#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 564 of 407
I was trying to find online somewhere
Some kind of place that stores examples and counterexamples in algebra, or more specifically commutative algebra
There's books like
Counterexamples in topology
Which is great
But I couldn't find anything algebra related
there might be things like that
but I'm also not convinced of the utility of such resources
Show that a nonempty subset H of a group G is a subgroup of G if and only if ab^-1 belongs to H for all a,b in H. I understood the solution but they assume that b^-1 must be in H. How can they assume it?
This is the solution
What if H doesn’t have an element b^-1
subgroups are groups
so all elements must have inverses
b is in H, so b^-1 must be as well.
Yes but we’re proving that the subset is a group we can’t use properties of it being a group
np:)
since its non-empty, it contains an element... so if a in there then a*(a^-1) = e is there
now if b is any element, then e*(b^-1) is also there
det i dont follow
What if the element is just the singleton a
oh i see what youre doing
yeah that works
we know ab^-1 in H for all a, b in H
Well if b^-1 doesn’t belong to H then it automatically can’t be a group I presume? Can we justify it like this?
okie so we have a non-empty subset H of G. and the condition is if a and b are in H, then so is a*(b^-1)
this does require nonemptiness though, as det says
Yes it does say to assume non emptiness
yeah.
But is it not like, when you multiply e with b^-1 you automatically assume b^-1 is in H
so the operation is defined on G.
Ahh got it thanks
you can multiply any 2 elements of G
If b^-1 doesn’t belong in H then it’s not a group correct? So I can assume b^-1 does belong in H
I don’t understand why we can multiply e by b^-1 if it might not even be an element of H. If it’s not, then G is a group?
Yea
so you have a multiplication function G x G --> G
Yea
this satisfies some nice properties
now the question is, if H is a subset of G. When can we guarantee that H is also a group with the operation induced from G.
Yea I’m following so far
so if you pick 2 elements of H, call them a and b... then you want a*b to be an element of H. But apriori it is only an element of G.
Yes
so one condition when H does become a group is when e is in H where e was the identity of G, for any 2 a, b in H we have a*b in H and lastly when a in H, then a^-1 in H.
Yea exactly but they haven’t written it in the question so we had to assume it
Cos trivially, if it doesn’t then it’s not a group
So it must
the content of the proposition is that you can nicely package this into just one check. H should be non-empty and for any 2 elemetnts a and b in H, you have a*(b^-1) in H
going from (1) => (2) is easy. Indeed, e in H, implies H is non-empty. And if a and b are in H, by the third condition b^-1 in H, and by the second condition a*b^-1 in H.
By generators of a Lie Algebra, is it simply meant a basis for the Lie Algebra?
Yeah, a vector space basis, usually also with specified relations for the Lie brackets between the basis elements
usually also with specified relations for the Lie brackets between the basis elements
What do you mean by this? I'm getting confused on terminology between physics and maths
If I have a vector space basis ${x_1,\dots,x_n}$ for my Lie algebra, people generally call them "generators" if they know how precisely they "generate" the complete structure of the Lie algebra; to do that, you need to know how all the Lie brackets look. Hence, you will generally only call such a set a set of "generators" if you have a precise expression of all Lie brackets $[x_i,x_j]$, expressed again in the basis ${x_1,\dots,x_n}$. That's basically it
Lartomato
So for example, people abstractly talk about the Lie algebra $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ as the 3-dimensional Lie algebra with generators ${e,h,f}$ with these Lie brackets between them
Lartomato
But that may be the "physics"-kind of definition, which isn't really a definition, lol. I'm now also seeing this definition on wikipedia
Ok thanks a lot. I think I understand. It's just weird that my maths course never mention generators but my physics course always does.
I think it's a matter of how many explicit calculations you want to do; in your math course, you probably don't often care that much about doing explicit calculations for any specific Lie algebra, but in your physics course, you very often care about specific Lie algebras liek su(2) and su(3). There, having "generators" of a Lie algebra -- so a vector space basis plus specified brackets -- is super important to make any precise statements
call a field extension $F/k$ separably generated if there's an intermediate field $F/E/k$ such that $E/k$ is purely transcendental and $F/E$ is separable and algebraic
Sham "not a furry" rock
something I'm reading seems to claim that if $A$ is a finitely generated integral $k$-algebra then the field of fractions of $A$ is separably generated
Sham "not a furry" rock
why is this the case?
i guess like, i can noether normalize to get $k[x_1,\ldots,x_d] \subseteq A$ integral
Sham "not a furry" rock
and then we presumably take $E = k(x_1,\ldots,x_d)$
Sham "not a furry" rock
where d is the krull dimension of A, i.e. the transcendence degree of F
but why is $F/E$ separable?
Sham "not a furry" rock
wait wtf
this is basically saying that like, every variety has separable function field
which is not true(???)
im so confused lol
@next obsidian do you understand why the first sentence is true here
it seems like the idea of the proof is to do noether normalization to get a hypersurface in A^{d+1} which is birational to X, I think?
I have no clue
l'oof
Idk why it’s separable, like it’s finite and algebraic
i mean yeah you can nn to get that
And I don’t think we’ve made characteristic assumptions
does this proof sketch sound good tho
so like nn give us the intermediate field
and then field theory tells us there's sort of only extra relation element you need to get from k(T1,..,Td) to K(X)
so we can look at a hypersurface in A^{d+1} defined by the minimal polynomial of that thingy
or really in an open subset...
Right
I think I glanced at this and just said “sure” and didn’t think harder about it
Like algebraically this is saying that m_x always requires at least as many generators as the krull dimension and this is a fact I just know to be true
wait it is?
I think so, yeah
oh that gives the inequality dim m_x/m_x^2 >= dim X
Maybe you have to relate the krull dimension of the local ring to the dimension of X actually
since m_x/m_x^2 = m_x tensor A/m_x and then NAK
Right
I think nakayama does it here
so i agree this is equivalent to the inequality
but the inequality isn't the hard part imo
i guess it's not the interesting/surprising part to me
Sure
I’m just saying I glanced at this and went
“Okay m_x requires at least as many as the krull dim”
So whatever, the proof is whatever
sure
Haha
but like
that doesn't tell you the minimal number of generators = the krull dim for a dense open set of X, right?
that's what I mean by this triple of messages
Ah sure
because that's saying X is nonsingular except on some shitty closed subset
hahaha
lmfao
So like what you want is the separable degree to be 1 or whatever of that K(X)/L
So I think what it is is like, you consider the inclusion of L into an algebraic closure
I don;'t think I agree with this
And show there’s only a single extension of that to K(X)
so L is the field you get from nn right?
Right
you want K(X) separable over that
So it’s equivalent to showing the inclusion of L into an algebraic closure extends uniquely
Yes, I agree
wait do I
yes, an algebraic closure of L
(not of K)
because we know K(X)/L is finite, this is equivalent
oh dear
I think we want this equal to the degree of the extension
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Read 14.7 and 14.8
The number of extensions into an algebraic closure is the degree of the separable closure over the base
ahhh yeah
So we want the separable closure to be everything
okay so
let's try and example
k[t] -> k[t] via frobenius
this is an integral extension
right?
$k[t^p] \subseteq k[t]$
Sham "not a furry" rock
k is a field of char p, sorry
so we get $k(t^p) \subseteq k(t)$
Sham "not a furry" rock
when we take fields of fractions
Yup
this k(t^P) is our intermediate extension
but the extension is not at all separable
so you can't just take any polynomial subring over which A is integral
right?
maybe we should ask baicheng
alright, sent
If ord(G) = 30, and H is normal subgroup of G isomorphic to Z6 how does one go about proving G is isomorphic to Z30
are you aware of the sylow theorems?
Noo
lagrange's theorem?
yess
i was given a hint to consider the homomorphism phi : G -> Aut(H) i.e. G->H->H phig(h) = ghg^-1, i proved its homomorphic
and i proved its kernel is order 30
wait how would those help don't you need to look at automorphisms of Z6?
but not sure what that entails
have you seen semidirect products
maybe I'm not the best help actually I might be overcomplicating it
ok so H normal in g means left cosets are the same as right costs
cosets
since H normal, ghg^-1 is in H obviously thats what phi is mapping to tho, i think phig(h) = {e} order 1
so here is where the homomorphism comes in
given g in G
gH=Hg meaning gh=h'g for some h'
and you can see that h' is ghg^-1
this is the homomorphism to aut(H)
each g is sent to the automorphism thar is conjugation by g
sorry I have to go now, try to classify the automorphisms and make a divisibility argument
Hm ok thank you
if order(phi(G)) = 1
well a thm we learned was that
phi(G) isomorphic to G/ker phi
so ord(G) = ord(ker phi) x ord(phi(G))
so 30 = 30 x 1
what would the
order of ker(phi) being 30 imply?
i think thats where im stuck
where does this come from
phi(G) isomorphic to G/ker phi
and G finite order 30
it was a thm
for homorphic phi mapping G to a subgroup of G
but it has || 1 only if |ker|=30
yea
i showed ord(ker) = 30
ghg^-1 = e for fixed g implies h = e
only one such h exists in H
and there are 30 cases for g
I just proved that G is abelian then by the structure of finite ( finitely generated) abelian groups we have that G is isomorphic to the direct products of Z / 2Z , Z / 3Z and Z / 5Z therefore isomorphic to Z / 30Z
First the order of G / H is 5 therefore a cyclic groups of order 5 generated by Hy, y ^5 belongs to H.choose a generator x of H we see that there is an isomorphism for H to itself defined by mapping x to yxy^-1
And this automorphism has order either 1 or 5 since y^5 belongs to H
And it can’t be 5 by direct check therefore G is an abelian group then the result follows
( yxy^-1=x^k then k^5 =1 mod 6)
there's a problem i thought of of the proof
$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}} = 0$ but the problem is $p_i$ and $p_j$ could be $(t-1)^2$ and $(t-1)^6$.
and f_k is guaranteed to be a constant
P_i are all different irreducible polynomials
Anticipation
hm, but how would you decompose $\frac{t^3+3}{(t-1)^3(t-3)^2}$
Anticipation
In which field?
R
I have a general way solving the inverse of a matrix let me write it down
ok sorry i am busy for a bit so might ping you later again
Sure
You can always factorize polynomials in C first .when adding up to the final answer you always can get real rational functions again (since they are conjugated pairs)
Could you tell me which book it is from.I am looking for different materials to read
it's algebraic groups by humphreys
Thank you
got a few q..
i still dont know what b is
and what ur doing here
i think i got it nvm, but why is A invertible
also it seems you just decomposed into same irreducible polynomials again of higher powers
which is the problem of the proof i mentioned above,
so the proof that suppose a_k ≠ 0 then splitting and saying it doesnt divide left hand side wont work because it might divide
oh btw here is my solution so far, it may be im interpreting something wrong
A is invertible because those polynomials defined in the fifth row are linear independent. Proof is similar as what we discussed before
Those polynomials f_i show up If you add up those terms whose denominators are power of the same irreducible polynomial P_i
ah, ok, so would that be a basis? and the ones i wrote not necessarily a basis?
What you wrote forms a basis The only reason why all numerators in my pictures are 1 is because that in C irreducible polynomials have degree 1
ok, but how would i show it forms a basis, im stuck in the end at that part
cannot show LHS is not divisible by p_1(t)^r_1, after supposing a_1 ≠ 0 toward contradiction
i would like to show Q_1(t) is not divisible by p_1(t)^r_1 but can't because Q_1(t) could contain a higher power of p_1
f_i = Σ a_ijk x^j P_i(x)^(r_i-k)
Since j is smaller than the degree of P_i =d this polynomials can be divided
Into polynomials where the power of x is contained in [kd,(k+1)d-1] for all k
wait what do u mean contained
... every step get so hard for me this problem is insane
like what is kd and the stuff
Btw could you show me how to type (a_n)^r in latex, I want to write it clearer
$a_n^r$?
Anticipation
or $(a_n)^r$
Anticipation
$f_i=\sum a_ijk \cdot x^j \cdot (P_i)^(r_i -k)$
Cogwheels of the mind
$f_i=\sum a_{ijk} \cdot x^j \cdot (P_i)^{(r_i -k)}$
Anticipation
Thanks if the degree of P_i is d then you can see that this polynomials
where j < d
You can divide it into different sections where the power of x is contained in [kd,(k+1)d-1]
Because j is smaller than d
Wait so i will rewrite something
I believe I am trying to show $\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{a_k x^{s_k}}{p(x)^{r_k}} = 0$ implies $a_k = 0$
Anticipation
where p is irreducible and $s_k < deg(p)$
Anticipation
You are trying to show that
where does r_i - k come from, I don't understand how you rewrite to that form first of all
$\sum_{i,j,k} \frac{a_{ijk}x^j}{(p_i)^k}=0$ implies that $a_{ijk}=0$
Cogwheels of the mind
wait cant we ignore the i,j's for now and solve this sub problem?
$1 \leq k \leq r_i$
Cogwheels of the mind
It is insufficient. f_i doesn’t necessarily just contain one terms
i mean f_i is this
$\sum_{i,j,k} \frac{a_{ijk}x^j}{(p_i)^k}=\sum_i \frac{f_i (x)}{(p_i)^{r_i}$
Cogwheels of the mind
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So let $f_i$ be $\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{a_k x^{s_k}}{p(x)^{r_k}} = 0$, how would the proof go?
Anticipation
Then it equals to $\frac{f}{p(x)^{r_n}$ where $f=\sum a_k x^{s_k} p(x)^{{r_n}-{r_k}}$
Cogwheels of the mind
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Then it equals to $\frac{f}{p(x)^{r_n}}$ where $f=\sum a_k x^{s_k} p(x)^{{r_n}-{r_k}}$
Anticipation
Yes but I can’t see why you have to discuss this particular form
i mean if i can show a_k = 0 then im done with the proof right
since thats the last implication you wrote
here
No like I said it’s not the normal case
Normally $f=\sum a_{jk} \cdot x^j \cdot (P)^{(r -k)}$
Cogwheels of the mind
sorry what are the j,k,r i am completely lost
I agree up to this point, and yes f_k can be broken into monomial sum
but actually im lost already what is f_k
i think this problem is insane..
im just dumb
ye
Oh so in other words
what did you say f_i was again?
We replaced the final $\sum_{j,k}$ with $\sum_{k}$ $\sum_{j}$
Cogwheels of the mind
yep my exact question is
why does f_i(x) = 0 as you wrote above mean that a_{ijk} = 0, i think im good once that is resolved
the power of x in each k doesn’t intersect at all
@shamrock#0598 I have not read the whole discussion, but there is a general theorem (Liu, Alg. geom and arithm. curves, prop 3.2.15) that integral varieties are geometrically reduced iff their function field is separable (in the sense of not necessarily algebraic extensions ; see Lang's Algebra, chap VIII.4 for general theory)
$(a+bx)+(cx^2+dx^3)+(ex^4+fx^5)=0$ then $(a+bx)=0$ $(cx^2+dx^3)=0$ $(ex^4+fx^5)=0$
Cogwheels of the mind
oh do they really not intersect
wait ur right i see
right haha my brain
thanks
i cannot think
so much notation
just another thing to confirm
f_i is of degree less than r_i right
oh i mean
less than r_i*deg(p_i)
?I thought it was that “iff the intersection of the function field and the separate closure of k equals to k”
i believe here f_i(x) is of degree < r_i*deg(p_i)
We proved that each f_i =0 like the degree of them don’t even matter
j being smaller than degree p is for proving each a is zero
Anticipation
Oh I was wrong I need to reconsider
Oh I figured it out
oh
im gonna summarize the problem again cuz maybe someone else can explain as well
so ignore what im saying for now
The question is to find a basis for R(t), and so far I claim that
$B = {t^n \vert n \geq 0} \cup {\frac{t^m}{p(t)^n}\vert n \in \mathbb{N} \text{P irreducible over} \mathbb{R} \text{and} m < deg(P)}}} is a basis
hm, one thing that might make things easier is to note that the irreducible polynomials over R are all degree 1 or 2
why is the condition that m < deg(P) there? How do you write something like t^2/(t +1) in that basis?
that is equal to t+k+c/(t+1)
ah right
just divide
There's a proof on wikipedia, don't know if you've looked at that
nope
thx
why p|g_n?
the powers of p are greater than or equal to 1 in the previous terms
wait so then what?
? degree of g_n is smaller than P while it also can be divided by P so it can only be zero
This
yea but i dont get what you mean by this
or i mean how does that help
oh
is it because
$\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} g_k p^{n-k}=p (\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}g_k p^{n-k-1})$
Cogwheels of the mind
Which = -g_n
ohh
oh
thank you so much
i get the argument now
finally i can write the goddamn proof
its nice but usually i feel writing on ipad on notability or something is faster
but yea its professional
it can be decent fast too once u get used to it, which is not hard
Yeah hope that I can soon
my work so far, following what professor did and it's all just a bit unclear to me. I always hear people say 'you can shorten' it, but that's usually if you assume 'blah blah's theorem or something else down the line I don't know about. I guess what i'm asking is if there is a faster way to convey it for a beginner rather than doing this
MT=multiplication table
cayley table
What's your definition of dihedral groups here?
uhh whadya mean usual presentation
yesss
how?
yes
ohhh
that's where rs=sr^{-1} comes from
s^{2}=r^{n}
I guess it just feels weird writing out multplication tables
very nice when patterns appear though
:)
If your definition of the dihedral groups is "has this presentation", then you can just directly check that f(r) and f(J_3) give you generators for the presentation
why do I only need to check the generators?
I'm saying that you check that those generators satisfy the relations for D_3
well haven't I defined f(r) and f(J_3) to be the generators of D_3 anyway??
I mean sure
how does that relate to an isomorphism
But this way you don't actually need to confirm this homomorphism
why?
Like I said, if the way you've defined D_3 is by means of a presentation in terms of generators
Then you can just check that f(r) and f(J_3) satisfied this definition
how come that will gurantee that there is a homomorphism? How does that deflect the need to check/
The group will just be D_3
lol theres another issue
you proven that a_jk = 0
but how do you know thats the only way to write r
as in r = $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}}$
Anticipation
which can be further decomposed into $\frac{f_k(t)}{p_k(t)^{r_k}} = \sum_{i < d, j \leq r_k} a_{ij} \frac{x^i}{p_k(x)^j}$ where $d = deg(p_k)$
Anticipation
so here if r = 0, then a_ij = 0 can be shown but how do you prove no other lin combo so that b_ij ≠ 0
just say partial fraction decomposition is unique?
I don’t think there is any confusion here I directly proved that
$\frac{x^j}{p^k}$
is linear independent. All those f_i are just used in certain steps in the middle
Cogwheels of the mind
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ok so first you say there is such a decomposition for every f/g right, which is the span part
You could check the last picture whether they are any specific mistake in it. I didn’t find any error...
no the picture has no error but im just still a bit conceptually confused
so for every f/g in R(t), you show it can be written uniquely as f/g = q+r
where r can be spanned by the t^n/p(x)
oh ok, i get the picture
the idea
From the beginning, also a good latex practice:
the-last-knight
How would you prove this?
The abelian part is easy, follows from fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups. The non abelian case seems tricky
The structure of groups having order p^k is clear when k is smaller than or equal to 7
It's not clear to me 😦
Particularly I have an article here showing the case where k =3:
Is it Keith Conrad's article?
Oh how to upload files here...
That is pretty complicated, since it proves for p^3 in general
I'm looking for 8 and 27 in particular and hoping things will be easier
It’s not complicated when k=3 actually...
Oh,exactly 😂
$\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t + \sum_{1 \leq i \leq n, 0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ then let $Q=\prod_{1 \leq i \leq n} (P_i)^{s_i}$, $Q_j = \prod_{1 \leq i \leq n, j \neq i } (P_i)^{s_i}$ $r=\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t$, $\frac{f_i}{{p_i}^{s_i}}=\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}$ then we have that $\sum_{1 \leq i \leq n} f_i Q_i +rQ=0$ then if one of the $f_i \neq 0$ then $p_i | f_i$ which is a contradiction therefore all $f_i =0$ then $r=0$ so we can reduce it to the case where $\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ which we have proved in the last picture.
Cogwheels of the mind
yea got it, thanks!
I edited the context but it didn’t change
$\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t + \sum_{1 \leq i \leq n, 0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ then let $Q=\prod_{1 \leq i \leq n} (P_i)^{s_i}$, $Q_j = \prod_{1 \leq i \leq n, j \neq i } (P_i)^{s_i}$ $r=\sum_{0 \leq t \leq T} c_t x^t$, $\frac{f_i}{{p_i}^{s_i}}=\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}$ then we have that $\sum_{1 \leq i \leq n} f_i Q_i +rQ=0$ then if one of the $f_i \neq 0$ then $p_i | f_i$ which is a contradiction therefore all $f_i =0$ then $r=0$ so we can reduce it to the case where $\sum_{0 \leq j < deg(p_i), 1 \leq k \leq r_i} \frac{a_{ijk} x^j}{{p_i}^k}=0$ which we have proved in the last picture.
Cogwheels of the mind
Where $p_i \not| f_i$.
Cogwheels of the mind
Indeed😂
what don't you get about it
eN is the identity element of the quotient group G/N
Since you're trying to figure out the kernel
Yes but why should x belong to N
so since N is a subgroup
if x is in N, then xN is just N again
or eN, alternatively
i mean that's not quite rigorous yet but it's the intuition
that just gives the only if part
yeah, exactly
but if xN = eN then x must be in N
so that's the other direction
What’s the reason for that?
Is it because NN=N?
if xN = eN, then there's n in N such that xn = e, ie. x = n^-1, but N is closed under inverses so x is in N
that works i think
if the left coset by N gives the whole of N then its just an element of N right? since N is a subgroup and is closed under the induced law of composition
that works too!
I’m tripping rn ig if I come back to this later I’ll get it
Thanks:)
just look up the definition of what cosets mean ^^
Ahh got it
since eN is just N and xN is just xn where n belongs to N, x must also belong to N because it’s a multiplicative subgroup
Correct?
yeah
Thanks again:)
Give an example of a nonabelian group each of whose subgroups is normal.
Q8
Yea that’s correct
How did u come up with the answer?
Did u guess and verify or was it a well defined method
Its a well known example ^^
the quaternions group
How are u supposed to just remember this i mean wow
So experience?
Hey is it ok if I leave out some things that I don’t understand in a math book during a first reading and come back to it later?
yeah
yay:)
i mean it's really hard to understand everything the first time
No cap bruh it’s so hard I can hardly do 20 pages in like 6 hours
don't expect to be able to master everything in a textbook
Yeah I’ve heard ppl say that before
its not a novel that you're reading ^^
there was a thing i read where someone recommended like for one chapter, reading it three times: so first time you skim the thing just to get an idea of what's happening, then second time you go through it normally and try and understand the proofs a bit, and then third time you really get into it and nitpick all the proofs
and obviously it's not as cut-and-dried as that
different chapters, different readers, etc.
Also, on top of that, group theory is that sort of thing one easily forgets in a couple of weeks
but that's closer to it than just once and done i think
I already forgot what I learned yesterday lmao
I took algebra this first semester and I barely remember anything
That’s rlly helpful thanks so much

Is it possible to have 2 isomorphic groups in which one of them has a finite generator set and the other one doesnt?
I mean I think i wrote it wrong. I meant only one of them could be represented by a finite set
Im interpreting his thing as in one group there doesnt exist a finite generating set
is that because the image of a generator by an isomorphism is a generator?
and is that a trivial fact or?
P is a Sylow so it’s used up all the p
To make this more clear, if p divided the index of the normalized, then P doesn’t have maximal order
Like wrt p
This says that P has order p^k
But that p^k+1 divides |G|
Because
The index of the normalizer is the number of conjugates
By orbit stabilizer
Yeh
:(
Not gorilla
Monkey
Pedestal primate
I like that one
Lets say π(x)=[x] (equivalence class of x), π: X -> X/~,
is it correct if we say for all a,b member of X, π(a,b)=[a][b]=π(b,a)=[b][a]=X to proof that is symmetric ?
because π only takes one argument
it means two equivalence classes from a and b. since both of them are member of X, therefore both are part of X/~.
no
this is the actual question
By ~_π, they mean the equivalence a (~_π) b iff π(a)=π(b)
ah got it
then it will become π(a)=π(b) then π(b)=π(a) and [a]=[b] is equal to [b]=[a]
same thing goes for transitivity
thanks @carmine fossil
one more question, if I want to proof that is a surjective map, I have to describe since all members of X/~ are part of X, then there always exist an equivalence class such that π(x)=[x]. should I proof it differently ? because it's too obvious.
That's it
Any representative of the equivalence class gets mapped to the equivalence class
we can also use the definition of fibers, and say fibers are the same as equivalence classes, therefore, there always exist y s.t. f(x)=y
and y = [x]
shit wrong chat
Never thought about the indicator function being square integrable
I'm pretty sure that here, f^2(x) is referring to [f(x)]^2
and not the compositional square
you can still do something with the indicator function though
but you'll have to modify it in some way
yeah you can fix that
i'd say it's bad form to give an answer to a question someone else is asking for help on
unless they're specifically asking for that
but yes, you are right
Pretty cool problem though
me to
If know H=x^{-1}Hx can I automatically left and right actions on both sides to get that x^{-1}Hx=x^{-1}Hx?
a = a for all a
???
they're the same thing
if you have two things
you have the same thing on the right and left
like, literally the same thing spelt the same
oh wait
dgoidjkog
I meant
if
H=xHx^{-1} can i use operations to imply that H=x^{-1}Hx as well
I guess I am more asking how would I show they are the same
yes, take your equation and multiply both sides on the right by x
and then multiply both sides by x^{-1} on the left
you get what you want
so I am allowed to do that with this?
I mean, you should probably say why its true, since this is equality of sets, and not equality of elements
i'm trying to use subset arguements and it's very annoying
prof is just like 'write it in reverse order' for other case
eiojgk,s
well, I guess it depends what you know
do you know that H = xHx^{-1} for a single x in G, or do you know that this holds for all x in G?
I could see why (xy)H(xy)^{-1} was in H clearly, but you could just simplify that down into one case
I'm a bit confused why I can't do the same with inverses
i'm sorry I'm so stupid 
you know that xHx^{-1} in H, and yHy^{-1} in H
you can also rewrite (xy)^{-1} as y^{-1}x^{-1}
so you get
x(yHy^{-1})x^{-1}
you know yHy^{-1} will be in H
so you can rewrite above as x^{-1}Hx
which you know is also in H
so therefore (xy) in H
I think some of those should be lower case h's but yes
confusing
Alright class today we will be learning lower case vs upper case letters
I would just never include a lowercase h
You can just do it on the level of the entire H
I think on the level of entire H, it's unclear that you can move from (xy)H(y^{-1}x^{-1}) to x(yHy^{-1})x^{-1}
Wat
like you need to appeal to elements and their associativity here
I mean you definitely can’t turn the x^-1 on the right to an x
group

that's not so bad surely
sure, but I'm just saying doing it on the level of H isn't enough
He’s saying that you’ll need to appeal to individual elements
ehhhhhhhhhh
To prove that you can use associativity here
Which I ageee
But also
I don’t care
well to prove yes but it just feels obvious
like i can run through the 3 lines in my head
oh, ok then
i am confused
ignore me
you can do a similar thing for the other case. If you know that H = xHx^{-1}, then you can show H = x^{-1}Hx by doing the subset arguments
yes
then what are you having trouble with?
seems fine
okay I'm not sure why you switched to y
o
so you want to say that given some element of the form xhx^{-1} in xHx^{-1}, that this is equal to h' for some h' in H
and then rearrange just like you did the other case
okk
hmm
wait I'm confused
ohhh
ugh my brain
b=k*xHx^{-1}?
why can't I get this???
I've just learned about finite fields (Galois fields) from a PDF I've found, but how do you construct them? For example, what are the elements in F_(2^2)? Are there any good PDF's that explain this?
Do you know what polynomial rings and quotient rings are?
yes
You can think of F_(2^2) as being F_2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)
Since the latter is a field and has order 4
It's a field because I specifically chose x^2 + x + 1 to be irreducible
Wait, but how does the latter have order 4?
Because given any polynomial f in F_2[x], you can reduce it down to be linear or constant in F_2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)
by basically dividing by x^2 + x + 1
Oh, right!
And this is true because two finite fields of the same order are isomorphic, right?
yeah
Okay, thank you so much! One more thing: I know that $F(\alpha) \cong F[X]/(f(X))$ where $f(X)$ is the minimal polynomial to $\alpha$ because I've seen the proof. However, is there any intuition behind this?
older sister
For example, I can understand why Q(i) is isomophic to Q[X]/(X^2 +1) just because they behave the same, but I can't see why this is true intuitively for any other value
how do you think about F(\alpha)? Or how have you defined F(\alpha)?
I think of it as the smallest field containing alpha that also contains F
okay sure
and you've seen the idea that if the degree of f is d, then 1, \alpha, \alpha^2, ..., \alpha^{d-1} gives you a basis for F(\alpha) over F?
Yes
Then that's kind of how I think of it
Any element of F(\alpha) can be written as a_0 + a_1 \alpha + a_2 \alpha^2 + ... + a_{d-1} \alpha^{d-1} since thats a basis
and you can also think of this as a polynomial a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + ... + a_{d-1}x^{d-1}
and thats basically how the isomorphism between those two fields works
np
ok this is going to be so trivial but how can i prove that, with K normal in H and G and H a subgroup of G and H/K iso to Zp, H is normal in G
i've been stuck on this far longer than i care to admit
I think this is more of less "just do it" assuming the proof I have works
You know, like start with ghg^-1 and show that this is in H
Actually wait a second
probs worth trying symbols...
NVM, maybe this doesn't work
i really hope it's a true statement
i'm like 95% sure it is but
i mean i think the heart of my problem is maybe i don't understand what H/K being iso to Zp really says about H?
i think if H/K is iso to Zp then there exists j in H such that j^p is in K, j isn't in K and H = jK
but i don't know what i can do with that
(Anyway yeah sorry my scratch work was too scratch that it didn't make sense, but anyway) my thoughts so far are, so I think it is sufficient to show that gxg^-1 is in H where x is such that xK generates H/K. Notably (gxg^-1)^p is in K (and thus in H). Then maybe this problem is about taking pth roots eg if y^p is in K then y is in H. As a backwards direction, at least it is the case that the map H to H that maps y to y^p actually maps into K, does this imply gxg^-1 is in K somehow?
What’s the problem?
He posted it above
Not sure whose problem it is
mine
Ohhh
with K normal in H and G and H a subgroup of G and H/K iso to Zp:
P: H is normal in G
yes
Finite groups?
yes
I think it is sufficient to show that gxg^-1 is in H where x is such that xK generates H/K
i got this far, i think it's right
So I guess I have: y in H implies y^p in K. And I want to turn this around to y^p in K implies y in H
that doesn't feel true tho
Well that’s simply every single x which isn’t in K
But is in H
So I don’t think it says all that much about x tbh
like with G = Z2 x Z2 x Z2 = {(a, b, c)} where a, b, c are all 0 or 1, {(0, b, c} is a H, {0, 0, c)} is a K
then (1, 0, 0)^2 is in K but (1, 0, 0) is not in H
so it's just false?
can we do anything with the fact that (G/K)/(H/K) is iso to G/H??
i wish that meant G/H was automatically well defined
... just to check, it doesn't, right?
Maybe I’m dumb as hell but
I think I have a proof even when H/K isn’t Z_p lol
So N_G(K) = G right? And N_H(K) = H
yyyes
So it suffices to show that N_G(K) is contained in N_G(N_H(K))
Because then you have G = N_G(K) < N_G(N_H(K)) = N_G(H)
So the normalizer of H is G
yes
So take a g in N_G(K) so that gKg^-1 = K
And then take an element in N_H(K) so an h such that hKh^-1 = K
Then look at ghg^-1
We want this to also be in N_H(K)
Ahhhh i see where I went wrong
So ghg^-1 does fix K
Under conjugation
You get ghg^-1Kgh^-1g^-1
And then you just like collapse this in 3 steps
What you need to show is that ghg^-1 is IN H
Which I’m gonna try to use the fact that H/K is Z_p now to do that
Oh but
I think this isn’t very useful because
I doubt this is true in general
And if I try to use special information this is literally just saying that
ghg^-1 is in H when h is in H
But idk, maybe something brilliant happens
Wait what the fuck?
This is false right? K=1, H = Zp, G = something that contains Zp
Yeah
It is normal in everything
But H wouldn’t be normal in G or at least you can make a G where it isn’t
i hoped it was true in order to solve a problem from a book

At least say you think it’s true at the start sad face
oh wait i should have been thinking about all this other structure
so it's like, G is solvable
prove all the subgroups in the chain are normal in G
and there was some stuff about how Nk+1/Nk is prime cyclic
but i think it would have to be the fact that above H but below G, there's more normal subgroups?
the chain goes up all the way?
I asked a friend
is this too mangled for you to understand
And they said this isn’t even true either
f me
In mathematics, a group is supersolvable (or supersoluble) if it has an invariant normal series where all the factors are cyclic groups. Supersolvability is stronger than the notion of solvability.
ok so i'll write out all the details of the problem that i have access to
show these are all equivalent:
G is solvable
there's a chain 1 norm in H1 norm in ... norm in G such that the composition factors are cyclic
the composition factors are prime
there's a chain 1 norm in N1 norm in ... norm in G such that all the Ni are normal in G and Ni+1/Ni is abelian
apparently not
Where did u get this problem
d&f
i can't get a picture directly rn
uhhh look it's the chapter that first covers composition series
- something?
i bet this is gonna be me misinterpreting/mistranscribing somehow
I have done quite a few exercises in D and F, this does vaguely sound familiar
But eg abelian factor -> cyclic factor sounds possible, by refining the chain (abelian groups are very nice)
And eg prime/cyclic -> abelian is trivial
Yes
I guess it is just the last one
aaa
i am like 80% sure it said Ni was normal in G
what if
d&f uses 'solvable' to mean supersolvable
or
no, i'm so confused, i don't see where i've gone wrong
what does k and g being in the same conjugacy class mean? I understand Cl(g), but not exactly what Cl(k) means? Or is that k different than the k the definition?
ohh
wai
if k is in Cl(g), g is in Cl(k)
because k=hgh^{-1} -> h^{-1}kh=g ?
yes
for reflexivity, would it simply be to show that g in Cl(g)?
well yes, that's the condition
yes
yo, I'm here
what do I need to confirm
This
The last bit isn’t equivalent
You can’t always get Ni normal in G
Do you recall an exercise like this in D&F?
yes
What in the fuck
?!
(iii) -> (iv) took forever
you can’t ensure that Ni is normal!?
ok so like
What exercise number is that
ya, but A_4 / klein_4 isn't abelian
each N_i must be normal and each N_i / N_{i+1} is abelian
Yes, but the thing is A4 is solvable
oh wait monkaS
But you can’t get a composition series with each thing in the chain normal
I was thinking A_5
Which exercise is this?
exercise 8, section 3.4
wait
ok i knew there was a 4 in there somewhere lol
just now remembering that 4.x is the group actions, not this
Okay wait...
i think the trick is right at the start
Maybe you can get an abelian series with each Ni normal
i think they might use solvable where everyone else uses supersolvable
But it isn’t a composition series
Like you’ll have non simple quotients
In which case I suppose it could be true?
Maybe...
wait, it does work for A_4, 1 \triangle V_4 \triangle A_4 does satisfy it
A_4 / V_4 is cyclic group of order 3
hnnngh
And V_4 / 1 is obviously abelian
But you can’t get a composition series
With each factor normal
So it has to be an abelian series only
Wtf
Right, but Z2 isn’t normal in A4
yeah
But if you only want an abelian series
Then you’re fine with the filtration Poros gave
Tfw
we don't need to do Z_2 in A_4
that's not necessary by the condition they gave
1 \triangle V_4 \triangle A_4 exists is all the condition says
yes but like
they don't say it's a composition series
no?
No
wait
yeah, ii and iii say the factors are cyclic prime abelian
you have to show that the minimal nontrivial normal subgroup is necessarily abelian, and then use induction
to prove 3 -> 4
and I'm pretty sure it works
different chains indeed
fuuuck
the destroyer of hope
i just assumed all those other things were leading up to showing those chains were actually equal...
ok well thanks all for not holding a grudge over me wasting your time lmao
i am shooketh
i'm just gonna do something else now, i can't even
lol, why would I hold a grudge
we don't want G to be abelian because the inverse won't be in the conjugacy class?
uhhhhhhh
oh wait
ok, that's not even helpful for what the question is asking
hmm
I've already proven that Cl(e) makes the trivial group
Hi, I'm working on part (iii). I'm having trouble figuring this out.
What have you done so far?
a is a complex root of f(x), so I know that $a^3+2a+1=0$. This was used in part (ii).
Mega Euler
Indeed, $\frac{u}{v} = \frac{a^2+1}{a^3+2a+1}$
Mega Euler
Not sure how to proceed from here
I've gone in circles with the denominator
You messed up the formula, but doesn't really matter
I would try to write 1/v as a polynomial in a
Oh hmmm
You know, like write v times q(a) = 1 and solve coefficients of q
Or maybe directly doing it with u/v is better, not sure
q(a) being a multiplicative identity of v?
Yeah, ie 1/v
1/v*
Er, multiplicative inverse , I think you mean
inverse*
Yes
What is the point in finding coefficients in q? I thought that Q[x] is the polynomial ring with coefficients coming from the rationals.
Well, finding coefficients of q will tell you what 1/v is (in Q(a)=Q[x]/(f(x))) in the basis 1,a, a^2.
I'm not sure what you mean about Q[x]
Q[x] is the set of all polynomials with rational coefficients
