#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 572 of 407
Idk probably imma take a break for a week cos I’m rlly burnt out
valid
And then maybe topology if I’m up to it
Or catch up with school I haven’t attended my classes since like March
Based
based
based and schoolpilled
hard words
Ok,Try this question:Prove that in a field,the multiplicative group is never iso to the additive group
iso 😳
It's not too difficult
invited
h
HISO
Well if F is finite both have different cardinalities so ofc there can’t be an isomorphism between them
If it’s infinite then Ψ(-1)=0 but Ψ(1)=0 so Ψ is not an isomorphism
And if 1=-1 then simply Ψ^-1(1)=Ψ^-1(-1)=0 so Ψ is not an isomorphism
why not in this case?
Cos u have two elements mapped to one but an isomorphism is one one
nah
if 1=-1 then its the same element
Wait o you’re right
Yea,That case isn't too tough tho
Hint:Look at the isomorphism from additive group to multiplicative
Phi(1+1)=1=phi(1) phi(1)
So F has characteristic 2 and so it isn’t infinite?
F_2[x] has char 2
Ohhh nice
F_2(x), you want a field
Well clearly I have a lot to learn still
right
How did you get psi(-1) = 0?
Oh wait got it
That’s assuming 1=-1
For characteristic not 2
Wait 1 is not equal to -1
Yeah
ok which one did you consider first?
1 isn’t equal to -1
≠, in which case psi((-1)²) = 2psi(-1)
Then I got stuck for 1=-1
= psi (1) = 0
Yea that’s what I did
I didn’t get how phi(1+1)=1
Was responding to this
Is every Euclidean domain a principle ideal domain
Maybe
Prove it
i forgot
Hint:Natural numbers are well ordered
so it is true
Why so
i went over this proof a week ago and cant remember a thing
what's a pid?
i think it was like look at the element that minimizes the euclidean function
Yes
think about what you exactly want to show, and how being euclidean helps you
I was going to answer to this question, again 
ez
You should actually study that proof
solve x^2+x+1 over GF(25)
i dont know where to start
im not good at factoring lmao]
You can literally bruteforce
there's like 25 elements to test
and that's fairly fast
@solemn rain
is there another way?
i think x^2+x+1 is something simpler in F_5[x]/(x^2+2) no?
@final pasture
(it's F_5[X])
no it's not ?
yea sorry
isnt this modulo a degree 2 polynomial?
shouldnt it be something simpler or is that just wrong
is the field of fractions of a ring $R$ just the set of elements written in the form $\frac{a}{b}$ such that both $a, b \in R$ but $b \neq 0$ obv
Fiwam
Yeah but a/b = c/d if ad = bc (equivalence relation built into the a/b notation)
😮
And you are using equals signs inappropriately to connect your statements
i thouht unit means 1
can somebody help me prove that a group of order 2^2 *3 * 11 is not simple?
given everything that I've tried so far, I feel like my best shot is somehow proving that the normalizers of its Sylow 3-subgroups can't have index 22, which seems a little farfetched
i think direct sylow works
look at the sylow 11-subgroup, if its normal then we're done else there are 12 sylow 11-subgroups
this accounts for 120 elements of order 11
12 remaining elements
now if sylow 3-subgroup is normal, then we're done, else there are atleast 4 sylow 3-subgroups accounting for atleast 8 elements of order 3
This leave precisely enough room for just 1 sylow 2-subgroup hence that is normal.
i just proved that at least one of the sylow subgroups is normal, hence the group isn't simple.
can we also rule out the possibility of 4 3-sylow subgroups because, assuming simplicity, the group would somehow fit into S4?
1, 4, 22 are the divisors of 44 which are 1 mod 3
so you'll need to use the argument with 11 to rule out first that there could be 22 sylow 3-subgroups
so I'm back at square one
your argument would then say either the sylow 11-subgroup is normal or the sylow-3 subgroup is normal.
wait actually no
because the kernel could be something arbitrary.
are you trying to see exactly which sylow subgroup is normal?
I'm only trying to prove that it's not simple
yea so do you not like the above argument by counting elements?
maybe i'll rephrase
Assume the group is simple, then sylow 11-subgroup isn't normal and so isn't sylow 3-subgruop. Number of sylow 3-subgroups can't be 4.
This leaves us with 22 sylow 3-subgroups and 12 sylow-11 subgroups
well this is all i can think of right now 😛 that then there are 44 elements of order 3 and 120 elements of order 11 and we just exceeded the size of groups
I got it
i thought in this direction because once i looked at the number of sylow 11-subgroup, i got it should be 12, and that's quite a lot
when you get like a small number you think of stuffing in S_{small number} like you said
since 12 was huge, it practically filled up my entire group. So intuitively it was not hard to see that room for other sylow groups is very contrained. And indeed this was the case.
alright, thank you for the explanation. I'm the one at fault here since I didn't know these counting arguments before
Sylow exercises are a painful amount of counting arguments
and somehow we've never seen one in class
i first saw this kinda argument for a group of order 12. So if the sylow 3 subgroup isn't normal then we get 8 elements leaving only enough elements for one sylow 2-subgroup.
I was struggling with groups of order 12 earlier today lol
- counting arguments
- use sylow subgroups to construct a subgroup of small index k, which implies a homomorphism from G to S_k, which has kernel in G (which is a normal subgroup). You can often find contradictions if you assume G is simple (i.e., the kernel is trivial)
- can do the above and identify G as a subgroup of some symmetric group S_k if G is simple, and then show that either S_k contains no subgroup of order |G|, or you can construct a subgroup of G that can't possibly be in S_k
- do some fuckery with intersections of sylow subgroups
- can look at normalizers and centralizers of sylow subgroups
these are usual methods of finding contradictions
using sylow
to show a group isn't simple
- lol
it just takes too much time to explain over discord
makes more sense if you just look at examples
is this even possible?
yes
like 1 and -1 divide every integer
oh ok
suppose u is a unit in R. Then, u v = 1 for some v. Let r be arbitrary. Then, r = 1 r = (u v) r = u (v r), so u divides r
it's just a one liner
Isn't that like the definition of a unit?
Hold on lemme check
yep, a unit divides 1 and hence anything
(but you need to be careful, if the ring isn't commutative, cause both left and right units satisfy that)
attempted this question and the solution is something completely different
they ended up doing an expansion instead :/
Your solution could be right too
idk if it's right
b^2=0 doesn't imply b=0, eg consider z mod n for n divisible by a square
You seem to think the problems are totally trivial, when it was a*b, you just made b = 1 and now you make b = p 😂
I thought you had a solution
Don't say that
Just don't say things you can't prove
There is no reason b^2 =0 would imply b = 0 except that it feels right.
If you are working with unfamiliar structures, your intuition can be misleading
feels right in the integer field 🙂
But also, if they meant b = 0, they would have just said that
You just have to get used to it
Think about what you want
You want to multiply a+b by something that gives you 1
You know a is invertible, so you can handle an a by multiply by a inverse
But you need to get rid of the b's first
So can you multiply a+b by something that will get rid of the b's completely using b^2 = 0
was thinking b^2 mod p = b^2 * q + r
actually nvm
that wouldn't get rid of the b^2
Remember, b^2 is 0. So if the only b's you have is b^2, that would get rid of it since you could replace it with 0.
Well, then the first term would be ab
So you would still have a b there
Sorry, watching tv
b/b
Will check back in when I'm done before I sleep
division isn't exactly an operation in rings (with more work)
If it did, b * b inverse would be 1. So that wouldn't do anything.
hint: use difference of squares
Ah, I just solved it, neat problem!
hint: iterate through every possible polynomial dimension (in a and b) until you find one that works. if one exists you'll eventually find it
My original thought was to try to use x is a unit iff x^2 is a unit, and try squaring (a+b)
But this didn't seem to help, but....
Yeah, objective 1 is getting rid of b and there is really only one way to do that
my thought process was
- think of concepts that have a b^2 term isolated from a term with a
- need an expression that divides a + b
- thought of squares of terms, and difference of squares
- made the connection with difference of squares
and then it's immediate
my thought process =>
- That's quite close to a similar problem I've seen about nilpotent endomorphism
- The sol generalizes
but not sure that helps 
is slader.com a reliable source to get answers?
I don't recommend going to look for answers
Try yourself
If you get stuck, ask here for hints
Sometimes solutions can be helpful, but most of the time, it's just not as effective as struggling until you get it
slader solutions are often also not exactly correct
for non-calculus things
I've seen
I've never used slader for calc, although I know the stewart solutions are extremely popular
on slader
it's also decent for some intro engineering textbooks from what I've heard
if you have the clear isomorphism
than all you need to do is show it's surjective and injective
show it satisfies the presentation, show the orders are the same?
I mean you can just show everything directly
hmm so @old lava that makes total sense, but like, the injectivity is so clear that I feel like I'm just saying "well look at it"
it's not particularly difficult to show that the kernel is trivial
or that the map is surjective
it's almost by definition
once you've constructed the homomorphism
Yeah
so I have this mapping, and like basically by the property of group powers it has to be injective. I feel like that's all there is to say
by the way you have defined, it is very clear that this is a bijection. but why is it a group hom?
Hmm yeah I need to show that it preserves the respective group operations, like the structure. That's where I'm stuck because I can't think of how to do it other then by cases/examples
It's pretty easy to evaluate for say, D4 y'know. I just need to almost generalize an example further
i would have done it the way Kaisheng21 suggested
I don't really understand what he meant by presentation.
Maybe I haven't learned that
Dn = <s, r | s^2 = r^n = srsr = e>
Oh! Yeah that makes sense
so the idea is Dn is characterised by a rotation and a flip. So looking at the analogue for them in the matrix group, we have S = [-1, 0; 0, 1] and R = [1, 1; 0, 1].
its just basic checking that S^2 = R^n = (SR)^2 = [1,0;0,1]
can there be more relations between these though?
the answer is no, because if there were more relations then we would have less than 2n elements!
aren't all other relations characterized by the presentation?
I don't quite understand the last message, but I fully understand how the proof should go now
:)
okay so look at the trivial group and take s = r = id
indeed s^2 = r^n = srsr = 1
but does this mean that this is Dn?
oh hmm
det is saying that if there was other relations not deducible from the ones we already know, then there would be some elements that are in Dn but that aren't in the group that answers the relations enhanced with the new relations
its just like such a trivial Dn that it can't really be Dn
ah yeah I think I get it
if you want to write this formally, search for how presentation is actually defined.
I think I was thinking that he said we would need less than 2n elements to have an extra relation. Which was confusing.
When what he was really saying was that having an extra relation would imply that we started with under 2n elements, which is false
is x=1 a solution for x^2+x+1 over GF(25)?
what i did was umm
GF(25) = F_5[x]/(x^2+2)
x^2 +2 is 0 here so
x^2 is -2
so x^2+x+1 is -2+x+1 = x-1 = x+4
so x=-4 which is 1?
am i bullshitting here or what
Can't you just do 1^2+1+1=3 != 0?
ye ai did that but idk why what i did is wrong
F5 is a subfield of GF(25), so there is not even anything crazy
I think this should be using a variable other than x
why
Because you already used x as a variable in the polynomial
When we write GF(25)=F5[y]/(y^2+2), y is a (representative of) an element of GF(25)
yea
Basically you are conflating two different variables, I think
Wtf is GF(25)
galois field of 25 elements
25 yo girl friend 
???
?/
Is this just the field of 25 elements
yes
How to factor it: try every element of GF(25)
Maybe rational root theorem?
I mean how are you even gonna write down the elements of that field lol
Besides the obvious 5 elements
Ah wait, does RRT work in arbitrary fields?
idk
Mo2men already introduced y variable for it
Just write down 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, y, y+1, etc...
I could think 25 is not that big of a number
okay say im in GF(64)
now what
is there a more general way
to solve these quadratics
should be easy but i just dk how ig
wait
lmao
i got it
quadratic formula
this isnt char 2 so yea
Ah right
I think if you factor over eg Z you get a polynomial that has all linear or quadratic factors except one 4th degree thing right?
So you can do quadratic formula on those quadratics and then worry about just the 4th degree one?
,w factor x^2+x+1 over GF(25)
So it looks like it does have a root
i just used quadratic formula
it has -1+sqsrt(2)/2
and -1-sqrt(2)/2
those wouldnt be in F_5[x]/(x^2+2) no?
i don't know, does F_5[x]/(x^2+2) have a sqrt of 2?
i guess x is a sqrt of 3, x^2 = -2 = 3
Sure, consider abelian groups
hmm what if it's non-abeliean?
alot of groups are the product of their normal subgroups
im trying to show that the product of two normal subgroup's elements always commute, but I only know how to show this if they don't overlap 🤔 So I was wondering if there were any facts about overlapping normal subgroups i am missing
if they overlap non trivially they do not have to commute
the proof actually uses the assumption that they intersect at the identity
@wild sapphire
Oh, so my question is wrong? It doesn't specify the non-trivial overlap
Suppose H and K are normal subgroups of group G, show that $\forall h \in H$ and k \in K, hk=kh$
like that
darkninja175
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
the forall is for both, sorry
take G = D_2(4), N = {e,r,r^2,r^3} and K = {e,r^2,s,r^2s} , and take h = r^2 , k = s --> r^2s != sr^2
verify N and K are normal subgroups
@wild sapphire
Hmm interesting
(x-1)(x^2+x+1)(x+1)(x^2-x+1)(x^2+1)(x^4-x^2+1) that is the factorization of x^12-1 over Z right? @solemn rain
So the only tricky one is the last factor that's degree 4? (I'm assuming you will figure out the degree 2 ones)
Because you have quadratic formula
yea i can still factor it further ok
And presumably you can figure out which square roots exist in GF(25)
how
Well, it is only sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) that must be considered. And sqrt(3) was already shown to exist
sqrt(2) shouldnt exist
And apparently wolfram alpha already told us sqrt(2) must be in there too
why
Because x^2+x+1 factorable is equivalent to sqrt(2) in GF(25)
omg i hate math
I think 2x and 3x are both square roots of 2
Yeah
So all quadratics with coefficients in F5 can be factored in GF25
whats sqrt(2) in GF(25)
I just wrote it, 2y and 3y in F5[y]/(y^2+2)
There are only 2 solutions, 2y and 3y are negative of each other
(Z/mZ)* = {a in Z/mZ s.t gcd(a, m)=1}
okayy
so ur this specific group
u want the count the elements a such that gcd(a,35) = 1
i just go through
u can do that yes
well
i guess that is more of my question
okay
u can try to have fun ig
lets define a function
call it phi(x) or whatever
and let it be this specific number actuall
like
define phi(x) to be the number of numbers coprime with x
okay?
okay so
lets do some digging
so lets for example ask
what happens if x is prime
is it easy to find phi(x)?
if x is prime then ur only co prime with other primes
if x is prime
how many numbers are u coprime with
tyt
( try examples )
please no spoiler
haha
let him/her try on his/her own
oh sorry I didn't read the last few messages
wdym x is 12 and 4
x is only 1 number
u want to find how many numbers are coprime with this number
this is phi(x) as we defined it
and now im asking u to think about phi(p) if p is prime
ok
what do you think phi(p) would be
for what
tyt
hint
if u struggle to do something for the general case
try a small example
saay p is 7 or any small prime
how many numbers are coprime to that 7
and keep going with more examples untill u see something u can generalize later
so what do u think is phi(7)
10
phi(x) is x-1 if p is prime
iff
okay
cool
so now
thats ur first theorem ig
so
can u think of phi(pq)
where p and q are primes
( hint : think of the elements that actually have a common divisor with pq )
so phi(2 and 3)
for example
@solemn rain did you say above that sr^2 != r^2s, because that's not true
6 ur only co prime with 2
2 numbers
phi 10 is 4
2 and 5
so phi(pq) is phi(p)*phi(q)
so sorry , i meant rs
yeah, that one works 👍
phi(q)*phi(q)?
yea so sorry i fucked up
i meant phip * phiq
do you mean phi(p)phi(q)?
yea
okay so can u tell me why this works
convince me
with a more 'general' argument
rather than showing me a couple examples
ok
p-1
okay so
phi(p)phi(q) = (p-1)(q-1) okay cool
now can u convince me again why phi(pq) equals phi(p)phi(q) where p and q are primes
tyt
um
how can i express this kernel as a Z6 module, like Z6[ ??? ], in otherwords, how do i find the basis vectors for this module?
so we are checking the the gcd of (pq, q) which is q, but the gcd of (pq, of lets saay 2q) is also q, and this also works for (pq, q)
we figured out that p-1 and q-1 but i don;t know why it is multiplicative
that do not have gcd of 1
okay
think about the what numbers that are not coprime with pq
what are they
they are numbers that are multiples of p or q
yes
how many of those?
so
how many multiples of p that are less than pq
and how many multiples of q that are less than pq
q and p
pq is not less than pq?
if i want the multiples of p less than pq i just divide pq by p which gets us q
O
but its less than
so we dont include pq
yea
so its q-1
we get p-1
p-1)(q-1
wait
we agreed the multiples of p less than pq are THOSE not coprime with pq
and we agreed the multiples of q less than pq are those not coprime with pq
so this one has q-1 and this one has p-1
so how many numbers not coprime with pq all around
um
so for example
3*5
the number of elements not coprime with 3*5 is the number of multiples of 3 and thenumber of multiples of 5
less than 3*5
we ar eadding it?
yup
its just both
so now
we now the number of numbers NOT coprime with pq is (p-1)+(q-1)
how many numbers all around less than pq
pq-1
how many numbers not coprime with pq
p-1 + q-1
yes which is p+q-2
so
we have pq-1 positive integers
we know p+q-2 of them is not coprime
how many are coprime
?
we take the difference?
pq-1 -(p+q-2)
simplify this
okay
thats it
if u look at this long enough
u see its just (p-1)(q-1)
which is phi(p)phi(q)
thats
so now
phi(x) as we defined it is just the order of |Z/nZ|^x right
so now
can u answer ur question much more easily now
yea
the order would be just phi(35) right
so its 5*7-5-7+1
24
i see
this phi(x) is actually a p famous funtion that has more cool properties
called the euler totient function
u can look it up if u want
I seee
I seee
wow. thank you u just walked me through a pretty big problem in my head
thank you!
no problem!

Hello everyone, I wanted to ask if my argument for this proposition seemed sound. The claim is:
“Show that the unity element of in a subfield of a field must be the unity of the whole field”
Proof:
Let F be a field, and let K be a subfield. Denote 1_F the unity of the field F, and denote 1_K the unity of the subfield K. Since both 1_F and 1_K are in the field F, it follows that
1_F * 1_K= 1_K = 1_K^2
Using our additive property of the ring, we have
1_F*1_K - 1_K^2 = 0; then we factor out 1_K by the distribute laws of the ring, hence
1_K ( 1_F - 1_K ) = 0 ; so either 1_K = 0 or 1_K = 1_F ; but 1_K cannot be 0, so the unity of the subfield K must be equal to the unity of the field F
what is 1_K^2
@vital walrus
if you mean (1_K)^2
then idk how
unless u assumed 1_F = 1_K
which is what u want to prove in the first case
im sorry but i have to say
this is not a proof
Oh yes sorry; (1_K)^2 ; because 1_K=(1_K)^2 by idempotence of unity
Okay thank you, I wasn’t sure if I misstepped somewhere along the way 😅
yea was just seeing if he/she is focusing or not .. 
okay
hahaah np lmao
Ooooh yes it’s the identity 😅
Yea cos Lagrange’s theorem
so i got that phi(35) is 24
so the order(2) have to divide 24
so order of 2 is just 24?
cuz only 24 in the 35 intergers divides 24
check 2^12
No it can be any of the factors of 24 check for them all
I don’t think Z/35Z is a finite group so we can’t apply Lagrange’s theorem nor can we apply the corollary cos 35 isn’t prime
I suppose it has 0 order cos 2^n never loops back around cos Z/35Z is infinite
what
i got 2^12=1 mod 35
How do you show that finite order elements of the free product of two nontrivial groups G and H are just conjugates of finite order elements in G and H
Find 25 distinct elements in (Z/35Z)^* in that case
nvm i got it
Is it possible for two abelian normal subgroups to have a non-trivial intersection? I feel like it's not
If you have an abelian group, then just pick two non-trivial subgroups, one contained in the other
Another example is D4, we have the 2 subgroups {1, r, r², r³} and {1, f, r², fr²} (r is the rotation, f is the flip)
Does the inverse of an element of a group always form the same cyclic subgroup? For example if a is in G, is it always the case that <a> = <(a)^-1> ?
how do you define <a>?
Oh yes sorry;
<a> = {(a)^n : n is an integer}
and then what is <a^-1>? do you see why they have to be the same?
<(a)^-1> = {(a^-1)^n : n is an integer}
So it’s just because n can vary freely? As in they “swap” based on whether n is positive/negative but they are still yielding the same set?
yep. if you have to write it down, you'll just need to show every element in <a> is also in <a^-1> and vice versa. These follow precisely from your "swap" intuition.
Okay thank you!

What the hell happened here. Someone said Z/35Z isn’t a finite group?

Prof: ah, I will give an easy exercise, "write down an infinite group", no one should get this wrong.
Student: Z/35Z.
Prof: 
all numbers > 8 are basically infinite
i have infinite fingers >.<
for all practical purposes you do
i mean think about it
have you ever been like
"man"
"i ran outta fingers"
if we had 12 fingers, i could keep my index fingers on G and H >.<
but [G : H] is already an index

sorry you arent skilled nami
how do you move your second toe without moving like 3 others
you can go till 3^10-1 if you can control your fingers >.<
youre assuming our hair can be well ordered
you're assuming just because you cant, that we cant
are you anti-choice?
recall that any number > 8 is basically infinite
we conclude that they are indistinguishible
even with choice
axiom of name convention that makes sense
$D = {m + n\sqrt{2} | m,n, \in \mathbb{Z}}$
Yes
Field of fractions of that is Q[√2]
Map (a+b√2,1) to a+b√2
and (1,a+b√2) to 1/(a+b√2) which can be rationalised
I mean be more explicit as to why (a.1)(b.1)=(ab).1
distriutivity?
a and b should also be in N
Just write b.1-a.1=(b-a).1 the b-a step is kinda unnecessary and weird
Yes
A ring
this seems self evident
but how do you formalize this
R is a subset of Q containing all the integers, so ofc it can written as a/b such that a is in Z and b is in a subset of Z that does not contain 0
So what are you saying is S?
that wouldn't be a ring
that cant be possible since 2/4 would still be in R
yes
This sounds close to what I'm guessing is the correct answer
(I'm not completely sure what S should be but I have a guess)
so say R does not have an element of Q in it, say 1/2, that means it'll also not have all multiples of said element
1/2 , 1/4, ... so on, and also -1/2, -1/4 and so on
since it has to be closed under multiplication
but idk how that manifests itself in the restriction on S
I guess 2,4,... Would not be in S, I'm not sure what else can be said
Maybe it is fruitful to think of the example of the ring R that is just Z with 1/2 added, so Z[1/2]
that is just Z localized at the multiplicative set {1, 2, 2^2, ...}
I think taking S = {s in Z\{0} | 1/s in R} should do the job.
you can check that this is a multiplicative set
@rustic crown what about when we have 2/s in R, but 1/s isnt, or vice versa?
i feel like this S doesnt account for that
maybe im missing something
it does actually, because if a/b is in R with a and b coprime, the we can find c in Z such that ac = 1 (mod b)
hence if a/b in R then ac/b - some integer = 1/b in R
so b in S and then a/b in S^-1 Z. This shows one inclusion.
other one is even easier.
an element of S^-1 Z looks like a/s for s in S. But then 1/s in R and hence a/s in R.
problem with taking other 2/s and all the in the definition would be that s could be even. So say R could be just Z, and 2/2 in R. But i can't have S contain 2. else that would force me to have 1/2 in S^-1 Z.
and if you force coprimality, then ig it would work, but showing that S is multiplicative would require that a/b coprime => 1/b thing.
does it make sense?
@rustic crown i think i understand now, tyvm ❤️

yo det
yo $\sum_{i_1,i_2, \dots , i_n=1}^{n} \varepsilon {i_1 \dots i_n} a{1,i_1} \dots a_{n,i_n}$
Godel
Since the prime ideals of of S^{-1}A (ring of fractions idk how standard this notation is) are S^{-1}p for p prime and p cap S = 0, if the 0 ideal is prime in S^{-1}A does this imply that 0 is prime in A?
im pretty sure this is not correct and maybe im misunderstanding the correspondance here, but my book writes it as p <-> S^{-1}p
or more precisely
im dealing with A_p is an integral domain for all prime p, which i know implies that the nilradical of A_p is zero and so the nilradical of A is also zero
and we also have that N_p is prime for all p
does this imply that N is prime?
t minus 3 minutes until chmonkey arrives and talks about sheaves
I dont think that you can pass the property of being an integral domain backward. For example, Q x Q is not an integral domain and has 2 prime ideals, and if you localize at each prime you get Q I think
is the correspondance as written not actually correct 
like does S^{-1}p prime not imply p prime
I think the issue is that you can have multiple ideals I which become the same under localization
What is true is that every prime of S^{-1}A is of the form S^{-1}p for some prime p of A
But just knowing that S^{-1}J is prime doesnt mean J is
it works if p intersect S = empty
it works for prime and primary ideals
for other ideals funnier things can happen
I have no clue how to define the function
Do you know about freegroups and presentations?
okie so we might need to verify some things by hand.
we want to find a group homomorphism from D_n to S_n.
What do you think is a good choice?
was this exact question not asked yesterday
i was thinking of defining f(x) = s^u r^k
yep. with the same notations.
some1 from my class im guessing lol
But we used presentations yesterday
nvm then
basically define this map, it would be easily a bijection. but you might need to do some work to show it preserves the operation.
yea so basically have this f(x) = s^u r^k
and i have proved bijection
i just cant show that it preserves the operation
or lets just do the way you're doing...
y = [v, m; 0, 1]
compute xy
then see where xy is sent to
[uv, um+k; 0, 1]
yep, and this is sent to s^(uv)* r^(um+k)
yep
take cases on values of u and v to show this is same as (s^u r^k)(s^v r^m)
yea you just need to take cases on value of v
actually we probably need to map it to s^(u+1)/2
wait there is a mistake in this...
yes
yep
more like (1-u)/2
u = 1 should map to s^0 and u = -1 should be s
well (1+u)/2 is 1 when u = 1
okei where will [1,0;0,1] go?
s
its the identity on the left group
yep
when you have -1 in the first entry, then the matrix sends the column vector (1, 0) to (-1, 0). which is like flipping.
yea look wrong
x = [u, k; 0, 1] y = [v, m; 0, 1]
okie so i want
[-1 0]
[ 0 1] |--> s
and
[1 1]
[0 1] |--> r
yes so thats basically what i have
i'm just checking f(x) = what we gave indeed works with matrix multiplication... should have made sure of it earlier 😦
ye so you see the problem is
[-1 0] [1 1]^k = [-1 0] [1 k] = [-1 -k]
[ 0 1] [0 1] [ 0 1] [0 1] [ 0 1]
so the group map would send this matrix to s r^k
but what we defined makes it go to s r^{-k}
the fix is easy
either change your f(x)
or notice
[1 k] [-1 0] = [-1 k]
[0 1] [ 0 1] [ 0 1]
so the group map wants to send this matrix to r^k s
instead of s r^k
So the map is,
send the matrix
[(-1)^a b] --> r^b * s^a
[ 0 1]
wait if we swap the order its fixed ?
b takes values in Z/nZ and a takes values in Z/2Z
right this calculation show that
the matrix corresponding to s should be on the right
Say
[(-1)^a b] --> r^b * s^a
[ 0 1]
[(-1)^c d] --> r^d * s^c
[ 0 1]
Then their product is,
[(-1)^(a+c) b + (-1)^a d]
[ 0 1 ]
--> r^(b + (-1)^a d) * s^(a+c)
i see
if a = 0 then
(r^b s^a)(r^d s^c) = r^(b+d) s^c
and if a = 1 then
(r^b s^a)(r^d s^c) = r^b s r^d s s^(1+c) = r^b (srs)^d s^(1+c)
= r^(b - d) * s^(1+c)
yes so the swapping works ill try writing it out

I generated the ideals of Z25, but I'm not sure how to tell if they're prime or maximal
or both
so I have {0}, Z25, and <5>
just not sure how to identify it
Z_25 is not an ideal of Z_25
ah crap
How is Z25 not an ideal?
Isn't it <25/25> = <1>?
Then that's just Z25
and then there's this in my textbook
so I figured Z25 would be an ideal
might just be a difference in definitions
To me, a ring R in itself should not be considered an ideal, since then the idea of "maximal ideal" becomes pointless
Then you need to say something like "penultimate" ideal, which actually, when I think about it, it sounds sort of cool too
Ok, so what is a maximal ideal then?
ahh
Ok, so you really mean "maximal proper ideal" when you say "maximal ideal". But this is too long to say
This is the definition I like. An ideal I of R is maximal if whenever J is an ideal such that $I \subseteq J \subseteq R$ then J is I or R. I guess I can see the motivation for not wanting to awkwardly exclude R like this, but it's what I'm used to.
Lunasong the Supergay
Yes
depends on yoru definition also
I'm confused because we did proofs including R
R is an ideal. It is just never prime or maximal.
I would just say this is weird. "Maximal" and "ideal" are already defined terms.
The other people are just using different definitions
so <5> isn't prime because something like 5*10 is outside of <5>, correct?
Huh
or am I misunderstanding the definition
Yes
well <5> is only {0, 5, 10, 15, 20} in this case
or is it 5*10 mod 25?
because then it'd be 0
Indeed
gotcha
so is it not prime?
or are a and b meant to be any value?
well even then, I can't think of anything where it wouldn't be right
I just remembered that
and {0} is just neither?
it should be prime
based on the def
since a or b has to be 0
oh wait unless it's like, the equivalence class thing
because something like 5*10 mod 25 is 0
but neither 5 or 10 are 0
Indeed
so then it isn't prime
and then it isn't maximal either
since it's a subset of <5>
not sure if it's proper actually, but I think it is
alright all is good
thank you all for the help
and differing views
@chilly ocean question
If you define R not to be an ideal. Do you not define R/R as a quotient ring?
I guess not

Do you know of a text that doesn't define R as an ideal?
Ah, my favorite algebra book, d and f, defines ideal in a way that R is allowed
using lang like mirza?
oh wow first search result is a complete pdf
Rotman's Advanced Modern Algebra ? It's a jewel, yeah, I love it
is it possible for a function in Z5[x] to just have no roots because they're all real or complex?
like I mean not that it makes much of a difference right




