal
but now i'm right multiplying by units
and am not getting ideals 
Huh? How is that possible Ia should always be an ideal
Take a to be the matrix which switches the columns under right multiplication
that's not a left ideal tho right?
wait
fuck me it is I would have been done so much earlier
ugh
that was literally my first thought š
I know the feelin
in a noetherian module a map u: M-> M surjective implies bijective
we have the chain ker u \subset ker u^2 \subset .... \subset ker u^n so it must terminate
then ker u^n = ker u^(n+1)
but ker u^(n+1) = {x | u(x) \in ker u^n}
so the map u restricted to ker u^(u+1) maps onto ker u^n
if u restricted is injective then I'm done
but I don't know ker u^n is finite
Thatās not what you need
You can show that it canāt terminate
u^n is still surjective
So for some nonzero x in ker u, write x = u^n(y)
But now y is in ker u^{n+1} \ ker u^n
š cool
yes
ufd is unique factorization upto units right
everything is a unit in a field
so its kind of vacously true
$A = k[x]/(x^2)$
$A \rightarrow_{f} A \rightarrow_{f} A \rightarrow_{g} k \rightarrow 0$ is exact. $f$ is multiplication by $x$ and $g$ is evaluation at 0.
Denote the sequence as $E$, WTS $E \otimes k$ is not exact
Iteribus
tensor is right exact so the problem should be at the second A but I can't find why it is not exact there
$\mbox{Im}f \otimes 1 = (x) \otimes k$
Iteribus
$\mbox{ker} f \otimes 1 = {(x+a)\otimes b | f\otimes 1 ((x+a)\otimes b) = 0} = {(x+a)\otimes b |(ax \otimes b) = 0} = {(x+a)\otimes b |a = 0 \mbox{or} b = 0} = (x) \otimes k$
Iteribus
I mean this should turn into multiplication by x on k, and Iām assuming youāve defined x to act as 0 on k
So the induced map is the 0-map between k and k and this breaks injectivity or some Shit
but after tensoring doesnāt a map f changes by default to f tensor 1
where does x act on k
x^3+1 is not irreducible
It should be if there's an answer for it's gcd
what is the common root of the two
so youāre done
oh that⦠that is not a fun calculation
weāre tensoring over A not k?
I mean
If you tensored with k over k
Then it does nothing
So it stays exact
So it only made sense to tensor over A
šI see
then x is like a scalar and I can just move it over to the right
and define that to be 0 map on k
Im trying to understand rings of fractions, and there is this lemma, where I dont understand the equalities. I post a picture, since its a little easier, than typing it all out
Im sorry, its in another language
Uhhhh
I think this is just saying that the addition and multiplication is well defined
yea, I understand what the lemma says, but the proof and those equalities that lead to the conclusion, I'm having trouble with
Yeah idk how to help you with that, I canāt read the shit lol
aaah I got it
Pretty sure it just comes from distributing everything out and then replacing the stuff you know is equal
they are just multiplying out the parenthesis
Yeah
yea, thank you!
If we have $\forall c \in R, ac = 0 => bc = 0$ for some $a, b$ in a commutative ring $R$, does it follow that $a$ divides $b$? If not, is there a counterexample?
Raghuram
good handwriting 
what font is it? xkcd?
,tex wait did they change the font?

lol
Nah that isn't true
pick your favourite number n with two non-equal prime factors p, p'
then in Z/nZ p and p' are both zero divisors but don't divide each other - I think
ac=bc => (a-b)c=0
I'm assuming you're saying I'm wrong
cause I have absolutely no idea what you mean by that 
Does $ H(A,B) = TrAB^T $ give an inner product over $ V:=mat(n,\mathbb{R}) $ ?
Yes -- basically it's just the sum of products of matching entries from A and B.
So the same as the dot product of the vectorizations of A and B.
I understood it as Tr(AB).
ahh damn yeah i think that right gonna have to redo it all lol
(Tr A)B can't be an inner product in the first place -- it isn't even a scalar.
Right. The hypothesis is that b is āmoreā of a zero divisor than a in the sense that it gives 0 when multiplied with more elements.
could someone explain the last two lines?
"this cannot be true for a non-zero free R-module"
why is that?
suppose I is a free R-module, so it has a basis {f_1, ... , f_n}. We took f in I, so f = r_1 f_1 + ... + r_n f_n. If there exists g in R such that fg = 0, we would have r_1g f_1 + ... + r_n gf_n = 0. by linear independence of the basis, r_1g = r_2g = ... = r_ng = 0.
where is the contradiction?
I think this should be true in any quotient of a PID, so counterexamples would have to more complicated than Z/nZ.
(Consider R = P/nP where P is a PID and n in P. For any a, a = g (a/g) where g = gcd(a,n). gcd(a/g, n/g) = 1 so we can find x, y st
x a/g + y n/g = 1 => xa = g (mod n)
Thus a | g and g | a (mod n), so upto units (which in particular don't affect the set of c st ac = 0), all elements of P/nP are factors of n.
For g dividing n, gh = 0 (mod n) iff n/g | h. So if we have a,b factors of n and ac = 0 => ab = 0, then n/b | n/a => an | bn (multiplying by ab) => a | b.)
Take 2x2 matrices over Z
And consider the elements which are
2 0
0 0
and
3 0
0 0
I think this probably works
I hope
what stops you from just taking non zero divisors a,b which don't divide one another? or am i just confused by the wording
I read it as 'Suppose there are a,b such that whenever ac = 0 from some c, we have bc = 0. Show that a|b'
Or is it saying that for all a and c such that ac = 0 there is b such that bc= 0 (but then just take b = a)
Quantification seems a lil unclear
what is it called when you extend a ring with a singular element
like you'd call $R[G]$ a group ring (where $R$ is a ring and $G$ is a group) but idk what you'd call like $\Z[\sqrt{3}]$
56
I donāt know that thereās a term for this
Usually when things are generated by one thing theyāre called cyclic
adjoin. You adjoin elements to rings to make new ones
But Iāve never heard anyone use that for algebras
ah ok
I've seen R[G] for a group ring but not for a general algebra
Thereās two meanings
It could be a polynomial ring on the elements of G
So itās just a super formal thing
fix a, b; then take the hypothesis (which is specific to that a and b) to be forall c.
And if G is a subset of an R-algebra S it could the R-subalgebra generated by G
Oh well then yeah just take for example a =2,b = 3 in Z
Nice
shld I go with gallian or dummit foote as a beginner.
Hi! I'm not much of a group theorist, so maybe this is very trivial, but: do you know of an example of a group that is both finitely generated and finitely related, but which is not finitely presented?
(that is, we can have a finite number of generators or relations, but not both at the same time)
finitely generated, related but not presented?????
i dont understand
<G | R>
is the form right
and you are saying G and R are finite
I don't think there can be one. Such a group would need to be the free product of a finitely presented group and a free group of infinite rank.However, a finite number of generators can never allow us to make all of the generators of the free factor.
Yes, you can find two presentations G=<S | R> and G=<T | P> with S finite and P finite, but never a presentation G=<A | B> with both A and B finite
He's saying it has one presentation where G is finite and a different presentation where R is finite.
That makes sense, but is it really true?
On further thought, no, that doesn't work.
Maybe some wild presentation with a sh*t ton of relations can yield that group with infinite relations
this doesnt look easy
It needs to be finitely generated before we start adding our shitton of relations.
Like, Schanuel's conjecture?
schanuel's lemma
Ah I was scared at first because I couldn't see the link x')
can i have an explicit example of a finitely generated infinitely related
Yeah, Z \wr Z for instance
It has presentation < a, b | [t^n a t^-n, t^m a t^-m] for all m,n in Z >
And by Baumslag, it is not finitely presentable
I see, ty
(actually, here's a link with that example: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/547149/259363, and it doesn't use Baumslag)
(but it uses HNN thingies and Britton lemma, both I never heard about before xD)
I don't quite understand the connection between this and the group-theoretic version... š¢
I know if we take R=Z in your linked MSE, then we're dealing with abelian groups, but is that sufficient in general?
(as I disclaimed earlier, I'm not much an algebraist sorry :D)
i thought that was on groups
I am with groups indeed
ok i think my brain is just being idiot rn schanuel's lemma isnt even on groups
Seems like it's for modules š
yeah
But it looks like it makes use of a free product with amalgamation, maybe there's a group-theoretic version?
(looking at the Proof section of Wikipedia)
Y does this hold
Anyways, thanks for the insight folks! I'll post a MSE question that won't get drowned under the flow of messages, and maybe someone will come up with a counter-example later (I suspect there is one, group theory is wild xD)
Actually I think my argument from before does work after all.
Suppose our group is <x1,x2,x3,... | finitely many relations>.
Since there are only finitely many relators, there is a maximal variable they even mention -- suppose that is xk.
Now can this group be finitely generated? Each generator would need to be given as a finite word over {x1,x2,x3,....} (and their inverses), so all in all there are finitely many xi's mentioned by those generators. Suppose the highest variable mentioned by any of the new generators is xm.
Now let p > max(k,m). How can xp be generated by the new generators?
Simply sticking the generator words together in any combination will not give something that mentions xp.
And reducing using the original relators cannot introduce an xp that wasn't there already.
Contradiction!
Should I care to learn about the Wreath Product at this point in time
Doing Galois theory
Just as long as you have it ready in time for Christmas decoration.
Well, maybe this is because of the infinitely many relations you have in the presentation with finitely many generators you considered?
Unless I'm missing something in the argument :\
Oh, but yes
Instead of asking "can it be finitely generated", just ask "can it be finitely presented", and you have a finite number of relations x')
Mmmh, I still need to write it down properly because I'm not 100% sure there's not shady stuff under the hood... But thank you very much for the insight, I'll see if I can make the argument work!
Not really -- I'm saying we don't even get to the point where we begin picking relations in the new presentation.
Oooh, I see what you mean.
Right. Changing my mind once again, then. :-p
Actually, no, I'm not changing my mind.
Hehe I think it's not an easy question afterall x')
Yeah what happens is you express the new finitely-many generators in terms of the old, but the old ones express as the new ones also
Even if we can add infinitely many relators in the new presentation, they can't introduce relations between elements that were different according to the original presentation.
Ooooh no no no okay I have it, your argument does work!
Thank you very much!
(I was trying to translate Schanuel's lemma in terms of groups only, it also looks like some fun actually, and seems like it's feasible if you replace direct sums with free products and if you make use of the free product with amalgamation to almost copy-paste the proof)
Because c is in N_r.
And N_r is an ideal and therefore closed under the operations that make <c> from c.
Wait @tribal moss, what this shows is the following:
If G=<S | R> with R finite and S infinite, then G is not finitely generated.
But how does this show that [finitely generated and finitely related] => finitely presented? (I feel like a stupid first year student now, because I have the impression I'm missing something very obvious here...)
My claim is that you can't have all three of these at the same time:
a) G is finitely generated
b) G is finitely related
c) G is not finitely presented
To prove this I show (c) and (b) => not (a).
Namely by (b) we have G=<S | R> for some finite R. If S were finite, then G would be finitely presented, which would contradict (c), therefore S is infinite. Now insert the argument from above, which concludes not-(a).
Ah, yes, thank you, my universe just re-stabilized itself!
We need to do something similar for (a) and (c) => not (b) too x')
No; by propositional tautology "C and B implies not-A" is logically equivalent to "A and B implies not-C".
Since either of these is equivalent to "not-A or not-B or not-C".
There are clever people on this Earth! Thank you sooo much, I'll sleep well tonight!
Hi everyone, I'm trying to show if that short exact sequence is split exact, the P is projective. Is it correct?
You need B to be a free A algebra in order to get that to work
(3) means that the characteristic polynomial has the same roots as the minimal polynomial?
just different multiplicities?
why b_1 would be a unit
yes, and that's exactly what the last sentence says
if a and a1 are associates, a1 = ua for some unit u. then, a = a1 b = a u b
since a is nonzero, ub = 1
Why a is a unit?
if the ideal generated by a equals the ideal generated by a1
then a1 belongs to the ideal generated by a
so it can be written as ua for some u
@languid walrus
Why a=aub implies ub=1..........
But there can be a nonzero element which is neither unit nor 0 divisor....@languid walrus
Tq
How does this property connect to like invarient factor form or something
so I get that (5) is a subset of Ann(M) but does that give anything?
Can you elaborate please?
Just because a map splits
B -> A
Wonāt imply A is projective
If B is a free module
Then itās true
Also I misspoke oops, you want a free module
But a free algebra is a free module so I guess it doesnāt matter
Did you mean P?
Uh, sure
Yeah
Anyway the point is, a direct summand of a free module is projective
But we can take an identity function right?
So you just want to surject by some big enough free module
And then splitting tells you P is projective
Oohhh i see
Damn
Conversely
If P is projective then I can take identity function so that i get gh=1 which means B is splitting
I messed up the order
Yeah thanks
if you have a group G and a subgroup H, if you apply an element of G which is not in H to an element of H will it always take you out of the subgroup H?
yeah because like if x in G\H and y in H, if xy=a was in H then x=ay^-1 would be in H
@eternal furnace
is every vector space over a division ring D both projective and injective?
I know that it's also a free D-module. If D had identity, then it would also be a projective module, and every module is projective if and only if every module is injective
but we don't have identity necessarily, so there must be another way of showing it
Doesn't "free" automatically make it projective?
Ah sorry, hadn't understood your ring was non-unitary.
yes
How can a division ring not have a unit?
I thought that was integral to even defining what "division ring" means.
im sorry
im dumb
lol
yes of course its already a ring with identity in which every element are invetible
my bad
Even if we define "division ring" by saying that for every a and nonzero b, the equations a=bx and a=yb always have solutions, that automatically makes R\{0} a group under multiplication.
yeah you are right i should probably get some sleep
lots of assignments
i have to meet the deadlines and i start to make stupid misteakes
Anyone have any ideas about this?
5M = 0 implies that M is a module over Z[i]/(5)
since 5 splits in Z[i] by 5 = (2+i)(2-i)
and use CRT
right?
or elementary divisors actually
Z[i]/(5) is not PID tho
yea
M is finitely generated meaning it's some quotient of a free module over Z[i]/(5)
yea
ok nvm I'm quite stuck still
I'm trying to find the elementary divisors
Structure Theorem isn't really helping me find what the divisors actually are
So I know M is finitely generated, say with n generators
so there is a homomorphism from R^n to the module
and then so is the kernel (5)????
not necessarily right?
ye not necessarily
Let G be a group.
Show : Aut(G) is cyclic => G abelian
Can someone help me ? (indication pls)
My prof already told us that G abelian <=> G/Z(G) cyclic
ok thank you
I don't really know how does it help me
I wrote what does it mean, but when I want to show that G/Z(G) is cyclic I have to choose a x in G such that G/Z(G) = <x.Z(G)>
I don't see where is the link
I know that there is tau : G -> G an isomorphism such that Aut(G) = <tau>
Question: is the only difference between a normal and separable extension that the min. poly of separable extensions have distinct roots?
Take the map from G to Inn(G) by sending g to the map congugation by g
No
A normal extension means that if a polynomial has any root in that extension, all of its roots exist there
A separable extension has that the minimal polynomial of every element has no repeated roots
Thereās no implication in either direction
But don't separable extensions also need min poly's to split completely
No
Any extension in char 0 is separable
So just find a non-Galois extension of Q
That gives a counterexample
any subgroup of cyclic is cyclic
Yes
Or an easier example
Take k = Q(t)
And L = Q(t^1/3)
This is not a normal extension basically because Q contains no primitive third root of unity
But itās separable because itās char 0
I realise that I use too much the definitions
I should use every properties I proved
I will come with time š


