#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 571 of 407
Sorry let me back up
it's not really a theorem about Q[x], it's about Z[x]
But gauss's lemma lets us reduce to Z[x] a lot of the time
But it concludes irreducibility in Q[x]
so generally if A is an integral domain and P is a prime ideal of A, and f = a x^d +.... + c is such that a is not in P, all the nonconstant coefficients are in P, and c isn't in P^2 then f is irreducible in A[x]
Er wait
I screwed up
Ah sorry, I misremembered
You're totally right
It could be divisible by some element of A
But it isn't divisible by any polynomial of strictly lower degree
In A[x]
Returning to Z and Q, this is sufficient to conclude irreducibility over Q but not quite enough over Z
Indeed, the only way i know it could be used that way is with also gauss's lemma
I think it's actually easier to generalize it yourself than to have me explain
If you look at a proof of it, you'll see how you can replace primality of a number with a prime ideal
hm no I disagree with myself now
Maybe the ideal needs to be maximal
Even then, does the hypothesis hold here?
I don't think it applies, sorry for the diversion
I didnt notice
No false advertising on my part :P
Its ok, no worries at all
actually thanks, it would be such a wonderful thing to have a generalized eisenstein's criterion
I'll think of it as soon as i have time to spare
Good luck!
Ty
@chilly ocean
It was surprisingly straightforward from here...
yup! the gauss's lemma trick is really cool
wow
I got the t power thing, but i wouldnt have thought that would be the general form of a factorization from there
f(x)(g(x) + t h(x)) this one
very nice approach
How do I prove $<f> \subset I_{x}$
Moosey
please use \langle ...\rangle instead of <...>
nah it's ok lol. it's just that \langle...\rangle looks better
if one has an associative algebra $A=\text{span}(e_1,\dots,e_n)$ with inner product $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$ then does $$\langle e_\alpha,e_\beta e_1\rangle =\langle e_\alpha,e_\beta\rangle$$ for all $\alpha,\beta$ imply that $e_1$ is the unit of the algebra?
nvm
@red imp it's equivalent to x e1 = x for all x
If the algebra is assumed to have a unit already this implies e1 is the unit
I don't think it's sufficient to imply e1 is a unit on the left but I could be wrong
yeah thats what I briefly tried to show but I couldnt find a contradiction when I assumed that e1 wasnt the unit đ
oh the algebra is commutative
I should have said that
Oh lol
Then uh
Yeah it's a unit on both sides
If it's a unit on one side
sorry wait so do you agree that x e1 = x for all x?
nope thats what I was trying to deduce
yep
Cool
so then to show eβ e1 = eβ it suffices to show <y, eβ e1> = <y, eβ> for all y
this is a standard trick in inner product spaces when you want to show two things are equal. Subtract one side from the other and take y = eβ e1 - eβ
so general lemma
If <x, y> = <z, y> for all y then x = z
In an inner product space
This is what you're stuck on, yeah?
wew yeah thanks that makes it easy then
sure
So <x-z, y> = 0
Because the inner product is linear in its first argument
Now set y = x-z
oh yeah does this come from the zero inner product lemma
yeah it was proven to me in class, it says if <x,y>=0 for all y then x=0
cool thanks!

yoy
Okay, i am struggling to compute the galois group of the polynomial x^4 + 4x + 4 at the moment. I'm having trouble even proving its irreducible (couldn't get anywhere trying direct methods or applying eisenstein's criterion to shifts), but setting that aside, the only thing I've been able to tell is that it only has complex roots. Therefore complex conjugation is a composition of disjoint transpositions, but that doesn't narrow down things much
any ideas?
Its resolvant cubic is x^3 - 16x - 16, which im confident is irreducible, but idk if I can prove it. This means that the degree of the field extension generated by its roots is either 3 or 6, so the galois group is either A4 or S4
If x^3 - 16x - 16 = 0 then x^3 = 16(x+1), which is impossible for x an integer because x and x+1 are coprime
This plus gauss's lemma should give irreducibility over Q
showing x^4+4x+4 irred is not hard... going mod 3 the polynomial is x^4+x+1 = (x-1)(x^3+x^2+x-1)
now x^3+x^2+x-1 is irreducible over F3 as it has no roots, just try 0,1,2.
so if x^4+4x+4 was reducible then one factor must have been linear which reduced to x-1 mod 3. but this would give a root of the polynomial and x^4+4x+4 has no integer roots, indeed a root has to divide 4. it cannot be +-1 as mod 2 gives a contradiction and it cannot be divisible by 2 as mod 8 gives a contra
The same argument proves x^4 + 4x + 4 doesn't have a root over Z, so if it factored it would factor as two quadratics
ah okay, looks like det got it first
I was going to look at the coefficients of a product of quadratics and deduce a contradiction
what's resolvent cubic?
and how does it help computing galois groups?
till now my only way of computing galois group is bashing đŚ
Iirc it's a way to test whether the galois group is A4 or S4
I know the thing where you look at the discriminant being a perfect square to see if galois group is contained in A4
did my argument for why the resolvent is irreducible make sense?
I think so. I'm digesting det's proof atm 
It does look pretty magical haha
x^4+4x+4 having a linear factor over F3 implies it has a linear factor over Q?
But factoring over Fp for small p is really useful when trying to figure out if a polynomial is irreducible
no it implies it doesn't factorize into two quadratics
both would be monic, so going mod 3, both will retain x^2 term
it's not about having a linear factor, it's about having an irreducible cubic factor
right?
if it factored as two quadratics, the factorization into irreducibles over F3 would be made up of quadratic or linear terms
yep
based on whether the quadratics remain irreducible
which violates unique factorization, bc we know it has an irreducible cubic factor
how did you compute the resolvent?
it feels like if i multiply things out then the coefficients would be symmetric functions in the roots, so we should be able to compute them from the coefficients of the polynomial
Re Shamrock: mmkay i agree. I'm going to eat and come back to this. I figured out the galois group btw: its S4. There is a theorem which says that if the polynomial factors over Fp, and the degree of the factors are n1, n2, ...., nk, then the galois group contains a permutation of cycle type n1, n2, ..., nk. In this case, the factorization over F3 tells us the galois group contains an odd permutation.
nice!
like this, det
oh okie
two is an even number
all symmetric polynomials can be expressed as elementary symmetric polynomials, and the proof is constructive
but 2 cycle is odd đ
yea that's what i thought
right, and a three cycle is even
oh wait yeh, for some reason I thought a 1 cycle was even. losing my mind...
lol

oh yeah i guess it is đ¤Śââď¸
okay, so the discriminant is an integer, so A4 it is
no
Yeah I think I showed that there's a 4 cycle?
Which would imply it's not contained in A4
discriminant is defined as product of (u_i - u_j)^2 over i < j
ah nvm I missed that the polynomial actually has to factor here
I showed it's irreducible over F5
this is a symmetric polynomial so discriminant of a monic integer polynomial is always an integer.
Im using this fact, det. Delta is the discriminant
oh from what i have heard people define Delta^2 to be the discriminant
wait
oh wait no, Delta^2 is the discriminant fuck
,w factor x^4 + 4 x + 4 over GF(23)
The galois group contains a transposition
Can you send me a reference for this btw?
It feels familiar but I don't think I've seen it in a book
This magic plus the resolvant thing solves it
But is a little unsatisfying
there is an extra condition that 23 should not divide the discriminant, which it doesn't. I originally heard this from my professor, but we did not prove it. Here is a stack exchange post i found about it
ah okay
It sounds like there's a more direct way if you're looking at the discriminant anyway
it's been too long since I thought about this stuff
seems direct from splitting of primes on extnesionsđ¤
nt moment
add chebotarev for existence fun
I was focused on det's proof earlier, but I'm not sure I'm understanding this. Why wouldn't this same argument work with a reducible polynomial like, say, x^2 + 4x + 4?
ah yea that makes sense.
thanks!
In the statement of the fundamental theorem of algebra, it says that p(x) is a polynomial over a field. I understand that thatâs the same thing as finite integral domain. Why is the theorem not valid for infinite integral domains?
What's the fundamental theorem of algebra over F?
afaik,FTA just says C is closed
It says that a polynomial p(x) over a field F of degree n has at most n roots counting multiplicity
how many roots does x^2+1 have over Q?
None
you just said 2
*at most
afaik, this is one of Lagrange's theorem
How does the statement change if itâs an infinite integral domain not a field?
It doesn't?
Take a polynomial over R[x] where R is an integral domain
Let's say it has more than n roots
Yea
Now it has at most n roots correct?
.
I can say It has more than n roots in R which is an integral domain and at most n in F then
Well,If f=(x-a)p(x) in R[x] same factorisation works in F[x]
So,roots in R[x] will be roots in F[x]
How can we prove that though?
And also it thatâs true why didnât they just use the word integral domain in the first place?
Maybe this theorem doesnât apply to infinite integral domains which arenât fields
Why is the question
Do you know what a field of fractions is?
(if you want, lets not bring some other ring to the picture... consider the non-zero polynomial of degree n, we'll do a simple induction. if n = 0 then its easy. for a general n, if the polynomial has no roots, then nothing to prove. otherwise says it has a root 'a'. Now you can write f = (x-a) * g. with g a non-zero polynomial of degree n-1 < n. Since we're working in an integral domain, only say (x-a)* g is 0 is when one of the factors is 0. so number of roots of f counted with multiplicity are number of roots of x-a counted with multiplicity + number of roots of g counted with multiplicity. But the latter is bounded by 1 + (n-1). Which completes the induction.)
So itâs applicable also to infinite integral domains correct?
Yes
yep
Thanks so much
hey guys, quick question, are T1, T2 and T3 all isomorphic to ⤠?
Are they all abelian groups?
assuming iâve constructed Tm correctly (which i believe i have) T1 and T3 should be but not T2, but i donât know why
theyâre quotient modules
sorry i should have mentioned, x and y are previously defined to be generators of â¤
i have a module B=â¤=<x>, a module F=â¤=<y>, and a module Pm=â¤(m,-4) and Tm is defined as B+F/Pm
so other than T0 i'm just struggling to see what the structure of Tm "looks like", since the relation mx=4y doesn't feel like it really does anything
Are x and y integers?
yes
So does T_1 refer to the set ,{...(0,0),(4,1),(8,2)...}
from what i've understood, the elements of Tm should be the classes of (b,a) with bâ⤠and aââ¤4
to be honest i haven't really understood this T module
in my particular example i have A=â¤4, B=â¤, F=â¤, P=4â¤
and i have calculated that Ext(A,B)=â¤4
and i'm trying to compute the short exact sequences associated to each element of Ext(A,B)
@vale idol Is it a Ring?
yeah these are all modules of the ring â¤
Interesting
Am I correct in saying there's only one possible jordan normal form that corresponds to this characteristic and minimal polynomial pair?
yep
cool, thank you!
well not for 0
the field can be finite for eg
define the degree of 0 to be -infinity or infinity đ and change the theorem to polynomial of degree n has atmost |n| roots.
(well thats true even when not finite but if you say that its degree is + infinity at 0
no it doesn't work, except if you say that the degree of 0 for a field of size n, is n, then it works
but it is quite absurd I would say
0 has infinitely many roots whether or not the field is finite (if we count with multiplicity đ )
oh thats actually true!
what are you smoking?
is he wrong?
except if we consider 0 to be a field...
no i'm just messing wid him
đ
.<
i wonder if this proof that the set A of algebraic elements of a field K subfield of a algebraically closed field L form a field is valid, even tho it sucks cuz it uses axiom of choice without need i think.
Simply, make a well-ordering of all algebraic elements of K, and then by transfinite induction keep extending K by each element. In end we have a chain of subfields of L whose union consists precisely of the algebraic elements of K. The union of a chain of fields is a field, so should be done if i didn't make mistake.
How do you get a chain of subfields? (I don't see that the well ordering of the algebraic elements should play nice with the field properties of L)
i think the idea would be, for the smallest element define it to be K(smallest element) and for bigger elements, we have defined the thing for smaller elements i.e. we already have a chain of subfields, so take their union which should be a field and adjoin this new element.
But i think this still doesn't answer why we didn't add any non-algebraic elements.
Ah I see, I was being dumb
But we are extending by only the algebraic elements, so this should never introduce non algebraic ones right?
yea ^
so the question is K(a, b) if a and b are both algebraic over K, then why is a+b?
if you can answer the questions for a+b, a*b and 1/a if a is not 0, then you already proved it.
oh yea then all i'm saying is pointless you can do directly from that (and have to do that i guess) then
Oh, wait yeah, I think I agree with det

det honorable 
i agree with det too, thanks for making me realize that what i said was complete bs

I guess I feel sort of left out, the rest of the gang are all honorable now. But I will not waver, I stand here, based, and proud not to be honorable
Det is peepee color

When you think you're part of the gang...
Sup Luna. I feel like I havenât seen u in a while but ur in very active gang
What
I thought you were inactive because I haven't seen you
On desktop client
I searched âfrom:username after:one month agoâs dateâ
I did this like... 5 days ago?
Question about norm
Yes
if norm of a = norm bc will a=bc always?
Just under 3k
No
i dont think i understand it
Lots of questions here
1: what are you considering a norm on? The real numbers?
2: what norm? Just any norm? The usual Euclidean one on R?
hm
But also, the answer is always no
Well
Okay, I canât say for sure itâs always no but like
Iâm pretty sure norm(-1) = 1
Or like the unit
yeah
As an example, for the Euclidean norm, |2| = |(2)(-1)| but 2 â -2
But Iâm not confident in that
Yeah
So thatâs what I was going to say
But again, Iâm not sure in what context you mean a norm
If this is purely for R^n this probably isnât an algebra question
Moreso analysis
But maybe you mean a norm in the sense of used for the Euclidean algorithm?
right, i mean norm so we can define a euclidean domain
i see yeah
Honestly the idea of it is just to give numerical values to the things in your ring
You can think of it as âsizeâ but it doesnât have to be related to size at all
And the properties of it just exist so that we can use these to make sense of dividing with remainder
Basically the whole point of the Euclidean algorithm is to let us divide stuff with remainder
It's true on F2 as a vector space over itself 
i see
And we want this to eventually end, so we can enforce that the remainder needs to always be âsmallerâ
Because the idea is if you always get smaller, eventually you canât get smaller so youâre done
You used bc, but ignoring a product, you are basically asking if |a|=|b| iff a=b, and I can't think of a single example where this is the case.
But in an arbitrary ring like, what does âsmallerâ mean
We donât have a notion of it, so we instead make a norm which assigns to each element a number
And from there we can make sense of it
Note: if your norm takes values in R tho what I said about eventually terminating isnât true
If itâs only in N then it will
Because of well-ordering and blah blah descending induction
what if the norm(a) is a prime in integers
can we always show that a is irreducible?
Thereâs actually a few conventions for norms (in the sense of what they must satisfy)
I forget which combinations are used, so can you spell out what the ones youâre working with are?
um dont think we are using any
Eh?
I mean you surely have a definition of what a norm is right?
Thatâs all I mean
Minus 0?
Cant the norm take on the value 0?
(Probably like norm(a) = 0 iff a = 0?)
yeah youre right sorry lol
yes
Nothing about linearity, multiplicativity
Okay then no
If you donât enforce it to have more stuff, then for example
Norm(a) = 1 for all a â 0, norm(0) = 0 works
But this wonât work in the sense of making the Euclidean algorithm work
yeah
So if you assume the norm makes the Euclidean algorithm work
Then letâs see if we can show norm(a) prime means a irreducible
Iâm not sure tbh
Lol
I mean all we know is that we can write
a = bc + r for r having norm less than norm a
But we can take r = 0
So it always satisfies that
hm
polynomial degree >.<
I think you have to be clever to make that one work
Namely, I think you have to shift degrees by 1 to get an honest Euclidean function
But i think it works nonetheless as long as you just shift, like I bet you can define it so that 0 has degree -1 or like -infinity then basically shift everything over
The definition i usually see is map R\{0} --> Z_{>=0}
Yeah that one looks familiar as well
I honestly forget the specific nuances of this
Like... I think if you do that
You have to instead specify this
For any p, and q â 0
we can write
p = aq + r where
Norm(r) < norm(p) or r = 0
yep
Or you can instead assert the norm of 0 is 0
And only 0 has this
Then you can simply say
Norm(r) < norm(p)
Or something like that
norm(q) >.<
lol
Anyway, I think sometimes you require norm(a) <= norm(ab)
Blah blah blah
I am not a fan
Lol
i remember seeing like you can define norm'(a) = min{norm(ar) | r in R\{0}} to get that property...
I donât think so even with the condition I said
oh
If you have multiplativitiy
So that norm(ab) = norm(a)norm(b) I believe itâs true
you can detect it if your norm is nice enough. For instance take R = Z[i] and define norm has N(a+bi) = a^2+b^2. Then N(xy) = N(x)N(y). Since this norm respects multiplication you'll be hapiper.
i see
but still you don't get the full story. 3 is irreducible in Z[i] but N(3) = 9 which isn't irreducible in Z. But you can definitely say that if N(x) is irreducible in Z then x is irreducible in R.
Given this dot product, https://gyazo.com/d7985836b10a11aa9ac976abbb196f15 , with coeficients on C, how can i prove z^n is orthonormal?
Prove that norm(a) = 1 iff a is a unit
Then it follows by just writing x = ab, then applying multiplicativity
One of them (of a and b) has to be a unit since one has to have norm 1
Because well... prime
?
do you mean to say "prove that the set of functions of the form z^n for some natural number n is orthonormal?"
what are the a_n's and b_n's here?
So i think you might need to assume the norm actually is a Euclidean function
Basically, if you assume this
yea i was kinda struggling
Assume N(p) = 1
Write 1 = pq + r
Then r is 0 because N(r) < N(p)
So you just have 1 = pq
Itâs true that given a multiplicative norm, a unit has norm 1
But the other direction requires the Euclidean algorithm I think
ah right
Oh lmfao this is actually obvious
If you take an intral domain
And take that stupid norm I did
N(a) = 0 if a is 0, and 1 otherwise
Point is, this is a multiplicative norm, but itâs not true that N(a) = 1 iff a is a unit
yikes im kinda confused
so if we have a euclidean domain
you were saying
and Norm(a) = prime
and multiplicative lol yes
Then a is irreducible
how can I show that x^4 -7x^2 -3x + 1 is irreducible over Q?
I guess you can easily show there are no linear factors, then write down this polynomial as a product of two quadratics. I'm not sure if there is an easier way
Well, that plus gauss lemma to assume it factors over Z
given that f is in F[x] for a field F, does g | f => g' | f' ?
where g', f' are the formal polynomial derivatives of g,f resp
wait, how do i know that there are no linear factors? Reducing modulo p, I get an irreducible cubic factor. Therefore if f factors in Z[x], then f has an irreducible cubic factor, and therefore a linear factor, right? This would be a contradiction
i absolutely suck w/ polynomials, so hopefully im not spouting gibberish 
You can show there cannot be a linear factors with rational root theorem
I think the implications is backwards here, if f factors in Z[x] with a cubic factor, then it factors modulo p with a cubic factor
rip
hmm right, okay. Anyway, the rational root thing helps a little. Forgot about that
That's probably one of my favorite theorems about polynomials
hmm honestly, im not 100% clear on what this tells us about f=x^4 -7x^2 -3x + 1.
by rational root theorem, there is no factorization into 1+3. So that leaves 2+2
Ah, nice. I think I have seen this trick before, but totally forgot about it
yep, and this is a contradiction?
i see. But if we assume f factors as two irreducible quadratics, then reducing modulo 2 gives us a linear factor, which is also bad. Therefore f is irreducible?
so, the cubic factor is a problem since if f factors as two quadratics, then f can't have an irreducible cubic factor?
I think I get it. This technique is pretty big-brain ngl
.
The actual secret here is
if you think a polynomial can't factor, test a few primes
if it holds for like... 3 of them, it probably just is true
this is a Chmonkey non-guaranteed, but morally guaranteed technique
also if you think something does factor it gives you a way to guess what it might factor as
I was gonna type out a bullshit "theorem" about this chmonkey technique being asymptotically probabilistically correct, but I found myself spending too much time/spending too much effort for a meme
yea ive been learning mathematica just for this haha
was trying to find the splitting field of g(x) = x^4+x^2+1 over Q and set u = \alpha^2 where \alpha is a root of g(x) and just tried to find the roots over Q closure and try to find the smallest adjoin of Q that I need to get all those roots
But I think the u = \alpha^2 -> u^2+u+1 = 0 to quadratic formula idea breaks down for some reason, none of the roots I got when looking at u^(1/2) and juggling the exponent in exp(i pi (..)) correctly actually worked when I tried yeeting them into wolfram
even though when I plug things on paper, these steps are reversible
and should get me back that what I got are actually roots
but I know I have to be wrong
Cause at the end there I can get extra roots from -u^(1/2) since -1 = e^(i pi) and that gives me 4 more "roots" that also work on paper but not on wolfram, but they're distinct and g(x) definitely cannot have 8 distinct roots since deg(g) = 4
wait
found my error lol
haha
arithmetic error somewhere in there, no worries
for quartics like this you can totally do quadratic twice
so I'm glad you figured out what went wrong
yeah it works now đ
When is the splitting field of a polynomial a simple extension? I've noticed that for some specific polynomials like quadratics, you'll get nice relations between the roots like K(a+\sqrt b, a - \sqrt b) = K(a + \sqrt b) = K(\sqrt b), but this isn't always the case. e.g. when a polynomial in Q[x] has real and complex roots. Just wondering if there is some theory surrounding this.
idk that is cool tho, hmst
I think Galois groups answer similar questions
Oh?
nutty
cring
Hey Sham did you know that if an algebraic group acts on a variety, a lot of things are closed
Also I don't know anything about topological / lie groups
so I'm curious what is true there
(thanks sham)
and what isn't
ur welcome
Chmonkey is always helpful
Inverse limit of F_p[x]/(x^{p^n})
Idk
Probably not a field
Lmao
Uhhh
Maybe
Probably
As long as youâre okay to skip some ahit
Which I think you are
Yeah
I think this generates the same topology
So yeah
Lmao
Okay so itâs just powerseries over F_p
Maybe F_p(x)
Cringe
Why isnât it perfect
Oof
Oh
Wait I meant
Double (())
Yeah
But only finitely negative terms
Cuz then you canât multiply haha
Uhhh
I donât see how
Oh I see what youâre saying
Ummm
I donât see how youâd get that
You can?
I thought youâd get fucky exponents
Yeh
Right
Cring
Yeah idk lol
Okay tske the perfect closure of...

Wait is that a thing?
It must be
No way that isnât a thing
Thatâs just morally wrong
Also dumb question but like
Why positive characteristic?
Okay so I thought this might be the case but
Was perfect just saying anything has a p-th root?
Inside the field
Ah
Well you canât be not separable in char 0 right
what is $\mathbb{Z}[i] \setminus \langle 1 + 2i \rangle$ isomorphic to?
Fiwam
isnt this just $a + bi$ such that $a$ is an integer, but $b$ can either be 0 or 1?
Fiwam
Yes
is it isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z} \setminus (1^{2} + 2^{2}) \mathbb{Z}$?
Fiwam
which is Z/5Z
i thot we had Z[i] / (a + bi) is iso to Z / (a^{2} + b^{2})Z is a and b are copprime
no, i just think i saw it somewhere
So,suppose you have 1+ai,you can do
(a+i)-i(1+2i)=a+2
So,You only have to look at Z/5Z
So,yea that's true
its just weird becuz Z/5Z is a subset of Z which itself is a subset of this set
$$\frac{\mathbb{Z}[i]}{(1+2i)} \cong \frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2+1)}{(1+2\overline{x})} \cong \frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]}{(x^2+1, 2x+1)}$$
det
chomsky isnt Z/5Z just the integers without 5, 10, 15, 20, ...?
No
You have to consider the operation
Without considering the operation, then you arenât saying anything meaningful, you could say Z/5Z lives inside any set with at least 5 elements by taking 5 random elements and just artificially declaring one of them to be a generator
Let ra+sb=1, map x+yi to x+yi-y(r(b+ai)+s(-a+bi)) mod (a^2+b^2)
Kernel of that map will be (a+bi)
Tske 5 elements, label them a,b,c,d,e say that a^2 = b, a^3 = c,...
I mean you get a subset of that âisomorphic to Z/5Zâ
If you mean to say the objects of Z/5Z live inside of Z... even then its not true
Since Z/5Z elements are (probably) defined as equivalence classes
there's different ways to define Z/5Z
I mean you can define it however you want really
Like you could take it to be {0,1,2,3,4}
And then the operation is simply addition and then reducing mode 5
Z/5Z is just isomorphic to subgroup of S_n

(1)/(5) 
lol
lol
Suppose that $F$ is a field and $K \subset E$ are subfields and $[F:K] = [F:E] < \infty$. Then does $E = K$?
kxrider
what can you say about [E:K]?
$K \subset E \subset F$ ?
Zef Klop đ đż đť
yep!
squirtlespoof
i think you want is in the exponents as well.
Then notice that the field on the left is just Q(a) where a = e^{i pi /4} because other 3 are just powers of a.
then recall that a = (1+i)/sqrt(2)
So a definitely lives in Q(sqrt(2), i)
Conversely, i lives in Q(a) as a^2 = i and sqrt(2) also lives here as it is (1+i)/a = (1+a^2)/a
yep
why does x = a + bu
can it not be a+bu+cu^2 + (du^3 + eu^4 + fu^5)?
also at the bottom, you know that Q(u) is contained in the span of {1, sqrt(2), crbt(5),....} but how do you know every linear combination is possible?
like what information does u^2 and u^3 give you?
i can see that anything in Q(u) can be written as a linear combination of those 6 elements, but how do you get the reverse inclusion as well?
could you show me why this is an equality and not just Q(u) is a subset of that span
how does it take care of that?
but how will that show sqrt(2) in Q(u)?
đ¤
||if you're still struggling with that, try to cube both sides in u -sqrt(2) = cbrt(5), and then solve for sqrt(2)||
I could use some help with a question about normalizors. I have an H = <(1 2 3)>. I want to find the normalizer in A_4. How would I go about doing that?
A normaliser of H shouldn't consist of a cycle like (14)
In S_4,There are 6 normalisers
So,in A_4 there are atmost 6 normalisers
Try proving that a permutation is a normalizer for this iff it fixes 4
(1,2),(2,3),(1,3),1,(1,2,3),(1,3,2) form the normaliser group if we were looking at S_4
Wait why's that exactly?
Oh yhh
This
(you can use sylow theorems to avoid any computations >.<, number of conjugates is index of the normalizer and is 1 mod 3. can't be 1 since that subgroup isn't normal, hence normalizer has index 4 which means its the subgroup itself.)
excuse me, there is very clearly a computation there
imagine remembering sylow theorem statements
you had to compute 1+3
please don't spam
(i thought you'll say how did i know the subgroup wasn't normal >.<)
imagine reading anything after you use the word sylow
then teach me differential equations, i'm gonna do so bad in the quiz tomorrow
PDEs?
well there's a non-zero chance that quiz will contain lin alg
nah just ODE, need to read about rectification theorem and topological straightening
english pls
$R = {a + b\sqrt{5}i | a,b\in \mathbb{Z}}$
Yes
trying to show that $(1 + 2\sqrt{5}i)$ is prime
Yes
I'd say the easiest is consider the norm function from R to Z
then you know what are the possible factors of (1+2sqrt(-5))
and show none of them is possible
yesh
so what's the norm of 1+2sqrt(-5)
21
yeah it cant
so that tells you you cannot factor into 3*7
yea
but there isn't other possible factorizations
yea
so you're done 1+2sqrt(-5) is an irreducible element
(note that the ideal generated by 1+2sqrt(-5) is not actually prime i believe)
integral domain
Consider (2+sqrt(-5))(4+sqrt(-5)) = 3+6sqrt(-5)
that's cuz the ring you're considering is not actually a principal ideal domain, and not a unique factoring domain
here we found 2 different factorizations of 3+6sqrt(-5), (2+sqrt(-5))(4+sqrt(-5))=3(1+2sqrt(-5))
the ideal isn't prime cuz of this
although the element is irreducible
Hey everyone, does anybody have an idea about how to prove that in a PID every ideal is integral closed?
integral closed ?
that means that if x is in Frac(A) (your ring) and is a root of a polynomial with coefficients in I (the ideal) then x is in I ig
The poly should be monic. I think you can just mimic the proof of the rational root theorem.
Here is the definition, I'm working in 4.15
I've been trying to look at the quotient of R by I and to show that the projection of the integral closure is zero, but it doesn't work
@next obsidian I was reading that argument from before and I had a question about it. You used that if g: B --> C is epic, then coker(ker(g)--> B) = B --> C
Why is this true?
this is bc Coker(Ker(g) -> B) = B/Ker(g), and you know that B/Ker(g) = Im(g) = C since it's epic
ig smth like that
I see an abelian category as a full subcategory of some R-modules
so I can talk about quotient like that
btw B/Ker(g) is exactly the coker of Ker(g)->B in a category of R-modules
Okay so let's use this definition
So I should try and show that B/Ker(g) = Im(g)?
you want to prove that B->C is the coker of Ker(g)->B, let's prove that B->C satisfies the coker universal property
the composition Ker(g)->B->C is 0 then B->C factor through B->Coker(g)->C
this factors through B->Coker(g)->Im(g)->C
Why?
mh sorry let me think a little
okay, you have that Coker(Ker(g)->B) = Coim(g) by definition
so the statement above was a typo
I wanted to say that it factors through B->Coim(g)->C
Is this a simple verification through the universal properties?
The dual notion of this
In category theory, a branch of mathematics, the image of a morphism is a generalization of the image of a function.
Let's use your defintion
ok let's admit that the coim is the cokernel of the kernel and the im is the kernel of the cokernel
Yeah
So why do we have the factorization B -> Coim(g) -> C?
because Ker(g)->B->C is zero
Okay
by universal property of the Coker, we have that B->C factors through Coker(Ker(g)->B)
That makes sense
which is Coim(g)
and Coim(g)->C->Coker(g) is zero because B->Coim(g)->C->Coker(g) = B->C->Coker(g) is zero and B->Coim(g) is epic (bc it's a coker)
Yeah
then Coim(g)->C factors through Coim(g)->Im(g)->C
this morphism Coim(g)->Im(g) is an isomorphism by the definition of abelian category
let's see now that Im(g)->C is an isomorphism.
Wait
Why is this true?
Got it
What part of the definition?
for me the definition of an abelian category is an additive category with all kernels and cokernels
and such that the universal morphism Coim->Im is an isomorphism
So coimage and image are the same in abelian categories?
yeah that's litteraly the definition x)
How do we know that the morphism that we got is the same as the universal one?
This one
it's by definition the universal one
mh
it's more like is the name of "universal morphism"
for every morphism f : X->Y you have a factorisation X->Coim(f)->Im(f)->X
the factorisation is constructed as above
and Coim(f)->Im(f) is called the universal morphism
because it's the more natural you can construct
did you have an idea what's a abelian category is befora that ? What's your definition btw ?
wtf
I've never seen this definition before
I guess it's legit but for me it's not the standard one
Tbf, I was originally supposed to work with modules only
But I decided to do it in arbitrary abelian categories instead
Probably not the wisest decision since we hadn't talked about them in class yet
if you want to learn a bit about abelian category I suggest you to read the Grothendieck's Tohoku paper
Ig it's translated in english
I think I will learn a more standard definition when we do homological algebra
idk if mine is the standard one but that's the one I saw in particular in the Tohoku but in all other references I've read about homological algebra
btw to end the exercice you can see that since B->C is epic, you have Coker(g) = 0 and then Im(g)=C
(because Im(g) should be the Kernel of C->0)
thus Coim(g)->Im(g)->C is an isomorphism
you can as an exercice prove that the two definition of an abelian category are equivalent haha, maybe it's false tho
Thanks
Everytime I see your name I read Hahn Banach at first.
What do you mean?

This notation in an arbitrary abelian cat means the cokernel of ker g -> B
And the reason that coker(ker g -> B) = B -> C when g is epic is simply because you can prove that itâs true, but you need to do work
It comes down to the fact that c = im g
And then you use the fact that im = coim
Got it. Zak explained the main argument
I should probably hold off on doing this until I read a bit about abelian categories
Because in my mind I was using an ad hoc definition
ie kernels and cokernels exist
Nope
Maybe this one
Yeah I can access it
Compile notes.tex
And find where I prove a lot of crap about abelian categories
I think I didnât prove that 0 -> A -> B -> C is exact iff A is the kernel of B -> C since I did this in a class last year
But I prove a lot of general stuff about abelian categories
btw you still can work on abelian category like if it was an R-modules category, it's simplier
No
It has to be small
Altho you can usually get around it by taking a subcategory containing only the objects you are using in a diagram
But I think in topology sometimes you canât even do that trick to embed into R-mod
Also R wonât be commutative which is worthwhile noting
why it has to be small ?
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
If you look into the statement of Freyd-Mitchell thereâs size limitations
Also it doesnât preserve injectives or projectives
yeah ok, in practise you'll have to take the full abelian subcategory generated by your objets and it works isn't it ?
Normally yes, but I think in topology sometimes you are working with more than a setâs worth of objects
yeah okay, but to manipulate ker and coker it seems like we can be in a category of modules
Yeah
I didn't know the theorem was for small categories
I believe it's not that annoying
It isnât, but usually I think people trying to prove stuff in an abelian category are doing it to test themselves or just for the hell of it
Eg me writing the notes I put in this chat
So using Freyd-Mitchell sort of defeats the purpose
I remember seeing a simpler construction in Aluffi, so usually its easier to cook up map using universal properties and usually its easier to verify the commutativity using elements. The construction was pretty nice, and we could also verify exactness like if we were working in Set*.
if we take 2 complex numbers a and b
with a gcd of theirs being c
do we have norm(c) divides both norm(a) and norm(b)
Do you mean gaussian integers?
Fiwam
what norm are you using
if your norm is multiplicative yes
and so if you're using the usual norm given by N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2, then yes
I am trying to prove this is a projector
I am trying to show $\pi(V^{}\otimes W) \in Hom(V,W)^{g}$ and $Hom(V,W)^{g} \in \pi(v^{} \otimes W)$. if this were true,its image would be exactly what we want. Now trying to prove the first one: Let $\phi \in V^{} \otimes W \implies \pi(\phi)=\frac{1}{|G|} \sum{g \in G} \rho{v_{i}^{}}^{*} (g)\otimes \rho{W}(g) (\phi)=\frac{1}{|G|}\sum{g \in G} \rho_{v_i}^{-1}(g) \otimes \rho(W)(g) (\phi)$
ProphetX
Now I am stuck, I do not know how to continute to show that this phi would be in $Hom(V,W)^{g}$(this is the space of intertwiners)
does anyone have hints?
ProphetX
I'm attempting to show that the polynomial $x^4-4x^2+2$ splits over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}})$ but I'm not sure if all the roots of the polynomial are actually contained in that field. I've found the roots to be $\pm\sqrt{2\pm\sqrt{2}}$ but I don't know how to show $\sqrt{2-\sqrt{2}}\in\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}})$.
panoramatopia
Oh wait sorry
Well sqrt 2 is in q(2+sqrt(2))
Just multiplying 2+sqrt2 and 2-sqrt 2
Or rather sqrts of those
So then sqrt(2-sqrt(2)) is in the field
So basically I want to solve 0=(an)f+(a(n-1)x)f'+...+(x^n)f^(n)
I think it's probably not algebra question right
Oh btw @tight otter are you good
yes thank you!
your explanation helps
still a bit
on field extensions
@sour warren actually though you can't multiply $\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}$ and $\sqrt{2-\sqrt{2}}$ if you don't know that the latter is in the field, right?
panoramatopia
:)
lol i did this exact same thing yesterday for part of a problem. You can show that sqrt(2) is in this field, and sqrt(2)/(sqrt(2+sqrt(2)) = sqrt(2-sqrt(2)) iirc
oh i guess someone already helped
Let $G$ be a finite group and $K_g={hgh^{-1} | h \in G}$ the conjugacy class associated with $g$. How do I prove that $G$ is a disjoint union $K_{g_1} \cup K_{g_2} \cup ... \cup K_{g_n}$ for some $g_1, g_2, ..., g_n \in G$ ?
RiesZ
consider the conjugation action, then apply the theorem that says the orbits partition the group
alternatively for a direct proof, first prove that conjugacy is an equivalence relation, then the set of equivalence classes will be your partition
@weary terrace
So you basically have to show that K_g and K_h either don't intersect, or they overlap completely.
@chilly ocean
Thanks. Is it correct to say that every equivalence relation on any set, partitions the set?
I tried to but it got really messed up really fast
Thx!
and also conversely, every partition gives rise to an equivalence relation
so that's nice i guess
Only if you have the time and patience, I'd really appreciate if you could write a concise proof for what you offered
Yeah, well I guess it's the more elegant way
It is not too hard
all 3 ways are pretty much the same.
Basically just following the obvious path
I assumed $g\in K_{g_1}$ and $g\in K_{g_2}$
RiesZ
Then try to show that K_g1 = K_g
then for some $h_1, h_2 \in G$, I wrote $h_1g_1h_1^{-1}=h_2g_2h_2^{-1}$
RiesZ
okie looks good
not quite
RiesZ
yep!
no need to apologize 
â¤ď¸
is $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-D}]$ always a PID?
Fiwam
nope. D=5 is not even a UFD
is it a pid for D = 2
yep
its Euclidean iirc
to see that, say alpha and beta are two elements with beta not 0. we want to find a quotient such that the remainder is smol.
look at the complex number alpha/beta, i wanna pick my quotient very close to this, but that q should be an element of the ring. if you draw the points of Z[sqrt(-2)] you'll see the plane tiled with a bunch of rectangles. Now given an arbitrary complex number, it will lie in some rectangle, so its distance from one of the vertices would be less or equal to half the diagonal which in this case is, sqrt(1+2)/2
|alpha/beta - q| <= sqrt(3)/2
Try to see what bound on the remainder you get using this.
@rustic crown stop
Cuz (g(x))=F[x], so if g(x) was not a constant, then (g(x)) wouldn't contain constants
g*f = 1 for some f and hence g is a unit
So if g wasnât a constant then F[x] wouldnât have any polynomials of the form constant multiplied by some polynomial correct?
Ohh got it thanks cos every f is a unit cos F is a field
btw why do you love chores?
Bruh this isnât my real username someone changed it
that hedgehog is very cute 
$R$ is an integral domain. If we had a map $\varphi : R \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}^+$ such that a = bq + r $\varphi(b) > \varphi(r)$ and that $\varphi(ub) = \varphi(b) $ where u is a unit. how can we show that $\varphi(ab) \geq \varphi(b)$
Yes
i cant seem to do this
Something is weird, because eg what if I pick a=0?
yeah should be non zero
what is the statement exactly?
is it given a and b we can find (q,r) such that a = bq + r satisfying varphi(b) > varphi(r)?
yes
If a is a unit, Ψ(ab)=Ψ(b). If a is not a unit, consider S that is not a unit. By the division algorithm, S=abq+r where 0<=r<ab. Now we can use the statement Ψ(b)>Ψ(r)
Iâm pretty sure thats wrong but at least I tried
that's almost correct.
Wow wtf >:)
say there was a counterexample (ab, b), replace ab with the multiple bc of b with c not 0 such that phi(bc) is the smallest.
so phi(bc) <= phi(ab) < phi(b)
now bc is not 0, so using division algorithm
b = (bc)*q + r.
r can't be 0 otherwise c is a unit and phi(bc) < phi(b)
Now r must be divisible by b, so r = bd and phi(bd) < phi(bc)
bd is a multiple of b with a smaller norm than bc.
this is a contradiction!
why is phi(bc) <= phi(ab) < phi(b)
c is defined such
for the sake of contra
just look at i love chores idea, we got r with phi(r) < phi(ab)
i mean you have N so it has to do smoething with minimal element
so given a multiple of b, you can find a multiple with a smaller norm
but you shouldn't be able to do this indefinitely
i just phrased the argument in terms of well ordering principle instead of induction
amirite @rustic crown
Hai!
not nice
What are all ur names if I may ask?
mine's yaggur
Bruh I thought det was short for determinant
(lol it is đ )
Im Yes
@unique juniper
Yes?
xD
Iâm arryan but ppl call me arry
I'll call you array
Ooh nice


I'll call you gandu
Hey, I have been asked to show that the statement "The Union of 2 ideals of a ring R is again an ideal of R" is false
but I am not sure on how to go about this
Pick a ring, try to find 2 ideals whose union is not an ideal. If you can't, try picking another ring
A reasonable choice for R: maybe Z, or Z mod n for some n
And think about properties of ideals
closure under addition and strong closure under multiplication no?
You know if you add two elements from the same ideal, you get another element of the ideal. But if you add two elements from different ideals, what then?
The multiplication won't break because the original ideals are closed under multiplication with any element in R
please don't swear
See you called yourself yaggur then started being annoying
Yay I finally finished abstract algebra (almost)
Abstract algebra as in some book or the subject as a whole?
yes sometimes i am yadetgu
Not rlly tho I donât remember many things
A book
Joseph gallian
I see
nice

