#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 586 of 407
anyway, we can assume choices have been made so $span B_1$ and $span B_2$ don't overlap
doubledual
and we have remaining vectors $c_l, \dots, c_n$ which are in the span of neither $B_1$ nor $B_2$.
doubledual
so we take $c_l$ and add it to $B_1$.
doubledual
If this puts any new $c_i$ in the span of $B_1$, we add those to $B_2$.
doubledual
now that might force us to add stuff to B_1, so we alternate back and forth as much as needed
until we return to the start of the algorithm
I believe that alternating as I described prevents us from having issues
i need to think a little harder there
(note: this isn't even clear that this is always possible without losing linear independance, that definitely needs to be proved)
agreed
(this is a surprisingly hard exercises given this is an exercise from the first chapter of a linalg textbook lol, the other weren't as hard
)
doubledual
so we then have some c's which are in the span of B1, but not B2
everything else is in the span of neither
we add those cs to B2
so now of the leftover vectors, some are in the span of B2 and not B1, and the rest are in neither span
so as you alternate, you always have this property, no c vector is ever in both spans
at each stage as you add vectors, you preserve linear independence for this reason
so it works
hmmm i think i see a snag actually
i can't really add groups of vectors to the lists
the span of the stuff I add might intersect the span of the Bi we add it to
even if no vector is already in the span
i think we need to do something close to this, but one vector at a time
(I'm still here btw, I'm trying stuff but I get nothing that seems worth of interest
)
👀
this reduces to the following problem
if you have two bases, can you always swap a given vector in the first basis with some vector in the second basis, and still have both be bases?
how does this reduce to this problem ? 🤔
if you can, you just do that m times
no ?
between the B and C basis
imagine you swap the same vectors m times
no so my statement is this
you have a basis b1, ..., b_n
and
c1, ..., cn
is there a ci
so ci, b2, ..., bn is a basis
and b1, c1, ..., cn is a basis
(no ci in the second list)
something like this may still be helpful though
so maybe this is worth thinking about it 
or maybe
wait
just a random thought: is the m = n-1 case easier to solve ? 
nvm, probably not
basically the same case lol
I was thinking about some induction but nvm
so here's one thing you can do
if you have b2, ..., bn
at least one vector in c1, ..., cn is not in the span of those
so call that vector ci
so ci, b2, ..., bn is a basis
is b1, c vectors a basis?
my first counter-example works here, doesn't it ?
doesn't seem like it has to be a basis...
yeah i agree
so yeah how would we even switch one vector lol
btw, not sure if you have seen this
i did, i didn't have an ideas based off of it but its a reasonable approach
Phrased like this, the problem looks a bit easier, even though I'm unable to prove it 
oh also, how about induction on the size of the family ? I didn't even consider it yet 
hmm that might be a better approach
you can probably do some sort of subspace analysis that way
small amount of cases that might make it viable
can we come up with an argument in the 2d case?
Let's try ? 
I think it's bruteforceable
a1 a2 and b1 b2 basis.
If a1 not colinear to b1 and a2 not colinear to b2, we're done.
Else, if a1 colinear to b1 then a2 can't be colinear to b1 and similarly b2 can't be colinear to a1
And same thing in the remaining case
so an argument like this with induction, but replace colinear with more fancy words???
seems good
im in a zoom seminar now, but ill let you know if i come up with anything

If anyone wants to take a look at the problem:
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/496784958430380033/845359901396172800/406586081627078666.png?width=1440&height=560
We only solved the n = 2 case 
(btw thanks for the help !
)
it should be c_sigma(n) yeah
Neither do I 
What french horror novel is this from?
Ah
I can only say
Grab some bases of R^3
And see why it’s true lol
Look at a few and maybe some pattern emerges
¯_(ツ)_/¯
That's currently my plan, yeah 
Well okay so like
If you take b1 through bm
And quotient out by them
Then c1 through cn span the quotient
I guess their like, quotients do
So you can grab n - m of them
And they’ll span V /<b1,...,bm>
But that’s the same thing as <bm+1,...,bn>
So this at least gives you some sigma such that
(b1,...,bm,c_sigma(m+1),...,c_sigma(n)) is a basis
oooh 
You’d need to show the other one works too
ok actually wait
lemme check that my first counter-example doesn't apply here too
Actually it totally does
Because the c_i that died in that quotient
Lie inside of <b1,...,bm>
But that’s m things linearly independent in there
So <b1,...,bm> = <leftover m c_i>
do we know we have m things in there?
That quotient is n-m dimensional
but I don't think m have to die
So there’s m that have to die
lol
Uhhh
they could be linearly dependent right?
I mean
So either they live in <b1,...,bm>
Or in the complement
If they were in the complement
you’d have n - m + 1 thinfs in that n - m dimensional vector space
neither die
🤔
either vector will project to a non-zero vector
they aren't LI after projection
they are definitely spanning, so you can get a basis that way
Okay well here’s a different way to see it I guess
So maybe that’s a bit off but
I think this works like
Hngg
Tfw no paper on hand
before you keep going, let me try to apply shika's counterexample here
B = (1,0), (0,1)
C = (1,0), (1,1)
say you quotient out by (0,1)
both vectors in C are mapping to 1
so you could take either as your swap candidate
but swapping (1,0) would not work
Isn't chmonkey idea actually just your first idea phrased in a fancier way ? 
the quotienting idea is pretty interesting though
I kinda feel like maybe if you write both bases in terms of each other
Then you can do some bullshit
I tried to do so
So obviously you can lift an arbitrary basis of the quotient up
Since your computation shows that it won’t work
What did you do in the dim 2 case?
just pure bash
no, there's actually only 3 cases to handle in the dim 2 case
lemme write out the argument here
so let (a1, a2) and (b1, b2) be basis.
If a1 isn't colinear to b2 and b1 isn't colinear to a2, then we can swap a1 and b1.
Else, if a1 is colinear to b2, then a2 can't be colinear to b2, else a1 and a2 would be colinear.
Similarly, b1 can't be colinear to a1, else b1 and b2 would be colinear.
So swapping a1 and b2 work.
Same thing in the last case (a2 colinear to b1)
Oof
I could've linked it but I wanted to rewrite it just to be sure I didn't messed up somewhere 
Okay wait am I dumb or...
Okay this is a more abstract way to think about this but
You can define maps out of a vector space
By just saying where the basis elements go
yeah
Just map shit and swap one at a time, but there’s no way to know that still forms a basis
But maybe you can like
Say if no such choice works... then....
Okay so
If you had (b1,...,bn) a basis
And (c1,...,cn) a basis
What if you had like
(ci,b2,...,bn) not a basis for all n
I feel like you’d want to say that then
this isn't possible
All ci are in the span of b1 through bn
Yeah
But this implies something like
So like
You could try to say “none of them span V, so something bad”
Or something like “there’s a linear dependence, so something bad”
I think what you want to assume is:
(ci,b2,...,bn) and (b1, c2, .., cn) are not simultaneously basis for all i ?
Like my idea is that somehow this implies either
no ?
yes
Because I think if (ci,b2,...,bn) is a basis
(c1,...,b1,...,cn) should be
For... reason
A = (1,0), (0,1)
B = (1,0), (1,1)
swap out the (0,1) vector of A with the (1,0) of B
Tfw

I felt like the fact a certain map is an isomorphism says it should be so...
Oh I guess the inverse didnt look how I wanted
Ffffff
I should get out of the 🛁 and grab some paper

Damn, most of my math help happens while I'm in the bath too.
😂 😂

Okay so
I think I have the literal shittiest proof ever
But I don’t want to say it because it’s so overkill
Now I want to see it
say it please

Chmonkey proved a millenium prize problem to solve this problem.
and go ahead share your potential proof too, doubledual 
so let B1 = b_1, ..., bm
B2 = bm+1, ..., bn
we're going to come up with an algorithm to sort the cs into these two groups
so first off, each c is in span B1 but not B2, or B2 not B1, or neither
we start with c1
yeah, because B1 and B2 are supplementary 
if it's in the span of B1, we're forced to put it in B2, similarly if it's in span B2
now I claim that if we add it to B1 (say), each c still vector still satisfies the trichotomy
if some ci was in the span of B1, and B2, that ci must have been in the span of B2 originally
sorry i think i lost the idea D:
there was a dimension idea in here
Oof, my idea doesn’t pan out either I think
like i was going to get too many LI vectors somehow
let's ask on chegg
I wanted to use the fact that if P,P’ are projective modules surjecting onto the same thing via say f,f’ then kerf + P’ = ker f’ + P
Lmfao
ok let me try and assume that we can sort the ones which are forced to be sortd
because otherwise the problem is false
just to see if I can deal with the case of c vectors in neither span
yeah ok so if a c vector is in neither span
you add it to B1
the only thing to ask is if a vector in span B2 can now be in span B1
oh maybe i should keep track of the c vectors and play with direct summing of vector spaces...
I may have a legit proof now holy crap
I just need to see if it looks like crap or not lmao
Okay so...
Suppose that no c_i are in <b_1,...,b_m> first
then {b_1,...,b_m} along with any n - m c_i forms a basis of V
because all the c_i are non-zero inside the quotient
does that seem good?
no
no
lol
wut
xD
yeah they don't all have to be non-zero
ohhhh wait sorry
because I have a proof for when it is
you did do that
I think
I mean if they don't live in there
then all c_i are still nonzero in V/<b_1,...,b_m>
what tells you that you can't have c_i written as c_j + b with b € Span {b1, .., bm} ?
so any n - m of them forms a basis of it
am I right...
maybe I'm still wrong
F
well whatever, I think you can prove the case where some c_i is in <b_1,...,b_m> by induction
which at least is a step forward
Why is this problem so wild?
idk lmao
tfw
New edition added a hint because it was too hard, maybe 😂
yeah lmao
ok just to get it out there
I have my B1 and B2 from before
every c vector is in the span of at most 1
No, that is piracy
first suppose we can add c vectors which are in the span of one list to the other list
meeh 
and maintain the property that everything in the span of at most 1 list
(I believe this must be possible for the problem to be true)
do this until every remaining vector is in the span of neither list
if you add such a vector to one list, every remaining vector is now in the span of at most 1 list
so we've maintained that property
so it's going to be possible, if we can show the property is maintained when the vector is in the span of one list
that make sense?
so really we reduce it to the following case:
I have c1 in the span of B2 and not B1
I add c1 to B1
c2 was in the span of B2 already
can c2 be in the span of B1?
oh it definitely can't if B1 and B2 are the original basis, because that would break linear independence
but it's less clear if we've added other vectors to them
funnily enough the only exercise that got an hint added is this one 
hahahaha
😂
(among the exercises of the first chapter, I mean)
Idk how to use the hint anyway
I have forgotten too much LA
I don't know how to prove the hint anyway, so I don't want to use it
B1 = <b1, ..., bm>

B2 = <bm+1, ..., bn>
Lol, the hint might be there for a reason. I would use it if you can figure out how.
and let's say we've made choices for the first k c vectors
so we have B1 and C1 direct summing, and B2 and C2 direct summing
and moreover, every remaining vector is in the span of at most one of these sums
so we consider the next vector c on our list, and suppose c is in B2 + C2
so we add c to C1
we need to verify that if c' is in the span of B2+C2, that c' is not now also in the span of B1+C1
idk how to use it anyway 
so let's say for contradiction $c' = b_2+c_2 = b_1 + c_1 + \lambda c$
doubledual
bi in Bi and ci in Ci, lambda a scalar
I think it can after you add a vector to it, btw.
oh wait
if c' is in B1 + C1
then c would have to be in B1 + C1
which we assume is not the case
ok so let me just make this crystal clear
we have sorted some of the vectors into these sets C1 and C2
the next vector to sort is c
c is in B2+C2, but not B1+C1
since we have the inductive hypothesis that every vector in the c basis is in at most one of these direct sums
so we add c to C1
we need to check the inductive hypothesis is still holding
if c' is an unsorted basis vector
if it was originally in neither span we're fine, at most it's in one span
if it was in B1+C1 we're also fine
so we have to consider the case the c' is in B2 + C2 but not B1 + C1
if c' were in B1 + C1 + <c>
(I totally lost track of what you're doing doubledual
)
thanks 
so if c' = b1+c1+ lambda c = b2+c2
Is this the problem yall are discussing?
ok i think i confused myself above and this isn't working
yeah
yes
ok i give up this problem has beat me
hmm
So my instinct is
Take the bi to be the standard basis for k^n
The other basis is some matrix A in GL_n(k)
We want to show you can pick m of the rows such that the matrix with the standard basis vectors and then those rows is invertible, and the same for their complements
What's the determinant of a matrix which is like e1,...,em,c1,...,cr?
Can you do like, cofactor expansion ?
that's what I was saying here, right ? 
Yup, this is what I'm thinking ajout
So what's the determinant of a generic matrix whose first m rows are the same as the identity
You should be able to do cofactor expansion
But I haven't done that in years so it's taking me a minute haha
I think you get a sign times a minor of the other matrix
wouldn't such a matrix be block triangular ?
No
oh wait yeah no nvm 
An example is
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0
2 3 4 4
7 1 0 3
But the determinant of this is ± the determinant of
4 4
0 3
I think it'll always be + but uh
It's been a minute
lol
Do you see what I'm saying tho?
This?
yes
Wait maybe I misunderstood what block triangular is
You can split it up into blocks where the upper right one is zero
the blocks will not have the same dimensions
we don't care about that
So say your starting basis is c1,...,cr and let A be the matrix with them as rows. Then e1,...,em, cσ(1),...,cσ(n-m) is a basis iff the bottom right minor of A corresponding to cσ(1),...,cσ(n-m) is nonzero
This is what my computation was doing
you still have that the determinant of the whole matrix is the product of determinants of the diagonal matrices
Ah sure
even if the blocks are rectangular
I was thinking about this via cofactor expansion
But the block triangular thing should apply too
So our result can be rephrased as something like
Say you have an invertible matrix A
Find two minors of appropriate size/position which are nonzero
also
did you see the hint ?

the new edition of the textbook contains an hint

idk tbh lol, I'm kinda confused
Sure so
Think about it like this
Say you found a permutation which works
The collection e1,...,em, cσ(1),...,cσ(n-m) being a basis means something in terms of matrices
Yeah?
It means the matrix with those rows has invertible determinant
yeah
but we calculated the determinant of that matrix
You has the block triangular thing
So it's actually the determinant of this weird submatrix of the matrix with rows c1,...,cn
we're expressing the rows in the (e_i) basis, right ?
Or not quite sorry, if you take that matrix with rows c1,...,cn and then permute the rows by σ it's the determinant of a submatrix
Yup!
Ah sorry I hint and I got flipped around
The problem says b1,...,bm,cσ(m+1),...,cσ(n)
When I said bm,cσ(1),...
It doesn't really matter but this is why they have the bottom right (n-m)×(n-m) submatrix and I would have the top right (n-m)×(n-m) submatrix
So let's stick with their convention
ok yeah 
So now it's a problem of matrices
Oh um wait
The hint says we can use this
So we've solved to the hint's standards
I'm still not sure why it's true though
huh
I'm kinda confused about what we solved lol
ig the exercise
but like
for the moment didn't you just reformulate the problem in term of matrices ?
I think I got this part, since it's pretty much what I was trying to do
Yeah
The hint says "you may assume..."
but then, what do you do after that, and how do you use the hint ? 
We reduced it to exactly what the hint says
how so ?
We showed it suffices to show that there's a permutation of the matrix with the rows c1,...,cn where the appropriate minors are nonzero
Which is what the hint says we can assume
Okay so let me go from the top
wtf
I spent way too much time thinking about this exercise, I think I'm lacking brainpower, but I don't think I understand at all where we did that 
ok thanks
say you have bases b1,...,bn and c1,...,cn
write $c_i = \sum_{j=1}^n a_j^i b_j$ and let $A$ be the matrix with rows $a_1^i,\ldots,a_n^i$
shamrock
sorry einstein summation notation is a force of habit
the hint tells us we can find a permutation $\sigma \in S_n$ where if $B$ is the matrix where we permute the rows of $A$ according to $\sigma$ then the upper left $m\times m$-submatrix and lower right $(n-m)\times(n-m)$-submatrix of $B$ are invertible
shamrock
so basically C's matrix in the basis B ?
Yup
I'm totally braindead rn, that'll take time sorry
I think it might be transposed possibly
but that's the idea
A is invertible since its rows are a basis
ok yeah so I agree with that
cool so I claim that $b_1,\ldots,b_m,c_{\sigma(m+1)},\ldots,c_{\sigma(n)}$ and $c_{\sigma(1)},\ldots,c_{\sigma(m)},b_{m+1},\ldots,b_n$ are bases for the space
shamrock
it suffices to show that the matrices with these vectors (expressed in the basis $b_1,\ldots,b_n$) as rows are invertible, yeah?
shamrock
equivalently, the determinant is invertible
and we already calculated that determinant!
👍
thanks a lot
Damn, even I get it now
go shamrock
I don't see how to prove the hint though, sorry
I'm a bit too braindead rn, but I'll try to write up the full solution with all the details tomorrow
And try to prove the hint 😅
as for the hint, I think a friend of mine got a proof, if I really am unable to prove it, I'll ask him 
oh sick
i was about to ask twitter
also i wonder if there's geometry to this
but I think several people failed to see it before me
so it might just be ugly
ok so actually I think I don't want to prove the hint 
(that's what the general laplace expansion theorem states, I think)
huh
I was thinking of like, the sum of products times a sign
what's the conjugation?
I think I'll just assume the hint is true, that looks ugly
yeah
you know what
i just don't awnt to think about this
this notation is annoying
oh wait
are you over a ring or a field?
like, does det A ≠ 0 imply A is invertible?
if so I think this might actually be obvious from the general formula
@final pasture
I'm over a field @latent anvil

this sum is nonzero
right?
so some term in the sum must be nonzero
(as 0 + 0 + ... + 0 = 0)
yeah right
sorry so take i1 = 1, i2 = 2, ..., ir = r
then $\text{sign} \cdot D\left[\overset{i_1\ i_2 \ldots i_r}{j_1\ j_2 \ldots j_r}\right] \overline{D}\left[\overset{i_1\ i_2 \ldots i_r}{j_1\ j_2 \ldots j_r}\right] \neq 0$
shamrock
let $\sigma(\ell) = j_\ell$
shamrock
then $D\left[\overset{i_1\ i_2 \ldots i_r}{j_1\ j_2 \ldots j_r}\right]$ is the determinant of the upper left $r \times r$ of the matrix you get after permuting the columns of your matrix by $\sigma$
shamrock
and the conjugate thingy is the determinant of the bottom n-r by n-r submatrix
so if their product is nonzero, this means they're both invertible, as desired
This is definitely a weird problem
it's like
impossible to do it
without the hint
and it's not like we're supposed to find the hint
the problem is way before the chapter on the determinant
I'm kinda salty tbh, I spent weeks on it, and it's like, kinda obvious with the hint (I'm confident it would've taken me at most a few hours with the hint )
Yeah definitely
Like both of us were able to reduce to it
But then to prove the remaining claim you need this weird expansion formula for the determinant
Well it is pretty easy to prove the hint with this formula, the notation is just ass
Is this for a class or just a book you're working through?
just for a book I'm working through, I don't have linalg classes yet, I'm still in hs 
(also thanks @next obsidian, I think I forgot to thank you for trying to help
)
Let F be a presheaf and let F^sh be its sheafification. By construction, F^sh(U) is the set of compatible germs on F(U). We know that the natural map F(U) --> \prod_{p\in U}F_p is injective with image equal to the set of compatible germs on F(U). Doesn't this imply that F and F^sh are isomorphic?
I don't think that's the image
I think you're thinking that the sheaf image of F -> product of stalks sheaf is F^sh
But the sections of the image sheaf over U aren't the image of the map on sections
Wait, it's also not necessarily injective
Oh wait you're right
Take the presheaf on a discrete two point space which is Z globally and 0 on all other pens
Not quite
It's injective when F is a separated presheaf
So being sheaf has two properties yeah?
Gluing exists and gluing (if it exists) is unique
The second one makes you a separated presheaf
Got it
An example of a separated presheaf whcih isn't a sheaf is any presheaf of functions, eg the presheaf of bounded functions
Prove that the construction for F^sh satisfies the universal property. Let f:F --> G be a map of presheaves where G is a sheaf. Then this induces a map f':F^sh --> G^sh. However, the natural map n_G: G --> G^sh is an isomorphism as G is a sheaf. Thus, n^-1 \circ f^sh is the required map. How do I prove uniqueness?
One way is to use that a presheaf morphism from a presheaf to a sheaf on U is determined by its stalks on points of U
Is there some other way to do it without using stalks
wut
separated presheaf isn't a presheaf
yeah, you construct the sheafification in two steps without using stalks
you have to do this when working with sheaves on a site
In the case of the sheafifcation you're probably familiar with where the sheaficiation is just... built up by the stalks, I don't think you can like...
F^sh is built up by a bunch of stalks, idk how you'd do it without stalks
Should've been "isn't a sheaf"
:O
I mean
Should've been "isn't a sheaf"
Ah so
I transposed sheaf and presheaf
It was supposed to be "presheaf of functions"
this is still not correct as written, I mean any non sheaf presheaf of functions
But whatever lol
kekw
I have decided
I have worked with sheaves enough to be able to use them
but i am not nearly arrogant enough to claim I understand them
Sheaves are constantly my struggle with AG lol, they're so fucking weird
Are schemes nicer than sheaves?
I mean they have a sheaf attached to them, so strictly, no I suppose
but I don't often get tripped up by the scheme bit, it's doing all these weird things with verifying equalities of things on sheaves
and sheaves of modules being odd, blah blah blah
you want to know all these facts which are intuitive, like yes of course tensoring does blank but then you try to verify it and it's just like wtf
Wow the notation for sheafification related stuff sucks
Explicitly writing down stalks of the sheafification is harder than the problem itself
yeah you ideally don't want to refer to the sheafification at all by just checking stalks of the original map
That's what I'm proving
rip
That the stalks are isomorphic
I would share a picture of my proof but it is very ugly
sheafifification
I think that it's not hard to show that the stalks are isomorphic. You want to look at what F^sh looks like on a small open nbd U of x
F^sh(U) on a small nbd of x should look like a tuple which basically is just (s_p) over all p in U
and when you go more local it should stay looking like that, so I'm pretty sure the maps F(U) -> F^sh(U) given by sending s in F(U) to (s_p) in F^sh(U) are an isomorphism
and since the colimit can be computed locally in this sense, the induced map on the colimits should be an iso
I think this is right?
I guess this shows you that the maps F(U) -> F^sh(U) become surjective, but injectivity is a bit trickier maybe? I think it's not true in general that if s_p = t_p for all p in U, that s = t in a presheaf
Or here's a better way to see this maybe, consider an element s_x in F^sh_x. This can be represented by something like <s,U>, then on some nbd V of x we know that s(q) = t_q for all q in U, with t in F(V)
you can define a map F^sh_x -> F_x sending s_x to t_x, then you can show this is an inverse to the obvious map F_x -> F^sh_x, you have to show that this is well-defined though
but this I think just kinda follows by taking intersections of the various open nbds
Overall I guess "not hard to show that the stalks are isomorphic". Seeing that they should be the same isn't too hard I think by that condition that any function needs to be "locally constant" but proving it is a bit harder
@next obsidian sheaves are just covering spaces viewed from below
hey everyone just a quick question
for a field k and a finite group G, what does k^|G| denote?
I'd assume since |G| is just a number, it's the set of all elements in k raised to the |G| power
oh right holy shit lol
I would guess that it's the vector space over k of dimension |G|
neck deep in category theory and rep theory rn.. was parsing it as some exotic algebra
yeah I like Kedar's interpretation better
what I'm talking about would be more likely to me if it was (k^x)^|G| I think
In the context of rep theory you're probably referring to the vector space of functions G -> k (which is the same thing)
by the way has anyone had success going from an MA in pure math to a PhD in philosophy
i don't wanna do this anymore 😄
I'm trying to read this paper and I wanted to know what parts of AG I would need to understand it and apply similar techniques to a related research problem
Perhaps a better thing to ask would be what all can I skip?
If someone could look at this list of chapters (not necessarily individual sections) and tell me which I should skip for now, that would be great
For example, I think I should be able to skip the chapter on intersection theory
So I'm trying to read aluffi rn and his first chapter on ring theory introduces a little bit of homological algebra. However, to be honest, I have zero idea of what homological algebra is- any explanations of what it is on the internet are far beyond my level. Does anyone know of any undergraduate-level explanations of what homological algebra "is", and why we want to do it?
I had sort of the same question as you, fwiw supposedly rotman has an introductory book on homological algebra, although I haven't read it
imo if you don't understand anything you should read for a book presenting more elementary algebraic geometry. Altought I find this one very good and I don't see any chapter you could skip (expect the one marked with a star). You should read all the chapters
It's a bit hard to say. Vakil's book definitely is not a very quick path to what you want to know. There is a lot more information than you strictly need, but you'll want to know things from every chapter other than possibly 17 and 20 (if you need them, you can black box the results in 17.4). And even then, I don't think Vakil talks at all about the Cartier operator.
Honestly, I found homological algebra to be pretty mystifying until I learned some algebraic topology.
Do you know what a functor is?
I think the short answer from your context is that exact sequences are very useful computationally because if you know about some terms in the sequence it lets you get information about the others: e.g if we have A -> B -> C -> D exact then A = D = 0 implies B iso C and things like that
We call a functor F exact if it sends exact sequences to exact sequences, e.g ... -> A -> B -> C -> ... exact implies ... -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) -> ... exact
Thanks for the answers everyone
@maiden ocean when do exact sequences come up? Aluffi says that a lot of the time modules will appear in "sequences" but idk when that occurs
I think the most common example comes from algebraic topology
Actually well the most common example would be quotients
if H is a subgroup of G then 0 -> H -> G -> G/H -> 0 is exact for example
(normal)
But beyond that, like, homology is a good example
(but since you used 0, ig you're working in Ab?)
No i was just being sloppy lol
If I have a topological space X i have a bunch of functors H_n, homology functors, which I guess you can think of as capturing "n dimensional data" in some sense
dw about the details
anyway for nice subspaces A of X then we can define relative homology H_n(X, A) which more or less "ignores A", the details of the construction dont matter but just think of it as kinda like a quotient
anyway we get a long exact sequence ... -> H_n(A) -> H_n(X) -> H_n(X, A) -> H_n-1(A) -> H_n-1(X) -> H_n-1(X, A) -> ... @dusk summit like this
or heres another: say I and J are two ideals of a ring A
Moth In Shambles
I think I can kind of see now, thanks for the examples
yeah i was wondering what that was
So what new information do the exact sequences give?
For example in the one above with normal subgroups
well that just reformulates it
but the general idea is that like
lets say i have a space X and a nice subspace A so we get the LES on homology
if i know H_n(A) and H_n(X, A) i can determine H_n(X) basically
or like in general exact sequences let you use information about some terms in the sequence to say things about other terms in the sequence
So i guess intuitively it provides ways to go from quotients to the space itself
sure
or the other way around
if i know H_n(A) and H_n(X) then i can often find H_n(X/A)
thats interesting
i guess I have to get used to the idea of sequences of objects being important than, rather than just studying one object at a time
Yeah
I mean it's kind of like how morphisms/maps end up being just as important as the objects they are between
Is there a non regular noetherian local ring R with depth 1 such that:
there is a choice of regular element x in m and y in R with m = { z in R : zy in (x) }
With the element t = y/x not satisfying any degree 2 monic polynomial
i have to do peer review and im p sure my classmate claimed something false
but somehow all the examples I can think of don't disprove it
if $H$ is a subgroup of $G_1$ and $G_2$ and $G_1/H \cong G_2/H$, then $G_1 \cong G_2$?
Go
no
:0
consider H as Z2, G1 as Q8, G2 as Z2^3
then G1/Z2 iso G2/Z2 iso Z2^2, but G1 not iso G2
if it were true then life would be much nicer
idk what Q8 is, here's another example, S3 and Z2xZ3
q8 is the non-abelian one
but iirc classifying all of the possible Gs where G/N iso Q and you know N and Q is called like the extension problem, and it's like one of the Hard Problems in group theory
yes your counter-example is the best one
lol yup, i just picked something sorta not nice that came to mind quickly so it would work nicely
Reasking my question about non regular noetherian local rings
Chmonkey pointed out that the minimal number of generators of m must be > 2. The only example I know like this is k[x, y, z, w]/(xz, xw, yz, yw) localized at (x, y, z, w) which I couldn't get to work
If you take t = x/(x-z) then t^2 = x^2/(x-z)^2 = (x^2 - xz)/(x-z)^2 = x/(x-z) = t
So
I think if you take a ring with high dimension
I feel like it’s more likely to find a counterexample?
At the very least if the dimension > 2 then the condition about m’s generators is automatically satisfied
Let A = k[x, y, z, w]/(xz, xw, yz, yw)
tterra moment
Tfw you're a geometer but you're scared of two planes in 4d intersecting at a point
Consider the element b = (x-z)(y-w) = xy+zw
I think this is regular
I want to find an a in A such that (x, y, z, w) = { c in A : ac in (b) }
Ie such that the annihilate of a+(a) in A/(a) is m = (x, y, z, w)
This should be possible for depth reasons
a = xy
then za = wa = 0 and xa = x^2 y = x(xy + zw) = xb and ya = xy^2 = (xy+zw)y = yb
this implies m is contained in (b):a and m is maximal and (b):a is proper since a isn't in (b)
FUCK
If t = a/b then t^2 = t still
hate this
this is geometry @uncut girder
Oh then its good
You can't estimate my level of thinking if you don't know even elementary terminology, so this is just emotions.
How to show whether sqrt(5) is in Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))? just hint if possible
what i tried gives a horrible system of nonlinear equations that idk how to deal with
I don't think it is
it certainly isn't, but how to show it i'm not sure..
think of polynomials
It has exactly three intermediate degree 2 subfields
Which are Q(sqrt(2)), Q(sqrt(3)), and Q(sqrt(6))
If sqrt(5) is in there, Q(sqrt(5)) must be one of these
And this is relatively easy
assume sqrt(5) = a + b sqrt(n) for a, b in Z and n = 2,3,6, bash
Does this outline make sense Carla?
yea
I think it's also true that Q(sqrt(p1), sqrt(p2),...,sqrt(pn)) has degree 2^n for any distinct primes p1,...,pn
I seem to remember proving this
But I also remember it's hard
Just like, this is another more general way you could prove if
i dont think you should say something certainly isnt true if you dont know how to prove it
eh, who cares. Maybe they're wrong and need to say mea culpa
why not? i could've heard a famous mathematician claim it, but not understood the proof myself
trust noone not even yourself
hyperbole is literally the best thing ever
anyway, to show that its not in Q(sqrt(2)) you can check what would happen if it did. then there would exist $a,b \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $a + b \sqrt{2} = \sqrt{5}$. or $a^2 + 2ab\sqrt{2} + 2b^2 = 5$. i dont know if its a good enough as a proof, but "certainly" it is true that either a or b has to be 0 here (to get rid of the sqrt(2) term which is irrational)
reking
The thing to justify your "certainly" is that sqrt(2) and 1 are linearly independent over Q, which follows from irrationality of sqrt(2)
More directly, if ab ≠ 0 you can solve for sqrt(2) in terms of rationals
Anyone want to verify a computation
Say k is a field of char 0
let $A = k[x, y]/(xy(x+y))$
shamrock
Let $b = x-2y, a = y^2(x+y)$
shamrock
Is it right that $ya = -\frac{yb}{6}(3x-y)$?
shamrock
No I have no idea how I got this
,w expand (x-b)y((x-b)+y)
shamrock
AHHH THIS EXAMPLE DOESN'T WORK
I thought for some reason the maximal ideal needs 3 generators
Which is obviously false
I'm gonna to cry
If anyone can find a counterexample for me claim your karma at mse
Okay other counterexample: find an example with all this setup but $x \in \mathfrak{m}^2$ and $t\mathfrak{m} = R$
shamrock
so basically find a blah blah blah ring R with a regular element x = yz where y, z in m and ((x) : (y)) = m
Hello shika
Hello 
I think take R = k[a, b]/(a^2 - b^3) works. Take x = a^2, then R/(a) is k[b] /(b^3), so y = b^2 works. Take t = y/x = b^2/a^2 = 1/b. Then clearly tm = 1 since it contains t * b
Smh my classmate is going to get torn to shreds on this peer review
I didn't even catch this when I read through
cite a paper from the ussr that doesn't exist on your peer review to get around having to do any work
да
open google translate
Idk why I'm so focused on this
They didn't justify a bunch of stuff and failed to consider several cases, I already have a pretty harsh review
But I like to have counterexamples rather than just "you didn't say X"
I need help with a question from AG. Given a sheaf of sets, we know that a sheaf morphism is epic iff it is surjective on every stalk. What if it was a sheaf of rings? Would the statement be that the morphism is epic iff it is epic on every stalk?
Its epic iff it has a reputation if being cool among its peers
Yes
I believe so...
Oh fugg, I know it’s true for sheaves of abelian groups
Just proved it for sheaves of things with an underlying set
Everytime I see your name I read Hahn Banach at first.
Wdym?
lol once more?
i mean, it was a good joke 
If the linear transformation T:R3→R2is defined as
T(x1,x2,x3)=(x1−x2,2x3), then the nullity of T will be what?
??
nullT is defined as {x in R^3 | Tx = 0} so write x = (x1, x2, x3), then Tx = 0 iff (x1-x2, 2x3) = 0, which is true iff x1 = x2 and x3 = 0.
so nullT = { (x, x, 0) in R^3 | x in R }
it's really straightforward, you should practice these sort of exercises that are direct applications of the definitions
if you understand how to write proofs, and you understand the definitions, this should be easy
(Not trying to belittle you, I'm trying to point out what you should work on)
Looks fine I think
Try doing it indirectly, by factoring x^n-1 over Q
Right, that pattern extends
x^n - 1 is the product of dth cyclotomic polynomials, where d divides n
Look at their roots, you'll see they're distributed as given in the problem
And looking at the roots is how you solve the problem
It won't do 2 directly, you'll have to use Gauss lemma
Ok let me think about this
You get this
Is this a one line proof?
But from here it's not immediate that those cyclotomics are integer
I don't see how you got it
Using that the stalk of the sheafification is naturally isomorphic to the stalk of the presheaf
Its not, I've only given the beginning of the argument
Once you have that equation, you can induct on n
Also I think I figured out this one as well
In case you'd prefer to do it that way
So you know what the automorphisms of Q(omega)/Q are?
Yes
But notice that every primitive root is a power of another
So you can give a nice description of the automorphisms
Yes
(ie they are maps which fix Q and send omega to omega^i for i = 1,...,phi(n))
So now consider any one such map, and you want to show that it fixes the polynomial's coefficients
Try proving that any such automorphism only permutes the omega_i's
ie the primitive roots map to other primitive roots, and no automorphism will map 2 to the same
Oh lol
But this specific thing just follows from the injectivity of the automorphism + the fact that roots of a polynomial map to other roots of the polynomial
But the second thing has a subtlety
Roots of a rational polynomial will map to other roots of that polynomial and you haven't proven than cyclotomic to be rational yet
But you will notice that all these omega_i's are characterized by being the nth roots of unity, but not being the kth roots of unity for any k<n
Anyway if you have proven this thing before you can use it
So if an automorphism permutes the omega_i's, and fixes Q, can you show that it fixes the given polynomial?
You don't know whether the coefficients are rational yet
That's what you have to prove
hmm I didn't get that argument
Yes
Yeah
Try to just apply the automorphism to the given version of the polynomial
Don't expand it out
(each factor won't be fixed)
Use the fact that the roots are just being permuted to say that the whole polynomial is somehow fixed
(the factors just get permuted)
t is the variable lol
You are doing this in Q(omega)[t]
Because then you don't know the coefficients
It depends on how willing you are to believe that filtered colimits commute with exact sequences (ie that taking stalks on a short exact sequence of presheaves yields a short exact sequence).
They'll be complicated sums of products of omega_i's
Without expanding it's easier because you know what everything is
So do you see that when you apply an automorphism to that polynomial, all that does is permuting the factors?
Because you already know that it only permutes the roots
Yeah, if f is an automorphism, f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
You've extended whatever automorphism you have of Q(omega) to Q(omega)[t] by just having it act on each coefficient
So you get that the automorphism just permutes the factors
Then do you see that the polynomial is unchanged?
Then the coefficients are unchanged, so you're done
Yeah exactly, permuting the factors won't do anything because multiplication in a field is commutative
(or rather multiplication in the ring Q(omega)[t] is commutative)
The coefficients are fixed by every automorphism of Q(omega)/Q
And Q(omega)/Q is a Galois extension
The only things that all automorphisms fix in a galois extension are the elements of the ground field
Do you see this?
Cool
So if the coefficients are fixed by everything, they have to be in Q


Oh right second part 
No
It says that irreducible and primitive in R[x] is the same as irreducible in (Frac R)[x] where R is a domain
You take the fraction field of only the coefficient ring
Well they'll be monic, so primitivity is ok
But rather than applying this statement directly, try to see when you can say that if f(x) | g(x) in Q[x], then f(x) | g(x) in Z[x]
Ah shit you might have to use the recurrence I mentioned earlier
g(x) here will be x^n - 1
Yeah
look at the roots of x^n - 1, and of the dth cyclotomic polynomial for d | n
all the roots of x^n - 1 occur in exactly one such dth cyclotomic polynomial
yep, but you get something stronger
(product of dth cyclotomic polynomials for d|n) = x^n - 1
because all the roots occur on both sides
Moldi rocks!!!
so now try inducting on n and proving the required result
Induct on n to prove that each cyclotomic polynomial is an integer polynomial, and you know the 2 facts, that equation and the divisibility thing you get from Gauss lemma
yeah
ah
Yeah i can see that field theory (esp gal thy) proofs are way nicer but sometimes you just gotta do it (and idk if you can apply field theory here since youre working with Z)
weird, nothing particularly wrong with induction
its rather nice in its own way
you get from the first part that that equation is an equation in Q[t]
and by induction hypothesis the product of everything on the left, except the nth cyclotomic, has integer coefficients and is monic
(therefore primitive)
so you have f(t)(nth cyclotomic) = x^n - 1 where f(t) is primitive
use the fact that if f(t) | g(t) in Q[t] and both are integer polynomials, and f(t) is primitive, then divisibility holds in Z[t] as well
then use uniqueness of factorization in Q[t]
induction hypothesis
the dth cyclotomic polynomials for d<n are all integer polynomials
and you want to prove that the nth one is too
f(t) in my notation was the product of the cyclotomic polynomials with d | n, d<n
Moldi rocks!!!
I just wrote this as $f(x)\Phi_n(x) = x^n - 1$ where $f(x) = \prod_{d|n, d<n}\Phi_d(x)$
Moldi rocks!!!
f(x) itself is not cyclotomic
it is a product of cyclotomic polynomials
d can be equal to n
but yes
and d=1 as well
hence this equation

@vestal snow channel free now
Can someone verify my proof that cokernel of stalks are isomorphic to stalks of cokernel?
CamScanner 05-23-2021 19.05
Is it okay so far?
The last claim seems to be a diagram chase so I haven't done that yet
Is this asking me to prove that $Ker_{Sh}((Coker_{Psh}(\phi))^{Sh})$ is isomorphic to $(Ker_{Psh}(Coker_{Psh}(\phi)))^{Sh}$?
Hahn Banach
I think this is good, other than I would make a point to say the reason that \varphi_V exists is because the image of F(V) in coker(\phi_p) must be zero by an appropriate diagram chase, hence you can use the universal property of coker\phi(V).
Yeah, I read the question the same way you do.
Thanks
How do I show that the tensor product of stalks is the stalk of the tensor product?
left adjoints commute with colimits
Won't I have to prove first that the sheaf tensor product is a left adjoint?
yes
Okay assume that we know that the sheaf tensor is left adjoint
How does it follow from that?
actually you dont need the sheaf tensor
the stalk of the tensor product sheaf is the stalk of the tensor product presheaf (i.e. just tensor everything levelwise)
and then use the fact that tensor product of modules commutes with colimits
Colim (M_i \otimes N_i) = Colim(M_i) \otimes (N_i)
There's something about this that I think does not work
At each level, we are tensoring with different rings
what category are you working in
okay say you have O_X modules F and G