#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 649 of 407
sorry i dont understand what the confusion is then
it's gonna take a while for me to adjust to this stuff, when you're used to doing HS algebra
đ
a subgroup needs to be closed under multiplication and inverses
What does xa^-1 = a^-1x
why not other operations
"multiplication" means the group operation
oh
you have coordinate spaces like R^3 right? like where you plot 3D points. Is it an algebraic structure?
pink: closed under the group operation
mhm
blue: closed under inverses
vector space
R is a field but idk about R^n
@shrewd junco yes for one it's a vector space
but it doesn't have addition and scalar multiplication
if you just mean the set R^3 with no operations
yes
That's weird
in algebra, we dont care about the sets, just structures on them
right like what algebraic operations are defined on them
the sets we use are just convenient ways to label elements in a structure
if you have no operations you have no structure
ah okay
thanks for the help @scarlet estuary @keen sparrow
(this is why isomorphism means two structures are "the same")
so a vector field is a mapping from a set to a vector field right?
to a vector space
It's also important to consider maps from and to our algebraic structure
formally we say to a tangent bundle
right space
which in practice means that the base fields need to "agree"
like we wouldnt call a map from Z/5Z into R^3 a vector field usually
we'd say "a vector-valued function"
but "vector field" is a bit more restricted
I see
that said, such examples dont really come up naturally anyway
so thats more semantics than anything
(i say "agree" but that doesnt necessarily mean "the same", just like... compatible)
(like people would be fine if you mix and match R and C)
(they play well together)
"vector field" is a term that mostly comes up in applications or physics so like
just imagine "does this assignment of vectors to each point in a space seem to carry some intuition"
if so, calling it a vector field is probably fine
but if youre taking a subset of R^2 and your output vectors are from the set of continuous functions on [0, 1]
calling that map a vector field is a stretch
you cant really imagine drawing tangent arrows or whatever, after all
again though those dont really come up naturally anyway
so the point is kinda moot
right yeah
what exactly is it? I've seen that a lot
"tangent bundle"
it's from differential geometry right?
yes
the definition isnt too bad though
as long as you blackbox what a manifold is
(a tangent space at a point is a vector space holding all the vectors tangent to that point when embedded in euclidean space)
what's that square union symbol?
disjoint union
basically we need to "distinguish" tangent vectors from different tangent spaces (ie associaited to different points)
we do this by making them actually ordered pairs
where the first entry in the pair is the point in question
im too tired get this rn im just gonna go eat ice cream and come back to this
say $G = G_1 \times G_2$ and $H \leq G$. Is it true that $ H = H \cap G_1 \times H \cap G_2$
Iteribus
H \meet G1 not defined
is there any non trivial group homomorphism form S3 to (Q,+)?
how to do this problem? it's been a few years since ive taken a course in linear algebra... in a.) if phi invertible then Im(I) = Im(phi^0) = V = Im(phi), but if phi not invertible i don't know how to proceed rigorously (i have some example operators in my head that satisfy both this and part b, like the derivative operator...)
also, if this should instead be in the linear algebra tab, let me know
notice that as $n$ varies, $\operatorname{im} \phi^n$ gives you a decreasing sequence of subspaces of $V$.
det
What does finite dimensionality of V tell you?
its not necessarily strictly decreasing though, right?
like it could stablizie before zero
yep! the thing is it has to stabilize!!!
but in either case it stablilizes, yes?
then in part b we show it for the two cases?
case 1 phi^{m-1} = 0, case 2 stabilize before zero?
there's no need to take any cases.
ok
when it stabilizes, we get an m such that im phi^{m-1} = im phi^{m} = im phi^{m+1} = ...
that's what part (a) asks for
for part (b) try taking a vector in the intersection, and argue if it has to be 0 or not.
(lemme know if you want me to say a little more)
thanks - im trying to put it together myself right now
i am confused in this question , please give me a hint
Try looking at b = -a to get rid of all but one option
and prove the correct option
yeah @rustic crown , theres something im missing here. letting v in intersection we get that v = phi^{m}(x) for some x in V... but v being in ker(phi^m) gives us that 0 = phi^{m}(v) = phi^{2m}(x) and im not seeing something (or going about this entirely wrong)
oh, you're almost there. notice that if images stabilize, then so do the kernels because their dimensions are just dim V - dim images.
ker phi^m = ker phi^{m+1} ....
ahhh. finite dim vector space so pleasant
thankyou that was easy
thanks much det

i knew i was missing something semi obvious đ
I'm using $H = (H \cap G_1) \times (H \cap G_2)$ and since both $H \cap G_1$ and $H \cap G_2$ have to be normal they could be either 1 or $S_4$ or $A_4$ or $V_4$ so considering the order of the product they cannot be the last two?
Iteribus
I don't think that first equation is true
H could be the diagonal
all elements of the form (g,g)
hmm
still they have to be normal
the intersections normal to H
and because they are contained in H $(H \cap G_1)(H \cap G_2) \leq H$
Iteribus
but the intersection of the intersections is {1}
so the order argument still works?
right but there should be some order 3 elements I think
They could be somewhere other than the axes
Is this correct for the two binary operations defined?
Here this holds for all x,y in R for the binary operations
is this just... a fact? or is there some way to arrive at it? or rather is it just by the nature of e?
so if I take $(H \cap G_1) = V_4$ and the other to be {1}, all order 4 elements are of the form (g, g'), g, g' order 4, since if g is not order 4 it has to be order 2, but then (g,g')^2 = (1, g'^2) so $H \cap G_2$ is nonempty
then suppose g = (abcd) = (ad)(ac)(ab). multiply (g,g') by (ab)(cd) $\in H \cap G_1$ we get ((ac), g') of order 4 which is again a contradiction
$e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x)$ is a fact that you can prove in several ways! Do you know any calculus?
Nick
and the fact I stated is a special case of that with x = 1
can u gimme a hint without giving it away
well do you know any calculus
that's question 1
if you do, taylor expand both sides and see what happens
yeah i can do that ~~after going back through my analysis notes
~~
actually i might remember it off the top of my head but i dont have pen and paper on me
will try later, merci for tip
Iteribus
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
there's also a nice geometric interpretation that you can see here @pastel cliff . The idea is that the derivative of e^(ix) is ie^(ix), which is perpendicular to e^(ix), and so you can geometrically argue that e^(it) parametrizes a circle, from which the result follows, since points on the complex unit circle are in the form cos(t) + isin(t
Euler's formula about e to the i pi, explained with velocities to positions.
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Not familiar with the calculus referenced in this video? Try takin...
could someone just check that I showed associativity for the two binary operations. I believe I got it right, just unsure since I havent solved many of these problems.
ye it looks fine
ok thanks
Quickly skimming this looks correct to me
god i need to start using LaTeX again
based 3b1b
I do all my homework in latex, so its somewhat more inspiring to read through before exams
so do i but not while im self studying
which i should
also is there usually a visual aspect to complex numbers? ive never formally worked with them but the section in my book that covers complexes has more pictures than expected
yes
idek if this is the right channel but im going thru my algebra book so 
dare i ask... why
probably a loaded question but anything you can elaborate would be cool
complex numbers are often represented with a 2D plane, where one of the axis is the real numbers and one is the imaginary numbres
so you'll often think of 1 + 2i as being the point that's one unit right and 2 units up in a 2D plane
complex plane
and if you add infinities you get a sphere
the top is infinity
In mathematics, the Riemann sphere, named after Bernhard Riemann, is a model of the extended complex plane, the complex plane plus only one point at infinity. This extended plane represents the extended complex numbers, that is, the complex numbers plus a value â for infinity. With the Riemann model, the point "â" is near to very large numbers, ...
would someone have some intuition on why a short exact sequence $$1\to K\to G \to H\to 1$$ that left splits must right split?
đittle âarwhal â
like i see that there being a left split is a strong condition on K, and that varying K also has an impact on H but i still dont quite see the full conclusion
A left splitting is like a projection from G to K, in the sense that if there is a left splitting then G becomes isomorphic to K x H with the first map looking like the inclusion of K as K x 1, and the second map looking like the projection onto H. Then the right splitting is given by inclusion of H as 1 x H
hmm i see
but in the case where H is a subgroup of G
does a left split force normality on H then
(i guess K would have to be a subgroup too for that)
I haven't worked much with sequences of non abelian groups so I would have to think about this đĽ´
that's aight
K can be assumed to be a subgroup, the first map is injective
im just trying to reconcile my understanding of direct products and semidirect products with short exact sequences
seems like an important perspective
true
And H is a subgroup as 1 x H, and that is normal in K x H
yeah
Wait does splitting even imply that G is isomorphic to K x H for nonabelian stuff
I can only see K being normal
lol
it just feels weird because it doesnt patch up with any standard group theory theorem. Like how have i never heard: if $K$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ such that $G$ retracts onto $K$ then $G\cong K\rtimes G/K$
đittle âarwhal â
i also just dont see how H acts on K
So if the maps are f: K to G and g: G to H, and the left splitting is h: G to K so that hf = 1
Then we are identifying G with something like
nvm this this would be for a direct product, semidirect would be a right split
x maps to (fhx, x(fhx)^-1)
I think
This is what we do for modules
Does this work here
if not then I have no clue
We are saying G is product of fhG and 1(fh)^-1 G
ah i suppose that makes some sense
fh is idempotent, so just exploiting that
like if we have the retract $\rho : G \to K$ and we want to see "how" an element of $x$ of $G$ maps to $K$ we'd look at $x\rho^{-1}(\rho(x))$ right
đittle âarwhal â
wait i have to go eat get back to this later
since the above conversation is taking a break... could someone help me get started on this problem? my linear algebra is a bit rusty
Try taking a basis of the kernel, extending it to a basis of V. Then choose basis of W in the only way that makes this work
It's clear that the intersection $H_1 \cap H_2H_3....H_n$ where they are Sylow subgroups is trivial but how do I show the product is the whole group?
Iteribus
Look at the order
nah I'm prepping for quals
oh alright
these are ancient quals
The assumption here says that (I + J)/J is the unit ideal
This should imply that (I + J^2)/J^2 is the unit ideal
Well⌠thatâs what this problem is asking you to prove
I guess what I should clarify is, you just need to show 1 exists in the ideal
And yes
In fact by the correspondence theorem
You donât even need to mod out
Just take I + J = (1)
And show I + J^2 = (1)
This is âeasyâ in the sense that itâs kind of a standard result
In fact, you can kinda cheese it lol
Using ideal arithmetic
(I + J)^2 = I^2 + IJ + J^2 < I + J^2
But the left hand side is also (1)^2 = (1)
what is "the only way that makes this work"? im rusty on this... do i just apply L to every vector I made in the basis for V? If so, is this a spanning set in W? Then i guess i could reduce it to a basis, but how would I know that i would get the desired matrix?
Yes apply L to every vector in this basis. The basis elements in the kernel go to 0. For the other ones, prove that the images form a linearly independent system. Extend that system to a basis, and you get a matrix in exactly that form
ahhh, thanks much!
so back to this, how would one describe the homomorphism from H onto automorphisms of K when a semi direct product arises from a right split
this is quite some cheese
thank you
I think doing it with ideals is actually the only way to do it that isnât omega painful
You track how things multiply
You know that it works something like (it depends on which goes where) but roughly like
(g1,n1)â˘(g2,n2) = (g1phi_n1(g2), n1n2)
So you need to determine what phi_n1 is
So take g1 = e and n2 = e
Then your product gives you
(phi_n1(g2),n1)
Range g2 over all g in G
Then this tells you what phi_n1 is because it gives you ever output
you mean g in K?
Sure
I donât know what your setup is
Ppl do different ones, which group is on left or right, etc
This is for G semi direct N
im not sure how i get phi_n1(g2) though
idk how the semi direct product looks in this case
it's for a right splitting short exact sequence 1->K->G->H->1
Like the way it works is
ohhhhh
This is an internal semi direct product
like you take the preimage of H through the right split
yeah that's what i mean
ah i see
I forget what conjugates what
you can look this up I bet
But yeah internal semidirect products are conjugation
So itâs probably like umm
well it should be $\phi(h)=\operatorname{Ad}_{\rho(h)}^{\iota(K)}$
đittle âarwhal â
where rho is the splitting map and iota is the inclusion
g1n1â˘g2n2 = g1n1n2(n2âg2n2)
But this doesnât seem right
Idk
Lol
I forgor
Maybe
since K is isomorphic to i(K) and H is isomorphic to rho(H) i should just be able to take conjugation representation in G no?
Yeah but I forgot like what conjugates what
wdym
Like
Where do you put the inverse
Blah blah
was it ^-1 on the left
Or the right
Etc etc
I forgor
oh yeah it's a right action i think
so ^-1 on the right
hmm ill think over this again tomorrow
I feel this map is not yet correct
oh, second iso theorem again lol
You want a map the other way
A -> A + B
You canât define a map A + B -> A in any meaningful way
Could I map A -> A + B as a -> a + b
Whatâs e
since B is a subspace it has e the identity
Okay letâs call that 0 lol
A -> A + B as a -> a + 0
Now take quotients
Just say a -> a lol
This map is injective
Then you compose with A + B -> (A + B)/B
So on elements this is a map sending a to a + B
When is a + B zero?
when a + B = 0 + 0
Also A -> (A + B)/B is clearly surjective since weâve modded out by B
NoâŚ
This is an element of the quotient
When is an element of a quotient zero?
good question, i don't know
You should review the definition of a quotient before continuing
Itâs not going to be productive to try to prove an isomorphism theorem relating quotients if youâre unsure what the quotient really is
I mean a quotient has equivalence classes
You want to determine when a + B = 0 + B
Whatâs the definition for equality mod B?
I mean, I see a = 0 ?
.
This is why I say you need to review what quotients are
Youâve constructed equivalence classes, so whatâs the equivalence relation
This is what determines when things are equal
oh so a + B = a' + B when a - a' in B
So apply that here
when a - 0 in B
Which says?
a in B
So going back to here
Your map is A -> (A + B)/B
Sending a to a + B
So when is a + B zero?
you answered this above, I just want to go back to that point
I don't understand what you mean with when is a + B = 0
a + B is an element of (A + B)/B
Iâm asking when itâs 0
You have to figure out the kernel of this map
I have a question
Okay
We know that a in A and we've checked that a in B, right?
This is whatâs supposed to happen, yes
But Iâm not sure that you are able to justify it yet
That would follow after you can answer this bit
(A+B)/B has quotients of the form B + (a+b) where a in A and b in B
Is the term for those but yeah
so since a in A and a in B, what follows is that B + (a+b) = B + a is possible for a = 0 or b = 0 (according with above) ?
I mean yes
That would result in a + b + B being zero
But thatâs not the only way
First of all, mod B you can just drop b
a + b + B = a + B since their difference lies in B
Then a + B is zero if and only if a is in B
I see
This point shows the map is surjective
This shows the kernel is A\cap B
The map here being A -> (A + B)/B
a maps to a + B
I don't think I've proved this before
I literally just justified it
I took an arbitrary element of the quotient and showed it was equal to something in the image of the map
I will recapitulate
Define f : A -> A + B as a -> a
Our goal is to show (A+B)/B is isomorphic with A/(A cap B)
one way is by defining a function between the two sets and show it is well defined
I think this is the only way lol (nvm I guess you can show they have the same rank but it eventually reduces to a certain map. Ignore me)
We use the first isomorphism theorem
So it suffices to find a map A -> (A + B)/B thatâs surjective with kernel A\cap B
oh
I mean you donât have to do it that way but
Youâre basically in the process reproducing the first isomorphism theorem
On the quotients themselves it looks like
a + (A\cap B) -> a + B
I've already proved the first theorem but I don't see this one
yeah
I was thinking about that
I mean this is what the first isomorphism theorem gives you
more like a + (A \cap B) -> f(a) + B
Like thatâs the exact map you get from A -> (A + B)/B
You donât need to use f
a is a literal element of A + B
well yeah
But if youâve proved the first isomorphism theorem you should just do this
Manually showing the map there is well-defined is pointless
Since the first isomorphism theorem gives you that itâs well-defined
I just don't see how you relate this with the first theorem
Because then the first isomorphism theorem tells you that A/(A\cap B) is isomorphic to (A + B)/B
Write down what the first isomorphism theorem says and this is immediate
The image is (A + B)/B because the map is surjective
And the kernel is A\cap B
Do you know what surjective means?
first iso says: with a homomorphism h, G/kerh is isomorphic to imh
G = A. if there exists h such that kerh = A cap B and imh = (A+B)/B, then:
G/kerh is iso to imh
ie. A/(A cap B) is iso to (A+B)/B
onto
Yeah
So if you have a surjective map A -> (A+B)/B
That tells you A/kernel is isomorphic to (A + B)/B
I specified that the kernel is A\cap B
So plug that into the theorem
I produced a map A -> (A + B)/B
And have proved itâs surjective and has kernel A\cap B
try to understand whatâs written there, best of luck
f : A -> (A+B)/B as a -> B + a
Yes
Proving surjectivity and computing the kernel only requires understanding the definition of equality in (A + B)/B
Anyway I gtg
If I prove the kernel of the function above is A cap B then it follows
Thank you very much!
Cya!
Basically now I just have to prove that Ker(f) = A \cap B
First two are done. Then either there is 1 group of order 5 or 31 of them
so there is 1 group of order 155 or 31 of them and they are all conjugates?
and let H be a group of order 155, so |G/H|= 13 and it is impossible for all of them to be conjugates?
just use sylow
sylow gives either 1 or 31
You canât use Sylow for 155
It isnât a prime power lol
You have to first prove thereâs a subgroup of order 155 although this is very simple
it's a product of some group of order 5 and the normal subgroup of 31
Yeah exactly
do I map G_13 into Aut(G_155)
Iâm not really too sure how to show itâs normal
Itâs either index 13 or 1, so the normalizer is either itself or the entire grip
So you assume the normalizer is itself
it seems there's only trivial hom mapping this way
so G_13 and G_155 should commute?
yeah
But why do you think thereâs only the trivial homomorphism?
G_155 is a semidirect product of Z/5Z and Z/31Z
hmm how do I calculate |Aut(G_pq)|
I remember I'm seen something like this in the books
I mean okay
Thereâs a thing about groups of order pq
Was it like for p < q
p not dividing q-1
?
If thatâs the case itâs just the product in which case the automorphisms is the product cuz coprime stuff
But I think here itâs either the product or the single non-trivial semidirect product
So in one case the order is 120 so thereâs no non-trivial map by divisibility
But idk how the semidirect product works
Man my group theory skills have atrophied hard
:(
Wait
Wait wait wait
Oh, no itâs 5 and 31
Not 31 and 13 sad
Yeah
I donât know how to compute the automorpjism group of a semidirect product tho
@lavish nexus I asked a friend
And their solution was so simple
I am kinda mad I didnât see it earlier lol
You do it entirely differently
Look at G/G_31
This has order 5â˘13
Which is Z/65Z
This has a normal subgroup of order 5
So just use the correspondence theorem, this gives you a normal subgroup of order 5â˘31 = 155
Same
I wish my qual is like this
so much easier than the previous ones
My schoolâs quals are so funny
The old ones from like 2010 are so much easier
I did half of one with a friend after a single quarter of group theory
As a freshman undergrad
The newer ones meanwhile are like 5x harder lol
like the first one here doesn't really need any abstract algebra
I didnât even look at it lol
Umm
So the constant is odd
And the sum of coefficients is odd
Do you just use the rational root theorem or vietaâs formulas or something?
I don't think I need anything
sum of a_n to a_1 is even
so there are even number of odd coefficients
then if x is even a_nx^n+...+a_1x is even
if x is odd it is still even...
there are an even number of odd coefficients, 0 is also even so it includes where a_n to a_1 are all even
Ohhhhhh
I see I see
Youâre saying the odd coefficients have an even number
Or ugh
yeah
I see
I thought you were saying all coefficients are odd
And thus thereâs an even number
But I see what you mean now
Yeah, that seems good lol
what are the typical topics covered in abstract algebra
iâm looking to self study it to prepare for an entrance exam
a lot of the practice test i have looked over talk about rings and isomorphism and order
if anyone responds, tag me
Groups, rings, fields. Sometimes more linear algebra, modules over rings, maybe Galois theory, representation theory @sonic coral
It depends on how long the course is, how in depth, what level, etc etc
which notations do you guys prefer? \times or \oplus for direct product?
just curious what is main difference between direct sum and direct product.
Product letâs all of the terms be non-zero
For a direct sum only finitely many can be non-zero
So if you think of an element of a product like Prod_i in N G_i as a tuple
(g1,.g2,âŚ,)
For the direct product all the g_I could be non-identity
For the direct sum only finitely many

Are these ideals maximal in Q[x,y] and C[x,y]?
what are the suggested books/vids for module theory?
is the product group of conjugacy classes, the product of conjugacy classes of individual groups?
should be. if x\in K_1 and K_1 is a conjugacy class of G, y\in K_2 and K_2 is a conjugacy class of H, then for any (g,h)\in G x H, (g,h)(x,y)(g^-1,h^-1)=(gxg^-1,hyh^-1) so (x,y) is in K_1 x K_2
In each case, use the fact that R/(p, q) â (R/(p))/((q)/(p))
I like Jacobson but it also depends on what kind of module theory you wanna do
Atiyah MacDonald for commutative stuff lol
Lang is decent but has hard exercises
I came that far, but couldn't understand how that helps me
In all 4 cases, R/(p) becomes a polynomial ring in 1 variable, then you can apply irreducibility theorems for q
This should be easy to see in the first 2
If you are familiar enough with quotients
The try proving that R[x,y]/(x) â R[y]
I haven't read many books 
I'll look into those, tks
D&F works
I think I sort of get it maybe đ
The first one is not maximal as y^5+45+6 is not irriducible in Q[y]. But then the next one...
You would need to check irreducibility of xy-1 in Q[y]...
y^5 + 4y +6 should be irreducible
nope, x gets killed
eisenstein p=2
you have to compute (q)/(p) before you can quotient by it
(xy-1)/(x) in this case
Aluffi is the New Testament of the Algebra bible
Dummit and Foote is Old Testament
I like Aluffi because category theory
x just disappears?
yeah so under the isomorphism R[x,y]/(x) = R[y], the polynomial xy-1 maps to -1
and the notation (xy-1)/(x) means that we take the image of the ideal (xy-1) under the quotient map
Boubarki can be summed up as too general too early too fast
so definitely not maximal then?
haha, oke thnx
i was confused :p
And for the third we can fill in y=x^2 and find x^3+10x-5. We then see that that is irriducible
and thus maximum
thnx man
D&F is the Bible of Algebra
can't seem to find the book, can you write the full name
Basic Algebra
There are 2 volumes
I think modules are in volume 2
volume 2 ch1 is cat theory so you might as well read that while you are at it 
All a plot to catpill all the UGs
If only
CATernions
moldi can you explain what this means
đ
If i have a polynomial in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ that when evaluated on the algebra of reals has a root at $\alpha$ can i construct another polynomial in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ with $\alpha^k$ as a root?
đittle âarwhal â
ie if $\alpha$ is an algebraic number can i say that $\alpha^k$ is an algebraic number for all integer k
đittle âarwhal â
i see you can do it for k=-1
but im failing to construct a general polynomial for the other cases
and i also see you can do it if we drop k being an integer and take k=1/m for natural m
this probably doesnt relly belong in this channel but i didnt really know where else to post
ig it's #prealg-and-algebra 
Algebraic numbers are closed under multiplication
The only way I know how to do this is to pick up a book on commutative algebra and look up âintegral extensionsâ
And then note that algebraic numbers are the integral closure of Z
to be clear im asking about constructing the polynomial
Oh
It⌠might get spat out from the proof that itâs closed under multiplication
MaybeâŚ
I dunno
ill give it a look later thanks
Yeah
You can get it pretty explicitly if you do the proof with elementary symmetric polynomials
But I forgot the details so I'll leave it to you to work them out. Lmk if you need a ref for that proof but you should find it online pretty easily @wooden ember
(also pretty sure it belongs here)
Must not have read much else then 

In one of my courses I saw a proof that the maximal ideals of $\mathbb{C}[x_1, ..., x_n]$ are in the form $M = (x_1 - a_1, ..., x_n - a_n)$, and the proof first showed that if $M$ is a maximal ideal then $\mathbb{C}[x_1, ..., x_n]/M \cong \mathbb{C}$, and from there it concluded that $M = (x_1 - a_1, ..., x_n - a_n)$. I know the first part but I don't remember how the second part follows, nor do I have it in my notes. Can anyone fill it in?
Nick
the second part being $\mathbb{C}[x_1, ..., x_n]/M \cong \mathbb{C} \implies M = (x_1 - a_1, ..., x_n - a_n)$
Nick

...
if x_i + M on the left corresponds to a_i on the right, then we must have x_i = a_i mod M, this shows that (x1 - a1, ..., xn - an) is contained in M.
I looked at this for like 10 seconds and was like "what" then it hit me haha
Can I not just say straight away here that any composition of bijective functions is bijective?
Ď is a permutation too, so obviously they're all bijective, right?
I would've thought so?
they're just proving that composition is bijective 
why does my algebra textbook go through integer operations (modulo, euclidean algo type stuff), randomly introduce rings and fields briefly, then go into analysis building up the rationals and reals, then polynomials, and then two more chapters before finally defining a group
Right, gotcha
but artin starts with groups
What the
basic stuff about Z is used all the time
for instance if you wanna prove that order of an element will divide n if a^n = e
constructing the reals in an intro algebra book 
euclidean algo and modulo stuff very important, will be generalized in ring theory
the construction of the reals, less so
although the construction of the rationals is important
my book goes 1. integers 2. integers to the complexes 3. polynomials 4. homomorphisms and quotient rings 5. field extensions 6. groups
doesnt end there obv but i was under the impression that groups were the most "basic" or at least fundamental
i'll pay some more attention to this then but i remember most of the construction stuff from analysis
teaching groups after rings is definitely less common but I found a note which gives some kind of reason
(from the infinitely large napkin)
it sounds kinda cool
idk if i can appreciate that yet
mainly because ring theory is actually good and finite group theory is bad
ik my class next semester is gonna do groups on day 1
so hopefully what im doing now counts for something
I think (from experience) the more common way is to introduce vector spaces, then groups, then rings
Iâm not sure I agree with rings having âmore vivid first examplesâ, for example I think dihedral groups help a ton when learning about groups and it is easier to define symmetry when talking about shapes
well lin alg is a prereq at my institution so i think we're expected to already have an idea of vector spaces in general
but that aligns with other things ive heard yeah
yeah i wonder what kind of examples the author is thinking of
in my experience one of the main issues in intro algebra is having good examples of rings that "appear naturally"
its hard to define them without some algebraic number theory or geometry background
honestly the only good examples of rings i have are rings of functions or polynomials
but both can be extended to algebras
so it's kinda sad
(tbf i dont think there are many interesting finite groups either, but they are easier introduced/motivated)
what about quotients of those? 
imo there are plenty of interesting examples of finite groups
like Z[i] and stuff
my point is seeing it as a ring instead of an algebra isnt immediately advantageous
but tbf to understand an algebra you gotta understand a ring so...
it's a cool perspective though, I remember enjoying the first time I realised C \iso R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
My Rings and Fields professor gave an example called âthe drunk knight â and its basically the pattern that the elements of Z[i]/(y^2+y+1) make
Not sure if that is the actual name tho
also I don't even know the definition of an algebra so I assume most students starting AA won't either
yeah fair enough
it's just a ring acting on a ring
so yeah you do need to know rings for it
it's just i have trouble seeing when rings on their own are the advantageous perspective rather than some more powerful structure like an algebra
also algebras are kinda general, people like to think about say Lie algebras which aren't like rings, as in the product isn't associative
And homorphisms as with modules an R-algebra is a ring A together with a homomorphism that maps the identity of A to the id of R
fair enough
but you're right, rings are just Z-algebras so weird to think about them separately on their own
idk i just personally have found rings less interesting than finite groups for now
though quotients of polynomial rings are pretty chad
the factorizations stuff are pretty nice about rings
I like rings because of ideals
i think im just lacking enough experience with rings to judge
(and groups for that matter)
What is your favorite group?
group hugs
i have a problem that asks me to write gcd(a,b) = d in the form d = ma + nb where m and n are integers
for 56, 77, gcd is obviously 7, but brute forcing the desired form is proving tedious
however 14 = 3(56) + (-2)77
can i use that in any way since 14 is a multiple of 7

it's like 3 steps with EEA
yup i knew that
You just need to find one pair (u,v) such that ua+vb=d,then {(u-bs,v+as):s is from Z} gives you all pairs having this property
Let a=aâd, b=bâd then you need you find u, v such that uaâ+vbâ=1 when aâ and bâ are coprime
77 - 1(56) = 21 [call this A]
56 - 2(21) = 14 [call this B]
21 - 1(14) = 7 [call this C]
14 - 2(7) = 0
therefore:
7 = 1(21) - 1(14) [by C]
= 1(21) - 1(56 - 2(21)) [by B]
= 3(21) - 1(56) [simplifying]
= 3(77 - 1(56)) - 1(56) [by A]
= 3(77) - 4(56) [simplifying, done]
Then you can take u to be aâ to the power of Ď(bâ)-1 where Ď is the Euler function
you should look up extended euclidean algorithm
currently doing so
im just used to writing it out as a = qb + r
becomes obvious when you write it as a - qb = r
mmm
Give me two numbers that are coprime
ok i fixed it
They are not comprime
1 and 2
Anyway 6 and 5 are ,
(a,b)=(6,5) u=a^(Ď(b)-1)=6^3=216,v=(1-ua )/b=-259
See just one step
you're overcomplicating lol
One step is complicated? Lol
there are commas in so i wouldn't call it one step, and also yes it is complicated, you don't need euler's totient or w/e
they probably mean using euler's function is unnecessary
i appreciate both methods but im practicing euclidean algo rn anyways
in part b, for the case where no eigenvalue in R, how to take the fact there is an eigenvalue (in C) and translate that to a dim 2 subspace of R^n?
T(u+iv)=(a+ib)(u+iv) then
(Tu Tv)=
(u v)
(a b
-b a)
wut?
ďź
i have no idea what you typed after the first line
You have a basis of R^n (e_1,âŚ,e_n) right? Then T(e_1,âŚ,e_n)=(e_1,âŚ,e_n)A where A is a real matrix right?
Consider A as a complex matrix therefore it has a complex eigenvalue Îť=a+bi and a corresponding eigenvector x=u+iv
(e_1 ⌠e_n)u=r (e_1,⌠e_n)v=s then Rr+Rs is the subspace you are looking for
The corresponding equation of matrices is AX=XB
Where X=(u v)
B=
(a b
-b a)
\vartheta
huh interesting
is it possible for an algebraic structure to not be associative, but be commutative
a lie algebra over a field of characteristic 2 would probably do it
oh interesting
$x \star y = a(x+y)$ is commutative but not associative for $a \ne 0$ or $1$
Merosity
I read that a lattice over C is an Abelian group L such that L \otimes \mathbb{R} is the set of complex numbers
is this the tensor product, this \oplus?
*additive discrete group, not Abelian group lol
Alison40
nvm not a loop
I'm currently taking a commutative algebra course and I'm not sure if every commutative algebra course is like that, but it is basically Ring- and Ring module theory for the most part. My question was is that so far I am not really aware where the less abstract history of it comes from, or what a more simple problem that is more accessible to the public is for which this theory had been developed. With field theory for example one is able to prove that trisecting an angle is impossible and then with galois theory the 5th degree polynomial stuff.
And I know both of these fields also use results from ring theory, but those results have already been presented in my first algebra course. This commutative algebra course mainly presents other results, for which I have no idea what they will be used for/ why they had been developed in the first place
I know it's a bit of a redundant essay, but I'm essentially asking for applications of ring and module theory that aren't just results from field or galois theory.
algebraic geometry! check out Gathmann's notes on commutative algebra, chapter 0. He gives a tiny introduction to algebraic geometry and the translation between it and commutative algebra
Bruh phone says all the links to gathmanns notes aren't safe for god knows whatever reason
Wow thanks. I read through the first couple of pages and this seems very cool, makes me appreciate the topic a lot more
can someone help me understand part a?
C6 = {e, g, g^2, ... ,g^5}, and H = {e, g^3}, so as H has index 3 in G there should be 3 left and right cosets right?
how do I know this quotient group is a normal subgroup of C6?
and is it abelian, and if so, why?
cyclic groups are all abelian
any element in any group commutes with its own power
so every subgroup is normal
got only Z5*Z55, Z5 *Z5 * Z55, Z11 * Z55
sus
Does anybody know the origin of the word "torsion" in algebra? I saw someone say that when Emmy Noether first defined torsion she was studying the "geometry" of things like the Mobius band. My best interpretation of what they meant is that she was studying the fundamental groups of things and twisting motions corresponded to elements of finite order. But I'm not entirely sure I am interpreting it right.
Any help making sense of the word torsion in algebra and torsion in mechanics I'd appreciated
i thought physics was origin
But why did the word pop up again in algebra
its descriptive probably?
like you can visualize finite cyclic groups as wheels
and applying enough torsion to that wheel gets you at starting point?
Hmm that's fair. I can see that
my professors said it was from some topology stuff
I don't really know topology so I don't remember the exact thing
The name comes from poincare I think
I think there were some twisted spaces or smth that had torsion elements in some related group
Lemme check I donât remember
So if I understood it correctly, m-1 torsion in a fundamental group is only present in a nonorientable m-manifold?
Someone more knowledgeable than me should be able to clarify
Hello there, Is there anyone available to tutor Galois theory with me for the next 5-6 weeks? Iâm really committed to learning with someone, even if they are wanting just to refresh themselves on group and field theory. Please message me if you are interested đ
That somewhat agrees with what I heard because when I heard about it being related to geometry they mentioned the Mobius strip, which is nonorientable
Yeah
are invertible matrices a field under multiplication
or do fields require commutativity
You just said under multiplication
So itâs only a group
Ring structure isnât even given
The sum of two invertible matrices isnât necessarily invertible
(1 0
0 1)
(0 1
1 0)
=
(1 1
1 1)
Not invertible
Can someone help me see why if $G/Z(G)$ is cyclic then G is abelian?
fajitas
Any element is of the form ax^i where a is in the center and G/Z(G) is the union of x^iZ(G)
Clearly ax^i*bx^j=abx^(i+j)
Thank you
ah this makes sense
but in general do fields require commutativity
Finite division ring is always a field though
oh
so im trying to work out the algorithm for converting a matrix to smith-normal form
the wikipedia page is not particularly helpful
does anyone have any pointers for this type of diagonalisation?
Do row operations to get an entry which is the gcd of all entries in the upper left corner
haven't been able to find a pdf online of it, could you maybe send a ss?
thank you!
this is like the general way to do it in a PID
in a field it is easier with standard row and column ops
alternatively just find gcd's of n-rowed minors
gcd of 1-rowed minors is d1
gcd of 2-rowed minors/gcd of 1-rowed minors = d2
proceed
im working with integers exclusively, so it needs to be in a PID rather than a field
what do you mean by 1-rowed minors?
determinant of 1*1 minor
basically every entry in A-ÎťI
usually turns out to be 1
this is also in Jacobson 3.7
although I have some strong reservations about that book...
I think itâs great, containing almost everything I needed to know in the beginning, except exercises are sometimes too easy but I donât do much exercise anyway âŚ
lol tbf im not planning on learning this stuff in detail, this is actually for a compilers project
Donât worry itâs just several pages without the need of reading the previous chapters
Hey, what is the necessary condition in order to have an isomorphism from group (Z/aZ,+)x(Z/bZ,+) to group (Z/cZ,+)x(Z/dZ, +)?
If H and K are subgroups of a group G them there is a set HK that may or may not be a subgroup of G with elements of HK of the form hk.
Is there a name for this "product set"?
product of subgroups
they should have the same invariant factor decomposition?
Iff matrices diag{a,b} and diag{c,d} are equivalent I think
Meaning gcd(a,b)=gcd(c,d) and ab=cd perhaps
Thank you very much!
actually
could just look at it through fundamental theorem of abelian groups
Yeah finitely generated modules over pid like they discussed, they were talking about smith normal form
yeah idk that stuff lol
is Q/Z artinian?
every finitely generated subgroup is cyclic
and is of the form <1/r>
if r has prime factorization p1^n1p2^n2....pm^nm
silly question, but why are you considering finitely generated subgroups
because the only nonfinitely generated subgroup seems to be Q/Z itself
consider the entire group
then consider the subgroup that's all elements without a factor of 2 in denom
then the sub of that without 2's or 3's
?
I see thank you
oh sick i wasn't sure if i was missing something or what
there are infinitely many primes
not artinian
mmm
Oh my bad⌠artinian module I see
oh yeah no 1
sry im not quite following the explanation in the book
so take the example of:
$$\begin{pmatrix}3&5&11\ -5&7&9\end{pmatrix} \equiv \begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}3&5&11\ -5&7&9\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\0&1&0\0&0&1\end{pmatrix}$$
maximwebb
so ive worked out by hand that we can rewrite this as
$$\begin{pmatrix}1&0\ -17&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\ :0&2&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}3&5&11\ 23&46&98\ 4&8&17\end{pmatrix}$$
maximwebb
by manually applying row operations and updating P and Q accordingly
but i dont quite understand how we jump directly to this, with the GCD method
the chapter's explanation was a little confusing
Why is the definition of a group homomorphism the way it is?
The best explaination is that if $f:G\to H$ is a group hom. then it's kinda cool that the image of the product is divisible by each of the images of the factors of the product i.e. f(a) divides f(ab) and f(b) divides f(ab). This seems kinda nice but it's not clear otherwise why functions such that $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ perverse "algebraic structure"
fajitas
it's nothing to do with factors or whatever
it's just that a homomorphism is something that preserves structure
in some sense
it preserves the ways in which elements interact
even if those elements are all the same element after the mapping
A homomorphism imprints the structure of the domain into the codomain. You can see this is as the image of a group hom is itself a group
when a whole bunch of maths is just about certain structures, a map from one structure to another that preserves how the stuff in the first thing works is Quite Important
Is it something like "the homomorphism commutes with the group operations"?
As in I can operate in the domain then apply the homomorphism, or I can apply the homomorphism first then apply the codomains operation? Is that how it preserves "algebraic structure".
I just hate such vauge notions lol
u wot
the definition of a homomorphism is a map f: G -> H such that:
for all a, b in G, f(a)f(b) = f(ab)
clearly (a)(b) = ab
it's like
the mapped versions of the elements interact in exactly the same way as the originals
the homomorphism preserves all those relationships
it preserves that structure
That's scary
Lol I think you have the right idea here, but commutative is a bit of a tricky word here, so I'd just stick to thinking of it in terms of the actual definition
But you can see empirically why homomorphisms are useful
it's like, say you have a bunch of people moving around
and then you have their shadows
when people stop moving, so do the shadows
They preserve lots of helpful properties of groups (and other algebraic structures once you come round to them), like identities, inverses, generators
shadows move in an analogous way to the objects
Lol I see what you're trying to say, but I think that could make things more confusing
Try proving that identities and inverses are conserved under homomorphisms, that's a good start
^
Homomorphisms are kind of like immigrant communities
Like imagine a bunch of Italians come over from G (Italy) via a ship (a homomorphism phi) to NYC (a different group H) in the early 20th century
They can do all sorts of things with the New York natives, but if they are by themselves they can always adopt the conventions of their original culture that they're used to
So for example if H is not a commutative group, but G is commutative, then a*phi(g) might not commute, but phi(g1)phi(g2) =phi(g1 g2)
We can pull them back under the hood they came into H from without any repercussions
And since g1 and g2 commute now we can send g2 g1 back through phi to get a final result of phi(g2)phi(g1)
Like how if a 1910s Italian asked some random New Yorker how to do a certain dance they might not be able to
But if you know that New Yorker also came over from the same part of Italy then those two will be goin "AYYY"
This might be the weirdest fucking thing I've read on this server lmao
I just hope the homomorphism in question is injective.
if it's not injective then you have to start merging people into one 
ok đ
So a couple who were married in Italy are still spouses when they arrive in NYC and their kid is still theirs. Phew.
i just want to say that i really love all the creative interpretations here. it's so lovely seeing what crazy ideas different people come up with about such abstract stuff!
For the field of complex numbers, if I have a linear transformation T from V to W, V, W being finite dimensional inner product spaces.
The adjoint of a linear transformation T, T^*, has the relationship that:
M(T^*) is a conjugate transpose of M(T)
But what if I switch to a different field? Or even to a general ring? Is there any specific generalizations of this?
they are conjugate transpose to each other wrt an orthonormal basis
How do you do part (iii)?
They said field other than â lul
no idea how u define inner products on other field, ex finite fields
what about ordered rings?

