#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 621 of 407
i guess it's just the original question i asked
i get why the problem says you have elements of order 5 and order 3
which seems to be what you said
but not that you have one of order 15
im just supposed to see it im sorry i dont 
it is just counting , I leave the rest to you
is it just the original thing i said
take some element order 5 and some element order 3
i guess that doesnt make sense
what is the order of each element
in G?
yeah
youll have 2 of order 3, 4 of order 5, 1 of order 1, and the other 8 unknown
you know
i guess you know possibles that theyll have to be one of four orders
well one of 3 i guess

have you proved Lagrange theorem before
hello friends
i am confused about this part in my hw
so i proved part a I hope correctly
but part b asks us to deduce (as a result of a, i assume) some stuff
but idk how to use a to get b

all i got so far is that if the index is n there are n disjoint left cosets of H in g
same thing for the right ones of course
but uh
that was from an earlier section
maybe i can use something from part a to get all this
idk
pls ping if u have any advice/hints ty :3
oh dear i guess i should add in the definition of double coset if that helps
from the previous problem
im kind of struggling with the meaning of this too
its like
there would be n elements in g such that we can form left cosets g_i H
which are disjoint
and whose union is G
and then those same elements can form H g_i and these partition G too
i think
is what this means
oh
So if I am proving the associativity for a binary operation defined on R \ {-1} with the value a*b= a + b + ab, what do I have to prove? I have (a+1)(b+1)=0 to prove that the binary operation exists, am I allowed to introduce c + 1 within R \ {-1} and use it to demonstrate the associative property holds? I am just confused since I am using two different operations (addition and multiplication) defined under the same binary operation *
what?
I think I this should work: so first we will find simultaneous left and right coset representatives for each double cost HgH. To do this we consider the n’ left cosets and the n’ right cosets that are contained in HgH. Now pick a left coset say lH, this will intersect all right cosets, pick any one sat Hr, let a1 be in the intersection. Then a1H=lH and Ha1=Hr. Now pick some other left coset and a different right coset it intersects to get a_2. Continue this way till you get a_{n’}, these will all represent distinct left and right cosets.
Now just do this for all distinct double cosets
hmm
yeah i had something like the first part i was thinking to use the intersection proprety to find repreentatives for the left and right cosets
and i was able to find one but i knew i could find more but i didn't know of an algorithm to find n many
what is n' though
The number of left (or right) cosets that are a subset of HgH
ah okay
so each of the n left/right cosets are subsets of the HgH for different g
as in one HgH may have n' many of the n
and so we know that there are gonna be n total we can find
since we just do all the other double cosets
as well
we would find n' in each HgH
and these would sum to n?
Well they have to
right cus there better be exactly n of them
The point is that G is a disjoint union of its double cosets so we can work one double coset at a time
right
the partition property ensures that we can find all n just in different HgH's
okay
makes sense
Does the total proof make sense now?
Np
the set of exercises assumes at the start that R has an identity: would this conclusion be true if R didnt have an identity?
i can show that this is finitely generated by nilpotent elements but im not sure how to conclude since the ring isnt necessarily commutative
i feel there might be some property of p-groups to use (i wont get trapped in terminology and assume it's their nilpotency) but i cant figure out what
anybody who understands spectral sequences: do you feel like "a spectral sequence appears when you have a chain complex whose homology you want to calculate, and it comes equipped with some filtration. the spectral sequence is then the natural product of trying to understand what the filtration does on the level of homology" is sufficiently accurate in most cases
i think so
but without 1 ideals would be weird
I have been wondering about this recently as well, while I don't have an answer, I found a result that states that we can drop the commutativeness of R
can i come back to this question 
I want to readdress this implying |stab(i)| = 1 for any i coprime with in Aut Z_n
and why that should be intuitive
im not sure im 100% following what it would mean for something to be a stabilizer in this group
what's G?
Could u tag ur original post?
Are we just saying that like
G is Aut(Z_n)
oh wait
this might help too 
so if |stab(i)| = |G|/phi(n)
and the next statement is true
then |stab(i)|=1 is always true?
Oh, one way to do it it to think about what element the generator <1> can map to
should be able to go to any element coprime with n i figured
dont cat king
i dont understand it yet lol
Yes, so that finishes it right
you said that before 
i never did figure out what you meant
OH
yea i get what you mean
but i dont see how that means anything here
Oh right that's where the confusion started 
okay so i realize now i was confusing two things
but its not important
i get what you mean now
theres multiple automorphisms that don't move 2
So 2 is stabilized by the identity automorphism, and the automorphism which does x ↦-x
Yes
but
why should that link with |stab(1)|=1
why cant there be multiple
why not just not move the generators but swap non generators
1 being a generator is important
||a homomorphism is completely determined by what it does to generators||
But a smaller hint than what I wrote above in case you don't wanna see that
Is to write any other element in terms of 1 first
And apply an automorphism to that element
Assume that that automorphism stabilises 1 and then see what that tells you about the automorphism on other elements
?
Thinking about automorphisms as random swappings is not a good idea here
oh does that break isomorphism rules
Since u want something more than a bijection
Yep
A bijection that respects ur operation right?
Infact, try to characterize all homomorphisms f : Z/nZ to Z/nZ
You'll see that f takes a very restricted form
we havent seen those yet
Not seen homomorphisms yet? 
no
oof
we havent seen a lot of the stuff you guys are talking about lol
but its not important
What is your definition of automorphism then?
Yes, and what's a isomorphism
a mapping from some group to some group
with conditions
im not seeing how my suggested mapping breaks anything
oh
well i didnt see it through the conditions
but youre right i guess
sorry i gotta remember to breathe and think
i see what you mean im gonna write it down
Cool cool
no wait
idk i dont understand but i cant not finish this assignment today im just gonna write stuff down 
so im guessing induction isnt the method here 
actually itd probably be easier to just show it directly than going through stab
well i assume
In either case you'd need to prove something like this
Replace homomorphism with automorphism
oh 
I'd suggest read/revise homomorphisms
Until this becomes a obvious one-liner
i will when i have time 
i still have to do that other question 
yea im still not seeing this one either 
i think im close? or im on the right track
i have a bad feeling bchaotic completely explained it and i cant tell
youll need to use |G|/|H| = # distinct left and right cosets or number of ways to partition up G here
particularly this
how can we know the order of the rest of the elements?
that is too much of a overkill
subgroups are prime order so they must be cyclic take the generator of subgroup of order 3 to be 'a' and generator of subgroup of order to be 'b' then 'ab' must have order 15
why must ab be of order 15 and how does that use the uniqueness of the subgroups? this statement is not true without uniqueness of the subgroups
not saying this isn't a good direction
but it's not a complete proof
but I have an idea for a different way to prove this
if these subgroups are the unique subgroups of their order, then they must be normal since any conjugates would have the same order
and therefore you can use the characterization of internal direct products to show that G is the direct product of both subgroups
and then - because of primality the subgroups are cyclic - and since 3 and 5 are coprime their direct product is cyclic
Yeah it wasn't meant to be a proof
You can probably just do order bounds
number of elements of order n= (number of cyclic subgroups of order n)*phi(n)
In particular, a nice generalization of the problem would be to show the following :
Given a finite group such that x^n=1 has atmost n solutions for each n, show that G is cyclic
I don't see how this is helpful, but I believe the number of groups of order p has to be of the form np + 1 which might be useful for what you're trying to say
Given a particular element g \in G, consider <g>. The size of <g> is either 1, 3, 5 or 15 - and there is only 1 subgroup of size 3 and 1 of size 5.
From this, show that |<g>| is size 15 for some g
this is the most elementary (hence best) proof suggested so far
I want to show that some element has order 15
well genie's way seems like the right way to go
re-reading what you were saying, I see how you had a similar thing to genie's argument in mind, but I couldn't figure it out from what you were saying
Ah, I meant the map $x \to <x>$ from set of elements of order $n$ to set of cyclic subgroups of order $n$ is $\phi(n)$ - to - $1$
Noob666
if it works, its fine 
But this sort of question is a beginning group theory question
Oh wait, that was a joke 🤦

Could u give some reference
if we dont have 1
we need to change the definition of homomorphisms and ideals slightly to deal with it
I have certain concepts about rings already ingrained in my mind, and I typically assume rings have a 1, so when you ask me about whether something holds without a 1 I can never be 100% sure the argument I come up with doesn't somehow rely on the existence of a 1 in a way I'm not thinking of
like, earlier I saw this exercise
and I thought: this property (that every a has n s.t. a^n = a) easily carries over to quotient rings
so we just need to show that integral domains with this property must be fields
and that's easy (cancel both sides of the equation by a)
but I can't actually answer the question because I have no idea if I implicitly used the presence of identity here
how would a field without 1 work in the usual definition
you can't define inverses without 1
my thought too
Exactly my point I solved it in the same way
Is there a particular reason we take polynomial rings over commutative rings?
Like what’s uninteresting about say a polynomial ring over M_n(R)
probably because the theorems need commutativity
But surely it would be interesting to study non commutative polynomial rings ?
people probably have
True
But I’m wondering what makes them less interesting that regular polynomial rings (since they aren’t included in d&f for example)
Or less standard let’s say
theorems dont work without commutativity
just like semi-groups and groups
Seems a bit simple of an answer
Like we study group rings and they don’t require group commutativity
ive never studied non commutative rings
Fair enough lmao
I actually do have a good answer for this
because in the polynomials themselves we assume the elements commute
in Z[x, y] we have xy = yx
fair, x commutes with stuff
but x is a formal object it doesnt necessarily have to be an analogue to an indeterminate in our ring
the real motivation for R[x] isn't a vague idea that "polynomials" in the sense of elementary functions you learn about in high school are important so let's make rings out of them
in the same way in a group ring the elements of the ring commute with those of the group
the real motivation for R[x] is that in the category of commutative rings, a map out of R[x] is precisely the same thing as a map out of R and a free choice where x goes
and same thing for R[x1, ..., xn], or in any arbitrary set of indeterminates
wdym by a free choice?
I mean for every map ϕ : R -> S and element y in S, there is a unique map ψ : R[x] -> S such that it restricts to ϕ on R, and ψ(x) = y
huh so we have a sort of universal property then
yes
you can do a construction equivalent to this in the category of non-commutative rings
and then for example you get a version of ℤ[x, y] where xy ≠ yx
and they're called non-commutative polynomials
i see
I'm not sure what the notation for "non-commutative R[x, y]" is
however, here's another reason why we specifically care about commutative polynomials:
polynomial rings are for algebraic geometry
so (R[x])[x] also satisfies thuis universal property right?
and algebraic geometry is over commutative rings
cause then if you pick the same y as for R[x] the x in R[x] and the x in R[x][x] both get mapped to y 
funky
well, a subtle fact about the notation here:
"R[x]" actually conveys more information than "polynomial ring with coefficients in R"
it also tells you what to name the indeterminate: x
so when you take another polynomial ring, this time with coefficients in R[x]
fair enough so i shouldve said R[x][y] or smth
you're going to want to name the determinate something different
yeah
and R[x][y] is (naturally, in fact) isomorphic to R[x, y]
makes sense
one way to think of it is like this: every polynomial in the indeterminates x, y can be rearranged around the powers of y in order to look like a polynomial in y with coefficients that are polynomials in x
wait a second wouldnt R[[x]] also satisfy the previous universal property?
no
why not
where do you send 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + ...?
yeah
I'm not sure about this, but my guess is that ψ would still be guaranteed to exist, but not be unique.
i.e. a map R[[x]] -> S conveys more information, because you have more choices as to were to send the infinite elements
yeah
also don't underestimate this
that makes me think, in R[[x]] is the only ideal that is all of the ring (1)?
I guess technically polynomial rings are also highly relevant in algebraic number theory though
is there no other representative?
"the only ideal that is all of the ring"???
"all of the ring" completely specifies an ideal
so you're asking if 1 is the only element that generates the entire ring as an ideal?
i dont know how to formally say it (is the terminology generating set for your ideal?)
yeah
well, consider (2) in ℚ[[x]]
fair enough
what if R isnt a division ring though
well a field since R is commutative
Okay, so bear in mind that my intuitions are only for commutative rings with 1
but
x ∈ R satisfies (x) = R if and only if x is a unit in R
yeah so it comes down to classifying units in R[[x]] and im pretty sure every power series starting with a unit from R is a unit in R[[x]]
so you're asking what the units are in R[[x]]. clearly every unit of R is also a unit of R[[x]], but I think it actually turns out that things that really shouldn't be units, are units
yes exactly what I started typing lol
i think ive proved this gimme a sec
so, as an example (1 + x) feels like it shouldn't be a unit, but consider (1 + x)(1 - x + x^2 - x^3 + x^4 - x^5 + ...)
yeah I think it's an exercise in dummit and foote
a power series is a unit in R[[x]] iff a_0 is a unit in R
i did prove it
gotta head out but thanks for your time
alright, nice to talk to you
we ended up just needing to use something much simpler
I reached out to the teacher and she got back
all she wanted us to use was all elements orders divide 15 -> look at 8 elements not in our two specific subgroups -> assume they have order 3 or 5 -> show that implies they're not one of the 8 remaining elements -> they must all be generators
so basically what bchaotic said 
sorry to clog up this channel with such a silly question, thanks for your help yall 🙇♂️ ill study harder before the next one so my questions arent as silly
don't worry about that at all, your question is fine
In class today, my professor wanted to prove that a maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}\subset R$ was unique. He did this by showing for all $x\in (R\setminus\mathfrak{m})$, $x$ was invertible. Could someone elaborate on how this shows the maximal ideal is unique?
cgodfrey
what do you mean by M is unique?
I believe to show that it's the only maximal ideal
every ring is local 
is did you mean R/m or R\m, cause if R is commutative every element of R/m will be invertible no matter what
whether it's unique or not
ah no you meant R\M of course
oh yeah I meant R\m
well suppose there is another maximal ideal M'. Then it contains a unit x that is not in M. But then M' is the whole ring and so M' is not a maximal ideal
ooh that makes sense
as a follow up question, is it always true that the noninvertible elements of a ring form a maximal ideal?
i just realized this idea comes up in 3 exercises lol
no because then R is necessarily local
and not every ring is local
im definitely not the most qualified on local rings since i havent even gotten to the exercises on them yet but someone else might be able to give you good examples and intuition
I'm not familiar with what a local ring is (although I should be since I'm taking algebraic geometry lmao), I'll look more into that
a local ring is a ring with a unique maximal ideal
i have a question of my own if that's all you had to ask: im not seeing at all how to proceed with this one
the previous exercises were on radical ideals and the jacobson ideals so maybe those play a role but im not sure how
is that the atiyah-macdonald book?
nah this is just d&f
i dont have the prereqs on rings and modules to get into AM yet
Suppose M is some such maximal ideal. If there's a c s.t f(c) = 0 for all f in M we're definitely going to have M subset M_c, right?
and then we'll be done by maximality
no problem
ill leave a hint if you get stuck
||you want to show that the set of common zeroes of M is non-empty. compactness of the interval is key||
if i hadnt been looking at compactness the other day i would have never thought of this 
yeah the book mentions it
Well i mean you dont need it to do any AG or anything but this idea of looking at zero sets of polynomials is the key
stone cech compactification or smth
i dont know i havent read the comment yet
but right after the exercise there's a comment about stone cech
Oh yes the stone cech compactification will recover MaxSpec in this case
filters or something
Uh
theyd only be true for C^infty functions i think
by true i mean (x-c) = M_c (and d) follows)
and by the way, just to illustrate how it fails when it's not compact, imagine you had [0, 1) instead, then you could have the ideal of all functions that limit to 0 at 1
it's a maximal ideal that doesn't correspond to a point in your space
so far what I understand is, that a representation induces a special left action(given by the rep). But why is every left-action a representation?
or is the statement even true?
the statement is absolutely true
Oh, just to be clear "an action of G on V" here is not just an action of G on the underlying set of V
it needs to preserve the vector space structure, i.e. v → gv is linear for every g
then that's the homomorphism you get from G → GL(V), you just send g ∈ G to the map v → gv which is in GL(V)
yes like this it makes sense
Goose on a Moose
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
If it helps, we are given a table, is there a way to know if its associative by looking at the table?
<@&681260374879633482>

yes

each combination ideally
ok done for you; for some reason can't get perms to work

Yo
owo
maybe you can cut it a bit by some amount, but thats an exercise on itself
associativity is a pain to prove in general
yeah I figured as much, I know there is a shortcut with abelians groups, if the cayley table is symmetrical about the diagonal than it is commutative, I was wondering if there is something similar with associativity.
not that i know of
one way to do this is to realize Z2 as functions on Z2: 0 is the do-nothing function, and 1 is the swapping function
then associativity follows because function composition is associative
I think there are 8 combinations to show, so its not too bad but still haha, still a pain.
this is more "pure thought" but it [might not be] strictly less work
yah
its 8
Does anybody need help with mathematics today
All good, my question was answered. Thanks for the help kind peeps.
Are there any simple examples of non-linear groups encoding symmetry transformations that a layperson would understand pretty easily, as like an everyday example? (Like how 3d rotations are a simple counterexample showing composition doesn’t have to be commutative)
Hmmm, I'm not too sure.
Fair enough, I can’t think of any either. I’m trying to motivate group axioms to myself by just considering transformations that encode symmetry, can put a check mark on all the axioms, except, every example I can possibly think of is linear, googling things, some esoteric lie group stuff pops up, but that’s way out there compared to first starting a study of groups
counterexamples that i know of are either infinitely generated or pretty pathological
I dont know what your group theory background is so im not sure if any of them will be particularly insightful
alright ty, for motivation then I’m just gonna go with the following justification:
When considering a group, we just want to focus on one operation, and linearity, while nice, is a red herring that involves introducing potentially two more operations
not technically correct, as I’ll see later, but, it’s nice and intuitive
Is this for educational purposes
I know the axioms of a group, and some basic examples, and I’ve worked through the first couple chapters of Pinter
Oh wait what do you mean by "linear"
I’m not an expert or anything on it though
I assumed you meant embedding into GL_n(K)
linear means a function that obeys two properties
L(ax) = aL(x) for some constant a, vector x
L(x + y) = L(x) + L(y) for vectors x,y
What is the function here, an element of a group G acting on some set?
yes, like rotations for example
or addition on integers, multiplication on reals (with no 0) and so on, all the examples I know off the top of my head are linear
I’m learning CS and physics and group theory is useful for both so, I’m learning it, as with all of math though, I like to have some intuitive way to think about it to make everything obvious
and you want this specifically on a vector space V?
I want to say it doesn’t have to be, but tbh idk any examples of a linear function of interest acting on something that isn’t a vector
so yes
Well i can do something like take V = R and then let Z act on R by making n(x) = x + n. now this is definitely gonna be associative, and 0(x) = x + 0 = x, and obviously (-n)(n)(x) = x + n - n = x, so the set of transformations i just defined forms a group. but its not compatible with the vector space structure on R. n(0 * x) = n(0) = n, while 0 * n(x) = 0.
@native sand makes sense?
ah right because addition is affine not linear
yeah I can’t believe that slipped my mind lol, thanks
no problem 
If you’re interested in actions of groups and want to think about ones that don’t arise from linear algebra, the canonical example is the action of a group on itself via conjugation.
Each conjugation map is a bijective homomorphism from the group to itself and so is a symmetry of the group!
Another sort of fun thing to think about is the symmetric group acting on strings in three dimensional space. This gives you something called the braid group and it is very, very cool.
Yeah so you can't always embed lie groups smoothtly/continuously into some GL_n but every group can be embedded into the automorphism group of some vector space. This is essentially cayley's theorem, given G make a vector space k[G] whose basis is the elements of your group and have your group act on that space by permuting it
@maiden ocean exercise: decode the above so the person who originally asked cna understand it
Your example with addition should be embedding n in Z into GL_2(R) by sending n to [[1 n] [0 1]] I think
I think your original definition of linear was actually correct here, they're interested in saying groups can be thought of as linear transformations and they're right
I think the embedding of the permutation group into the endomorphism group of a vector space doesn’t work for infinite groups
Why do you think that
Because vectors are a finite linear combination of basis elements
yes, but endomorphisms on vector spaces can do infinite permutations of the basis vectors
This is like how V* will be uncountable if V is countable dimensionsal over Q
I see
consider the endomorphism of V, a space with basis {v0,v1,...} defined by σ(v_i) = v_{i+1}
This isn't invertible but it gives you the idea
See above, as a summary: addition is actually the composition of linear transformations, namely adding n and m is like multiplying the matrices [[1 n] [0 1]]. You can always find a group like this, even for those lie groups you were talking about, it's just that the vector space you're acting on will be infinite dimensional
This idea of studying a group by looking at its elements as linear transformations is called representation theory, but in that general setting we don't usually ask that each element necessarily acts like a different matrix
would someone be available to help me understand frobenius automorphisms
I'm studying galois theory
so like this construction you take a monic integer polynomial that is irreducible over Q and if it's separable mod p you reduce it mod p
so the quotients commute and you get F_p/(f(x)) where f(x) is the original polynomial
next step: factor f over F_p into irreducibles. since it's separable each is distinct, so the quotient F_p/(f(x)) ends up being the direct product of finite fields F_p/(f_i(x))
this is the part where I sort of lose it
I understand why the quotient is isomorphic to the product of finite fields by the chinese remainder theorem, but I am unsure what the original roots of f are supposed to look like in this product
so then when you take automorphisms of the ring Z[x]/(f(x)) (or maybe it's Q[x]/(f(x))) I'm not sure how they corespond to automorphisms of F_p/(f(x))
It's Z[x]/(f(x))
This is an interesting question
So this ring has a root of f, namely x
Right?
so like f_i(x) are the factors of f in F_p, and the finite fields in the product are given by F_p/(f_i(x)). I understand that automorphisms will permute these fields, but apparently any automorphism that maps one of these fields in the product to itself must act no trivially on that field unless it's the identity
yes
Right, and then f factors mod p into a product of monic irreducible polynomials
So f = p1*...*pn
but now I'm thinking like if the galois group is S_n, you can totally get some permutations tbag act trivially one one given field in the prodict while not being the identity
yes I was using f_i for this but pi works fine
ah sorry
So let α = x + (f(x)) in Z[x]/(p, f(x))
Then f(α) = 0, but we don't actually know pi(α) = 0 for any i because the ring isn't an integral domain
it's not 😢
The Chinese remainder theorem tells us our ring is isomorphic to Fp[y1]/(p1(y1)) ×... × Fp[yn]/(pn(yn)), right?
Do you know what the map from our ring to that product is, explicitly?
Sure
like generators
So here's how I think of it
There's always a map R -> R/I1 ×... × R/In
Just reduce mod I_j in the jth component of the output
yup
and then the CRT gives conditions under which we can make this map pass through the quotient and be an isomorphism
so when we map Z[x]/(p, f(x)) into this product of quotients of Fp, we're just going to send the residue class of x to the residue class of x
We're just reducing mod (pi(x))
Does that make sense?
what's z
Sorry, x
oh haha
So specifically it'll be (x, x,...,x)
yeahhhhhhhhhhhh
That's where our original (formal) root x goes
omfg you're right it seems like so easy
here's the example that tripped me up though
It's not!!!
I got confused writing this and I should really know what I'm talking about lmao
let's take x²+1 over F_5. this splits as (x-2)(x-3), so the product of fields is just (F_5)²
now
Makes sense
in this example I can clearly see that the 2 roots 3 and 2 map to (3,3) and (2,2) respectively
however
(2,3) also satisfies the relation x²+1=0
so I'm like
Yep
mystery root
So here's the trick
it's that F5[x]/(f(x)) is not an integral domain
Let's try taking f(x) = x^2 - x
yeah stupid linear
(or constant lol)
🐣
:peep:
Anyways yeah worth thinking about the number of solutions to x^2 = x in F2 × F2
Imo
ok so now I see we have to give special treatment to the elements (3,3) and (2,2). they are the imahes of the original roots
yeah this is clasdic
Solutions to this equation actually identify the number of ways to break up your ring into a product of two rings in general
no way
yep!
how general are you talking
Let me find the exercise I'm thinking of so I don't misstate it
But it's pretty general
For all unital commutative rings general (maybe not even commutative is necessary?)
If you don't know what Spec A is don't worry, just ignore part i
yeah I don't 😿
So the specific way this works is if you have e1, e2 you can define A1 = (e1) and A2 = (e2)
I thought so
These don't seem like unital rings, they don't contain 1
But!
e1 is a unit of (e1)
Try to prove this!
hmm
it's late but I'm thinking
e1²=e1 so like
idk I feel like that should be enough 😢
(also don't worry about that, this is from an algebraic geometry textbook. This all says geometric things but it's not important what they are for the ring theory)
Hmm, sort of
How do you show something is an identity?
give an inverse
Not quite, 2 has the inverse 1/2 in the ring Q but it isn't the identity 1
You're thinking of being a unit
yeah that's what I thought you said oops
wait but aren't we proving that e1 is just a unit
I mean 1x=x
e1 isn't a unit!
Consider (1, 0)
Say in Z×Z
This satisfies the equation but is not invertible
Right, so we want to show e1 * x = x for all x in (e1)
Does that make sense?
ok so like anything in e1 has the form e1x
And meaning the *multiplicative unit*
so like multiply
Right, exactly!
e1²x=e1x so boon
Sorry I just felt like this is sort of subtle so I wanted to talk about it
The having different multiplicative identities
not that's fine it's interesting
Anyways yeah
So this goes the other way
If A = A1 × A2, take e1 = (1,0) and e2 = (0,1)
= is really isomorphic here
I'm just lazy
So we have a correspondence between ways of breaking A up into a product of rings and idempotent (meaning x^2 = x) elements of A
yeah!!!
cause like (1,0) is sort of a half identity
Commutative algebra & algebraic geometry are very fun
I can feel it
Do you know any topology at all?
I want to study commalg very soon 😭😭
Once again, not expecting you to necessarily and no shame if not
yes
Okay cool
So the geometric side of things is that a product of rings is like a disjoint union of spaces
Say you have a disjoint union of spaces
if you are about to mix commalg and topology...
this is a good dot dot dot
I mean it breaks up into a continuous function on x and on y.
How do you define a function on a disjoint union of spaces
Right!
Which means
C(X×Y) = C(X) × C(Y)
Where C(S) = ring of continuous maps S -> \R
omg
So in algebraic geometry you like to think of rings as the ring of functions on some space
and so breaking up a ring into a product is like taking a disjoint union of spaces
And the idempotents are the functions which are identically 1 on a connected component and 0 elsewhere
😋😋😋
yes yes yes
ok but frobenius automorphisms 😳
why is it that any automorph8sm that fixes a field F_p/(f_i(x)) acts nontriviallu on that field
if it isn't the identity*
like can't I have an automorphism tbag leaves one of my fields in the product alone and let's the others go wild
I only know this because teacher said so 😿
What constraints are there on the automorphism?
Like, this is false for just any ring automorphisms
Take f(x) = x^2 - 1 and you can just swpa the copies of Fp
hmm
Does this make sense to me
I think so
This descends to Z
er
No
It doesn't make sense to me
How do we descend that, sorry?
Like when you say projection
What's the projection Gal((splitting field of f)/Q) -> Aut(Fp[x]/(f(x)))?
I just mean like the galois group elements can be defined as permutations of the roots of f. the roots in Z[x]/(f(x)) project in the quotient by (p) to roots in F_p/(f(x))
so you take the same permutation but of the projected roofs
roots
hmm
hmm
I think I see it
if you adjoin a single root
You might also adjoin more roots
right?
So we can make sense of the galois group as acting on the roots of Z[x]/(f(x))
not quite
Well
Yes
I'm thinking of something definitely
No you're right, I'm thinking of something different about than them being in the same orbit
I'm thinking that is β is in Q(α) then σ(β) is in Q(σ(α))
Yeah?
So yeah I'm def confused
Okay let me try to explain why I'm confused
I think?
makes sense
You say we let the galois group act on the roots of f in Z[x]/(f(x))
This doesn't quite make sense, because the galois group acts on the roots of f in the splitting field of f
Right?
yes
It's not even clear to me that Z[x]/(f(x)) has that many roots of f
like
An element of the galois group can permute a root out of an intermediate field
Right?
ohhhh omg I'm sorry I forgot to give a totally crucial condition omg
you have a galois extension of Q and since all extensions of Q are simple, you just take f to have as a root any single element that gives the whole extension
so like you know Q[x]/(f(x)) is the splitting field
Also, I'm pretty sure the answer in the end will be that permuting the roots of f via an element of the galois group keeps you as a root of the same irreducible factor of f, and the irred factors of f correspond to the rings in the product at the end
hang on, what?? We're assuming f is irreducible now???
Omg
it's irreducible over Q
You were assuming it's irreducible over Q all along
I totally missed that
Okay haha
but it can splitt over F_p
Yep
sorry 😿
I thought you were just asking for it to split separably over Fp
No haha it's fine
Okay
guys can u give me some questions from algebra
Not in the middle of a conversation, no
ok
yes
Okay
I fully understand how the galois group descends now
The roots of f are just polynomials
I guess there might be a concern about the coefficients being non integer?
But I don't think so
polynomials in a given one of them
f is monic knteger
if x is one root all other roots are polynomials in x
Could you say that again
Right
there
This is the whole f being the min poly of the generator of the extension thing
okay so
It makes sense that this descends
but yeah it's not clear to me why you can't stabilize a field hmm
So how does f factoring actually work
hmm
so what do we want to know in the end? I think we want to know that if α is a root of some pi then σ(α) is a root of the same pi, where σ is a descended galois automorphism
Does that sound right?
not necessarily
you can have automorphisms that permute the fields
but the thing is saying if sigma is not the identity and sigma fixes the field pi then it acts nontrivially on that fiekd
so
all roots are polynoia8s in the root x
so if a given root is fixed
all roots are fixed?
Hm, I don't think I see why that is
if the roots are x and 3x²+1
and if x is fixed
then 3x²+1 always has to be sent to 3x²+1
like and all roots can be expressed as polynomials in any given root
hm, I guess I was concerned because I was thinking of the roots as elements of Z[x]/(f(x)), but the relation will descend all the way down to Fp[x]/(pi(x))
I think
so the galois group acting on roots has no elements being fixed unless you're mr. identity
you just reduce stuff mod (pi)
this makes sense to me
I was going to say that the automorphisms of Fp[x]/(pi(x)) are cyclic of order deg pi
I mean stuff should reduce just from the quotient being well defined
they're generated by the map a -> a^p
yep
that's where I was going next 😋😋😋
this whole thing is supposed to be about using the easy structure of finite fields to learn more about galois groups over Q
wait, I think I actually still have a concern
ok
aren't*
what?
I thought we were saying this
nevermind, I understand now
then all roots are fixed
x generates Fp[x]/(pi(x))
and I get that now
neat!
many such cases
this follows because x generates the splitting field in Q so you just carry it down to the quotient
ok ready for next step?
this is actually getting so much clearer for me
if two distinct automorphisms a and b map the field pi to the map pj then they have to have restrict to different homomorphisms from pi to pj
this is easy because otherwise ab^-1 is the identity
I don't understand this
oh
so the automorphisms permure the fields
automorphisms of the products of fiekds
otherwise ab^{-1} fixes but acts nontrivally
yes
cool
which is nono
ok here's the cool part
we count the maximum number of automorphisms using what we just learned
so first of all
we know that the number of maps that send p1 to pi is at most the number of homomorphisms from p1 to pi
also this is at most the order of Gal(pi/fp)
What is that galois group of?
and the order of the WHOLE automorphism group is at most the sum over i of the number of maps from p1 to pi
Fp[x]/(pi(x)) over what?
over F_p
Ah sure
which has galois group C_(degree of pi)
the ways of embedding it into something bigger are the ways of permuting the roots
yep
sorry the lowercase fp made me think you were talking about the reduction of f mod p
or Fp[x]/(f(x))
like f_p
so this number is at most the sum of the degrees of the pi's
yep
which is the degree of f
ah okay
so the number of maps is at most the degree of f
butttttt
the group is galois
sooooo
the galois group of Q[x]/f is given by all automorphisms of the product of fields!!
neat!
in particular, all pi have the same degree
because then there actually are the maximal number of homomorphisms from each pi to each pj
and that's where frobenius comes in cause we know those automorphisms are generated by sigma(x)=x^p
Oh neat
so now you know for example all polynomials of prime degree are either irreducible over F_p or they split completely
which is a sexy fact
it reminds me of the fact that the polynomial x^p-x-a always either splits completely or it is irreducible whenever the field has characteristic p
Very cool
can you prove this btw
fun problem
I know the answer in advance so honestly idk if I could figure it out
So (α + k)^p - (α + k) - a = k^p - k
Right
So take k to range over Fp
then these give p distinct roots
So that does it I think?
yup
and you can do similar things where the galois group of x^(p^n)-x-a over F_p is the additive group in F_(p^n)
Right
there's lots of sexy math behind these things
nomber theory
ok sleepy times
Hey. Shamrock if ya around. can ya help with a little something?
Like, the relation question really doesn't make sense to me
Sure
The range I understand, and the third I can guess from the second
Which of the three sub parts?
The first one
a group of variables
Not quite
in set theory, a function is a certain kind of subset of A×B, ie a certain kind of relation
It's a way of giving you a choice of element of B for every element of A, right?
So you want the subset F of A×B to have the property that for every a in A, there's some b in B such that (a, b) in F
But you also want to know that giving the input a can only give one output, ie for all a in A if b, b' in B both satisfy (a, b) in F and (a, b') in F then b = b'
You can think of the association between functions and relation like every function f defines a relation aRb iff b = f(a)
Does that last bit makes sense?
and then the question is asking you if there's a function which makes the relation f have thus form
nope
we're given two sets A, B
And a relation between them
Gack. I hate set theories.
Right?
Yup
You want to know if there's a function F : A -> B such that b = F(a) if and only if (a, b) in f
Does that make sense?
Set theorists actually define F to be this function f. They say that functions are certain types of relations
You would say that for every a in A, there is a unique b in B such that (a, b) in f
this says every "input" has exactly one "output"
Since I believe that is what the professor wants everything to be in
Sure
Wouldn't that be something to note?
Yep
This is like how y = x^2 will miss negative numbers
If we think of it as a function R -> R
How would you state this in the case of squaring?
It doesn't contradict my set theory definition of a function, because I only said that for every element of A, there's an element of B. I didn't say anything about every element of B having an associated element of A!
Ok I see
Right!
Think about functions you know, like squaring or sine
The graph has to pass the vertical line test but not the horizontal line test
Nope
What's your understanding of the range of a function in general?
I think I misunderstood what is ranged when I took my note in class
So the range is all of the outputs of a function
For squaring this would be all nonnegative numbers, [0, infinity)
Yup, that part I understand
For the sine function it would be all numbers between -1 and 1, [-1,1]
So the thing to keep in mind is that f has a direction
The first component of a pair is the input, and the second is the output
When we say (a, i) in f, we mean that f sends a to i
Right?
Yup
So when you say o is in the range, that means f contains some pair (x, o)
Right?
I'm not sure what hit mean
Elements can't be duplicated in a set, but they can in a pair
Oooo ok.
Sorry, I meant o not a
(a, a) is a pair, but it's not in f
No
You want only the outputs of f
This is the set of input-output pairs
Say your function was the height of a person, it's domain was the set of your classmates, and the codomain was the real numbers
Probably nobody is a negative height, and nobody is 100 feet tall
The outputs here would be some numbers likely between 4 feet abs 7 feet tall
In your example, what are the outputs of f?
No, that's a pair of an input to f and its output on that input
Here the output would be i and the input would be a
In the height example, we would have a pair (shamrock, 6 foot 1) in our function
Right!
Right. I'm just an idiot then.
Hahaha
It's okay
But really, the first step should be to review definitions
Yup, that's right!
Professor didn't really give us any definition. Legit. We heard about it one day, given the homework, and then move on to the next
This is what you were noting before, btw
That the range doesn't contain o or u, but does contain everything else in B
RIP
Pretty rapid fire when it comes to our lessons
Also in the future, this kind of question fits better in #proofs-and-logic
Noted, thank you
It's not a huge deal but now you know
Gotcha. I'll make a note of it
Wikipedia is also a good source if you want to review definitions like this, but the notation might not be what you're used to
It's weirdly good as a reference for higher math stuff
Yeah no. This is not something I am familiar with, and getting shotgun'ed these daily is rough
Shotgunned?
Just one after the other, one after the other, without breaks.
We cover like 2+ chapters worth of new notes daily
Rip
The 10-15 min breaks we do get, it's all swarming the professors asking question so... yeah. Rough
Thank you though, that helped alot 👍
Sounds like a shit class
It's one of those higher level math class that promises to be "in bite size and easy for student who is interested in math"
Turns out, bite size means bite size lessons with minimal examples
Ping?
The professor somehow managed to both be SUPER quick with his lessons yet drawn it out for 4 hours
The only thing I got perfect was mod
@tawny pine don't @ abstragebra again
heya! this may be a really dumb question but, i'm trying to write up addition and multiplication tables for a finite field. i know how to do it when it is just Fn, but right now i'm looking at an example that's squared. in that case, how does one go about it? does it make any difference to the tables? for example F₃²
do you know field extensjons
the role is meant as a topic specific helper role. you shouldn't have it if you don't want to be pinged
(F3)^2 will be of order 9
Is left identity & left inverse enough to axiomatize groups? I.e. if we consider the signature (e, i, ◌, ) as a universal algebra, do associativity, i(x)◌x≈e and e◌x≈x suffice for the rest?
This was in an exercise but it feels very wrong because we don't even get uniqueness of e due to lack of being a right identity, and I also don't see how „i is involution” would follow
Naturally tho, I don't know any non-commutative semigroups which are nasty enough to give a counterexample
indeed, associativity+left inv+left e implies group
group just requires existence of e, if you already know group implies uniqueness of e then you don’t need to worry about it during the exercise

Starts a couple messages before that one
It is tricky to prove and not true when you change conditions to assoc + left id + right inv
Hii! Can someone give me an example of a self-normalizing proper subgroup in an infinite 2-group?
Oh wow, talk about a repost… ^^
I can't even think of any non-abelian infinite 2-groups on top of my head rn lmao
I guess you can take any infinite 2-group
and then do a semidirect product
with Z2
and I think that's an example
acting by letting the generator send x to -x of course
so take any abelian infinite 2-group
Do you the field with 9 elements, or the products of two copies of $\mathbb{F}_3$ ? (As $\mathbb{F}_3$ vector space for example)
Adrien
They said operation tables of finite fields so F₉ presumably
If we have a H a subgroup of G, then is it true that the frattini subgroup of H is a subgroup of the Frattini subgroup of G? I guess it is true, but i don't see it clearly
it's true axiomatically lol
You mean my question?
Wait.. if i take the Frattini subgroup of it, isn't that a good example? I mean it's normal
Ohh nope
the normalizer is the whole group G in that case
What definition of Z2 are you using? 
Yeetus
f(X) = 17?