#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 563 of 407
Our book says that it is beyond the scope of our book
iirc there's a better proof of this
Is there a proof which doesn't use the prime thing?
yeah kronecker weber is cool bc usually you prove the local version first and then use that to prove the global version of Q
yeah I think so but i'm remembering how it works
hm
so I remember that when d is a prime p, you can say the same thing that the discriminant of x^p - 1 is pm p^p and is a square which means its square root exists in your field
Yes that's part b
But you can write down that $\sqrt{p^p} = p^{(p-1)/2}\sqrt{p}$
64606131
So $\bQ(\zeta_p)$ contains $\sqrt{p^p} = p^{(p-1)/2} \sqrt{p}$ which implies that it must contain $\sqrt{p}$
64606131
modulo some signs
that makes sense
and this probably only works when p isn't 2
you should be able to do such a thing in general too
So what's the purpose of having 8d instead of 4d?
Because you will have i in the field if you replace 8d by 4d
yea idk, i think 4d should work too iirc
oh
the question requires you to have square roots for both d and -d?
I think that's why you need 8d?
If we have a square root of d and i in the field
Can't we just multiply those to product a square root of -d?
I know that Q(sqrt(d)) is always embedded in Q(zeta_{4d}) but
hm yeah that sounds reasonable
Oh my god
I just realized how easy this was
\sqrt{d^d}=d^{\frac{d}{2}} or d^\frac{d-1}{2}\sqrt{d}
Forgetting basic arithmetic facts seems to be a common thing on this channel
Thanks for the help 13190949
no problem 91969759074873114613
You need 8d for the case where d is even
so that you have sqrt 2 in your field
and you can divide by it to make d odd
but Q(zeta_8) already contains sqrt 2
so if d is even then 4d will already contain sqrt 2
Darn you're right
I think the author put it there because he thought what I did
and didn't realize what you said
yeah maybe
or maybe the author just wasn't concerned about getting the best possible bound but just something that works idk
Why does A_5 have two separate 5 cycles as conjugacy classes?
Why can you split the 5 cycles into two separate conjugacy classes?
Let A be the conjugacy class in S_5
You can write A={x(1,2,3,4,5)x^-1| x is even} + { x(1,2,3,4,5)x^-1 | x is odd}
Elements in the first set are conjugate to each other in A_5
You can write an odd permutation as a product of an odd permutation and a even permutation
Okay I think I understand that, but I do not quite get why that should give me two different conjugacy classes for the 5 cycles
Is it maybe because the first conjugacy class is of the form (abcde) and the other one is (abc)(de)?
They are obviously equal to each other but are they of that form?
Oh, right
Let's say the 2 sets share a common element
Let x(1,2,3,4,5)x^-1=y(1,2,3,4,5)y^-1 where x is even and y is odd
Then (y^-1 x) ((1,2,3,4,5) ) (y^-1 x)=(1,2,3,4,5)
But x is in center of (1,2,3,4,5) implies x is in {(1,2,3,4,5)}
That is y^-1 x is even
this doesn't make sense to me tbh
( x(1),x(2),x(3),x(4),x(5) )= (1,2,3,4,5)
x(1) can be 1,2,3,4 or 5
And for each case you get a member of that group
Because x(2) ,x(3)... are uniquely determined by choice of x(1)
Let's look at the picture I sent before. What does the representative mean? Is it the element "a" witch generates CL(a)?
Okay, but how can (12345) and (13524) generate two different conjugacy classes?
(1,3,5,2,4) is in the second set
This
Okay but how can x be odd in the "post" you just replied to?
You write x as eo where e is an even permutation
(oxo^-1) will be your representative
Which is even
Ok,Not exactly
Okay, so the reason behind the two conjugacy classes lies in the fact that you always could choose between an even and odd permutation?
Yes
Oh okay! But how can you choose an odd permutation? Odd permutations do not belong to A_5 right?
Let's say x is an odd permutation and let a be even,will x(1,2) be even or odd?
odd?
(1,2) is odd
oh, then it will be even
So you rewrite that set as {x(1,2) ( (1,2)(1,2,3,4,5)(1,2) ) (x(1,2))^-1|x is odd}
x(1,2) is even
okay I think that I get it. But where do you get your x from? From S5?
yes
Okay I think that I get it now. You always have the choice to either choose an element in A5 to conjugate or an odd permutation in S5 which you "make" even and then conjugate?
Yes
Okay, thank you so much!
maybe check #book-recommendations or #books-old
i've read Aluffi and found it pretty good. many people like Lang.
also heard about jacobson and emil artin galois theory
Ugh a friend of mine read aluffi and didn't like it much
what's the book name by jacobson?
how did we all became numbers btw?
epic funny april fools joke xd
hihi
"basic algebra" 1 and 2
nice 
are the number random?
people with name change permissions can change their name, so long as the result is a number
e.g., my name is a special date
What happens if the new name is not a number

some people with permissions are just some combination of 420 and 69
it gets changed instantly
Texit powers?
probably
im going to change my name now
see if you can watch it get switched back
oooh
do you see it?
it changes intantly
bot slow
why can't i change?

another question
why do so many people here have weeb profile pictures?
i didn;t ask a yes or no question 
It's part of internet culture
Yes
This relly good for galthery plz read u learn veri much
what the fuck
I read this myself and me now becom profesor of veri hard math me veri recomend to u
catthink
catwiggle
catuwu
This is probably dumb but can anyone explain why {1,sr} for example is a subgroup of D_3?
i mean isn't (sr)^2=r^2 so {1,sr} isn't closed ...
Why does it equal r^2?
Is r the reflection or the rotation? If it's the reflection, then r^2 = 1.
because (sr)^2=s^2r^2=r^2?
r is the rotation and s is the reflection
wait i thought r^3=1
(sr)^2 does not equal s^2r^2
The group isn't abelian, so you would get (sr)^2 = srsr. Not s^2 r^2.
Yeah, you're right that r^3 = 1. Sorry, I was thinking "r is reflection, s is spin."
r is the radius and s is the sign of the permutation
hmmm
in atiyah macdonald
it says that if A is local with maximal ideal m and residue field M then if M is finitely generated clearly M/mM is annihilated by M (i follow) so it is an A/m module, i.e a k vector space
but then it says "as such it is finite dimensional"
i dont get how this follows
is the fact that m is maximal here important
nope
oh 
for any ring A, ideal I, and module M, if S generates M over A, then the image of S in M/IM generates M/IM over A/I
yeah if m = sum a_i x_i for x_i finite then m = \sum (a_i + I)x_i
ok this makes sense
er m + I
yep
the way he worded it was kinda wack but i get it
hahaha
why are names back :(
Sad

hold on
I love that
that would be so good
ok gimme a few mins
might take some careful cropping
that's the bad version
now let me be a bit more careful with the crop job
this rocks
this is so good
ok i am 90% sure this proof is wrong but idk how, pls help
trying to prove that if there's a composition series for G, Ni normal in Ni+1 as standard, and also G is solvable, so basically all the composition factors are prime abelian cyclic simple etc.; then Ni is normal in all G also
so induction over Ni: 1 is always normal in G, so we have a base case
then we assume that Ni is normal in G, so there exists a homomorphism f from G to some H where ker(f) = Ni
Ni+1/Ni is prime cyclic, so it's generated by any aNi where a is not in Ni; then Ni+1 is just {a^b Ni}, where 0 =< a < p?? is that right?
then we can just define a homomorphism g from G to some K where ker(g) = 1?? or something like that
and then the kernel of the composition of f and g is Ni+1, i think? so Ni+1 is normal in G, so by induction all Ni in the composition series is normal in G??
In characteristic $p$, is there a "good" way to write $\prod_{i=0}^{p-1}(x-(b+i))$?
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
Assume p is not 2
I don't think so?
Up to reordering this is the product of (x-i)
No wait
b is not neccessarily an element of Z_p
If it helps, you can assume that $b^p-b=f(a)$ where $f$ is a rational function which is defined at $a$.
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
Let me just state the problem: Suppose (a,b) are points on the curve defined by $y^p-y=f(x)$ where $f$ is a rational function. The goal is to write $\prod_{i=0}^{p-1}(x-(b+i))$ as something nice like $f(x)-f(a)$ or $f(x-a)$
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
is there motivation for this? Like can you do this in the elliptic case or something?
This is related to my research, but I don't know if this is true in the elliptic case or not
The guy who wrote the paper did not explain what was going on in detail
And this is what I think he did
Look at the end of page 2 and the beginning of page 3 here
Maybe you can figure out what's going on
He claims that for any $a,b\in k$, $(x-a)^v(y-b)^ug_u^{-1} dx$ (with some condition on v and u) is a basis for the holomorphic differentials. I proved this. From this, he somehow claims the set of v + u is contained in the set of orders at all unramified points
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
This would be true if we somehow knew that given an element $a$ such that the place corresponding to $x-a$ is unramified in $F/k(x)$, there is an element $b$ such that the order of $y-b$ at the place corresponding to $x-a$ is 1.
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
wtf
I'm a lil busy tonight but I'll try to take a look at this tomorrow
The idea is this. Given an $a$ ordinary, $y^p-y=\phi(a)$ is defined (where $\phi$ is the melomorphic function at the beginning of the paper). Let $b$ be a root of this polynomial. Then $b+i$ are also roots for all i in $Z_p$. If I somehow get that $\prod_{i=0}^{p-1}(y-(b+i))$ is an element of order 1 at the place corresponding to $x-a$, I can use the triangle inequality to get that exactly one of the $y-(b+i)$ has order $1$ at $x-a$ and all $y-(b+j)$ have order 0.
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
You can also assume that $a$ is neither a root nor a pole of $\phi$
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
You assumed that H is a p-subgroup haha
|HP| = |H||P|/|H\cap P|
this is still a power of p
you have like
p^kp^n/p^j
|H\cap P| is a subgroup of a p-group
so it's a p-group
Lagrange
|H\cap P| divides |P|
eh?
I mean you've proved Lagrange right?
that for any subgroup the order divides the order of the group
Then that gives it to you yeah?
Okay
In fact even w/o lagrange the formula
|HP| = |H||P|/|H\cap P| tells you that |H\cap P| has to be a power of p
or else it won't even be an integer on the right haha
yeet dab

okay, so i am trying to partition Q_8 into its conjugacy classes, to which i have done, but my problem is that they have asked for it to be done in the notation a^ib^j, where a and b are generators of GL(2,C), any idea how this notation works and if i can transfer the solution i have already into this form?
so it's just like there's an isomorphic representation of Q_8 in terms of some random matrices
oh yeah of course....im just being dumb, cheers!
Hello, I am working on part (ii) of this problem
So I get $uv = a^4+3a^3+10a^2+3a+9$
ɹǝlnƎ ɐƃǝW
I'm just having trouble writing $a^3,a^4$ as a rational-linear combination of $1,a,a^2$
ɹǝlnƎ ɐƃǝW
I know that since $a\in\mathcal{C}$ is a root of $f$, we can write $f(x)=(x-a)\cdot g(x)$ for $g$ is degree 2
ɹǝlnƎ ɐƃǝW
You know that a^3 + 2a + 1 = 0
by a being a root of that
So if you expand out uv you get
a^4 + 3a^3 + 10a^2 + 3a + 9
you can actually get rid of the a^4 and 3a^3 term
Ah I see, let me give this a shot
I'm gonna go do some other stuff, but I'll leave what I think is the correct calcualtion in a spolier
If you can't figure it out you can just un-spoiler it for yourself
Thank you
||a(a^3 + 2a + 1) + 3(a^3 + 2a + 1) + 8a^2 - 6a + 6||
That's amazing you did that so quickly
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I just did what you had to do in order to get rid of a^4 and a^3
then just figured out what I had to use up in order to get it
Chmonkey is galois theory god
yes

I will be looking forward to asking Chmonkey for help on every other AG problem I do over the summer
😌
You know the other day I looked at some chapter I exercises
and I knew how to do like half of them just from schemes stuff lol
I was like "oh this is because this is true for integral schemes"
I feel that
It's kind of weird how a lot of things that confused me less than a year ago became much easier to understand after learning abstract nonsense

Like stuff about tensoring being right exact
Oh it's just a left adjoint functor
A lot of stuff can lowkey be seen as just
oh this operation is just tensoring
so you just write it as some like triple tensor product
commute some stuff
do some stuff
tadah
Currently I'm on a big high after proving Yoneda lemma without looking at the hint in the book
I'm gonna ride this out for at least a week
Just trace the identity
Idk I don't think I ever proved Yoneda
but I did prove the 2-yoneda
so I'm gonna assume that implies normal Yoneda
haha
The what?
Thanks for ruining my high chmonkey
2-categories suck btw
no
you don't get it
you have to carry around so much data
it sucky
yoneda works for infinity-1 cats
that's just infinity lol
Are 2-categories categories?
brofib idoit confirmed
Or are they completely different?
yes, but also no
2-categories are like a category except you also have the data of maps between the morphisms
and these satisfy certain composition things
so think of natural transformations of functors
there's like a horizontal and vertical composition you might have seen
and you can talk about a diagram 2-commuting
it was supposed to be a ","
you can think of it like
say you had a square of functors
and they don't on the nose commute
but there's a natural isomorphism between the two
a 2-commuting diagram would be like that square along with a specific choice of that natural iso
so you carry around a lot of stupid data
and it sucks
My advisor was telling me about an undergrad who asked them to advise a project on category theory

Even though they only really knew linear algebra

by they I mean the person, not my advisor
awww
Deadass, if he knew the details Mochizuki's "proof", he could probably explain it to most people on the server


(Maybe an exaggeration)
"proof"

also most people on the server is a big statement considering like... 99.8% of it are like "I NEED CALC HELP"
xD
I think there's like... 40k members or something
All the honorable tag people
Ugh I need to finish this proof of Krull-Akizuki
time to go MIA
😭
Today has been so hard to focus
Sayonara Kamisama

I hope you're not dissing my boy Mochizuki, y'all just wait, I'll be laughing when it is widely acknowledged that mochizukis IUTT is totally correct.
I have never read his paper so I can't say
Me neither, but there is no way it is wrong
Bro can I have some of your copium?
I need it for snk finale next week 
Let $\phi(x)$ be a rational function over an algebraically closed field $k$. Let $a$ be an element of $k$ which is neither a root nor a pole for $\phi(x)$. Then $a$ is a root of $\phi(x)-\phi(a)$. Is it true that $a$ is a degree one root (i.e. $a$ is not a root of $\frac{\phi(x)-\phi(a)}{x-a}$)?
ɥɔʇᴉB 'ɐuɐuɐB ɐ ǝʌɐH
let k be char p, then $\phi(x)=x^p$ gives you $\frac{\phi(x)-\phi(a)}{x-a} = \frac{x^p-a^p}{x-a} = \frac{(x-a)^p}{x-a} = (x-a)^{p-1}$ which has $a$ as a root still
ʎʇᴉsoɹǝW
Dang it
I need to show that this extension L/K is seperable then the result is immediate, but I'm not really sure how to show this.
L/K may not be separable
consider the simplest example K = Q, L = Q(cbrt(2)) and alpha = cbrt(2)
oh sorry
Hm then if its not seperable then I'm not sure how to go about it
ah
but yea, the problem doesn't go away
take L = Fp(t) and K = Fp(t^p)
then L/K is a finite extension. With n = p and alpha = t, the result still holds.
hm but the hint sort of implies that it's a seperable extension as my notes say that this norm map only applies if the extension is seperable
Ah, so there are two nice definitions for norm. One only works when the extension is separable.
the one you're using is probably, try to embed L is algebraic closure of K, and take products of all possible images of alpha
yea so there is also this nice definition that look L/K as a vector space. And then multiplication by x is a linear map. the determinant of this map is the norm, and trace is, well the trace.
does it still behave in a similar way in the sense that N(alpha^n)=N(a), then N(alpha)^n=a^([L:K]_s) etc. ?
lol i was typing exactly that
ah :P
i'll just paste it anyway
If you know about this, then the problem is very elementary. taking b = norm_{L/K}(alpha) works! As b^n = norm_{L/K}(a) = a^[L:K].
ah so not the seperability degree but the normal degree?
yep
thinking about it... a is an element of K
what is multiplication by a?
its a*id
in terms of matrices, this is an [L:K]*[L:K] matrix
Wait are these stevenhagens notes?
hm I see but the only problem I have with this is that this definition wasn't introduced yet so I'm not sure if I can immediately use it
If so, look at exercise 31 in that chapter
and yeah it is
There is the more general definition
oh yeah I see it, I guess I can introduce it myself and apply
Also since when do these notes have an english translation 

Sorry for the ping but I have a quick question, here you chose n=p. but doesn't the question state that for any a in K and any n in positive Z, we have there exists some alpha in L such that alpha^n=a, so you can't straight up choose n=p right?
maybe misunderstanding something
it says if you have a finite field extension L/K and an integer n such that there is an element alpha with the property alpha^n = a in K.
Under these hypothesis, you need to show the existence of b
I just gave a concrete example, where the hypothesis is satisfied.
ah I see
hm I'm still trying to figure out a way to do this without this generalized norm map because all the theorems keep repeating that L/K is a seperable extension, even for excerise 31 that was suggested earlier (nvm it says any finite extension, but still should be possible without)
maybe this could help.
L/K may not be a separable extension, but you can always look at the elements in L which are separable over K. Call it M. This forms field.
you can show that the extension L/M would be purely inseparable
basically this is how you usually relate these two definitions of the norm
sorry just trying to digest this
haven't heard of purely inseperable so had to search that up
guessed so... (didn't wanna just throw up some new words)
But yea for that particular problem, its much simpler to stick to the determinant definition. (or if you wish, don't call it norm yet, just look at the determinant of the linear map given by left multiplication)
yeah I'll probably try to understand this new def
this is well defined because choosing a different basis, would just give a similar matrix, and so the determinant is still the same.
I see alright, thank you for the help again
Hiya 😅 , I am by no means a mathematician, but I think this message goes here; I am currently doing measure theory, and started with sigma-algebras. I understand that if you have a set X, and then a family of subsets B, then B⊆ P(X) which fulfils that 1) the empty set, phi, and X pertain to B, 2) that both C ∈ B and C complementary ∈ B are measurable, and c) that the countable union of C_i pertains to B. I am bit unsure of these properties as well as the usage of sigma-algebras; was wondering if somebody could please shed some light on this? I would be most thankful. Also, please do tell me if this is not meant to be here.
the empty set, phi
sorry, missed a comma
You’ll probably get better answers in #advanced-analysis, even though the name literally has the word algebra they’re really most commonly used in measure theory which falls as a subset of analysis
Or at least that’s where it finds it’s home in most people’s mind
it's just p times 1 probably
What is a good introductory book to lie groups and lie algebras that is suitable for someone with knowledge of smooth manifolds?
I enjoyed reading Humphreys
I guess the gtm book is good
Yeah, I think he's prolly giving the definition of the characteristic of a field, so it must be p times 1.
Hmmmm
I'll give it a look
I hope it has some good exercises
You might enjoy looking at Hall's book too
Lie Groups, Lie Algebras and Representations
Haven't heard of this one
Referring to this
Ah
both Humphreys and Hall are GTMs
mb

graduate texts in mathematics, it's a book series that Springer prints
AAAAAAH
OK
I know the book series
Just didn't know people called it this way
I will take a look at Hall's then
Because people have already recommended this one
Yellow book
I was first thinking of reading Serre's book on the topic
It is fairly short
oh I didn't know Serre had a book on the topic
Serres book is based
All of Serres books are short lmao
I mean
He does Lie groups over p adic fields lmao
It is short
But the content table is like
Really dense
There's lots of deep stuff being covered in few pages
So that's one of the reasons I didn't want to read this one at first
is there any test for elements of F_p^2 having square roots, similar to the legendre symbol for F_p?
I think it would be better to just read a more introductory book with a slower pace
Before reading Serre's book
Lmao
Looks like Atiyah's introduction to Commutative Algebra
It's really dense
But anyway
Thanks for the suggestions
thank you
not sure what you mean, the legendre symbol is just a function to {-1,0,1}. You can define the same thing for F_p^2. Are you asking about an easy way to compute it?
the value of the legendre symbol indicates whether the input has a square root in F_p, and so can be used to test if an element is a quadratic residue. i'm wondering if there's an analogous test for F_p^2
i was reading that. doesn't number field mean you're working specifically over an extension of the rationals though?
yes?
in the same way that F_p^2 is an extension of F_p
so for any two odd primes p,q, you should be able to find an imaginary quadratic field such that both p,q remain inert in that extension
i think the assumption there is that it's a number field, so it doesn't necessarily apply to finite fields
so that the quotients are F_p^2 and F_q^2 respectively
I mean, quadratic reciprocity is a statement about the integers really
integers mod p, yes
i probably didn't phrase my question very well. i'm just looking for a way to test whether an element of F_p^2 has a square root that's also in F_p^2
in F_p, the test is exactly the legendre symbol computation
I think it should be the polynomials over finite fields section maybe?
if you take f to be monic, irreducible, degree 2
then that ring mod f is isomorphic to F_p^2
oh good catch, that might be it. not sure why i didn't look at that section 😅
that may be exactly it, i'll look into it
it doesn't say how to compute that symbol however
followed one of the references and found this gem
what book is that
Algorithmic Number Theory: Efficient algorithms
they give a reciprocity law so I think you can just use that
This seems rather hard 
quite the trivial exercise
SMH
this person is just ripping off of Lang's famous exercise
in the first two editions of Algebra
my algebra professor's advisor was lang. i wouldn't be surprised if he also wrote a book and did this

i think so cause you can view restriction of scalars as both a tensor and a hom
and then you just apply tensor hom adjunction
yeah i forget exactly how it goes but i think it's something like tensoring against A
should be the same as restriction of scalars
I think that what young smasher says makes sense
Restriction of scalars is the left adjoint functor of the extension of scalars
Which is given by some tensor product
You can prolly do this without actually knowing anything about category theory tho
you know all of the maps and stuff pretty concretely
it should be a (potentially annoying) straightforward computation
Can't we just take an injective function f : M -> N where M and N are A-modules and prove that F(f) : F(M) -> F(N) is also injective?
Like let 0->A->B->C->0 be exact
Where F is the restriction of scalars functor
show that the image of that SES is an SES under restriction
probably im on mobile rn
sorry
I think you need to be careful because it is not clear that generators are still generators when you remove some of the scalars. For example, think of C as a complex vector space, and restrict to R. The element 1 was a generator before but doesn’t suffice over R
But i mean really you should think about what I said before
just show the inclusions of all the images and kernels
it should be follow your nose
In particular i think you should find that nothing changes.
||if f(a) = 0 then f(a) is gonna be 0 no matter what your scalars are||
Can it?
Remember that like
underneath all this structure
you still have set maps
and those don’t change
under this functor
so like, basically nothing changes except for generators lmfao
But i think it is worth working it out in detail if its confusing you
Maybe I can convince you that if the SES you care about is
0->A->B->C->0
surjectivity at the end and injectivity at the beginning won’t change for set-reasons
so the only thing that a priori might go wrong is in the middle
fwiw i am not convinced the categorical arguments above suffice
although one can sum this up with forgetful functors should be exact
Can you expand on this, I can’t think of why this is true. Extension of scalars is a tensor but I think restriction is just a plain old forgetful functor
Oh, maybe it is a hom
Yeah it should be
But I don’t think its both
i had to look it up in my notes
but view B as an (A,B) bi-module
and it $B \otimes_B - \simeq \operatorname{Res}_\alpha$
ɹǝɥsɐɯs_ƃunoʎ
where \alpha is your ring homomorphism
it's trivial in light of tensor hom adjunction
pls stop
its trivial just on a basic ring level
Like
okay
Think about this
let F be the restriction functor
and f be a ring map
what is F(f)(x)?
by defn
okay
so the kernel is?
why
I think you are confusing yourself by thinking too hard
Write down, naively, what the conditions are for that exact sequence to be preserved
and then try to prove them purely on a set theoretic level
nothing
yeah
you’re not missing anything
When all you are doing is forgetting structure
you have no new structure
to worry about
Here's a question for you slim
If you're interested
Ah wait I misread your original question
I thought you were just asking if it was a functor at all
I am sorry for the bad quality picture
So, if you have a ring homomorphism between two comutative rings with unity
I called it lambda
Which goes from B to A
It induces a functor between Mod_A and Mod_B
And what it does
Is that for a given module M over A
F(M) has the same abelian group structure
As M
So it's just M, the difference is that you get a multiplication by scalars given by * : B × M -> M where (a,v) gets mapped to λ(a) v
So the underling sets are the same
F(M) and M are the same sets
Now
If you have a module homomorphism f : M -> M' between two A-modules
You naturally get that this same function f
Is also a homomorphism between B-modules
Since if you have a scalar b in B and a v in M, f(b v) = f(λ(b) v), but since f is a homomorphism of A-modules f(λ(b) v) = λ(b) f(v) = b f(v)
So this restriction of scalars
Basically does nothing to the sets or the homomorphism of A-modules
So if you have that for example, f : M - M' is an injective homomorphism of A-modules
F(f) : F(M) -> F(M') is also trivially going to be an injetive homomorphism of B-modules
Because since F(f) and f are the same as functions
f being injective implies F(f) is also going to be injective
And so on
With this
You naturally see that if you have a short exact sequence of A-modules
This functor is naturally going to give you a short exact sequence of B-modules
Because since F(f) and f are the same as functions
F(g) and g are also the same as functions
And so on
Therefore, Images and kernels are going to be the same
So you just get another short exact sequence
But now of B-modules
Sorry for just giving a long ass explanation
But this is basically the reason why the restriction of scalars induced by a homomorphism of rings is an exact functor
I thought it would be a harder question, but it's all about how you construct this functor from a given ring homomorphism.
And the result naturally follows
In fraleighs abstract algebra, im supposed to prove that ${1, y, \ldots, y^{p-1}}$ is a basis of $\bZ_p[y]$ over $\bZ_p[y^p]$, where $p$ is a prime and $y$ is an indeterminate.
ɐddɐԀ
I cant see how this isnt obvious, as the maximal degree of a polynomial over $\bZ_p$ is $p-1$, and so i feel like we dont even need the entirety of $\bZ_p[y^p]$, but the constants suffice.
ɐddɐԀ
im probably missing something gigaobvious
yes
The maximal degree of a polynomial over Z_p isn't p-1
Two polynomials are equal if their coefficients are all equal
Not if they take on the same values at all elements
x^p and x are two different polynomials
why is that distinction made
because we're not actually evaluating the polynomials
when we talk about polynomial rings
we're talking about the polynomial itself, not its evaluation function
analogy: $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2^n}$ and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n+1} + 1}{\sqrt{2} + 1}$ both converge to $1$
uoʇƃuᴉɯɐN
but its fair to call them "different series", right?
sure
from an algebraic perspective, we often care about the abstract behaviour of polynomials rather than what happens when we evaluate them
oops typo
the denominator of the second sum should be raised to the n
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n+1} + 1}{(\sqrt{2}+1)^n} = 1$
uoʇƃuᴉɯɐN
maybe one reason is that when you consider these as functions on some field extension of F_p, like F_p^2, you'll get different functions in that case
so you don't necessarily want to equate the polynomials just because they agree on F_p, because you might extend the domain
and I mean, there's no distinction here really. This is just how the definition of R[x] for any ring R works
it's just that, over the real numbers, two polynomials in R[x] are equal if and only if they take the same values everywhere, so there's no distinction for some rings like the real or complex numbers
interesting
There are probably some algebraic geometry things to say here too
its always cool when your intuition gets challenged
It's just a weird consequence of considering polynomials over finite things
This is also one of the reasons classical algebraic geometry only works over algebraically closed fields, so you don't run into these issues
can you expand on what issues you run into
This isn't rlly my specialty but it's basically what we've talked about
In algebraic geometry, you try to study spaces by looking at the functions on them
But on Z_p like we noticed, the functions on Z_p aren't Z_p[x] cause some of these give us the same functions on Z_p
The study of schemes is one way you can fix these issues
Hmm
Sounds v cool
I hope to get to shafarevic at some point
As a sidenote, the problem is super simple now that i got the defns sorted out
can someone help me out with proving the order of the dicylic group to be 4n?
given that its generated by $a=e^{\frac{i\pi}{n}}$
now just need to apply those ideas rigorously to prove the order
˙ʎɹɹɐq
All elements in the dicyclic group are either of the form a^k or a^k j for some k in {1,2...2n}
Assuming you know DC_n=(j,a|a^(2n)=1, aj=ja^-1 , a^n=j^2)
I know how to find roots of matrices over $\mathbb C$ if they are diagonalizable(thats the trick). But is there an easy way to tell if a real matrix has root (which has to be a real matrix) when you know that the real matrix is diagonalizable over reals but dont want to diagonalize it?
ʇɹǝq
The specific question I had in mind was does there exist $B\in M_2(\mathbb R)$ such that $B^3=A$ where $$ A = \begin{pmatrix} 19 & 2019 \ 2019 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$$
ʇɹǝq
Since A is diagonalizable, you should be able to just compute the cubed roots of the eigenvalues. cube roots of reals always exist, so the cube root of A exists
is what i said incorrect?
,w factorize (x-19)(x-1)-2019*2019
nvm about what I said. (possibly?) Misremembered theorems about symmetric matrices.
I think what you said is correct. I somehow had square roots in mind and was worried what if one of the diagonal entry is negative.
alright, cool. the thing i was hung up on was whether real symmetric => real diagonalizable or only complex diagonalizable. I'm pretty sure real diagonalizability holds, but I couldn't quickly find a reference for that.
yeah it's real diagonalizable
Real symmetric matrixes always have real eigenvalues
And all normal matrixes are diagonalizable where normal means that
AA^h =A^hA where A^h_ij is the conjugate complex number of A_ji
If you're invoking the usual spectral thm for normal operators, there is more to prove
I assume by real diagonalizability, kxrider wants the diagonal matrix to be conjugate to the symmetric matrix over the reals
but this is not hard to prove if you know RCF
As a matter of fact any square matrix A can be factorized as A=UDU^h where U is an unitary matrix(U^h is the inverse of U), D is an upper triangular matrix with eigenvalues of A sitting at the diagonal. A is diagonalizable if and only if D is diagonalizable if and only if DD^h=D^hD if and only if A is normal.
If A is a real matrix such that all eigenvalues are real (for example real symmetric matrixes)you can discuss this in R (A=PDP^t where P is an orthogonal matrix)
Hello, I was wondering if someone can help me out on a problem. I'm on part (iii) of this problem.
I get that $\frac{u}{v} = \frac{a^2+1}{a^2+3a+9}$
ɹǝlnƎ ɐƃǝW
I do get that fact that since $a$ is a root in the complexes, then $f(a) = a^3+2a+1=0$, but not sure how to use this in $u/v$
ɹǝlnƎ ɐƃǝW
do you know the euclidean algorithm?
Yes
then you know that there are polynomials of the form A(x) and B(x) such that A(x)*v(x) + B(x)f(x) = 1
so you can then use that to get A(x) because when x=a you have f(a)=0 and so you have A(a)v(a)=1
that makes A(a) the inverse of v
Where are A(x) and B(x) coming from?
from the euclidean algorithm
You can just assume that v^-1=b_0 + b_1 *a +b_2 *a^2 which multiplied by v equals to 1 then calculate those b using a^3=-1-2a
can i ask a quick question? or should i wait a bit
i'm not sure how to modify the argument when the polynomial has more than 1 complex root
like R[X]/(x^2+2x+1), for example
which i think should still be isomorphic to C?
No it won't, that's not a field because that polynomial isn't irreducible
Yeah it'd still be true, I'm not really sure what you're asking
x² + 1 also has more than one complex root
i'll think about it some more, thanks though!
@mild laurel Were you able to look at the problem from yesterday by any chance?
Yeah I thought about it a lil but don't really have any ideas
You might want to try math overflow or something honestly
Thanks, I'll do that
When will I be unmuted
Can someone check if I am insane? If G is a group with subgroups G_i and H then G_i intersect H is a subgroup of G_i, right?
Totally
Okay, thank you so much!
Guys
I have a little question
This first image is just to give a bit of context
But my question concerns the last theorem
Can I make it more general?
Like, if M is a faithful A-module, N is an A-module and u,u' are elements of N such that there exists v an element of M where u tensor v = u' tensor v. Then with these conditions, we have that u=u'
Idk if this is true
But I can't find any counterexamples
If I could prove that in these conditions
The module generated by v, Av, is also a faithful module
Then it would easily follow from this theorem I have already proved
But I don't really know in general if a submodule of a faithful module is also faithful
This is prolly false, but I can't prove nor find a counterexample
So I would like to ask for a counterexample of a submodule of a faithful module that is not faithful, it is false, or for a proof that a submodule of a faithful module is also faithful, if it is correct.
I can't think of a counterexample, but I don't see how this can be generalized easily
Just to make sure I'm getting this right, you're saying that if M is faithful and m (x) n = m' (x) n for some n in N, then m = m' right?
Yup
Let me write this out
Where m(x) n is actually m(x) tensor n
Its been a while since I've worked with tensors
That's what a faithful functor is in general
I'm using (x) to mean the tensor symbol
F : C -> D is a faithful functor between categories iff for every morphism f : a -> b where a and b are objects of C, F(f)=F(g) => f=g
What the tensor product does to a morphism as a functor is taking a morphism f and tensoring it with the identity
Oooh
Ok
If N is a generator of M, then M faithful => N faithful as well
That's the best I could do
Ah shucks neither of them are faithful though
I definitely don't think that this is true
You are using the fact that (u-u') (x) v = 0 for all v
And unless you have some additional hypothesis on the generators of N, I doubt it would work out nicely
Every free module over a ring A is faithfully flat
Oh btw
All my rings are commutative and with unity
So I am trying to find some examples of nice free modules
I mean
If N = 0, ofc that 0 is not faithful
So let's suppose N≠0
Am I correct
Ok
Let me try to grasp this
A=Z+Z is a faithful A-module, because A is a free A module and every free A-module is faithful.
So I got the first line
e=(1,0) and t=(0,1) are elements of A
Now we want to prove that the A-submodule generated by e is not faithful
So you consider the A-submodule generated by t
and consider eA tensor tA
This is going to be zero, because for for every z in eA and for every z' in tA
We have that there exists an x in A and a y in A such that z=ex and z'=ty
So we have that
z tensor z' = ex tensor ey
But since e=e*e
And you are taking the tensor product with respect to A
e is a scalar
So ex tensor ty = e²x tensor ty = e(ex) tensor ty = e (ex tensor ty), but since e is a scalar, e (ex tensor ty) = (ex tensor e(ty)) = (ex tensor (et)y), but et = (1,0)×(0,1) =(1×0,0×1) = (0,0).
In the end, we have that ex tensor ty = ex tensor 0×y = ex tensor 0 = 0.
So indeed eA tensor tA = 0, but tA ≠0, therefore, eA can't be a faithful A-module.
Sorry
I have to go through all the steps to make sure I understand
And it seems correct
Okay, thanks
I am really bad at thinking about examples damn
Nah
I think it should be the other way around lmao
Thanks
Me too actually,I even skipped examples while reading sometimes 😂
is this polynomial irreducible for all $n$? $$f_n(x) = \frac{(-x-1)^n + x^n + 1}{(x^2+x)^{(n \mod 2)} (x^2+x+1)^{(2n \mod 3)}}$$
Merosity
Instead of looking for a specific example that's more complicated, simply see that if you take v = 0 then this is just vacuously true
that u (x) v = u' (x) v
so u = u' for all u,u' in M
Every module has exactly one element. Checkmate algebraists
If faithful
Can you then use that every free module is faithful to conclude that every module is the 0 module?
🧠
I'll give it to you once you answer my question @vestal snow
Consider the module of polynomials with coefficients in Q. This module is 0 by the previous result. Thus, your polynomial is the 0 polynomial
Thanks and GFY 👍 😭
Why are you muted?
okay no longer muted
Why was he muted?
trolling
and evidently not intending to reform.
a bit more context: they went on a long rant against other users and were clearly being intentionally inflammatory
weird, how was he able to talk if he was muted
i wouldve unmuted tomorrow (or if they DMed probably) but considering instead they exploited a loophole with the role system in order to publicly mod ping
twice
nah
its how roles in discord work
advanced role has to let you talk in advanced channels regardless of permissions
coulda just deleted advanced role but
i forget
ah I see
its a dumb override system
"can talk here" takes precedence over "cant talk anywhere"
yea afaik you need to set cant talk here for such overwrites?
i remember having to jus manually set every category
for a muted role to work properly
one clunky patch is to make it so muted people can't see the advanced channels

it "works" but feels strange
can't post in a channel you can't see
So muted is like a forced ,iam studying?
How does u tensor v = u' tensor v for v=0 implies u=u' for all u,u' in N?
Considering v is in M and M is faithful
Also
I had to rewrite it
Because u,u' supposed to be in M and not the other way around
Just like the previous weaker theorem
So the question would be let M be a faithful A-module, and u,u' be elements of M such that there exists v≠0 for which u tensor v = u' tensor v, is it true that u=u'?
Hm
So like
One of the questions in the homework sheet was to find conditions such that this would be true.
I think that looking for faithful modules is just a waste of time
Because I can only prove something weaker
But I have another idea
Is this correct?
I used the fact that if A is a local ring and M,N are finitely generated A-modules, then M tensor N = 0 implies M=0 or N=0
Which we have already proved
Correct
hey about the last question i asked about basis of fractions
how would u show that if I have 2 poly over a field $F$ then write $\frac f g = q+r$, then split r into a lin combo of $t^i/p(t)^j$ where $p(t)$ is irreducible and $i < j$, that the ${t^i/p(t)^j}$ is independent?
assume it isn't 
yes, and there are coefficient nonzero
so that it evaluates to 0, but how do i reach conclusion
Anticipation
i is smaller than the degree of p not j
Writing now
ah that fine, what is Qk?
Wait at the end of the second row , the sum is zero
The row below
oh i mean why do you write sum fk Qk, what does that come from?
Σf_k Q_k =0
NP
Actually I made a mistake...
The degree of f_k isn’t necessarily smaller than the degree of P_k, but smaller than the degree of P_k^r_k
So replace all P_k in the last three rows with P_k^r_k then it’s correct.
but doesnt it still work? since that also mean p_k divides it, and clearly p_k doesnt divide LHS otherwise f_k(t)/p_k(t)^r_k would be reducible
Oh... yeah so never mind😂
nice thx
Suppose that I know that for a given module $M$ over a commutative ring $A$, $\dfrac{M}{mM} \neq 0$, for every $m \in \text{Spec}_{m}(A)$, i.e for every maximal ideal the quotient, $\dfrac{M}{mM}$ is non-zero. Can I conclude from this that $M \neq 0$?
MisterSystem
Idk if I can just take the contrapositive of Nakayama's lemma
Because here M is not necessarily finetely generated
sorry but... what?
If any quotient of M is nonzero
then M is also necessarily nonzero
as M surjects onto M/mM
did you accidentally switch "zero" and "nonzero"?
Yeah
Exactly
I thought of this for a few more seconds and yeah
It can't be that M=0
Because then mM=0 and therefore M/mM = 0 for every maximal ideal m
The question was really dumb lol
or even "for any maximal ideal m"
just knowing that M/mM \neq 0 for a single m
is enough to conclude that M is nonzero
It's just that I am starting to learn commuative algebra, and since I have seen that Nakayama's lemma has a similar flavor to what I was trying to prove
I thought about something more complicated
Than what is really happening lol
I am still getting used to the concepts
So this kind of thing happens lmao
Thank you anyway
start simple :)
Ok
Now that you have said it
My question was badly formulated
I really meant the other way around
I have that $M$ is an $A$ module over a commuative ring with unity, and $\dfrac{M}{mM} = 0$, for every $m \in \text{Spec}_{m} A$.
MisterSystem
Can I conclude that M=0?
probably by some form of nakayama yes
oh
unless M is finitely generated
for example, M = Q and A = Z
oh right nakayama assumed fg rite
Is this a counterexample?
you tell me :)
what are the maximal ideals of Z
and what happens when you look at mQ
for those maximal ideals
Spec Z = mSpec Z
well that's not true but
So mSpec Z = {pZ, where p is prime}
Spec Z includes {0}
but yes, the maximal ideals of Z are just the ideals generated by the primes
now, does pQ = Q?
I forgot {0}
So
Hmm
Yeah, take any rational number
a/b
Where a and b are integers with b≠0
Therefore
a can be written as p^n*q where p is prime, q is an integer and n is natural
so a/b = (p^n*q)/b = p^n(q/b)
And a/b is in pQ for some prime
