#groups-rings-fields

406252 messages · Page 564 of 407

oblique river
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it's more of a "bank" of examples I have rather than trying to come up with examples each time

opal osprey
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I was trying to find online somewhere

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Some kind of place that stores examples and counterexamples in algebra, or more specifically commutative algebra

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There's books like

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Counterexamples in topology

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Which is great

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But I couldn't find anything algebra related

oblique river
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there might be things like that

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but I'm also not convinced of the utility of such resources

chilly ocean
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Show that a nonempty subset H of a group G is a subgroup of G if and only if ab^-1 belongs to H for all a,b in H. I understood the solution but they assume that b^-1 must be in H. How can they assume it?

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This is the solution

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What if H doesn’t have an element b^-1

scarlet estuary
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subgroups are groups

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so all elements must have inverses

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b is in H, so b^-1 must be as well.

chilly ocean
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Yes but we’re proving that the subset is a group we can’t use properties of it being a group

scarlet estuary
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oh, i thought you were doing the other direction

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my apologies

chilly ocean
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np:)

rustic crown
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since its non-empty, it contains an element... so if a in there then a*(a^-1) = e is there

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now if b is any element, then e*(b^-1) is also there

scarlet estuary
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det i dont follow

chilly ocean
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What if the element is just the singleton a

scarlet estuary
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oh i see what youre doing

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yeah that works

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we know ab^-1 in H for all a, b in H

chilly ocean
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Well if b^-1 doesn’t belong to H then it automatically can’t be a group I presume? Can we justify it like this?

rustic crown
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okie so we have a non-empty subset H of G. and the condition is if a and b are in H, then so is a*(b^-1)

scarlet estuary
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set a = b

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this gives that aa^-1 = e is in H

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so eb^-1 in H

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hence b^-1 in H

chilly ocean
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Ohhhh

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Thanks so much:)

scarlet estuary
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this does require nonemptiness though, as det says

chilly ocean
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Yes it does say to assume non emptiness

scarlet estuary
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yeah.

chilly ocean
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But is it not like, when you multiply e with b^-1 you automatically assume b^-1 is in H

rustic crown
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so the operation is defined on G.

chilly ocean
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Ahh got it thanks

rustic crown
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you can multiply any 2 elements of G

chilly ocean
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If b^-1 doesn’t belong in H then it’s not a group correct? So I can assume b^-1 does belong in H

rustic crown
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(but we are trying to show H is a group)

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.<

chilly ocean
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I don’t understand why we can multiply e by b^-1 if it might not even be an element of H. If it’s not, then G is a group?

rustic crown
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okie so lets start from the beginning

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G is a group

chilly ocean
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Yea

rustic crown
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so you have a multiplication function G x G --> G

chilly ocean
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Yea

rustic crown
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this satisfies some nice properties

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now the question is, if H is a subset of G. When can we guarantee that H is also a group with the operation induced from G.

chilly ocean
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Yea I’m following so far

rustic crown
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so if you pick 2 elements of H, call them a and b... then you want a*b to be an element of H. But apriori it is only an element of G.

chilly ocean
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Yes

rustic crown
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so one condition when H does become a group is when e is in H where e was the identity of G, for any 2 a, b in H we have a*b in H and lastly when a in H, then a^-1 in H.

chilly ocean
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Yea exactly but they haven’t written it in the question so we had to assume it

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Cos trivially, if it doesn’t then it’s not a group

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So it must

rustic crown
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the content of the proposition is that you can nicely package this into just one check. H should be non-empty and for any 2 elemetnts a and b in H, you have a*(b^-1) in H

chilly ocean
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Ohhhh got it makes sense

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Thank you

rustic crown
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going from (1) => (2) is easy. Indeed, e in H, implies H is non-empty. And if a and b are in H, by the third condition b^-1 in H, and by the second condition a*b^-1 in H.

shut halo
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By generators of a Lie Algebra, is it simply meant a basis for the Lie Algebra?

sour plume
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Yeah, a vector space basis, usually also with specified relations for the Lie brackets between the basis elements

shut halo
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usually also with specified relations for the Lie brackets between the basis elements

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What do you mean by this? I'm getting confused on terminology between physics and maths

sour plume
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If I have a vector space basis ${x_1,\dots,x_n}$ for my Lie algebra, people generally call them "generators" if they know how precisely they "generate" the complete structure of the Lie algebra; to do that, you need to know how all the Lie brackets look. Hence, you will generally only call such a set a set of "generators" if you have a precise expression of all Lie brackets $[x_i,x_j]$, expressed again in the basis ${x_1,\dots,x_n}$. That's basically it

cloud walrusBOT
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Lartomato

sour plume
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So for example, people abstractly talk about the Lie algebra $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ as the 3-dimensional Lie algebra with generators ${e,h,f}$ with these Lie brackets between them

cloud walrusBOT
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Lartomato

sour plume
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But that may be the "physics"-kind of definition, which isn't really a definition, lol. I'm now also seeing this definition on wikipedia

shut halo
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Ok thanks a lot. I think I understand. It's just weird that my maths course never mention generators but my physics course always does.

sour plume
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I think it's a matter of how many explicit calculations you want to do; in your math course, you probably don't often care that much about doing explicit calculations for any specific Lie algebra, but in your physics course, you very often care about specific Lie algebras liek su(2) and su(3). There, having "generators" of a Lie algebra -- so a vector space basis plus specified brackets -- is super important to make any precise statements

latent anvil
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call a field extension $F/k$ separably generated if there's an intermediate field $F/E/k$ such that $E/k$ is purely transcendental and $F/E$ is separable and algebraic

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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something I'm reading seems to claim that if $A$ is a finitely generated integral $k$-algebra then the field of fractions of $A$ is separably generated

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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why is this the case?

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i guess like, i can noether normalize to get $k[x_1,\ldots,x_d] \subseteq A$ integral

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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and then we presumably take $E = k(x_1,\ldots,x_d)$

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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where d is the krull dimension of A, i.e. the transcendence degree of F

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but why is $F/E$ separable?

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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wait wtf

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this is basically saying that like, every variety has separable function field

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which is not true(???)

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im so confused lol

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@next obsidian do you understand why the first sentence is true here

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it seems like the idea of the proof is to do noether normalization to get a hypersurface in A^{d+1} which is birational to X, I think?

next obsidian
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I have no clue

latent anvil
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l'oof

next obsidian
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Idk why it’s separable, like it’s finite and algebraic

latent anvil
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i mean yeah you can nn to get that

next obsidian
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And I don’t think we’ve made characteristic assumptions

latent anvil
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hnng

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there are certainly non separable extensions of Fp(x)

latent anvil
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so like nn give us the intermediate field

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and then field theory tells us there's sort of only extra relation element you need to get from k(T1,..,Td) to K(X)

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so we can look at a hypersurface in A^{d+1} defined by the minimal polynomial of that thingy

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or really in an open subset...

next obsidian
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Right

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I think I glanced at this and just said “sure” and didn’t think harder about it

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Like algebraically this is saying that m_x always requires at least as many generators as the krull dimension and this is a fact I just know to be true

latent anvil
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wait it is?

next obsidian
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I think so, yeah

latent anvil
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oh that gives the inequality dim m_x/m_x^2 >= dim X

next obsidian
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Maybe you have to relate the krull dimension of the local ring to the dimension of X actually

latent anvil
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since m_x/m_x^2 = m_x tensor A/m_x and then NAK

next obsidian
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Right

latent anvil
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but the inequality isn't the hard part imo

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i guess it's not the interesting/surprising part to me

next obsidian
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Sure

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I’m just saying I glanced at this and went

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“Okay m_x requires at least as many as the krull dim”

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So whatever, the proof is whatever

latent anvil
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sure

next obsidian
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Haha

latent anvil
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but like

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that doesn't tell you the minimal number of generators = the krull dim for a dense open set of X, right?

next obsidian
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Oh yeah

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Not at all

latent anvil
next obsidian
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Ah sure

latent anvil
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because that's saying X is nonsingular except on some shitty closed subset

next obsidian
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Right

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Gross ewww

latent anvil
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hahaha

next obsidian
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You’re so small hahahahah

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To the shitty singular part

latent anvil
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lmfao

next obsidian
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So like what you want is the separable degree to be 1 or whatever of that K(X)/L

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So I think what it is is like, you consider the inclusion of L into an algebraic closure

latent anvil
next obsidian
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And show there’s only a single extension of that to K(X)

latent anvil
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so L is the field you get from nn right?

next obsidian
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Right

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you want K(X) separable over that

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So it’s equivalent to showing the inclusion of L into an algebraic closure extends uniquely

latent anvil
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Yes, I agree

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wait do I

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yes, an algebraic closure of L

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(not of K)

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because we know K(X)/L is finite, this is equivalent

next obsidian
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Or err

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I think this is measuring the wrong thing

latent anvil
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oh dear

next obsidian
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I think we want this equal to the degree of the extension

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Read 14.7 and 14.8

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The number of extensions into an algebraic closure is the degree of the separable closure over the base

latent anvil
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ahhh yeah

next obsidian
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So we want the separable closure to be everything

latent anvil
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it should be equal to [K(X) : L]

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not 1

next obsidian
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Right

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1 says purely inseparable

latent anvil
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okay so

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let's try and example

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k[t] -> k[t] via frobenius

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this is an integral extension

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right?

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$k[t^p] \subseteq k[t]$

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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k is a field of char p, sorry

next obsidian
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k being char p?

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Okay

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I agree

latent anvil
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so we get $k(t^p) \subseteq k(t)$

cloud walrusBOT
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Sham "not a furry" rock

latent anvil
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when we take fields of fractions

next obsidian
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Yup

latent anvil
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this k(t^P) is our intermediate extension

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but the extension is not at all separable

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so you can't just take any polynomial subring over which A is integral

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right?

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maybe we should ask baicheng

next obsidian
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Yeah

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Idk what is going on there lol

latent anvil
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alright, sent

ivory dust
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If ord(G) = 30, and H is normal subgroup of G isomorphic to Z6 how does one go about proving G is isomorphic to Z30

scarlet estuary
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are you aware of the sylow theorems?

ivory dust
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Noo

scarlet estuary
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lagrange's theorem?

ivory dust
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yess

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i was given a hint to consider the homomorphism phi : G -> Aut(H) i.e. G->H->H phig(h) = ghg^-1, i proved its homomorphic

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and i proved its kernel is order 30

fair shard
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wait how would those help don't you need to look at automorphisms of Z6?

ivory dust
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but not sure what that entails

fair shard
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have you seen semidirect products

ivory dust
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ive seen direct products, internal direct products

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and external

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idk what semi is

fair shard
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maybe I'm not the best help actually I might be overcomplicating it

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ok so H normal in g means left cosets are the same as right costs

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cosets

ivory dust
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since H normal, ghg^-1 is in H obviously thats what phi is mapping to tho, i think phig(h) = {e} order 1

fair shard
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so here is where the homomorphism comes in

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given g in G

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gH=Hg meaning gh=h'g for some h'

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and you can see that h' is ghg^-1

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this is the homomorphism to aut(H)

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each g is sent to the automorphism thar is conjugation by g

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sorry I have to go now, try to classify the automorphisms and make a divisibility argument

ivory dust
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Hm ok thank you

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if order(phi(G)) = 1

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well a thm we learned was that

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phi(G) isomorphic to G/ker phi

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so ord(G) = ord(ker phi) x ord(phi(G))

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so 30 = 30 x 1

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what would the

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order of ker(phi) being 30 imply?

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i think thats where im stuck

fair shard
ivory dust
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phi(G) isomorphic to G/ker phi

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and G finite order 30

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it was a thm

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for homorphic phi mapping G to a subgroup of G

fair shard
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but it has || 1 only if |ker|=30

ivory dust
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yea

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i showed ord(ker) = 30

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ghg^-1 = e for fixed g implies h = e

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only one such h exists in H

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and there are 30 cases for g

terse crystal
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I just proved that G is abelian then by the structure of finite ( finitely generated) abelian groups we have that G is isomorphic to the direct products of Z / 2Z , Z / 3Z and Z / 5Z therefore isomorphic to Z / 30Z

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First the order of G / H is 5 therefore a cyclic groups of order 5 generated by Hy, y ^5 belongs to H.choose a generator x of H we see that there is an isomorphism for H to itself defined by mapping x to yxy^-1

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And this automorphism has order either 1 or 5 since y^5 belongs to H

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And it can’t be 5 by direct check therefore G is an abelian group then the result follows

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( yxy^-1=x^k then k^5 =1 mod 6)

left sand
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there's a problem i thought of of the proof

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$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}} = 0$ but the problem is $p_i$ and $p_j$ could be $(t-1)^2$ and $(t-1)^6$.

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and f_k is guaranteed to be a constant

terse crystal
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P_i are all different irreducible polynomials

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

left sand
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hm, but how would you decompose $\frac{t^3+3}{(t-1)^3(t-3)^2}$

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

terse crystal
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In which field?

left sand
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R

terse crystal
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I have a general way solving the inverse of a matrix let me write it down

left sand
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ok sorry i am busy for a bit so might ping you later again

terse crystal
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Sure

terse crystal
#

You can always factorize polynomials in C first .when adding up to the final answer you always can get real rational functions again (since they are conjugated pairs)

terse crystal
latent anvil
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it's algebraic groups by humphreys

terse crystal
left sand
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i still dont know what b is

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and what ur doing here

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i think i got it nvm, but why is A invertible

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also it seems you just decomposed into same irreducible polynomials again of higher powers

left sand
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so the proof that suppose a_k ≠ 0 then splitting and saying it doesnt divide left hand side wont work because it might divide

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oh btw here is my solution so far, it may be im interpreting something wrong

terse crystal
#

A is invertible because those polynomials defined in the fifth row are linear independent. Proof is similar as what we discussed before

left sand
terse crystal
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Those polynomials f_i show up If you add up those terms whose denominators are power of the same irreducible polynomial P_i

left sand
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ah, ok, so would that be a basis? and the ones i wrote not necessarily a basis?

terse crystal
left sand
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ok, but how would i show it forms a basis, im stuck in the end at that part

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cannot show LHS is not divisible by p_1(t)^r_1, after supposing a_1 ≠ 0 toward contradiction

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i would like to show Q_1(t) is not divisible by p_1(t)^r_1 but can't because Q_1(t) could contain a higher power of p_1

terse crystal
left sand
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ok how is the last implication true

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im sorry my pea brain cant understand

terse crystal
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Since j is smaller than the degree of P_i =d this polynomials can be divided

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Into polynomials where the power of x is contained in [kd,(k+1)d-1] for all k

left sand
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... every step get so hard for me this problem is insanesad

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like what is kd and the stuff

terse crystal
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Btw could you show me how to type (a_n)^r in latex, I want to write it clearer

left sand
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$a_n^r$?

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

left sand
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or $(a_n)^r$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Anticipation

terse crystal
#

$f_i=\sum a_ijk \cdot x^j \cdot (P_i)^(r_i -k)$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
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$f_i=\sum a_{ijk} \cdot x^j \cdot (P_i)^{(r_i -k)}$

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

terse crystal
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Thanks if the degree of P_i is d then you can see that this polynomials

left sand
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where j < d

terse crystal
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You can divide it into different sections where the power of x is contained in [kd,(k+1)d-1]

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Because j is smaller than d

left sand
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Wait so i will rewrite something

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I believe I am trying to show $\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{a_k x^{s_k}}{p(x)^{r_k}} = 0$ implies $a_k = 0$

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

left sand
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where p is irreducible and $s_k < deg(p)$

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

terse crystal
#

You are trying to show that

left sand
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where does r_i - k come from, I don't understand how you rewrite to that form first of all

terse crystal
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$\sum_{i,j,k} \frac{a_{ijk}x^j}{(p_i)^k}=0$ implies that $a_{ijk}=0$

cloud walrusBOT
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Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
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wait cant we ignore the i,j's for now and solve this sub problem?

terse crystal
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$1 \leq k \leq r_i$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

terse crystal
left sand
terse crystal
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$\sum_{i,j,k} \frac{a_{ijk}x^j}{(p_i)^k}=\sum_i \frac{f_i (x)}{(p_i)^{r_i}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind
Compile Error! Click the errors reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)

left sand
#

So let $f_i$ be $\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{a_k x^{s_k}}{p(x)^{r_k}} = 0$, how would the proof go?

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

left sand
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to show a_k = 0

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where p is irreducible and s_k < deg p, r_k ≥ 1 distinct

terse crystal
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Then it equals to $\frac{f}{p(x)^{r_n}$ where $f=\sum a_k x^{s_k} p(x)^{{r_n}-{r_k}}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind
Compile Error! Click the errors reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)

left sand
#

Then it equals to $\frac{f}{p(x)^{r_n}}$ where $f=\sum a_k x^{s_k} p(x)^{{r_n}-{r_k}}$

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

terse crystal
#

Yes but I can’t see why you have to discuss this particular form

left sand
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i mean if i can show a_k = 0 then im done with the proof right

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since thats the last implication you wrote

left sand
terse crystal
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No like I said it’s not the normal case

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Normally $f=\sum a_{jk} \cdot x^j \cdot (P)^{(r -k)}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
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sorry what are the j,k,r i am completely lost

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I agree up to this point, and yes f_k can be broken into monomial sum

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but actually im lost already what is f_k

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i think this problem is insane..

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im just dumb

terse crystal
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Smaller than degree p not smaller than or equal to sorry

left sand
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ye

terse crystal
#

Oh so in other words

left sand
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what did you say f_i was again?

terse crystal
#

We replaced the final $\sum_{j,k}$ with $\sum_{k}$ $\sum_{j}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
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yep my exact question is

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why does f_i(x) = 0 as you wrote above mean that a_{ijk} = 0, i think im good once that is resolved

terse crystal
#

the power of x in each k doesn’t intersect at all

left sand
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oh shoot i think i get it

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wait

rich ravine
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@shamrock#0598 I have not read the whole discussion, but there is a general theorem (Liu, Alg. geom and arithm. curves, prop 3.2.15) that integral varieties are geometrically reduced iff their function field is separable (in the sense of not necessarily algebraic extensions ; see Lang's Algebra, chap VIII.4 for general theory)

terse crystal
# left sand wait

$(a+bx)+(cx^2+dx^3)+(ex^4+fx^5)=0$ then $(a+bx)=0$ $(cx^2+dx^3)=0$ $(ex^4+fx^5)=0$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
#

oh do they really not intersect

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wait ur right i see

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right haha my brain

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thanks

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i cannot think

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so much notation

left sand
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f_i is of degree less than r_i right

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oh i mean

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less than r_i*deg(p_i)

terse crystal
left sand
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actually still dont get why it doesnt overlap

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because im confused with indexing

left sand
terse crystal
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We proved that each f_i =0 like the degree of them don’t even matter

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j being smaller than degree p is for proving each a is zero

left sand
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here why can't you have

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$x(x^2+x+1)^2 + (x^2+x+1)$ which is overlap

cloud walrusBOT
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Anticipation

terse crystal
#

Oh I was wrong I need to reconsider

left sand
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So the problem is

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First of all, if I got

terse crystal
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Oh I figured it out

left sand
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oh

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im gonna summarize the problem again cuz maybe someone else can explain as well

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so ignore what im saying for now

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The question is to find a basis for R(t), and so far I claim that

terse crystal
left sand
#

$B = {t^n \vert n \geq 0} \cup {\frac{t^m}{p(t)^n}\vert n \in \mathbb{N} \text{P irreducible over} \mathbb{R} \text{and} m < deg(P)}}} is a basis

mild laurel
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hm, one thing that might make things easier is to note that the irreducible polynomials over R are all degree 1 or 2

left sand
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yea

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i think cogwheel is proving in a general field F actually

mild laurel
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why is the condition that m < deg(P) there? How do you write something like t^2/(t +1) in that basis?

left sand
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that is equal to t+k+c/(t+1)

mild laurel
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ah right

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just divide

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There's a proof on wikipedia, don't know if you've looked at that

left sand
#

nope

mild laurel
left sand
#

thx

left sand
terse crystal
#

the powers of p are greater than or equal to 1 in the previous terms

left sand
#

wait so then what?

terse crystal
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? degree of g_n is smaller than P while it also can be divided by P so it can only be zero

left sand
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nono i mean why can g_n be divided by p

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?

left sand
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yea but i dont get what you mean by this

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or i mean how does that help

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oh

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is it because

terse crystal
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$\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} g_k p^{n-k}=p (\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}g_k p^{n-k-1})$

left sand
#

wait

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no

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

terse crystal
#

Which = -g_n

left sand
#

ohh

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oh

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thank you so much

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i get the argument now

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finally i can write the goddamn proof

terse crystal
#

Thank you actually latex is so interesting

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I wonder why I kept taking pictures

left sand
#

its nice but usually i feel writing on ipad on notability or something is faster

#

but yea its professional

#

it can be decent fast too once u get used to it, which is not hard

terse crystal
#

Yeah hope that I can soon

celest brook
#

my work so far, following what professor did and it's all just a bit unclear to me. I always hear people say 'you can shorten' it, but that's usually if you assume 'blah blah's theorem or something else down the line I don't know about. I guess what i'm asking is if there is a faster way to convey it for a beginner rather than doing this

#

MT=multiplication table

#

cayley table

mild laurel
#

What's your definition of dihedral groups here?

celest brook
#

uhh whadya mean usual presentation

#

yesss

#

how?

#

yes

#

ohhh

#

that's where rs=sr^{-1} comes from

#

s^{2}=r^{n}

#

I guess it just feels weird writing out multplication tables

#

very nice when patterns appear though

#

:)

mild laurel
#

If your definition of the dihedral groups is "has this presentation", then you can just directly check that f(r) and f(J_3) give you generators for the presentation

celest brook
#

why do I only need to check the generators?

mild laurel
#

I'm saying that you check that those generators satisfy the relations for D_3

celest brook
#

well haven't I defined f(r) and f(J_3) to be the generators of D_3 anyway??

mild laurel
#

I mean sure

celest brook
#

how does that relate to an isomorphism

mild laurel
#

But this way you don't actually need to confirm this homomorphism

celest brook
#

why?

mild laurel
#

Like I said, if the way you've defined D_3 is by means of a presentation in terms of generators

#

Then you can just check that f(r) and f(J_3) satisfied this definition

celest brook
#

how come that will gurantee that there is a homomorphism? How does that deflect the need to check/

mild laurel
#

The group will just be D_3

left sand
#

you proven that a_jk = 0

#

but how do you know thats the only way to write r

#

as in r = $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Anticipation

left sand
#

which can be further decomposed into $\frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}} = \sum_{i < d, j \leq r_k} a_{ij} \frac{x^i}{p_k(x)^j}$ where $d = deg(p_k)$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Anticipation

left sand
#

so here if r = 0, then a_ij = 0 can be shown but how do you prove no other lin combo so that b_ij ≠ 0

#

just say partial fraction decomposition is unique?

terse crystal
#

I don’t think there is any confusion here I directly proved that
$\frac{x^j}{p^k}$
is linear independent. All those f_i are just used in certain steps in the middle

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind
Compile Error! Click the errors reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)

left sand
#

ok so first you say there is such a decomposition for every f/g right, which is the span part

terse crystal
#

You could check the last picture whether they are any specific mistake in it. I didn’t find any error...

left sand
#

no the picture has no error but im just still a bit conceptually confused

#

so for every f/g in R(t), you show it can be written uniquely as f/g = q+r

#

where r can be spanned by the t^n/p(x)

#

oh ok, i get the picture

#

the idea

terse crystal
#

From the beginning, also a good latex practice:

cloud walrusBOT
#

the-last-knight

median pawn
#

How would you prove this?

#

The abelian part is easy, follows from fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups. The non abelian case seems tricky

terse crystal
median pawn
#

It's not clear to me 😦

terse crystal
#

Particularly I have an article here showing the case where k =3:

median pawn
#

Is it Keith Conrad's article?

terse crystal
#

Oh how to upload files here...

median pawn
#

That is pretty complicated, since it proves for p^3 in general

#

I'm looking for 8 and 27 in particular and hoping things will be easier

terse crystal
#

It’s not complicated when k=3 actually...

terse crystal
terse crystal
# left sand where r can be spanned by the t^n/p(x)

$\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t + \sum_{1 \leq i \leq n, 0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ then let $Q=\prod_{1 \leq i \leq n} (P_i)^{s_i}$, $Q_j = \prod_{1 \leq i \leq n, j \neq i } (P_i)^{s_i}$ $r=\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t$, $\frac{f_i}{{p_i}^{s_i}}=\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}$ then we have that $\sum_{1 \leq i \leq n} f_i Q_i +rQ=0$ then if one of the $f_i \neq 0$ then $p_i | f_i$ which is a contradiction therefore all $f_i =0$ then $r=0$ so we can reduce it to the case where $\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ which we have proved in the last picture.

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
#

yea got it, thanks!

terse crystal
#

$\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t + \sum_{1 \leq i \leq n, 0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ then let $Q=\prod_{1 \leq i \leq n} (P_i)^{s_i}$, $Q_j = \prod_{1 \leq i \leq n, j \neq i } (P_i)^{s_i}$ $r=\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t$, $\frac{f_i}{{p_i}^{s_i}}=\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}$ then we have that $\sum_{1 \leq i \leq n} f_i Q_i +rQ=0$ then if one of the $f_i \neq 0$ then $p_i | f_i$ which is a contradiction therefore all $f_i =0$ then $r=0$ so we can reduce it to the case where $\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ which we have proved in the last picture.

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

left sand
#

lol

#

that sum looks monstrous

terse crystal
#

Where $p_i \not| f_i$.

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

terse crystal
chilly ocean
#

,rotate

cloud walrusBOT
chilly ocean
#

I don’t quite get the sentence xN=eN iff x belongs to N.

#

In theorem 1.2

viscid pewter
#

what don't you get about it

chilly ocean
#

Since you're trying to figure out the kernel

#

Yes but why should x belong to N

viscid pewter
#

so since N is a subgroup

#

if x is in N, then xN is just N again

#

or eN, alternatively

chilly ocean
#

Ohh yea it’s a subgroup

#

Overlooked that

#

Thanks:)

viscid pewter
#

i mean that's not quite rigorous yet but it's the intuition

chilly ocean
viscid pewter
#

yeah, exactly

chilly ocean
#

but if xN = eN then x must be in N

#

so that's the other direction

#

What’s the reason for that?

#

Is it because NN=N?

viscid pewter
#

if xN = eN, then there's n in N such that xn = e, ie. x = n^-1, but N is closed under inverses so x is in N

#

that works i think

chilly ocean
#

if the left coset by N gives the whole of N then its just an element of N right? since N is a subgroup and is closed under the induced law of composition

chilly ocean
#

I’m tripping rn ig if I come back to this later I’ll get it

#

Thanks:)

#

just look up the definition of what cosets mean ^^

chilly ocean
#

since eN is just N and xN is just xn where n belongs to N, x must also belong to N because it’s a multiplicative subgroup

#

Correct?

viscid pewter
#

yeah

chilly ocean
#

Thanks again:)

chilly ocean
#

Give an example of a nonabelian group each of whose subgroups is normal.

rustic crown
#

Q8

chilly ocean
#

Yea that’s correct

#

How did u come up with the answer?

#

Did u guess and verify or was it a well defined method

#

Its a well known example ^^

#

the quaternions group

#

How are u supposed to just remember this i mean wow

viscid pewter
#

it's just like

#

what's the smallest perfect number? 6

#

it's just trivia

chilly ocean
#

So experience?

viscid pewter
#

ig?

#

it's like trivia really

chilly ocean
#

Hey is it ok if I leave out some things that I don’t understand in a math book during a first reading and come back to it later?

viscid pewter
#

yeah

chilly ocean
#

yay:)

viscid pewter
#

i mean it's really hard to understand everything the first time

chilly ocean
#

No cap bruh it’s so hard I can hardly do 20 pages in like 6 hours

#

don't expect to be able to master everything in a textbook

#

Yeah I’ve heard ppl say that before

#

its not a novel that you're reading ^^

viscid pewter
#

there was a thing i read where someone recommended like for one chapter, reading it three times: so first time you skim the thing just to get an idea of what's happening, then second time you go through it normally and try and understand the proofs a bit, and then third time you really get into it and nitpick all the proofs

#

and obviously it's not as cut-and-dried as that

#

different chapters, different readers, etc.

chilly ocean
#

Also, on top of that, group theory is that sort of thing one easily forgets in a couple of weeks

viscid pewter
#

but that's closer to it than just once and done i think

chilly ocean
#

I already forgot what I learned yesterday lmao

#

I took algebra this first semester and I barely remember anything

#

That’s rlly helpful thanks so much

chilly ocean
rain crescent
#

Is it possible to have 2 isomorphic groups in which one of them has a finite generator set and the other one doesnt?

chilly ocean
#

no

#

but both have finite generator set

rain crescent
#

I mean I think i wrote it wrong. I meant only one of them could be represented by a finite set

chilly ocean
#

Im interpreting his thing as in one group there doesnt exist a finite generating set

rain crescent
#

is that because the image of a generator by an isomorphism is a generator?

#

and is that a trivial fact or?

viscid pewter
#

it has to be like a surjective homomorphism i think

#

yeah

chilly ocean
#

hes saying you can weaken the assumption

#

but idk if its enough

rain crescent
#

ty

#

everyone

chilly ocean
#

mirza maybe repost your thing

#

uhh

#

sylov

#

yee

#

are my msgs sending?

next obsidian
#

P is a Sylow so it’s used up all the p

#

To make this more clear, if p divided the index of the normalized, then P doesn’t have maximal order

#

Like wrt p

#

This says that P has order p^k

#

But that p^k+1 divides |G|

#

Because

#

The index of the normalizer is the number of conjugates

#

By orbit stabilizer

#

Yeh

#

:(

#

Not gorilla

#

Monkey

cursive temple
#

Pedestal primate

next obsidian
#

I like that one

chilly ocean
#

Lets say π(x)=[x] (equivalence class of x), π: X -> X/~,
is it correct if we say for all a,b member of X, π(a,b)=[a][b]=π(b,a)=[b][a]=X to proof that is symmetric ?

#

because π only takes one argument

carmine fossil
#

Is there a binary operation defined on X/~ or smt?

#

What does [a][b] even mean?

chilly ocean
chilly ocean
#

this is the actual question

carmine fossil
#

By ~_π, they mean the equivalence a (~_π) b iff π(a)=π(b)

chilly ocean
#

ah got it

#

then it will become π(a)=π(b) then π(b)=π(a) and [a]=[b] is equal to [b]=[a]

#

same thing goes for transitivity

#

thanks @carmine fossil

#

one more question, if I want to proof that is a surjective map, I have to describe since all members of X/~ are part of X, then there always exist an equivalence class such that π(x)=[x]. should I proof it differently ? because it's too obvious.

carmine fossil
#

That's it

#

Any representative of the equivalence class gets mapped to the equivalence class

chilly ocean
#

we can also use the definition of fibers, and say fibers are the same as equivalence classes, therefore, there always exist y s.t. f(x)=y

#

and y = [x]

molten silo
#

wOULD THIS WORK

next obsidian
#

How is this algebra

#

But also that makes sense

molten silo
#

shit wrong chat

next obsidian
#

Never thought about the indicator function being square integrable

oblique river
#

I'm pretty sure that here, f^2(x) is referring to [f(x)]^2

#

and not the compositional square

molten silo
#

i see

#

thanks

oblique river
#

you can still do something with the indicator function though

#

but you'll have to modify it in some way

scarlet estuary
#

yeah you can fix that

oblique river
#

i'd say it's bad form to give an answer to a question someone else is asking for help on

#

unless they're specifically asking for that

#

but yes, you are right

cursive temple
#

Pretty cool problem though

next obsidian
#

OH LMFAO

#

IM A DUMBASS

#

I just went “yup that makes sense to me”

#

myself

molten silo
#

me to

celest brook
#

If know H=x^{-1}Hx can I automatically left and right actions on both sides to get that x^{-1}Hx=x^{-1}Hx?

scarlet estuary
#

erm

#

x^{-1}Hx=x^{-1}Hx follows from the definition of equality

celest brook
#

no i asusme

#

huh

scarlet estuary
#

a = a for all a

celest brook
#

???

viscid pewter
#

they're the same thing

scarlet estuary
#

if you have two things

viscid pewter
#

you have the same thing on the right and left

scarlet estuary
#

and theyre the same

#

theyre equal

viscid pewter
#

like, literally the same thing spelt the same

celest brook
#

oh wait

#

dgoidjkog

#

I meant

#

if

#

H=xHx^{-1} can i use operations to imply that H=x^{-1}Hx as well

#

I guess I am more asking how would I show they are the same

mild laurel
#

yes, take your equation and multiply both sides on the right by x

#

and then multiply both sides by x^{-1} on the left

#

you get what you want

celest brook
#

so I am allowed to do that with this?

mild laurel
#

I mean, you should probably say why its true, since this is equality of sets, and not equality of elements

celest brook
#

i'm trying to use subset arguements and it's very annoying

#

prof is just like 'write it in reverse order' for other case

#

eiojgk,s

mild laurel
#

well, I guess it depends what you know

celest brook
mild laurel
#

do you know that H = xHx^{-1} for a single x in G, or do you know that this holds for all x in G?

celest brook
#

I could see why (xy)H(xy)^{-1} was in H clearly, but you could just simplify that down into one case

#

I'm a bit confused why I can't do the same with inverses

#

i'm sorry I'm so stupid sully

mild laurel
#

No you're fine

#

so how did how do the (xy)H(xy)^{-1} case?

celest brook
#

you know that xHx^{-1} in H, and yHy^{-1} in H

#

you can also rewrite (xy)^{-1} as y^{-1}x^{-1}

#

so you get

#

x(yHy^{-1})x^{-1}

#

you know yHy^{-1} will be in H

#

so you can rewrite above as x^{-1}Hx

#

which you know is also in H

#

so therefore (xy) in H

mild laurel
#

I think some of those should be lower case h's but yes

celest brook
#

confusing

chilly ocean
#

Alright class today we will be learning lower case vs upper case letters

next obsidian
#

I would just never include a lowercase h

#

You can just do it on the level of the entire H

celest brook
#

oops

#

yeah i didnt mean to do that on top

mild laurel
next obsidian
#

Wat

mild laurel
#

like you need to appeal to elements and their associativity here

next obsidian
#

I mean you definitely can’t turn the x^-1 on the right to an x

celest brook
#

group

next obsidian
viscid pewter
mild laurel
#

sure, but I'm just saying doing it on the level of H isn't enough

next obsidian
#

He’s saying that you’ll need to appeal to individual elements

viscid pewter
#

can take that as given

#

no?

mild laurel
#

ehhhhhhhhhh

viscid pewter
#

aw come on

#

ok fine

next obsidian
#

To prove that you can use associativity here

#

Which I ageee

#

But also

#

I don’t care

viscid pewter
#

well to prove yes but it just feels obvious

#

like i can run through the 3 lines in my head

mild laurel
#

this is an intro algebra class

#

anyways sorry

viscid pewter
#

oh, ok then

celest brook
#

i am confused

viscid pewter
#

ignore me

celest brook
#

oh wait, I forgot to say that x,y in K

#

but I think that's implied

mild laurel
#

you can do a similar thing for the other case. If you know that H = xHx^{-1}, then you can show H = x^{-1}Hx by doing the subset arguments

celest brook
#

yes

mild laurel
#

then what are you having trouble with?

celest brook
mild laurel
#

seems fine

celest brook
#

i'm confused in what to write b=

#

would it just be b=kh or smth like that?

mild laurel
#

okay I'm not sure why you switched to y

celest brook
#

o

mild laurel
#

so you want to say that given some element of the form xhx^{-1} in xHx^{-1}, that this is equal to h' for some h' in H

#

and then rearrange just like you did the other case

celest brook
#

okk

#

hmm

#

wait I'm confused

#

ohhh

#

ugh my brain

#

b=k*xHx^{-1}?

#

why can't I get this???

rigid cave
#

I've just learned about finite fields (Galois fields) from a PDF I've found, but how do you construct them? For example, what are the elements in F_(2^2)? Are there any good PDF's that explain this?

mild laurel
#

Do you know what polynomial rings and quotient rings are?

rigid cave
#

yes

mild laurel
#

You can think of F_(2^2) as being F_2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)

#

Since the latter is a field and has order 4

#

It's a field because I specifically chose x^2 + x + 1 to be irreducible

rigid cave
#

Wait, but how does the latter have order 4?

mild laurel
#

Because given any polynomial f in F_2[x], you can reduce it down to be linear or constant in F_2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)

#

by basically dividing by x^2 + x + 1

rigid cave
#

Oh, right!

rigid cave
mild laurel
#

yeah

rigid cave
#

Okay, thank you so much! One more thing: I know that $F(\alpha) \cong F[X]/(f(X))$ where $f(X)$ is the minimal polynomial to $\alpha$ because I've seen the proof. However, is there any intuition behind this?

cloud walrusBOT
#

older sister

rigid cave
#

For example, I can understand why Q(i) is isomophic to Q[X]/(X^2 +1) just because they behave the same, but I can't see why this is true intuitively for any other value

mild laurel
#

how do you think about F(\alpha)? Or how have you defined F(\alpha)?

rigid cave
#

I think of it as the smallest field containing alpha that also contains F

mild laurel
#

okay sure

#

and you've seen the idea that if the degree of f is d, then 1, \alpha, \alpha^2, ..., \alpha^{d-1} gives you a basis for F(\alpha) over F?

rigid cave
#

Yes

mild laurel
#

Then that's kind of how I think of it

#

Any element of F(\alpha) can be written as a_0 + a_1 \alpha + a_2 \alpha^2 + ... + a_{d-1} \alpha^{d-1} since thats a basis

#

and you can also think of this as a polynomial a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + ... + a_{d-1}x^{d-1}

#

and thats basically how the isomorphism between those two fields works

rigid cave
#

Ohhhh

#

Well that was quite nice! Thank you so much!

mild laurel
#

np

viscid pewter
#

ok this is going to be so trivial but how can i prove that, with K normal in H and G and H a subgroup of G and H/K iso to Zp, H is normal in G

#

i've been stuck on this far longer than i care to admit

chilly ocean
#

I think this is more of less "just do it" assuming the proof I have works

#

You know, like start with ghg^-1 and show that this is in H

viscid pewter
#

hmm

#

i was trying homomorphism stuffs

chilly ocean
#

Actually wait a second

viscid pewter
#

probs worth trying symbols...

chilly ocean
#

NVM, maybe this doesn't work

viscid pewter
#

i really hope it's a true statement

#

i'm like 95% sure it is but

#

i mean i think the heart of my problem is maybe i don't understand what H/K being iso to Zp really says about H?

#

i think if H/K is iso to Zp then there exists j in H such that j^p is in K, j isn't in K and H = jK

#

but i don't know what i can do with that

chilly ocean
#

(Anyway yeah sorry my scratch work was too scratch that it didn't make sense, but anyway) my thoughts so far are, so I think it is sufficient to show that gxg^-1 is in H where x is such that xK generates H/K. Notably (gxg^-1)^p is in K (and thus in H). Then maybe this problem is about taking pth roots eg if y^p is in K then y is in H. As a backwards direction, at least it is the case that the map H to H that maps y to y^p actually maps into K, does this imply gxg^-1 is in K somehow?

next obsidian
#

What’s the problem?

chilly ocean
#

He posted it above

next obsidian
#

Not sure whose problem it is

viscid pewter
#

mine

next obsidian
#

Ohhh

viscid pewter
#

with K normal in H and G and H a subgroup of G and H/K iso to Zp:
P: H is normal in G

next obsidian
#

Wait

#

Uh

#

p is prime?

viscid pewter
#

yes

next obsidian
#

Finite groups?

viscid pewter
#

yes

#

I think it is sufficient to show that gxg^-1 is in H where x is such that xK generates H/K
i got this far, i think it's right

chilly ocean
#

So I guess I have: y in H implies y^p in K. And I want to turn this around to y^p in K implies y in H

viscid pewter
#

that doesn't feel true tho

next obsidian
#

Well that’s simply every single x which isn’t in K

#

But is in H

#

So I don’t think it says all that much about x tbh

viscid pewter
#

so it's just false?

chilly ocean
#

You're right

#

Hm

viscid pewter
#

can we do anything with the fact that (G/K)/(H/K) is iso to G/H??

#

i wish that meant G/H was automatically well defined

#

... just to check, it doesn't, right?

next obsidian
#

Maybe I’m dumb as hell but

#

I think I have a proof even when H/K isn’t Z_p lol

#

So N_G(K) = G right? And N_H(K) = H

viscid pewter
#

yyyes

next obsidian
#

So it suffices to show that N_G(K) is contained in N_G(N_H(K))

#

Because then you have G = N_G(K) < N_G(N_H(K)) = N_G(H)

#

So the normalizer of H is G

viscid pewter
#

yes

next obsidian
#

So take a g in N_G(K) so that gKg^-1 = K

#

And then take an element in N_H(K) so an h such that hKh^-1 = K

#

Then look at ghg^-1

#

We want this to also be in N_H(K)

#

Ahhhh i see where I went wrong

#

So ghg^-1 does fix K

#

Under conjugation

#

You get ghg^-1Kgh^-1g^-1

#

And then you just like collapse this in 3 steps

#

What you need to show is that ghg^-1 is IN H

#

Which I’m gonna try to use the fact that H/K is Z_p now to do that

viscid pewter
#

ok

#

i kinda get that ig lol

next obsidian
#

Oh but

#

I think this isn’t very useful because

#

I doubt this is true in general

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And if I try to use special information this is literally just saying that

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ghg^-1 is in H when h is in H

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But idk, maybe something brilliant happens

chilly ocean
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Wait what the fuck?

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This is false right? K=1, H = Zp, G = something that contains Zp

next obsidian
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Yeah

viscid pewter
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hrnnn

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is 1 not normal in everything

next obsidian
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It is normal in everything

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But H wouldn’t be normal in G or at least you can make a G where it isn’t

viscid pewter
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oh right

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fuck

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no, wait

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uhhhh

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fuck

next obsidian
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Did you just hope this was true?

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Or is this a problem from a book or something

viscid pewter
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i hoped it was true in order to solve a problem from a book

next obsidian
viscid pewter
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look

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it seemed reasonable at the time

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gimme a sec

next obsidian
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At least say you think it’s true at the start sad face

viscid pewter
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i literally did tho

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and also throughout

next obsidian
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Oof

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What’s the different problem tho

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That u wanted this to be true for

viscid pewter
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oh wait i should have been thinking about all this other structure

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so it's like, G is solvable

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prove all the subgroups in the chain are normal in G

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and there was some stuff about how Nk+1/Nk is prime cyclic

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but i think it would have to be the fact that above H but below G, there's more normal subgroups?

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the chain goes up all the way?

next obsidian
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I asked a friend

viscid pewter
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is this too mangled for you to understand

next obsidian
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And they said this isn’t even true either

viscid pewter
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f me

next obsidian
viscid pewter
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ok so i'll write out all the details of the problem that i have access to

next obsidian
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Such a group is super solvable I guess

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And A_4 is solvable but not super solvable

viscid pewter
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show these are all equivalent:
G is solvable
there's a chain 1 norm in H1 norm in ... norm in G such that the composition factors are cyclic
the composition factors are prime
there's a chain 1 norm in N1 norm in ... norm in G such that all the Ni are normal in G and Ni+1/Ni is abelian

next obsidian
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Eh?

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But the last one isn’t equivalent

viscid pewter
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apparently not

next obsidian
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Where did u get this problem

viscid pewter
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d&f

next obsidian
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Tf?

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What number?

viscid pewter
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i can't get a picture directly rn

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uhhh look it's the chapter that first covers composition series

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  1. something?
next obsidian
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@old lava yo

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Can u confirm that this was an exercise in D&F?

viscid pewter
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i bet this is gonna be me misinterpreting/mistranscribing somehow

chilly ocean
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I have done quite a few exercises in D and F, this does vaguely sound familiar

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But eg abelian factor -> cyclic factor sounds possible, by refining the chain (abelian groups are very nice)

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And eg prime/cyclic -> abelian is trivial

next obsidian
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Yes

chilly ocean
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I guess it is just the last one

next obsidian
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If you remove normal in G

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All are equivalent

viscid pewter
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aaa

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i am like 80% sure it said Ni was normal in G

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what if

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d&f uses 'solvable' to mean supersolvable

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or

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no, i'm so confused, i don't see where i've gone wrong

celest brook
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what does k and g being in the same conjugacy class mean? I understand Cl(g), but not exactly what Cl(k) means? Or is that k different than the k the definition?

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ohh

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wai

viscid pewter
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if k is in Cl(g), g is in Cl(k)

celest brook
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because k=hgh^{-1} -> h^{-1}kh=g ?

viscid pewter
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uhhh basically

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yeah

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+- a typo

celest brook
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o

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that better?

viscid pewter
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yes

celest brook
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for reflexivity, would it simply be to show that g in Cl(g)?

viscid pewter
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well yes, that's the condition

celest brook
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and that's obvious from that fact of letting h=e

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e identity

viscid pewter
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yes

old lava
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what do I need to confirm

next obsidian
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The last bit isn’t equivalent

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You can’t always get Ni normal in G

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Do you recall an exercise like this in D&F?

old lava
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this one

viscid pewter
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yes

next obsidian
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What in the fuck

old lava
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I did do it

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it was one of the hardest ones

viscid pewter
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?!

old lava
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(iii) -> (iv) took forever

next obsidian
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you can’t ensure that Ni is normal!?

old lava
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I might've made a mistake then

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lmfao

next obsidian
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Take A4, it has a unique normal subgroup, the Klein 4

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Wtf?!

viscid pewter
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ok so like

next obsidian
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What exercise number is that

old lava
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ya, but A_4 / klein_4 isn't abelian

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each N_i must be normal and each N_i / N_{i+1} is abelian

next obsidian
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Yes, but the thing is A4 is solvable

old lava
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oh wait monkaS

next obsidian
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But you can’t get a composition series with each thing in the chain normal

old lava
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I was thinking A_5

next obsidian
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Which exercise is this?

old lava
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exercise 8, section 3.4

viscid pewter
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wait

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ok i knew there was a 4 in there somewhere lol

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just now remembering that 4.x is the group actions, not this

next obsidian
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Okay wait...

viscid pewter
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i think the trick is right at the start

next obsidian
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Maybe you can get an abelian series with each Ni normal

viscid pewter
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i think they might use solvable where everyone else uses supersolvable

next obsidian
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But it isn’t a composition series

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Like you’ll have non simple quotients

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In which case I suppose it could be true?

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Maybe...

old lava
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wait, it does work for A_4, 1 \triangle V_4 \triangle A_4 does satisfy it

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A_4 / V_4 is cyclic group of order 3

viscid pewter
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hnnngh

old lava
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And V_4 / 1 is obviously abelian

next obsidian
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But you can’t get a composition series

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With each factor normal

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So it has to be an abelian series only

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Wtf

viscid pewter
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you'd have to go Z2 in V4

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and Z2 isn't normal in A4

next obsidian
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Right, but Z2 isn’t normal in A4

viscid pewter
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yeah

next obsidian
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But if you only want an abelian series

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Then you’re fine with the filtration Poros gave

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Tfw

old lava
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we don't need to do Z_2 in A_4

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that's not necessary by the condition they gave

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1 \triangle V_4 \triangle A_4 exists is all the condition says

viscid pewter
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yes but like

old lava
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they don't say it's a composition series

viscid pewter
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well the series would have to be 1 in Z2 in V4 in A4

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wait

old lava
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no?

next obsidian
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No

viscid pewter
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wait

next obsidian
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It’s an abelian series

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Abelian quotients

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Not simple quotients

viscid pewter
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yeah, ii and iii say the factors are cyclic prime abelian

old lava
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you have to show that the minimal nontrivial normal subgroup is necessarily abelian, and then use induction

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to prove 3 -> 4

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and I'm pretty sure it works

viscid pewter
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wait, fuck

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different chains!

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oh my fucking god

old lava
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different chains indeed

viscid pewter
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fuuuck

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the destroyer of hope

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i just assumed all those other things were leading up to showing those chains were actually equal...

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ok well thanks all for not holding a grudge over me wasting your time lmao

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i am shooketh

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i'm just gonna do something else now, i can't even

old lava
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lol, why would I hold a grudge

celest brook
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we don't want G to be abelian because the inverse won't be in the conjugacy class?

viscid pewter
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uhhhhhhh

celest brook
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oh wait

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ok, that's not even helpful for what the question is asking

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hmm

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I've already proven that Cl(e) makes the trivial group

chilly ocean
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Hi, I'm working on part (iii). I'm having trouble figuring this out.

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What have you done so far?

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a is a complex root of f(x), so I know that $a^3+2a+1=0$. This was used in part (ii).

cloud walrusBOT
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Mega Euler

chilly ocean
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Indeed, $\frac{u}{v} = \frac{a^2+1}{a^3+2a+1}$

cloud walrusBOT
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Mega Euler

chilly ocean
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Not sure how to proceed from here

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I've gone in circles with the denominator

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You messed up the formula, but doesn't really matter

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I would try to write 1/v as a polynomial in a

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Oh hmmm

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You know, like write v times q(a) = 1 and solve coefficients of q

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Or maybe directly doing it with u/v is better, not sure

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q(a) being a multiplicative identity of v?

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Yeah, ie 1/v

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1/v*

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Er, multiplicative inverse , I think you mean

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inverse*

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Yes

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What is the point in finding coefficients in q? I thought that Q[x] is the polynomial ring with coefficients coming from the rationals.

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Well, finding coefficients of q will tell you what 1/v is (in Q(a)=Q[x]/(f(x))) in the basis 1,a, a^2.
I'm not sure what you mean about Q[x]

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Q[x] is the set of all polynomials with rational coefficients