#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 620 of 407
Not sure what you mean by inclusion of partitions
Is it one partition being finer than the other?
Yep
Alright thank you
find a, b such that ab = 0. if ba = 0 we done
otherwise take x = y = ba?
@lament yacht off topic but here was the doubt
i think you got the wrong channel 
i think he got the wrong server
yeaa sorry :/
is every algebraic closed field a noetherian ring?
Every field is, as they only have two ideals both finitely generated
stupid question just to check if I'm crazy
2Z_8/4Z_8 = 4Z_8 as Z_8 modules correct?
just directly from first iso, using homomorphism x maps to 2x
ok good to know that i can in fact calculate a quotient module 
This is equivalent to every element of G/Z(G) has order at most 2
xy^2x^-1=x(yx^-1)x(yx^-1)=(yx^-1)x(yx^-1)x=y^2 therefore any y, y^2 is contained in Z(G) . Conversely x(xy)^2=(xy)^2x we obtain that xyxy=yxyx
Therefore when G is a finite group, |G/Z(G)| is divided by 2, any group of even order has an element whose order is 2, QED
But I don’t know how to prove it when G is of infinite order
I think it’s false when |G| is infinite, haven’t found counterexample yet
Just prove it yourself by definition… given homomorphisms f_i: <X_i ; R_i> to H such that φ_1f_1=φ_2f_2 we have a unique f from <X; R> to H such that the composition of f and the canonical morphism from <X_i ; R_i > to <X;R> equals f_i . Notice that f_i is induced by a map F_i from X_i to H such that F_i (R_i) =e_H so you can construct a unique map F from X to H such that the composition of (the restriction of (the canonical homomorphism from <X_i ; R_i > to <X;R>) on X_i ) and F equals F_i . Then you just check that F(R)= e_H.
Where X is the union of X_1 and X_2, R is the union of R_1,R_2 and {φ_1(g)φ_2(g)^-1: g from G_0}
Just saw it I am a dumb 😂
It's trivially true that If $K \to L$ is a field extension, then $L \cong L \otimes_K K$ as $L$-algebras, right?
expectTheUnexpected
lul, of course it is, I kind of missed a "not" in the exercise
i feel like im stoning very hard but if $X$ is a scheme with $X=X_1\cup X_2$, $X_1,X_2$ are nonempty closed sets (i.e. $X$ is not irreducible) and $x\in X_1\cap X_2$, then does $\mathcal O_{X,x}$ have zero divisors
i feel like it is true cuz it is when $X$ is an affine scheme but i cant seem to prove it in general
ari 亲
I know basically no algebraic geometry, but don't you mean X1, X2 are proper rather than nonempty?
nonempty proper closed subsets yea*
my proof is prob kinda iffy but it's too early for my brain to function

this may be stupid but isn't spec(KxKxK) a counter example, where K here is some field. In this case the local rings should be fields hence they won't have zero divisors, but X is reducible and we can take X1 to be the points Kx0xK and KxKx0 and X2 to be the points 0xKxK and KxKx0 with common point KxKx0.
So you're saying the counterexample is the KKK spectrum? 
i suppose they meant bijection preserving inclusion here?
ah right thats true
i think what i was hoping to show is more of whenever x is in the intersection of distinct irreducible components then the local ring there has zero divisors
Actually, either wording is imprecise in everyday speech, because both can be construed as "It is an inclusion which preserves bijection" or "it is a bijection which preserves inclusion". Of course, only one of those interpretations makes sense, the latter one.
i.e. you should read "inclusion preserving bijection" as "inclusion-preserving bijection".
ah yeah inclusion-preserving makes sense
cause i falied to see how the correspondence itself could be an inclusion 
There is a difference when they write capital letters (groups, subgroups) and small letters (elements inside a group) right?
Just like this
if you wanted to you could say g is a group and G is an element of it, that's just not standard and it's more messy and uncomfortable
From the above picture sir/ma'am
@urban acorn thanks
Does there exist a $\mathbb{Q}$ -algebra $A$ such that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}) \cong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) \otimes A$ as $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$-algebras?
I have been banging my head against the wall, but I cannot come up with any solution...
expectTheUnexpected
well $A = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2})$ should do the job? Like in general $R \otimes_R M \cong M$.
det
A is just a Q-algebra, the tensor product is over Q
so in particular A would have to be a two-dimensional vector space over Q
am i correct in saying that none of these are ring homomorphisms?
seems weird for them to give a question with only negative answers but i dont see my mistake if there is one
yea that's i was wondering.. you wrote 'as Q(sqrt(2)) algebras' and i was confused
isomorphic as Q(sqrt2) algebras
The point is probably that for the first two you need non-multiplicativity, while for the last one non-additivity
Indeed 👍
can we then just try a generic Q(sqrt(d)) and check if it after tensoring gives Q(2^1/4)
aight thanks just wanted to make sure
does it have to be a field extension?
No, A can be just an algebra
ye I am saying that we don't know if it is Q(sqrt(d)) a priori
just from 2 dimensional
Ah right getting the inverse of that might be a problem
well there might be an argument along the lines of the tensor not being a field if A isn't
that would make sense given that the multiplication is componentwise
i'm wondering if we just use the extension of scalars thing to Q[x]/(quadratic poly)
so Q(sqrt(2))[x]/(same thing but in Q(sqrt(2)))
for this to be like Q(2^1/4), i think the poly should be something like x^2 - sqrt(2) but that doesn't live over Q, so won't work
i feel we can formalize this
Not sure what you're doing lol

OT: isn't my reaction Urs Schreiber? Lel
need to review more tensor product
It is called urs yes 
But anyway, i believe that there does not actually exist such an A.
I once saw him in person and was too starstruck to talk to him
I don't even know who he is 
The guy who founded nLab boiis
Poor question is gonna get destroyed 
How do I edit a post to reply to the right q
Bruh which question are you answering
Lol
You can't change replies
Do it separately
Wdym?
You can't change your message now to be replying to someone 
Just delete and repost maybe
Cool
This proof is a little sketchy but I think it what you are saying is true in arbitrary schemes. If X1 and X2 are irreducible components and x is in the intersection, consider any open affine neighborhood U around x. U \cap X1 will be dense in X1 and X1 \cap X2 is a closed subset of X1 hence U cannot be contained inside X1 \cap X2 so there is some point of U that is in X1 but not X2. Similarly there is a point of U in X2 but not X1. Essentially this shows that when we restrict to U, these will prove that U is not irreducible, and will infact be irreducible components in U. Then we have reduced to the affine case, and there the proof should be straight forward
oh right i completely didnt consider a topological argument zzz
what i was saying was a 2-dim algebra over Q will definitely look like Q[x]/(quadratic poly)... now we need to tensor this with Q(sqrt(2))
was just wacking on local ring oof
Sure, i actually tried to solve this with Mathematica, but it's still going 💩
Like, look for conditions on the quadratic polynomial so that such an isomorphism is true, i.e. there has to be an element of order 4
so right exact thing
Q[x] --> Q[x] --> A --> 0
where the first map is multiplication by the quadratic poly with coeff in Q
tensoring by Q(sqrt(2)) should give an exact seq again
Q(sqrt(2))[x] --> Q(sqrt(2))[x] --> Q(2^1/4) --> 0
why is Q(sqrt2) tensor Q[x] = Q(sqrt2)[x]?
yee afair
so now that quadratic poly can't be reducible over Q(sqrt(2)) else we don't even get a field
after translation it should look like x^2 - d
right
but this would give Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(d))
as d is not like 2, else x^2-d is reducible over Q(sqrt(2))
seems legit like
but this is galois... and Q(sqrt(2^1/4)) isn't 😛
seems correct to me
lol
Z[x]/x^3 gives the polynomials with degree at most 2 with integer coeffs right?
and in general Z[x]/x^k is the polynomials of degree at most k-1?
If it's reducible the ideal would not be maximal, and then A would have zero divisors, which would (if such an iso existed) imply that Q(2^1/4) has zero divisors, absurd.
So then the rest of the proof would establish that Q(2^1/4) is biquadratic, hence Galois. But the splitting field of x^4-2 has degree 8, so this can't be true. Did I get it right?
ye
Tight!
yes but with multiplication that loops the degrees around
yeah right
thanks
in general when f is a monic polynomial of degree n, the polynomials of degree strictly smaller than n in R[x] constitute a complete system of unique representatives for the elements of R[x]/(f)
This is the part of the argument when we need it to be monic: when f is monic of degree n, then given any polynomial $p = {a_m}x^m + ... + a_0$ where $m \geq n$, we can find $q = p - {a_m}x^{m-n}f$
Ab
and q is of degree smaller than m
and q is equivalent to p mod f
so we can repeat this until eventually finding a polynomial equivalent to p mod f which is of degree smaller than n
but if for example f was not monic, like 2x^2 - 1, then we couldn't find a multiple of f that would get rid of the highest coefficient in x^5 - 1
of course, this also works if the highest coefficient in f is a unit, for example, so this works for any polynomial over a field
and this then follows from the monic case because if the highest coefficient is a unit then (f) = (f') where f' is monic
yeah makes sense
$2 \in Z[x]$ is an example for a non-monic polynomial, and $Z[x]/(2)$ is basically $[Z/2Z][x]$
Ab
hm yeah
when you say basically is there something in the way of that?
seems isomorphic to me
no, I don't know why I said basically
aight
it's isomorphic
and I'm sure you can find some way to even maybe show the isomorphism is "natural"
wdym
lemme try to see if I can make the idea I have formal
the vague idea I have is that if we can find the right way to make the constructions of R/I [x] and R[x]/I into functors they'll be naturally isomorphic
like, maybe in some kind of category where the objects are a ring together with a selected ideal, and the morphisms (R, I) -> (S, J) are ring morphisms phi : R -> S such that phi^-1(J) contains all of I, and then from x = (R, I) we get Fx = R[x]/I and Gx = (R/I)[x]
and I think that F and G are well defined functors and naturally isomorphic
I need to think about that for a moment though
im afraid i wouldnt be able to help with that, functors are still a little confusing to me
nice handwriting
not very good cause the tablet is tilted and not flat
so im writing from an awkward angle
Sorry but i still have a question. What do you mean when you write "$x^2$"? Is it just "$x \otimes x$"? Or how do we square a vector? Or is it a polynomial? So is $Sym^2(K^2)$ the set of homogeneous polynomials of degree 2?
well uh
well when you have tensor products of vector spaces you can tensor product vectors
you should give a counterexample
Gewisser Fler
and you can do similar stuff and define symmetric product between symmetric tensor powers
and that kinda corresponds to making products of homogeneous polynomials
and all of that is functorial as in a change of basis of the original K induce change of basis between the other stuffs so that things are independent of the choice of basis
so for now you can just wing it and pretend that K is the set of homogeneous polynomials of degree 1 in x and y
then the nth symmetric power of K is the set of homogeneous polynomials of degree n in x and y
and multiplication is the usual polynomial multiplication
and you perform change of variables the uuh obvious way
but you can also build everything in terms of tensor products, where xy is now 1/2 (x tensor y + y tensor x)
and use tensor products + symmetrization as multiplication
anyway Sym²(K²) will have dimension 3
and you will have an action of GL2(K) on K² that induce an action on Sym²(K²) because Sym and stuff are functors
i mean i wasnt bothered to write any out they arent hard to find 
though answering the question of when equality is true seems interesting
sure just pointing out if I was your grader I wouldn't give you points for stating something without proof
oh of course but this isnt for class
but yeah seems interesting to work out when this is true too, maybe there's some clean geometric argument that pops out
𝕊elf 𝕝earning 𝕚s 𝕔ool.
idk seems pretty non trivial to answer
i mean a few simple examples pop out but that's it
(at least for me)
I guess simplest cases to solve is for arbitrary f(x) we can pick g(x)=k and that pair will always work
yeah
are we still restricting ourselves to continuous functions
might be better to take weaker regularity first
oh i can apply the same argument from the exercise i saw yesterday
if f is linearly dependent on g it works
I guess one way to look at it is take a continuous function with parameters that has constant integral independent of its parameters
then when multiplying with an arbitrary f(x), we can say there will be a solution by the IVT
and it only works when f is linearly dependent on g if f and g are continuous
and then we can do any linear combination of these types of constant functions
wdym linearly dependent
f = r*g for some constant r
not true
oop where did i mess up
because the integral of g is constant but has parameters that can vary
oh i took a positive square root
however i do think the converse is true, namely it is necessary for f to be a multiple of g
(when continuous)
nah
lmao what am i messing up
lemme think
oh i see what i did
nvm anything i said then
always gut check your answers lol
here g(x) has constant integral, it's a line through (1/2, 1/2) where I vary the slope
I'm basically varying the integral f(x)g(x) while the product of the individual integrals remain constant
play around with the desmos example I gave to see, that might help, gonna grab something to eat real fast
oh i see
the integral of g is a constant function of k but the integral of gf isnt
smart
well that might not be the best example I gave tbh
so as long as we can get the difference to be negative and positive you get a solution by IVT i see
yeah, that's the idea
so we can imagine there are a bunch of these continuous functions with parameters that have constant integral out there
kind of lame I guess maybe
no it's a neat idea
tried to do something with integration by parts but it just gave me the "one of the functions is constant" case 😑
yeah, thought I might try some kinda euler lagrange type thing to get an exact solution for g with a fixed f and the constraint that the integral of g is constant but didn't get anything exciting
Yes the star is the binary operation associated to the group structure
What if it has this symbol
(At least I think this is what your book means, it’s standard notation but you’ve only showed a very zoomed in portion)
The symbol doesn’t matter
As long as what the operation does is defined
(G, 👌) could be a group as long as I define 👌 as an operation
(And that it satisfies all the relevant group properties)
Let 🖖 be a vector space over 💯 . Then a map 👌: 🖖 x 🖖 -> 💯 is called an inner product if
sure why not
In example 1 I didn't understood the second line
a+e-1
And the question a*b=a+b-1
the operation $\oplus$ is defined by $a\oplus b = a+b-1$. An identity $e$ must satisfy $a\oplus e = a \Leftrightarrow a+e-1 = a$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
(which is true iff e = 1)
The only group is (
,
)
this is the most interesting of the finite simple groups i agree
Based narwhal
i really dont wanna multiply stuff out eternally 😭
doesnt it suffice to find a subring of M_2(C) which is isomorphic to H
Oh it’s not complicated
which seems a bit more doable
i really am not bothered to think about how that translates to a 4x4 matrix over R sorry
when the dimensions exceed 3 i just say no cause it's ugly
H—>M^2(C)=M^(R)
as pappa said if it had asked M_2(C) i wouldve done it but bleh
fair it doesnt say construct the explicit isomorphism
so i guess i could just say that
yeah lol im a bit stupid thanks
a+bi+cj+dk —>(a+bi c+di ; -c-di a+bi)—>( a b c d ; -b a -d c ; -c -d a b ; d -c -b a)
?
4x4 matrix 🤮
Told you not complicated at all just do this thing twice : a+bi—>(a b ; -b a)
Like C=R+Ri, we have that H=C+Cj
my point is i know im being unreasonable but writing out the 4x4 matrix is ugly
Lol
honestly im so polarly opposite in the exercises i want to do or not lmao
on one end there's this one which is easily doable and frankly not even all that ugly that i dont want to do and on the other end there's "show there are no non-abelian simple groups of odd order <10000" which i wanted to do
Is there a joke about modules over quantum groups hidden in this?
Learn Hopf algebras first, and then never learn quantum groups. It's better, trust me
lmao okay
i sort of do but not fully
That succs
lmao no

lmao
We'll make fun of you and you'll get motivated

Senpai Moldy best senpai
Don't 🤡s get motivated from making others laugh
bitch please

pretty stuck on this one, a small hint on the right manipulation track would be appreciated
second part is easy but im struggling to show the zero divisor part
i concluded that phi wasnt surjective cause no element of R could be mapped to 1_S and that phi(g) is a zero divisor for every other g than 1_R not in the kernel
wait im a moron
g can be 1_R
🤦
i feel like its kinda hard to give a hint without giving it away 
no it's aight i realized my mistake
if phi(1) = a, what can you say about powers of a?
i dont need help on this anymore 👍

moldi senpai 
.

is
a new emoji on the server
since we had a short mention of constructive mathematics yesterday this makes me wonder: is there a way to handle such questions without reasoning by contradiction?
cause here i showed this was true by contradiction but im wondering if there's a more "constructive" way to do it
I mean given i,j in the intersection and r in R, then clearly r-s and ri are in each ideal, hence in the intersection?
no 
on an unrelated note, does constructive always entail that you are working with finite (or finitely presented) objects?
doesnt the clearly here work by contradiction though
why?
cause you cant talk about "each" ideal since there are uncountably many right?
r,s is in one of the ideals
so r-s is also in that ideal, by ideal axiom
do this for every ideal
the do this for every ideal part fails because you have uncountably many
with countably many you could argue for each of them by induction
at least i think
hmmm
so im pretty sure contradiction is the only way to go about it
which is kind of unsatisfying
let's hear what others have to say about this cause im not at all confident in my analysis of the problem here
so by your logic, whenever i would want to prove something for an uncountable collection of objects, the underlying logic would have to be via contradiction?
i believe? im not sure
yeah same
yeah no this doesnt sound right this is exactly why we have the for all quantifier
how the fuck does one nicely handwrite the nilradical of R
cursive
isn't it "just" fraktur?
the handwritten analogue of that is called Kurrent if you want to learn a new way to write letters, alternatively i usually just underline my fraktur letters
det
so you just write the analogue in the regular alphabet and underline it?
underlining looks weird in math...
but much better than my poor excuse for a capital N in fraktur
yes
real fraktur requires a calligraphy pen (it was not designed to be written by normal people)
you can try imitating Kurrent (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kurrent#/media/File:Deutsche_Kurrentschrift.svg) if you want

for which rings R, all abelian groups can be extended to R-modules?
obviously it's true for Z and false for something like \mathbb{R}
seems to be related to existence of ideals of various orders?
Whenever Z is an R-algebra you will be able to
I feel like the converse should be true too
Oh yeah if you can extend any abelian group to an R-module then you can extend Z to an R-module and that is the same as existence of a homomorphism R → End(Z) = Z
So Z is an R-algebra in some way
imagine not being able to type ℤ with your keyboard
you copy pasted it
$\bZ$
I have gboard tex dictionary
Meroseous
whee
so to put it another way
iff R has an ideal I such that R/I = Z
I was close, I was thinking about a family of ideals I_p such that R/I_p =Z/pZ
yes
1 ∈ ℤ must be in the image since morphisms are identity-preserving, and then since the image is an additive subgroup it has to be all of ℤ
hmmm caveat
if we consider {0} as a ring with 1=0
but that's the only exception
We won't have a ring homomorphism in that case
lol if there was a map 0 → ℤ then there would be a map R → ℤ for all rings R
I mean in the category of unitless rings it's true
there's a zero object and whatnot
do you mean a ring with identity
the biggest mistake dummit and foote made was not defining all rings to have identity
I mean not that there's anything wrong with looking at rings without identity - but they shouldn't be introduced at the beginning
also I personally wouldn't wanna think of rings without identity at all
also @wooden ember don't let d&f lie to you: ring morphisms always preserve the 1!!!
haha
okay so I'm not saying no one should ever look at rngs
Any YouTube video playlist you recommend who teaches you to solve problems?
Of different kind of proofs?
you can only learn to solve problems by solving problems
Rings should always be unital because the same way that the groups arise as symmetric groups, rings arise as endomorphism rings of abelian groups (so they should really always be non commutative unital)
okay so rings have multiplicative monoid structure, so their morphisms need to be monoid morphisms
and monoid morphisms need to preserve 1
why, you ask? well for once, we want to say monoids are 1-object categories
Even in abstract algebra?
and we want to say that all of their morphisms are functors
and functors preserve the 1
semigroupoids
boom
...
wtf
Is it like non unital rings arise from endomorphisms of semigroupoids?
yeah but then the rings that are more interesting to look at end up being commutative imo
no actually I retract what I said
like, this is the same way we look at groups instead of monoids
groups can be represented with automorphisms of some set, monoids can be represented with endomorphisms of that set
depends on your taste, there are many very interesting non-commutative rings that show up in nature so to speak
okay fair, hence I added "imo"
End(X) in a semigroupoid is indeed a semigroup
but it's not clear how to Ab-ize that

Ab-enriched semigroupoids? that' more ugly than what we started with
I mean these things simply do not have very nice categorial properties
ye but kernels man
whenever a mathematician wants to enrich a category over Ab they come to me and ask me to sign a legal document
ok hmm, I thought this other question would be simpler but it doesn't seem to be
basically when is U : R-mod -> Ab full or not
example: it is full for R = Q
Let A, B be Q-linear spaces and ϕ : A → B an Ab morphism. Let x ∈ A, then clearly ϕ(nx) = nϕ(x) since this holds for all Ab morphisms, so now for some n/m ∈ Q we can see that mϕ( (n/m)x ) = ϕ( m (n/m) x ) = ϕ(nx) = nϕ(x), and and therefore ϕ( (n/m) x ) = (n/m) ϕ(x), so ϕ is also a Q-linear map.
right
but this clearly not true for R the reals
what gives
something something uniqueness (epicness?) of Z -> R ?
epic 😎
but yeah I have a gut feeling that's about right
if it's not epic then we have f,g : R -> S
then we consider R and S as R-modules
f-g is(?) an Ab-homomorphism but not an R-mod homomorphism?
yeah, I think that logic is sound
not sure how I used Z here though
so let h be the inclusion Z -> R
the maps that you chose f, g are such that f is not equal to g but fh = gh
so they are equal on Z, but not everywhere
so f-g is zero on Z, but not everywhere
hmm
but this is impossible for an R-module homomorphism from R
am I just using the 1 from Z
since it is determined by the image of 1, yeah
isn't this the direction we just did? we assumed Z -> R not epic and concluded U not full
oops yea
wtf epic is an actual mathematical term 
an epimorphism is a categorical analogue of a surjective map
to say that a map is an epimorphism is to say that it is epic
i know what an epimorphism is
then that's what epic is

i just realized i miswrote epimorphisms as exomorphisms when i tried to remember what the terminology was when writing some notes for my lin alg class the other day
not an epic moment
at least i remembered monomorphisms
brb coining the term "xenomorphism"
if only xenomorphism was a thing
could be the names for morphisms that arent epi or mono morphisms
would be lame but hey
cool name
better than just "morphisms"
if anyone in this server becomes a cat theorist and finds a new interesting class of morphisms please call them xenomorphisms
alien theory
alien cats
"radical ideal" sounds political
how about "radical left ideal"
I remember where I got that from
there was a stackexchange post asking for mathemtical urban legends
this is one of the answers
When I was at the University of Oklahoma in the early '80s, we were all required to write a brief description of our research for the (rather conservative, this being Oklahoma) Board of Regents of the University. An colleague in algebra, perhaps hoping for more state support, wrote that he was studying "annihilating radical left ideals."```
lmao
this is what I imagine narwhal's yt to be like
lmao
Maybe I will visit and confirm 
i have yet to make a single group theory vid

i havent made a video since ive started d&f i dont think
oof
maybe the metric space video was like a week in im not sure
all the nt ones are shit
tell me your best one 
idk i like the exponential function one personally
lesgo
or pythagorean triples
or properties of counting tools yeah id say those are my three favorites
but i really need to up the quality on these
you sound exactly like some other math yt channel I watched before
did I accidentally watch one of your videos before
I can't remember the channel now
a musician i see
that's still pretty dope
it's crazy how many people who enjoy music also enjoy math and vice versa
I do have 1 math video on there about knot theory
that's probably because the vast majority of people enjoy music
except it was before I knew what it was doing so it's shite lmao
yeah im watching it rn 

this was for an intro to group theory class
so I didn't know any path homotopy like I do now
let alone the wirtinger relations at the crossing of a knot
I thought about making a video for the 3b1b contest about knot invariants because I think invariants in general are really cool
but I just didn't have the time
talking about how you have to find a balance between an invariant that's easy to calculate, but not too easy that it doesn't distinguish objects
thank you! 
I think i might be misunderstanding something
or maybe the question is easy 
it should just be [n-1], right?
1 maps to 2 is not an automorphism of Z2 
oh, right
surjectivity
err
no yea thats why like Z->nZ is never at automorphism unless n is 1
i think 
1 maps to 2 is an automorphism of Z3 

wait but you say 1 maps to 2 is not an automorphism of Z2
oh i guess the only possibility would be 1
so why not just [n-1]\0
oh

replace Z2 with Z4 
yes 
okay
since you have to preserve order
i get it 😄
the only way to do it is to map 1 to a number thats coprime with n
yep
okay another part on this same section im not sure about

phi here would be the automorphism itself right
solution kinda jan Niku.
the correspondence is: x coprime to n <-> f \in Aut(Z_n) such that f(1)=n
phi is totient function right
yea
so phi(n) is number of numbers coprime to n
wondering now if my answer to the last part was right
It was 
jan Niku
seems fine right
phi(n) right?
no

wait

idk how youd tell
i guess theyre saying n didnt change?
so G is still Aut Zn
Yeah I'd assume so
And n-1 in Zn should be fixed by exactly the things that 1 is fixed by
oops i pinged
i dont understand that moldilocks 
well i dont really understand the function of a lot of these objects lol
or thats the feeling i get
So same as asking stab 1, which has cardinality |G|/|orb 1|
This one?
If an automorphism maps 1 to 1, it must map -1 to -1, and vice versa
You don't need to do this, I just find it easier to think about 1 than about other generators
hmm the n-1 is throwing me off now

but shouldnt |stab(n-1)||orb(n-1)|=|G|
oh that only works for n = 2 
no wait
it works since <1> = <n-1>
i dont understand why you feel my answer is wrong
it should be |G|/phi(n-1)
This is always correct
not phi(n)
I'm saying that |orb(n-1)| should probably be phi(n) because n-1 can be mapped to exactly the things which are co prime to n
Not coprime to n-1
orb(1) = orb(n-1) 
Yes
bleh
i hate this day lmao
okay
so then |G|/phi(n) = |stab(n-1)|
fair
that helps with 3 right
actually lemme just try it
gimme like 15 min
bein lazy for no reason

yea i dont like this
does it imply that |stab(n-1)| is always 1?
i dont believe that at all
but idk like
i guess maybe 
is it just because only the identity?
otherwise youd need n
but you only get up to n-1
am i close 
im just trying the base case
is |stab(i)|=1 for all i in Z_n

@hidden haven sorry to ping 
if g exists in stab(i) in Z_n, g+i = i
Very close, but it is not 1 for 2 in Z_4
? only 0
1 maps to 3 is an automorphism that stabilizes 2
isnt stab(2) a subset of elements in Z_4
Stab(2) should be a subgroup of aut Z4
👀
The group Aut Zn is acting on the set Zn
why Aut z4
So you talk about orbits and stabilizers of elements of Zn, and these orbits are subsets of Zn, and stabilizers are subgroups of Aut Zn
Wait did I misinterpret the question
I thought this was the set up lol let me see again
Idk are we talking about the question i posted? or just in general
I'm just talking about Z_n not like
Aut Z_n
Well I guess i dont really understand what a stabilizer would even mean in that context
So here it seems the group is Aut Zn
And they just ask for the stabilizer of
Without mentioning what the group is acting on
So I think it is implicit that the action is the natural action of Aut Zn on Zn
action of aut zn on zn 
i dont recall hearing that before
i mean weve seen group operations
i dont think weve ever used the term group action
$\text{ stab } _G (i) = {g \in G : g i = i }$
jan Niku
And where's i
i mean theres only one identity
how can there be anything else
but this is the definition we have
so IDK
Ok yeah this is the case of a group acting on itself by left multiplication 😵💫
Lol I'll also have to go through the previous parts again let me do that quickly
then idk theres some additional fuckiness
Wait so 1 is the identity automorphism in G when we write orb_G(1)?
But then asking for orb(1) is silly
Because that will be G itself
👀
are you defining orb similarly? orb_G(i) = {gi}?
yea
so it doesnt matter here that were in Aut zn right
youre gonna get the same answer as just zn
So for any element g of G, g = g1, so g ∈ orb(1)
Um no I'm saying that for any group G, orb_G(1) = G
👀
Are you sure that these are the definitions of orb and stab 
idk 
Like what kind of group operations have you seen?
its not really clear what the operation even is in this context
not a lot
weve looked at Zn, klein groups
and symmetric groups
Yeah that's true, but I think Aut Zn acting on Zn is a very natural one
so is the group operation here the automorphism or modular addition
Could you give the definition of a group operation that you've seen?
hrm
Like vaguely
Wait by group operations I don't mean the + in (Z, +)
oh thats what i mean
oh ok I see
then what are you talking about 👀
Given a field, you can talk about an "action" of that field on an abelian group, and this gives you vector spaces and linear algebra
Given a group, there's a natural notion of that acting on a set to give you group actions
Similar to how any field F acts on itself by its own multiplication to give a 1 dimensional vector space, any group can be made to act on itself to give a 1 orbit G-set
But that's why I feel that it's silly to ask for orbits in this situation, because it seems that you've only seen a group act on itself by left multiplication? But then there's always only one orbit, the entirety of G
I'm not sure weve covered fields either
well we talked about them briefly in real analysis but never did anything with them
oh whenever I said fields you can replace that with R or C
You might have seen vector spaces with real or complex coordinates already
👀
im not sure, late last week we were talking about isomorphisms
then earlier this week she introduced automorphisms
im not really sure if thats what youre talking about
like the mapping of some element to another element being the group action
with this interpretation, orbits should be the whole group, stabilizers always {1}, the singleton containing the identity 
Ohh
I think I misunderstood you
Ok so you have 2 groups H and G = Aut H
So you're saying that for an element h of H, orb(h) = {h' | g ∈ G, h' = g(h)}?
Is this correct?
oh wait
bleh
im gonna disengage from this convo I'm not gonna be any use
i appreciate your effort i wanna be able to reciprocate
Lol it's alright, sorry for confusing you further 
sorry for my pessimism this assignment has left me really discouraged
tomorrow is a new day
i showed that the augmentation ideal is included in the nilradical by using the previous exercise but im struggling to show the reverse inclusion, namely that every nilpotent element is in the augmentation ideal
i gotta have food will think again about it afterwards
Nilpotents must map to nilpotents under homomorphisms 
yeah i thought i might be able to use that by looking at a polynomial ring and using previous results about those and when that didnt work i gave up. Ill give the general approach another thought though without polynomials thanks
i should probably be using the augmentation morphism 🤦
yeah that works obviously grrr
tried doing one direction by contradiction: assume that there is a non-unit in R and consider its principal left ideal, then this must contain a unit and so our non-unit has a left inverse but I can't show that it has a right inverse to reach a proper contradiction 🤔
You can do better, its principal left ideal contains 1
sure
And you don't need to do it by contradiction
but that still give me a left inverse
Oh right hold on lol
So only 2 left ideals → division ring part right?
yeah
Given a non zero x, we know that x has a left inverse y. y is also non zero, so has a left inverse, and we already know that it has a right inverse x
Show that y is a unit 
Then x must be its 2 sided inverse 
Hi guys! I would like to prove that a Tarski monster is simple group. So suppose the contrary: let N be a proper normal subgroup of G, and pick another subgroup of G let's say M. Both M and N have order of a fixed prime p. So if we take the product MN it's another subgroup of G since N is normal. And if MN has order p^2 than it is a contradiction, but can i say that it has order p^2? I mean we have the formula |MN| = (|M| * |N|) / |the intersection of M and N|, so i would need that MN is a semidirect product, which is not necessarily true
I found the proof, it says that MN would have order p^2, which is indeed a contradiction, but i'm not convinced that |MN| is p^2, because of that formula given for |MN|. I mean, i have to prove that i can always choose another subgroup M such that the intersection of M and N is trivial (??), maybe Zorn's lemma provides this (??)
if M and N are distinct and have prime order their intersection is trivial
so indeed |MN| has order p^2 and MN = N semi M
assuming the previous steps were correct (im not familiar with the tarski monster so idk if you can always pick an M and an N as you did) your proof is fine
yes, they are distinct and both of them have the same order p
yeah just looked up the definition of a tarski monster your proof is correct
thanks 😄
So i just bashed through this but could I have used the fact that x-1 divides x^3-2x+1 to simplify some of the reductions? It feels like I should be able to do so but im not sure..
does this conclusion mean that if i am working with a quotient of a finite commutative ring and I show that it's an integral domain, then I automatically get that it's a field??
that sounds powerful
nevermind that just follows form the fact that every finite integral domain is a field
bash as in long division?
yes, in general if R is not commutative maximal ideals are prime ideals, but in the commutative case these two things coincide
as in i just kept applying x^3 = 2x-1
divide the polynomial by x^3-2x+1 and the remainder will be the answer
sure that also works but that's not my point
wait prime ideals aren't maximal in all commutative rings
well rather that's not my question
hmm idk if you can do much simpler than long division
i just felt that the fact that x-1 divided x^3 -2x + 1 could maybe simplify reducing things like (x-1)^4
i mean if R is finite, with identity
right
in general maximal => prime => primary, radical
forget what i just wrote lmao
couldn't even read it 😵💫
too fast for you
what embarrassing high school story did you post
it's like pressing the enter key on my computer gives me a small burst of insight everytime
half of the time i answer my questions the moment i send them
i should just spam the enter key and see if i solve the riemann hypothesis
One more question about the Tarski monster: the minimum number of generators. So i guess it is two. Because if a have any subgroup of G, then it has prime order, which is automatically cyclic, so it is generated by some element g_1. And if I take the subgroup <g_1, g>, for an arbitrary g in G \ <g_1> then i get the whole Tarski, am i right?
sounds right
at least the reasoning makes sense to me but i mean i didnt even know what a tarski monster was until 30m ago so dont take my word for it
Need help with only if direction
applying the subgroup criteria, youll get a multiplication of the form h_1 h'_1 * h_2 h'_2. Apply the identity HH' = H'H somewhere to this expression to conclude
nvm you said you needed help with the only if direction oop
i thought you just did poor grammar 😂
assuming HH' is subgroup
use inversion
(hh')^-1 = h'^-1 * h^-1
there's another argument to add but this should put you in the right direction
Doesnt work, because we can assume HH' is a subgroup not H'H
do the same trick for (h^-1)^-1 or smth like that
true
just a sec i will try to write this down
the way i would have written it from the start is just (HH')^-1 = H'^-1H^-1 = H'H which hides these details
i think your onto something
but yeah something like what Boti said would do the job
the way to complete your argument is to note that the inverse is a bijection on H and H'
so you dont just get inclusion but equality
the best is to work straight with the subgroups and to show that (AB)^-1 = (B^-1A^-1) and then conclude as I did
yeah
trying to do b) by showing that we arent quotienting by a prime ideal but im having some trouble
nvm i just got what they meant by preceding exercise 🤦
so I'm doing this exercise
it's straightforward showing it is in fact a chain complex
my idea for the second part is that the $H_n$ are basically extraneous information, so we define the chain homomorphism $f_n : V_n \to V_n \oplus H_n \oplus V_{n-1}$ by $v \mapsto (v, 0, \dd v)$
bacono
this commutes since d^2 v = 0
so it is in fact a chain map, but to my understanding we need each f_n to be an isomorphism for f to be an iso in Ch(R-mod)
but even though the H_n are extraneous in the sense of chain complexes, the f_n aren't isomorphisms for each vector space
Can someone clarify a proof? I have this problem: If H is a non-trivial normal subgroup in the finite p-group G, then the intersection of H and Z(G) is non-trivial. So i found this proof on stackexchange, and i don't see why H must contain other classes with one element.
|G| = |Z(G)| + some p^i's
the order of H is divisible by p
Intersecting with H,
|H| = |Z(G) ∩ H| + some of the above p^i's
so we need to have at least p-1 other elements with trivial conjugacy class
If the first term on the right were 1 then mod p you get 0 = 1 which is contradiction
ohh, i see
because then, 0 = 0 + 0 mod p
i mean
yeah
lmao why are yall hating on what i said
i actually like it
Let p be the smallest prime dividing the order of a group G and H a subgroup of index p then show that H is normal.
Since by Sylow's theorem there exist an element g of order p. One idea is to quotient out by <g> (but how do I know if <g> is normal)
maybe I should look at the orbit of K=<g> under conjugation by G .
I have a pretty easy question but I wanted to ask for help on the specifics
So its safe to assume we have some element in the order 3 group of order 3 and some element order 5 in the group of order 5
im struggling with the mechanics of getting from that (or maybe thats not important) into an element in G has order 15
MSO is saying to use lagranges theorem, I'm not seeing how its helpful here
is it iso to $Z/5Z \cross Z/3Z$
bchaotic
I'm not sure, I saw this notation in a video but wasn't sure what it meant
if it is always iso then (1,1) works as generator
this is pretty much identical to a problem I am looking at
no joke
I don't really see how you'd involve cosets in this
but i dont understand cosets either
does this have another name than product?
I'm trying to find something related in our class notes but we haven't talked about these
each subgroup is cyclic
correct
but are they normal
why would that matter
conjugation should work
Basically Z/nZ is isomorphic to Z_n (or whatever notation you want for cyclic groups order n)
(Here they're quotient groups anyway)
But I think worrying about normal subgroups and conjugation is unnecessary for this problem anyway
$x^{-1}Hx$ for x in G is always a group
bchaotic
of same order as H
yeah nvm I agree w your method now lol, I assume you mean like
Eh yeah sorry, my method would be that if x,y generate the groups order 3 and 5 respectively, then <x> and <y> are normal (by hypothesis of the subgroups order 3,5 are unique), so xyx^-1 y^-1 is in both <x> and <y> and hence is equal to e
well maybe that doesnt make sense
i.e. xy = yx
there'd have to be an element of order 15
Nah, <g,h> can be defined as the smallest subgroup of G containing g and h
<g,h> is necessarily order 15 since it has <g> and <h> as subgroups, but we don't know it's cyclic w/o more work
isnt having an element of the order of a group enough to say its cyclic
i think thats the definition weve been using
yes, but how do you know there is such an element yet?
in my method, you can use the fact xy is such an element i guess
because (xy)^k = x^k y^k and so (xy)^0,...,(xy)^14 are different
I'm having trouble understanding what you wrote 
Sorry yes I can explain a bit further lol
okay x and y generate the subgroups
Ok, so again let x generate the subgroup order 3, y the subgroup order 5
im not sure what you mean we get that <x> and <y> are normal but maybe thats just some given theorem
yeah, <x> is normal because for all g in G, g<x>g^-1 is order 3 and so it must be equal to <x>
and same for <y>
Now xyx^-1 is in <y> as it's normal, so xyx^-1y^-1 is also in <y>
similarly xyx^-1 y^-1 is in <x>
but the intersection of <x> and <y> is a subgroup of both <x> and <y> and must be order 1 by Lagrange's theorem
i.e. xyx^-1 y^-1 = e and xy = yx
can you recommend a topic if im not following this
does it have a name
my class notes are useless 😓
oh if <x> = H with H is the subgroup of order 3 then we'd want g<x> = <x>g so g<x>g^-1 = <x>?
but then how are you sure that its order 3
if g is of order k then $xgx^{-1}$ is of order k
bchaotic
but g is in G?
yeah
then how can we know anything about the order of g other than its 1, 3, 5 or 15
i mean wouldnt you hope its possible for it to be 15
i guess i mean im trying to understand this
"for all g in G,.... is order 3" doesnt seem to follow from what you posted
i guess yea we can be sure its not true unless i just have brain damage
there exist g of order 3
right
but not all of them 
oh wait im just dumb

im gonna take a break
so both <x> and <y> are normal ✔️
as for topics{ quotient groups, normal subgroups , kernel of maps}
@oak grove u can forget the normal group and quotient stuff for now, (those came to mind first because it's similar to something I was looking at )
Just use the uniqueness of the subgroups and that 3 and 5 are primes and the order of each element most divide the order of the group and that should be enough.
yea im trying to understand what a normal subgroup is atm
i dont think weve seen the other two topics since they're not mentioned in my teachers notes
half thinking of going into office hours tomorrow and asking if i take a zero on the assignment if shell explain the questions to me 
not needed for this problem
this has everything you need
im not sure how you get there through this



