#groups-rings-fields
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not what I'm getting at but very true
oh
it's additive because you literally just add the rationals in the group lol
you talked about multiplicative groups
for arbitrary groups, the notation is whatever
(no)
but like for common groups like the rationals
not about the multiplicative group of the rationals
we all know + and * mean different things
(is this trivial (lul))
implying multiplicative and additive is a group property
and also in a ring ofc they mean different things
forgive me for dropping a word or two I'm using shift+tab as a space bar
oof
Purely in the context of groups, it makes not much sense to talk about additive/multiplicative groups
I think.
i forgive you
It is only when you relate to rings that it means something
anyway chat what were we talking about
.
convince me the additive and multiplicative groups aren't isomorphic lul
of rationals?
i guess
(-1) has order 2 multiplicatively
actually
or hopefully something more general ๐
it is infinite order additively
i think its true in general
easy money
in a ring, multiplication may not be a group even
spamakin
see: the integers
field, field.
oh
ring of units
Ah
group*
or that
yeah it's even nicer for finite fields you can just use a cardinality argument
$|F^{\times}| = |F|-1$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
so there cannot be a bijection
amazing.
do for infinite rings now
indeed infinity-1=infinity so that proves nothing
Can we use the -1 argument ๐ค
not for infinite fields
what about infinite field of characteristic 2
you do however always have that (-1)(-1) = 1
COULD they be isomorphic?
ohhh NOW we're talking
I'm gonna need to think
we need all the elements to be self inverse multiplicatively
uhh
yoooo
I see the word monomorphism
๐ช ๐ถโโ๏ธ
yeah it's the only case it's not completely trivial
very good idea to think about char 2
yh now i formally see in my head why thats obvious lul
a + a = 0 needed, duh
for f(-1)
similarly epimorphism
they basically just reduced the case of any char 2 field to F_2 and then used my cardinality argument
whenever you see the monomorphism, the epimorphism sees you
gets funnier every time
What are some cool facts about epimorphisms of epimorphisms?
they aren't even closed in any way as a structure are they
not in a way I can think of for now
if theres no structure where are the morphisms ๐
trippy fact of the day, nothing in the definition of ideals says that ideals are subrings. The fact that ideals are subrings is just a consequence of the definitions >_>
im confused, what.
there are 2 instances of ideals that are a subring, no?
non-proper non-trivial ideal isn't a subring
An ideal I of a ring R is a subgroup of R such that for all x in I and a in R, ax is in I
that;s the definition of an ideal
but you can prove that it's a subring easily from that
rings don't have 1 moment
imagine thinking rings have to have 1
We only study r1ngs
and excluding the ring of even integers and such
the fcks a rng
u got me, ig u win
rng
it's a ring
It's also a ring
grrrrrrrrng
different definitions to me grrr
r1ng
If I ever write a set of notes, ima use r1ng everywhere in it.
lol
I'm sure that won't get annoying

no 0
All ideals are rongs
So Frac(R) is the ring of fractions...
What is Frac(Z/4Z)?
I'm missing how Frac( ) is defined ๐ค
Frac is usually the field of fractions
U can define a ring of fractions
Which generalises.the notion
But it won't be a field
Zero divisors can't be inverted
You localise at the set of nonzero divisors
In abstract algebra, the total quotient ring, or total ring of fractions, is a construction that generalizes the notion of the field of fractions of an integral domain to commutative rings R that may have zero divisors. The construction embeds R in a larger ring, giving every non-zero-divisor of R an inverse in the larger ring. If the homomorph...
ty
Np
The problem with trying to invert zero divisors is that, well, you can end up dividing by zero
Which is bad
Even in the field.of fractions 1/0 is never defined
So the best you can do is invert all non-zero divisors
I either didn't pay attention or never came across this when I did rings

which is a mystery
This works because this is a multiplicatively closed set
You usually see this in commalg first I think
Idt you'd see this much in an intro rings class
oh ok ๐ ty
you also have to augment the equivalence class if it's not an integral domain I think
a/b ~ c/d <=> (ad-bc)u = 0 for some unit u iirc
it has been over a year though so I will double check that
I was mistaken 
u is just in the multiplicative set
Yea this is for a general localisation
Note that if S has a pair of zero divisors, then this automatically implies that the localisation is just the zero ring, since this implies 0\in S, and so all.elements are equal. This is why we need the extra condition
If it has a zero divisor with the other zero divisor in R it's fine since they never interact
My linear algebra knowledge kinda stops shortly after eigenvectors/values. I vaguely know what diagonalization is, am ??? on Jordan-Normal form.
I want to have a basic understanding of what a Tensor is - can someone give me a basic outline/point me to a good defn?
I vaguely know some related ideas (generalised version of a matrix? levi-civita, kronecker-delta are rank 3, rank 2 examples?), maybe, but really, I don't know.
in the context of linear algebra, a ($k$-)tensor can mean one of two things. A $k$-tensor on $V$ could mean a multilinear function $f : V^k \to k$, multilinear meaning that $f(v_1,\ldots, x + y, \ldots, v_k) = f(v_1,\ldots, x, \ldots, v_k) + f(v_1,\ldots, y, \ldots, v_k)$ and $f(v_1,\ldots, a x, \ldots, v_k) = a f(v_1,\ldots, x, \ldots, v_k)$ for any $x,y,v_1,\ldots,v_n \in V$ and scalar $a$
Maiden-having Shamrock
so if you fix all but one arguments you get a linear function in the remaining argument
iโve got i, ii, iii, how would i do iv? (the second iii)
There's a related concept called a tensor product, which takes in two vector spaces and gives you a new space, and one might call elements of that tensor product tensors
yep!
also, any hints on this would be appreciated:
f(v1,...,vn) = determinant of matrix with columns v1,...,vn is an n-tensor of k^n
(k is a field here, could just be R or C)
(these are practice problems for a midterm)
dual space?
and yes thats what i was looking for more or less. I see terms like tensor product, tensor field floating around sometimes and I don't have any idea
will reply in a bit
the relationship between the tensor product of spaces and the multilinear maps I talked about above is that there's a bijection between linear map $V \otimes V \otimes \ldots \otimes V \to k$ and multilinear maps $V^n \to k$
Maiden-having Shamrock
where we have $n$ copies of V in the tensor product
Maiden-having Shamrock
so the dual space of the tensor product is the space of multilinear maps
also, we don't need to look at the same space every time. it's totally fine to talk about a multilinear map $V \times W \to k$, and similarly there's a tensor product $V \otimes W$
Maiden-having Shamrock
Thanks, this is kinda what I rlly needed 
np!
the elements of $V \otimes W$ are of the form $v \otimes w$ for $v \in V$ and $w \in W$, and if $a_1,\ldots,a_n$ is a basis for $V$ and $b_1,\ldots,b_m$ is a basis for $W$ then $V \otimes W$ has basis ${a_i \otimes b_j : 1 \leq i \leq n, 1 \leq j \leq m}$
Maiden-having Shamrock
so $V \oplus W$ is like a vector space where we take the disjoint union of the bases for $V$ and $W$, but $V \otimes W$ is a vector space where we take the cartesian product
is that circled cross the tensor product both times
Maiden-having Shamrock
hi im just posting here to ask about if anyone has any interest in or info about the 8-dimensional algebra over the reals which is (roughly speaking) the "superset" of the complex numbers (i^2 = -1), split-complex (aka hyperbolic) numbers (j^2 = 1) and dual numbers (k^2 = 0), aka the "superset" of all three 2-dimensional real algebras (each of which i individually find interesting); i also ask this because these 8D numbers, despite having zero-divisors, have a product which is commutative (not just associative) (quaternions for example are anticommutative not commutative) and because i cant seem to find any reading material about this specific 8 dimensional algebra, i believe these may be called tessarines?
why tf was I not taught this about tensors
yes, one time it means the tensor product of elements and one time it means the tensor product of spaces
np!
the tricky thing is that differential geometers (and physicists) use tensor to mean tensor field. A tensor field is a smooth function which gives you a tensor on the tangent space at each point
you could start a thread
how do i do that?
different thing?
Help
ty
ty yea
Scorpio Question
usually it comes up in a differential topology/geometry course
sometimes it's introduced earlier
I mean I've been taught about the tensor product
but I've never seen it that plainly and clearly
Ah okay
Well thank you and you're welcome :)
It's tricky because two different fields (geometry/algebra) use the tensor product to mean related but different things
Like, there's a tensor product of modules and then there's tensor fields on manifolds and they're sort of the same thing but there's a lot of ambient complexity
@latent anvil I suppose you know well about the wedge product as well. It seems related in some ways to the tensor product, though I can't get the intuition really, what are we modding out by exactly when we define $V \wedge V = (V \otimes V)/I$ where $I = v \otimes v \forall v$ ?
Entelechy
Oh and the last connection between multilinear maps and tensor products is that $(V_1 \otimes \ldots \otimes V_n)^* \cong V_1^* \otimes \ldots \otimes V_n^*$, so you can take the tensor product of elements of dual spaces to get a multilinear map
(this isomorphism is only for finite dim spaces Vi)
oh so that's what the wedge product is 
Maiden-having Shamrock
Yeah so I like to think of it differently than this
I think I knew this one at least
Remember my definition of tensors as multilinear maps?
mhm
In that context an alternating tensor is an multilinear map $\omega$ such that if you swap any two arguments, you swap the sign of the result
Maiden-having Shamrock
Then this implies ฯ(v, v,...) = 0 because swapping v and v doesn't change the input, and so ฯ(v, v,...,) = -ฯ(v, v,...)
But in characteristic 2, x = -x doesn't imply x = 0 so we define it like you did
But really the intuition comes from multilinear maps where swapping two arguments swaps the sign
Does that make sense?
And the reason we care about these is for differential forms
oh so really v tensor v = 0 cause that's alternating
Right
why char 2 though ?
Well the point is that the two conditions are equivalent over any other characteristic
That v /\ w = - (w /\ v) and that v /\ v = 0
Yeah?
yea
But the first definition doesn't tell you anything in char 0
Er
Sorry, the first definition says v ^ w = w ^ v
Because - 1 = 1
So if you mod out by the I generated by that relation you'd get the symmetric power
Not the exterior one
and how do you get the exterior one ?
You use the second relation
v ^ v = 0
So in char โ 2 your thing I is generated by v (ร) w + w (ร) v, but in char 2 you need to use the thing generated by v (ร) v
Does that make sense?
!
well yea that gives you the symmetric power
right
that's if you quotient by S(V)
If you flip the sign you get the alternating power
So v ร v' = - v' ร v
Sorry I'm worried I've been confusing, all I'm trying to say is that we want the wedge product to satisfy the relation v ^ w = - w ^ v but this is bad in char 2 and so we replace it with v ^ v = 0 (and in all other characteristics the two identities are equivalent)
when you say char 2, you mean char(V) = 2 ?
No, I mean char k = 2 where V is a vector space/module over the field k
This implies v + v = 0 for all v in V
mhm I see
well all of this is confusing by default but you make it so much clearer aha
don't elements of the form $v\otimes w$ just generate the space? I think in general an element is not gonna be expressible as an elementary tensor, but as a linear combination of elementary tensors
ShiN
You're right lmao sorry
just a small point, no bother
Are there any other examples that are Integral domains that is not a field that is not Z
For any field F, the ring of polynomials F[X] is an integral.domain
That's one family of examples
F[X] is never a field, since X is not invertible
thank you
0 can mean the 0 ring :P
I guess it's annoying if it's unclear within a text which conventions the author is using though
is 2Z a field? and is 2Z and integral domain?
it's not a field, you can check it easily
and it's an integral domain because it's commutative and it has no zero divisor
though it doesn't contain the multiplicative identity so be careful with your definition of integral domain
thank you
is there an example of a noncommutative ring with characteristic 4? or does that not exist? I was trying to use matrices but no luck
2x2 matrices with entries in Z/4Z?
should work yea
I am stuck on showing closure under subtraction
so if x, y are in J(R)
then 1 + xr is in R^x and 1 + yr is in R^x for all r in R
I want to show that 1 + (x - y)r is in R^x for all r in R
1 + xr is in R^x but then that tells me nothing about -yr
and that's where I got stuck
I mean my only intuition is why 0 is in J(R)
otherwise it's not even clear why this should be an ideal
Why subtraction? Have you shown closure under addition already?
you only need to show subtraction
for subgroup
idk we can consider x + y if you want
still equally unintuitive for me
We know that 1+yr is a unit. Therefore we can construct q = r/(1+yr). Now 1+xq = (1+yr+xr)/(1+yr) is also a unit by assumption; multiply that by the known unit 1+yr and you still get a unit.
Itโs true for arbitrary y, and when x is a square. Maybe you can show that everything is a square?
No this is dumb
Oh wait maybe itโs possible, idk
problem has me pressed
yeah idk this one is either annoying or there is nice trick
xy=xy(yxyx)=x(yyx)yx=
ok
thats it
last two steps prove commutative
@chilly ocean here's how I'd do it:
- show that each element is its own inverse
- show that a group where each element is its own inverse must be commutative.
ok so like i got that x^2 = e for any x
Oh wait
it isnt a group
Pinged wrong person
so like each element is necessarily its own inverse
the only thing is i cant figure out that its closed
Oh wait it ain't a group
Thereโs no identity
continuing off this
=xxyx=yx
then what do you do lol
ig step by step
How do any of these equalities hold lol
then you use associativity twice
how do we know xy = xy(yx)^2?
Apply the hypothesis
You know ab^2 = a
bc this isnt acc a group
For any a and b
yeah its closed associative operation
a = xy, b = yx
so if y,x in G so its yx
there is a better way i think
that doesnโt require you to think
so if you let a = xy, b = yx
Yeah then xy(yx)^2 = xy
then xy(yx)^2 = xy
i see
yeah i was just like
not sure about closure
it didnt seem clear
Lmfao
nice
binary operations are closed
like, does x, y in G imply that xy in G
oh
yeah i see
by definition whoops
ok so
wait, how come x(yyx)yx = xxyx?
we know that y^2x = x, right?
ah sorry nvm
x^2y = y means y^2x = x
ye
these are both true
gotcha
an example of this structure thats natural idk
im not sure there is
or maybe but it is probably convoluted
any
hey i need some help
Hausdorff
how would you do this
Take a chain of R-submodules of M
They are also F vector spaces
So is finite chain
Got a question about notation.. I'm on the group theory section of Artin's Algebra book (ch. 2), and he introduces a squiggly arrow when talking about compositions. I've never seen that arrow before. Is there a standard definition for the squiggly arrow, or is it just a notation Artin uses for showing a law of composition, and nothing more than that?
Can you send a photo?
It's artins funny notation for $\mapsto$
Buncho Spheres
my instructor gave a proof but i don't understand it, so let me send that
Hausdorff
Does anyone have any good books on Galois theory?
i think you can just pull back N_k via the quotient map M -> M/M_1
Hausdorff
yeah
The later facts follow by the third isomorphism theorem
agreed
what all do i need to check to know that this construction actually works?
Nothing really
This all follows from the third isomorphism theorem
And the fourth isomorphism theorem or the correspondence theorem or the lattice isomorphism theorem blah blah blah it has a ton of names
But the one that relates submodules of M/N to submodules of M containing N
how come i never heard of G-modules before?
a module is a ring action on an abelian group.. so seems natural to think about group actions on a abelian group too
i did see group actions on different stuffs
but never heard them called G-modules
i did hear of group rings tho
why is G-Mod an abelian category?
what category of modules over a ring is G-Mod subcategory of?
satisfies the definitions
G-modules sorta useful depending what you looking at
duh
they come up in group cohomology
u asked?
but freyd mitchell embedding
seems unintuitive that G-mod is some subcategory of R-mod for some ring R
is that what freyd mitchell embedding states?
because maybe you just look at endomorphism ring of G
and then it corresponds to the R
maybe
i feel like G-modules are cool
tell us more
I dont know much besides that they generalize group actions on groups
how is it a generalization tho
isnt a a G-module literally just a group action on an abelian group
yeah but i mean as a category
wym as a category
its a category and for any fixed group its a way to talk about how other groups interact with it
i feel like thats cool
er
G modules are โค[G] modules
its just a functor category?
you can do that for group actions on any other category
yeah
the definition group homology is just tensor by Z[G] iirc and look at homology
how to learn homology and cohomology stuff without already knowing it?
you might be able to pick up from wikipedia lol?

okay, cool! thanks
Hausdorff
what are all the simple modules
You quotient by a maximal ideal
Hausdorff
Maximal ideals in F[x] are the ideals generated by an irreducible polynomial
Hausdorff
on top of that we have x^2 + m for all m > 0, right?
wait this way we would also have x^4 + m for all m > 0
there is no way to write them all down
F
am i missing something lol
wikipedia page for chain complexes only defines them for abelian categories. Isnt this done also over more general stuff like semi-abelian categories or homological categories?
i care thats why im asking.
two questions
are there kernels and cokernels
there are
then why care
everything should work out from that
huh?
why not care?
this is semi abelian
time i wont get back from my life
i cant think of any examples
Grp
and it doesnt say kernels and cokernels exist
strong examples
oh yeah maybe not idk
in Grp exist tho
yeah but look at kernels and cokernels of non abelian groups
well snake lemma holds or at least some version of it
cokernels arent always contained
bruh this isnt good use of my time qq
noone is forcing you to be here
idk who actually cares or studies the topics on nlab like that
is just logician stuff?
why would anyone care about anything at all?
good question
i dont know why people would care about abstruse topics on nlab all the time besides curiosity
and im starting to think curiosity is becoming a weaker reason as i get older
well i do have a good reason
let me in
im on a undergrad research program and this is the topic they want me to work on lol
any applications to cool math?
like whats the upshot
of research program
money
thats all the motivation i need baby
im interested too now

nah but frlt
nine million percent of topics on nlab idk why i should care
i try and read articles and link follow
and then i feel like i wasted time
other articles are rly good tho
what do you care about
not sure for sure
i like topics in topology though
are you a pro in using homology to study topological spaces?
hell no
i am noob
please someone talk about homology im begging you
this world doesnt have enough people talking about homology
non-discrete spaces 
Clerk talks about homology half the time 
Yes
As long as you have a 0 object you can define a chain complex
pointed categories
Is it me or is 2.5.8 and 2.5.10 just wrong
If L was algebraically closed I wouldn't disagree
ohhhh wait nvm about 2.5.10 embeddings are defined in C
But 2.5.8?
The splitting field of z^5 - 2 is a finite extension, but surely what they wrote is untrue
Its in a book so it must be true
Is splitting field generated by single element?
Sure?
you can actually even show that K(a,b) = K(a+kb) for most choices of k \in K
no, 5th root of 2 and a 5th root of unity
huh?
Let a = 2^{1/5}, b = e^{i2pi/5}
K(a, b) = K(a+b)
?
If the base field is perfect, the theorem tells you that you can find a single element generating the whole splitting field
That probably works, ya
Here the base field is a finite extension of the rationnals so it works
whats this theorem called
Probably some explicit variation of the primitive element theorem
No idea
Just take minimal polynomials of a,b and then try to be clever
z^5-2
1+z+z^2+z^3+z^4
what clever stuff can I do to make this into 1 min polynomial that contains a and b ๐ค
You just need to show one of a,b lie in K(a+kb)
Its prolly a better idea to do it more abstractly
The actual construction computation will look bad
I'm curious what the actual polynomial will end up looking like
You don't need to assume an identity element: The equation xยฒy=y=yxยฒ for all y tells you exactly that xยฒ is an identity element. This element can't depend on a choice of x because xยฒ = xยฒyยฒ = yยฒ. So we do have an identity element, and then we can say that every element has an inverse, so G is indeed a group even if it's not explicitly stated to be.
Hausdorff
How should I prove this?
How can we deduce that $[\prod B/\mathfrak{B}_i^{e_i} : A/ \mathfrak{p}] = \sum [B/\mathfrak{B}_i^{e_i} : A/\mathfrak{p}]$
texit isnt working so what im basically asking is that how we can turn the dimension of a product into a sum of the dimensions of the factors
If I give an algebraic complex number in cartesian form is there an algorithm to find its minimal polynomial?
Or say I tell you it is a specific linear combination of the root of this polynomial and that polynomial
in can get very complicated very fast
how will you give me the algebraic number? 
I just want to see a simple example ๐
say cube root of 2
and a cube root of unity
sum them
there are ways to find one polynomial with that as a root
I was shown sometime ago the method has to do with tensor product?
but irred will be hard
@rustic crown is there?
K(a, b) = K(alpha)
where I can see this
and im curious what are the other roots of the minimal polynomial of alpha would look like
i don't know ๐
I understand the proof of the primitive element theorem, mostly
you can start by $x^3-2 = 0$ then substitute $x \mapsto x-\omega$ then try to eliminate $\omega$ by squaring and blah blah
I had my hopes high๐
not sure if this is correct tho, I don't have energy to check 
try doing something similar
thanks i will look/try
I think I found it
What I was referring to
except I don't know that tensor stuff lol, so was hoping for an explicit construction with an example
the context - so I was initially trying to show if alpha and beta are algebraic, alpha+beta is also by constructing an explicit polynomial (and not realising that was a bad idea)
looks interesting
Well how do I put this. I find this interesting because
K(a) isn't normal. Only adjoins 1 root
K(a, b) is normal
K(a+kb) is normal for 'most' k (finitely many aren't)
a being cube root of 2
b being 3rd root of unity
Ah, the minimal polynomial of a+kb needs to be degree 6 in this case, didnt realise earlier
(no wonder its not easy to 'guess')
I get the feeling its roots form a basis
In fact you have $\alpha , \beta$ algebraic over $K\subseteq L \iff \alpha + \beta$ and $ \alpha \beta$ are algebraic over $K$. It's an equivalence, can you not use vieta's formula ?
Entelechy
well if S is the sum and P is the product, alpha and beta are roots of X^2 - SX + P no ?
but that's the other implication anyways
a, b algebraic over K does not mean (x-a)(x-b) is a polynomial living in K[x]
it means there exists polynomials in K[x] which have a and b as roots?
well it just says that if a, b are algebraic over K then their product and sum are algebraic over K too, and the other way around
Yes, but how is this quadratic and vieta relevant?
(x - a)(x - b) = xx - (a+b)x + ab
that's for the converse implication so that's irrelevant, sorry
I dont think its relevant for either implication?
if you have a+b and ab that are roots of a polynomial in K then X^2 - SX + P has a and b as roots
If you have already proven the forward implication, then you can use what you said
is that what you mean
the => is a lot longer
im still not sure how this
a^2 + b^2 = (a+b)^2 - 2ab
I agree
But x^2 - Sx + P doesn't live in K[x]
why not ?
S = a+b
P = ab
Did I read you right?
If yes, then you only know these 2 are algebraic
Not that they are members of K
hmmm
then I don't really know about the converse
are you still trying to prove the => implication ?
No no
I was referring to what someone else said before for this particular question (the question is done already)
The process of constructing polynomials with roots a+b and ab (v. non-trivial, which is why the proof should be approached another way)
yea I assumed a and b were in the field but they're in the extension
someone post first iso im on mobile
,tex \begin{tikzcd}
G \ar[r, "\varphi"]\ar[d, "\pi"{left}] & H \
G/\ker(\varphi) \ar[ur, dashed, "\tilde{\varphi}"{below}]
\end{tikzcd}
I always keep this in my clipboard
yes
we "learned" kernels today in lecture
stupid ignorant guess from the picture but is this saying that there's a bijective map from G/ker(phi) to H
homomorphism f : G -> H
G / ker f is isomorphic to im f
:O
ShiN
wait
ShiN
that still doesn't explain it, since I could just omit 2 variables and do the same type of thing, just putting in I_n twice
so what's wrong here??
I'm trying to find a polynomial identity of degree <2n
Yea basically. Shouldn't this be the same as assigning the identity to the last variable?
Hmm ok wait yea, it's not gonna be exactly the same polynomial
Right
Yes I understand now that's my mistake
Yea if you remove one of the variables but keep the signs the same I bet it'll vanish
Or
Just not be an identity
Either way it's not gonna be a counterexample
Ok, time to try and prove there aren't any of lower degree then
Can I have a hint
I'm thinking Smth with the matrix standard basis
Alright i'll try playing around w/ the 2x2 case to build up intuition
Then do the general case
Thanks!
Oh and if u just remove the last variable in retrospect it obviously vanishes identically cuz all the permutations where x_2n would be moved around cancel with themselves
I think I have the sketch but I'm a bit lazy to write it out, but the idea is that when k<2n and the polynomial is multilinear, then if it's nonzero, you can write it as a sum over Sk. Choose some permutation where the sum doesn't vanish, I think you can show (Maybe by induction or directly) that there is a combination of basis vectors (That is 1 in one place and 0 in the rest) such that they will give a nonzero basis vector for the permutation AND that is the only occurance of that basis vector with that assignment in the polynomial.
When you get to 2n this breaks because you don't have enough indices. I think that's the big idea, I might write down a formal proof later, seems a bit tedious
I'll try and write it down better later. Btw a very basic result in multilinearisation says that this implies there aren't ANY polynomial identities of degree less than 2n that aren't 0
Since a polynomial identity implies a multilinear identity of lesser or equal degree
No problem, have fun!
any ideas on this? i thought that it followed from the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups, but my professor said that was "almost correct" but not exactly accurate - i've spent a while and am not really sure as to where to go. i know that if G = <a> and |a| = n, then all solutions will have the form a^(kn/d) for k between 0 and d-1, but i don't really know how to go about formalizing that argument.
I think it's as easy as taking, when 2k <2n (Assuming n>2 here cuz I did that case already:
E11 E12 E22 E23 ... E_(k-1)k E_k1
And when 2k+1<2n
E11 E12 E22 E23 ... E(k-1)(k-1) E(k-1)k Ek1
Up.to taking suitable permutation
And when u get to 2n this fails because you have 2 ways to get Ekk (it's not this exact setup cuz you run out of indices) whereas here you only have 1 way (namely Ek1 moves to the start)
That wasn't so hard (Given this is correct)
Can't you write those d solutions explicitly and show anything else cannot be a solution?
ie. consider powers mod (n/d). Only powers === 0 mod (n/d) would solve the equation
so like, any power that is a multiple of n/d
Explicitly in terms of a pre-chosen generator a that is (G is cyclic, so you can do this)
Well this might not work out, but is how I would approach at least.
You can classify the order of an arbitrary element g^k
In terms of the order of g, and k
It turns into a statement about some divisibility stuff
I think that this should probably completely finish it
ok so
if g^k = e
then |g| divides k
lemme try and play around with that a bit
nvm im stuck
If |g| and k are coprime, whatโs the order of g^k?
yeah
k is a divisor of |g| though
oh?
This is true
Like your list of elements
yea, itd be smth like <g^n/d>
So like each of these will go to the identity after being raised to the d-th power
right yeah
So now you need to show that if you looked at
g^m for m not one of those
That like
|g^m| doesnโt divide d
Because if (g^m)^d = e
Then |g^m| divides d
Or actually
It might be easier to show that if (g^m)^d = e that it is of that form maybe
Cuz you get |g^m| divides d
yeah that makes sense
And then you know n/gcd(m,n) divides d
this seems like restating the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups in a way tho
bc we're essentially saying <a^n/d> has order d
Whatโs your fundamental theorem?
ok so given a cyclic group G = <a>
with |a| = n
then for each divisor n
the only subgroup of order d is <a^n/d>
Itโs the generator
my professor said it
misread the thm
Oh wtf
isnt exactly the same tho
Right
(a^(kn/d))^d = (a^n)^d = e
and the order of that subgroup is d, so it has d elements
maybe i have to show that there are no other solutions?
Yes thatโs the other part
But like
I think you can induct now probably
Like you canโt have another element of order d
Because if h was some element of order d not in that subgroup
Look at <h>
Woah contradiction
So such a thing would be of order < d
Say itโs order k (note that k divides d necessarily)
But inside of <a^n/d> you can just produce k things of order dividing k already
So if there was a thing of order k outside <a^n/d>
You have more than k things of order dividing k, and then you contradict the inductive hypothesis
Does that sketch make sense?
does the element necessarily have order d, or does it order divide d?
Why 6?
sorry i meant d ๐
Well
There is no element
But you do cases
If it were order d, then it has order d
Else itโs an h such that h^d = e
But |h| < d
From the first condition you have that |h| divides d, thatโs the number I called k
mm
Does that make sense?
so, this means within that subgroup, you can get k elements whose order divides k?
Yeah
But you already did this!
This is a cyclic group of order n/d
And k divides n/d
is the cyclic's group order k/d? or is it d
And you showed earlier that in a cyclic group of order m, if k divides m, thereโs at least k things of order dividing that
Oh whoops
d
Yeah youโre right haha
there are at least k elements whose order divides m?
Itโs this
Replace n with d
And the d there with k
Weโre applying this to <a^n/d>
Which is the cyclic group of order d
It has k elements of order dividing k is what we show
But then h is another element of order dividing k not in that subgroup
But this is a contradiction by induction
We already know we only have k things of order dividing k because k < d
wait we need to use induction here?
np
Okay easier idea lol
Suppose h is not in <a^n/d> but has order dividing d
Then let k = |h|, it divides d
right yea
Okay, now the element (a^n/d)^(d/k) = a^n/k generates the only subgroup of order k
The reason I wrote it that funny way is
this proves a^n/k is in <a^n/d>
bc d/k is an integer?
Yup
But then we know <a^n/k> is a subset of <a^n/d>, so that h is also not in <a^n/k>
But now <h> is a different subgroup of order k
Contradiction
<h> is a different subgroup of order k?
Right
Because h has order k
And h isnโt in <a^n/k>
So thereโs no way it generates the same subgroup
and how is that a contradiction?
It contradicts the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups
yea ok that makes sense
i just emailed my professor to ask why we couldn't use the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups
I think their point is just that one direction is easy, showing that thereโs >= d elements
But showing <= like we did here is harder
It isnโt immediate just from the statement of the theorem
ty for your explanation! also, if you have time, any help on this? i know that phi(x) = ax is definitely a automorphism, but how do you prove it's the only one?
(btw this is a practice midterm exam)
You usually proceed constructively for these kinda things
In general, to construct a homomorphism, it is smart to look at where generators must map to
Yeah
If you can't find a set of generators, a similar idea can still be used.
generators have to map to generators
obviously ax works, because a(x+x) = ax + ax = a(x) + a(x)
but how would you show it's the only possibility
mhm
You should think about it more
Meanwhile I am suspicious the answer for (R, +) is non-trivial
Itโs really easy to show that at least on Z, that you have phi(x) = ax for some rational number a
we know that phi(x+y) must be equal to phi(x) + phi(y)
I think you literally use analysis lol
And that Q is dense in R
showing it's onto and one-to-one is easy enough
i think i'm missing the part where you show it's necessarily a linear map
unless you don't have to do that
wait lol so like
You mean that itโs Q-linear
you can just assume it's a linear map?
Yeah itโs clearly Z-linear
any group homomorphism is a linear map?
But you have to be a bit more clever to get it for other numbers
No, I thought by linear you meant Z-linear
Which is just additive
like when my professor went through it, he just showed a few examples
but didnt prove it
You should think about it more
I mean
What is a gonna be?
Like
For what number x is phi(x) = a
Assuming that this is bijective thereโs a unique answer
Can you guys help me with this?
Just use the first isomorphism theorem
yea i'll think about it a bit more
Anyway
My advice is just to figure out
1: what that x is
2: why phi(x/2) = a/2
Once you do that, the rest of it will fall out into place quite easily
does this not follow from one of the isomorphism thms?
is it the correspondence theorem?
.
the correspondence thm is equivalent to the 3rd iso I think
But chm's hint is likely better
The correspondence likeโฆ
It goes hand in hand with it
That like gives the relations of the subgroups and you kinda need to know it in order to even state the third isomorphism theorem
Like to say (G/N)/(H/N) you need to know like what H/N is and that things appear in that form
you kinda I read this as something else 
so i just use the first iso for this
Yeah
okkk tyty
Protip
what is it
If youโre ever asked to show that G/N is isomorphic to anything
You probably want to use the first isomorphism theorem
1/2 = 0.5 ๐
i love you Shuri

hey could someone help me out here
That doesnโt really seem right to me
Those are in bijection with the maximal ideals that ring via the nullstellensatz, but the maximal ideals shouldnโt be simple
Oh simple modules
Uhhhhโฆ

Can someone help me solve this problem please?
Iโm not sure how to even get started
how do i get started with this proof?
oi wtf
.
Are u guys at the same uni/college lul
Readup par lul
Suffering alone is pain, but there is much to be enjoyed in suffering together 
i know i have to use the first iso theorem but idk how to start it
LOL
To show an isomorphism, you need to construct a map
and show it is isomorphic
๐
at least, this is the usual way.
Huge coincidence lol
Umm
The map to choose... the 1st isomorphism theorem tells you which
On the other hand, I think you can show N x N~ is the kernel of a homomorphism G x G~ -> RHS ? Might be saying this wrongly
hmmm ok
Wait so I need to use first iso
thats the plan
You need to show N x N~ is the kernel
Why
for some smartly chosen homomorphism
uh
So we have this thing
And G/ker(phi) is isomorphic to im(phi)
So you can try to construct a surjective homomorphism phi from G to H instead
where ker(phi) is what you want it to be
What would G and H in this case be
There is only one relevant quotient to consider, really
on the left hand side
===
So you want
endomorphism f : G x G' -> (G/N) x (G'/N')
ker f = N x N'
Write out what the elements of (G/N) x (G'/N') look like.
Does anyone have any general tips on constructing field extensions with a given Galois group?
any groups
this is generally unsolved I think
I have the following question. Let a be in C, and a- be its conjugate. In general what can I say about the degree [Q(a,a-):Q(a)]? If a is real, it is clearly 1, but it is not true for all c. My naive guess is that is degree is always either 1 or 2 (since if we look at the quadratic formula if a is a root of a quadratic, then a- is also another root), but does anyone know of a good way to see this or a counterexample
yes
there's some theorem
which says what you wanted
why do you think its either 1 or 2
I don't see where you get that from your guess
idk name so rip
But then again, I don't think you need to rely on it
I have the feeling you can show what you want explicitly but not totally sure atm
nah nvm, I think you need to state that theorem
Try googling 'roots come in conjugate pairs'



