#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 560 of 407
I'm not sure if there's a better way
Maybe a classification of groups of order 8 is useful
Off the top of my head my guess is they are Z8, Z4xZ2, Z2xZ2xZ2, and D8
i see
Can't be Z8 obviously, not sure about the other ones.
I want to say I have done this problem before and that the subgroup is D8, but this is just off some shitty memory
Either way I think it shouldn't be too bad to actually work through it
Hm yeah, maybe it gets trickier/more annoying
$G$ is a finite group, $N$ is a normals subgroup and $H \in Syl_p(G)$ show $\frac{HN}{N} \in Syl_p(G/N)$
Yes
HN is a subgroup of G
|HN|/|N| is p^k
and er, HN must be a subgroup of G that contains N which it does
so HN/N is a subgroup of G/N
p^k divides (p^k r)/x
so must be a sylow p subgroup
this makes sense to me but i dont think its correct :/
anyone can tell me if correct or incorrect pls
Something like that, but what if the order of N has a factor of (a power of) p?
But overall, order considerations are sufficient for this problem, yeah
that would be a contradiction?
because HN/N is a subgroup of G/N
so HN/N must divide G/N ?
and if x did divide p^k
then p^k cant divide |G/N| ... right?
Not that x divides p^k, but it has some factors of p
but then if it had factors of p
it would divide p^k ?
i dont think i understood
what you mean
I guess this is still unclear to me, what are r and x, actually?
$\frac{|G|}{|N|} = \frac{p_1^{k_1} p_2^{k_2}\dots}{x}$
Yes
only focus on arbitrary p and combine everything else into r
So x is the order of N and p^k r is the order of G? (And r has no factor of p?)
But then why is the order of HN/N order p^k?
oof
yeah its not :/ mb
its actually $|H|/|H \cap N|$
which makes me stuck i guess
Yes
I think it's just a matter of writing the order of N as p^b * x or something
Including the number of factors of p into the order of N
I haven't carefully done the calculations so I'm not 100% it works out,but eg HN/N should have "many" factors of p if you do the calculation
is every field a euclidean domain
Yes
nice
every field is a field
:o
Looks like a British field
Suppose P, Q are projective modules, P is an extension of N by A, and Q of M by A, too. Then P + M = Q + N.
(Here A is the quotient)
Is there a nice intuition for why this is true?
I didn't really think it through, but I don't think it's obvious.
could someone help me out with this bad boy?
jokes aside, what exactly is + here? direct sum of modules?
@eager schooner whats the problem
this is the answer, the problem I'm having is I don't understand why we don't consider (0,0,1) which seems to also give an infinite number of groups that aren't considered here
Ah yeah sorry the problem is basically to find a group that it is isomorphic to classify the factor group
They do consider (0,0,1)? i'm not sure what you're asking
i dont understad
Yes.
If I understood you correctly, P is "close" to N + A and Q to M + A, in which case the result is close to being correct.
because you can write that as (1,1,1) - (0,1,0) - (0,0,1) kinda
Well
That's confusing for this reason: if (1,1,1) has finite order but (1,0,0) has infinite order how are you characterizing them as basically the same
I gotta 'fess up, I was just being facetious with that remark, I don't really know enough about projective modules to make heads or tails of your question
but if what I said was somehow helpful, awesome!
There's no classifying them as basically the same?
Well, I am not sure how often does this heuristic work, but thank you!
I don't have a good sense of it benedict
What I mean by that is we are saying that all the groups that could be generated by (1,0,0) * the normal subgroup are already generated by (1,1,1) * the normal subgroup - ah you know I think I see now, they are covered by the (1,1,1) * the normal subgroup - some (0,1,0) * the normal subgroup of which there are infinite possibilities
okay gotcha
I can give you a rephrasing of it but it's not really adding anything new
is benedict's question the same as this? Not familiar with their terminology
something like "the first Syzygy module is well defined up to stable isomorphism"
yes, it is kxrider
(unless I'm confused)
My first instinct is to think about vector bundles
But that's tricky because M isn't projective
Yes.
Oh, unfortunately I am unfamiliar with the terms. I don't know about vector bundles either.
well luckily I'm not saying anything new
I can try to illuminate why this lemma is relevant though
Do you want to use Swan's theorem?
Forget about vector bundles for rn
Great!
so suppose you have a module and you want to take projective resolutions
There are some modules which might be of interest
If you've fixed a projective resolution
actually, let me backtrack
(there's a name for this theorem and i remember it had a proof on the stacks project that was too slick for me to understand hmm)
Say we want to give a free resolution of M
this is sort of giving a presentation of M
right?
You have a surjection of some free module onto M, that picks out. The generators
Well, I can see how a free resolution "of length two" is like a presentation. Do I have the right intuition?
yeah, that's the right idea
guys i got a function, and i was asked to make its fourier serie
and also, to write down parseval identity
this is almost certainly not the right channel for that
what do i have to right actually?
@cyan marten so maybe we have ... -> Fn -> ... -> F2 -> F1 -> F0 -> M -> 0
a free resolution
F0 -> M picks out some generators
and then the image of F1 -> F0 is sort of a module of "relations" between the generators
right?
and then maybe the higher things F_{n+1} -> F_n are like relations between relations
I see!
!
Thanks!
so here's an issue
the projection F0 -> M is not uniquely determined
and its kernel isn't either
does that make sense?
Hmmm, if M is free but over a ring where the rank isn't uniquely determined, fot example?
well even in that scenario we could just add in redundant generators
Oh, you said the projection, not just F_0.
ah yeah
even then though
it's true that maybe we can take a minimal number
but I'm really interested in the map
(I'm really really interested in the kernel!)
(because the kernel is sort of the relations between generators)
like for a silly example, (x,y) = (x+y, y) in k[x,y]
right?
I guess these have the same kernel of the projection, hmm
Makes sense.
I would need to think harder to find an example where the kernel is nonunqiue
but I think it's pretty plausible
do you agree?
I feel so too
cool
so let's revisit your lemma
first thing, free is too much to ask for
this is a lesson of homological algebra
replace it with projective
so we want to look at the "first syzygy module" of a projective resolution of M
we're still sort of thinking of it as a module of relations between generators of M
still following?
The first syzygy module is F0?
No, it's the kernel of F0 -> M
ie the image of F1 -> F0
it's all the relations that the generators of M satisfy
Ohh, right.
so if you have two projective resolutions of M
I think so.
... -> P2 -> P1 -> P0 -> M
... -> Q2 -> Q1 -> Q0 -> M
we first maybe syzygy modules S of P. -> M and T of Q. -> M
these fit in a short exact sequence, pretty much by definition
0 -> S -> P0 -> M -> 0
0 -> T -> Q0 -> M -> 0
your lemma says that S (+) Q0 is isomorphic to T (+) P0
right?
Wow!
Yes.
so like
if you think about a category
where X becomes isomorphic to X (+) P for any projective module P
how can i use parseval identity over a fourier serie?
still not the right channel lol
@cyan marten so this is called the projectively stable category
iirc
(I saw this category in a talk once like 2 weeks ago 😆 )
and taking the first syzygy is a well defined endofunctor on this category
which is really really cool imo
In representation theory, the stable module category is a category in which projectives are "factored out."
Sorry, but I don't follow. Do you mean a fixed X, or that we have this as an identity?
we have this as an identity, sorry
have you seen the definition of the homotopy category?
this is sort of a similar idea
we're collapsing all the projective modules down to be trivial
I barely know the topological definition, but I read about it somewhere and I think I got the intuition behind it, and I can see the similarity
ah no i mean the homotopy category of chain complexes
Oh, I saw that just a few days ago
Isn't that a catastrophic cancelation?
yes!
which is why X becomes isomorphic to X (+) P for any P
and why this "first syzygy module" is now well defined
your lemma told us that it's well defined up to summing with a projective module, essentially
Ohh.. and since summing with a projective module isn't really summing in this weird category....
right!
furthermore, in certain special cases (like when your base ring is a group algebra, see the wikipedia article) this "first syzygy" functor is actually a self-equivalence!
so we get what's called a triangulated category
very cool stuff
(that I saw in a talk once)
(I am not an expert :P)
A self-equivalence is a "category automorphism," right?
pretty much, yeah
(but only an automorphism up to natural isomrophism)
(it may not have an on-the-nose inverse)
So just to make sure I understand, the first syzygy functor somehow extracts the relations between the generations in a unique or canonical way?
right!
and to make this well defined, we need to pass to this "stable" category
where summing with a projective module doesn't do anything
Ohh, I see.
but still, we're getting at something interesting here
like, I think this is the right context for the lemma
The vector bundle comment was mostly unrelated. A general slogan is that projective modules = vector bundles, by serre swan
But here we mix projectives and non projectives
So I think to phrase things geometrically you'd need to think harder about schemes than I'm comfortable with :P
anyways the stable category stuff isn't so important
The takeaway here is the idea of sygzygys and this application of your lemma
Oh also, if S is the first Syzygy of M wrt some resolution ... -> P2 -> P1 -> P0 -> M -> 0 then we have a resolution ... -> P2 -> P1 -> S -> 0
Me too lol
So it's sort of like moving the projective resolution forward by one
I see, but how is this relevant?
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
I just had this thought
Oh, sorry 😂
Lmao im not into this stuff yet but Syzygy is a mathematician?
it means 'to win at scrabble'
I was going to do a reading group on Syzygy stuff but something else came along
Thanks @latent anvil ! Although I now feel like doing algebra, but I have a statistics test tomorrow :(
lmao
I was trying to do it much more "mechanically."
well, I don't think any of this actually helps you prove it
We have a free module S such that P + S = Q + S, and this module is also free.
I remember having it as an exercise in my algebra class
It wasn't hard to prove.
(By the Mazur swindle)
This seems promising because it "links" P and Q.
linking P and Q is the right idea
But apparently it's not very useful.
but there are other ways of doing it
I did it by diagram chasing
Hi chm
I retained stuff from Matthew & Sarafina's talk
Apparently
(but not who the third speaker was)
(Kevin?)

Yes it was
Also lol Sham
Did you know that this theorem they presented is proved in Weibel I think
Last question! A submodule of a finitely presented module is finitely generated, right?
fkn knew it
which theorem?
I assume this is the like
Projective things, surjection a
Then the direct sum with the kernel blah blah
Thing?
yeah it is
it's called schaunel's lemma
lmao owned
lol
Lol
“Actually Sándor it’s pretty easy just do...”
“And that’s how I invented Chmonkey’s lemma”
lol
Let's say you have a subring A < B
and an infinite subset S of B
then you can consider A[S], this subring of B, and the ideal I which is generated by S
if 1 is in I, then you can take finitely many elements x_i in I such that
1 = sum a_ix_i where a_i are in A[S]
yup
And an ideal J of this generated by x1,...,xn
right
and we want to show 1 is in J
yup
What do we know about the ring extension A[S]/A[x1,...,xn]
is it integral?
like, we know that the extension of J wrt this extension is all of A[S]
Yeah
Why wouldn’t the “natural bijection” be between H_i and A^n
Sorry this may be a dumb question lol
This is more apt for #point-set-topology
lol
Lol
Here's a sanity check abs_0
Try it in P^1
or P^2
you'll realize that H_i is very small
(in general it's n-1 dimensional while A^n is n dimensional)
For this specific bijection, the map φ_i^-1 isn't defined in H_i
Since we divide by something which is zero on H_i
Sorry, maybe my thing about dimensions was more confusing than helpful
Yeah I’m thinking in terms of n = 2
So A^2 is line a plane
H_i is just a point
Oh alright
H_i is a copy of P^{n - 1}
The "obvious" bijection between A^n and H_i doesn't work because you'd want to send (0,...,0) in A^n to [0,...,0] in H_i but this isn't an element of P^n
it also isn't injective even if you remove the origin, since eg [a, a,..., a] = [1,1,...,1]
Yeah my issue with it was that
I was thinking of n = 2, so A^2 would be a plane
And H_i would be a plane as well
no, it's a plane modded out by stuff
can you explain why you say this?
Let's say you've set the last coordinate as 0
[x,y,0] is still equal to [lambda x,lambda y,0]
so this is just P^1
Yeah I was thinking “oh it’s 3d space but you set the z value to 0, so it’s a plane”
Wait
Oh yeah that makes sense
that's why you want to enforce the z-value be non-zero, then you can just set z = 1
this means you can't scale any of the other values
since if you did you screw with z = 1
Ohh you’ve still got the equiv relation on H_i so it’s not really a plane right
yeah
I don’t even really understand projective space from the definition, like why call it P^n if it’s n+1 dimensional
Oh what
glued on top of each other so it's actually n dimensional
That’s op
Wait what’s the equivalence relation for tho
I was intuiting it as making it lines thru origin not points
yeah, but that doesn't help me very much in higher dimensions. TBH idk, it just makes things work and that's good enough for me
xD
what's the thing that doesn't help chm?
thinking of lines through the origin in like
Because it's probably the only way I can think of projective space
7-dimensional space
Based on past experience
Idk what that looks like anymore
ahh gotcha
Yeah I prefer the definition as a quotient
But sometimes you do want to talk about lines
@grassmannian moment
I'm still hardstuck on my A[S] problem sadge
I feel like thinking about that extension is the way to go
Not really sure though, sorry
Also guys why did they use this strange bijection $$[x_0, \cdots, x_n] \mapsto (x_0/x_i, \cdots, \text{blah blah})$$
abs_0
why do you find this strange?
this is saying you're fixing x_i = 1
Yeah I think it's easier to think of it as hitting a certain hyperplane in A^(n+1)
We're including [x0,...,1,...,xn+1] as (x0,...,1,...,xn+1)
okay so A[S]
We have this ring extension
What are nice properties of it
anything in A[S] can be written as an A[S]-linear combination of x1,...,xn
That's something
So it's finitely generated, but maybe not finite
I guess we're trying to prove it's finite?
Oh Sham I think I figured it out lmao. This is really stupid
oof
Just pick the y's later like
Start from the beginning
Okay, I think this is correct, a priori
you get to write 1 as
sum a_if_i with a_i in A, and f_i in A[S]
each f_i then decomposes as some sum
f_i = a_ijy_ij with a_ij in A, and y_ij in S (okay you might need to take powers of the y_ij but whatever)
so just take all the y_ij
hurb
tfw stuck for 30 minutes
What threw me off was him writing
1 in sum y_iA[y_1,...,y_r]
I think if he said it was in A[y_1,...,y_r] then it would've been easier
If $yz$ $dx=y$ $dx$, then $z$ must be $1$ right?
Have a Banana, Bitch
I'm pretty sure that this is true, but this implies either the author of a paper I'm reading made a typo or I'm misunderstanding something
Also, y is not 0
Then yes @vestal snow
So that means that this equality is only true when $m_i^{(\mu ')}-m_i^{(\mu)}=0$ for all $i$ (assume each $\alpha_i$ is distinct)?
Have a Banana, Bitch
wheres the real analysis channel on here?
ty
Maybe I'm too tired to think, but this inequality does not follow from the statement right?
Is \nu the same as \nu'
Yeah I think the important thing here is what nu and nu' have to do with one another
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.
I need to prove the claim
Your timezone has been set to Europe/Amsterdam!
Your current time is 12:22 PM (CET) on Sat, 27/03/2021.
I can assume theorem 1
I'm mostly just concerned about the inequality following from the last statement
I thiiiink this is fine, lemme see
So the weird thing in the middle is definitely >= 0, I guess we agree on that
Yes
For the inequality to be true, we would need to have the $\sum$ equal to 0 as we can just choose $v' = t^{(\mu)} -2$
Have a Banana, Bitch
$ \nu' + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} \leq \nu + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} \leq t^{(\mu)} - 2 + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} = t^{(\mu')} - 2$
why no compily uwu
$\nu' + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} \leq \nu + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} \leq t^{(\mu)} - 2 + t^{(\mu')} - t^{(\mu)} = t^{(\mu')} - 2$
Have a Banana, Bitch
So I'm just using that nu' is smaller than nu, and then the estimate that nu is smaller than t^mu - 2
(and i just wrote t^mu' and t^mu rather than the big fat sums as a shorthand)
wait I don't get it
Which step? Or how this solves it?
One sec
So as I understand it, the \nu' are a bunch of things smaller than \nu, and yeah, one of them may very well be equal to t^mu - 2; so in that case, the whole inequality turns into 0 <= 0
But all of the \nu' fulfil \nu' \leq \nu
Hold up
What were you trying to prove here?
dis
I rewrote it with the t's so i wouldn't have to write the big sum
So the left-hand-side is equal to nu' + t^mu' - t^mu
Yah 😄 Maybe that was cheeky of me to do
But I guess that was the missing step for you then
Sure I'll see how much I understand
"Using the theorem above, we just have to show..."
Why does showing this inequality suffice?
looks messy, one sec
I'll send you the paper in case it makes it clearer
So I guess what we're trying to do is using the new basis to represent every basis vector of the first basis
That's what I think too
And that inequality is, I suppose, in some way necessary for all the elements in the sum to be contained in the new basis
what sum?
uuuh wait no yeah
it's a product and not a sum
So I guess we're representing every term of the old basis as a single element of the new basis? How odd
yes
oki i need some thonkin time then
Thanks for the help so far
If you manage to figure it out, feel free to @ me or dm me
yeah
So, the way the proof is written, the only thing that's happening is that we're expressing elements of the new basis in terms of the old basis -- but it's absolutely not surprising that we can do that, since, yeah, we already know that we can express all holomorphic differentials in terms of the old basis. Because it's a basis. So as stated the proof is kinda useless
But! We can just modify it a bit: Rather than expressing (x - a)(y-b) g_mu in terms of x y g_mu, we can perform the same proof by replacing x and y selectively with x + a and y + b
What is the core idea?
We need to do the opposite right?
So here, the first line tells us "we can express (x-a)^nu (y-b)^nu g_mu as linear combinations of terms x^nu' y^mu' g_mu"
This is almost an expression of the new basis elements in terms of the old basis elements, but we still need to make it so that the index of g_mu is equal to the exponent of the x
And that's what the second line does: So with that down, we understand that (if the exponents follow all the inequalities that we need), we have expressed the new basis in terms of the old basis
yeah exactly
I think I get it
But doing the opposite looks exactly the same: We just need to instead do the same thing to $x^\mu y^\nu g_\mu(x) = (x + a - a)^\mu (y + b - b)^\nu g_\mu(x)$
Lartomato
Yeah
This would've been so easy to write down properly but somehow people who wrote papers in the 80s were all on the craziest fucking drugs
It's all unreadable garbage
(hyperbolic but holy fuck i never go into these kinds of papers with high expectations)
Yeah my advisor said that this paper would not be accepted at any journal today lol
I wish you the best of luck fighting through the rest of this
Thanks
But hey, you learn how to become a mathematical mind-reader when working with papers like this
I'm planning on rewriting it
If it's important enough, might be worth it
So the inequality wasn't even that relevant lol
Except for the set builder thing
Bookkeeping indexes
Oh the inequality was important too, to make sure that the exponents all match up
Yah
I kinda feel silly after this lol
dat's okay
This is like one of the standard tricks with polynomials
Yeah that's also the thing
Somehow a lot of old papers manage to write down simple ideas as the craziest, most cryptic hieroglyphs
Maybe they just thought differently about the stuff back then
But yeah, don't worry, you're gonna learn a lot from that I imagine
(also if you are indeed tired, maybe go to bed and continue on a better day -- people overestimate their productivity when tired)
Garcia to a Kindergartener: The rationals are just the fractional field of the initial object in the category of rings
Yes it is luckily weekend, so as much sleep as possible is attainable without worrying about waking up for class/work/etc (unless you have work on weekend 😞 )
Probably so
Thanks for the help my man
Why does anyone care about group iso theorems other than the first one?(I am referring to
G/Ker(T)=H if T is a surjective hom from G to H)
because they're just really neat
Like I remember using second iso exactly once while doing D and F
never used 3rd iso. the lattice one was kinda neat,tho
So I have problem that I am kinda stuck on. Let $\alpha$ and $\beta$ be algebraic elements in the field $F$. Assume that the minimal polynomial to $\alpha$ over $F$ has degree $m$ and let the minimal polynomial to $\beta$ over $F$ be of degree $n$. Assume that $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. Show that $[F(\alpha, \beta):F] = mn$.
Older Sister
I know that I can use the tower law, $[F(\alpha, \beta):F] = [F(\alpha, \beta):F(\alpha)] [F(\alpha):F]$ but I do not know how to show that $[F(\alpha, \beta): F(\alpha)] = n$
Older Sister
Try writing out the tower law in both possible ways
And youre right, you cant immediately conclude that [F(a,b) : F(a)] is n, but it is some integer, so you can conclude that [F(a,b) : F] is divisible by m
@rigid cave
Ok, so like applying the tower law on both F < F(b) < F(a, b) and also F < F(a) < F(a, b)?
So I get something like this: $[F(\alpha, \beta):F(\beta)][F(\beta):F] = [F(\alpha, \beta):F(\alpha)][F(\alpha):F]$ which gives me that $[F(\alpha, \beta):F(\beta)] = [F(\alpha):F]$ and vice verse since they are relatively prime?
Older Sister
Yep
Also yep to your other statement
Okay, thank you so much!
Np and gl
Bany, um futuro phideas
It's a generic symbol for an ordering normally
it depends on the context you see it in
often it shows up when < has a different meaning in the same context
You can use it to denote any ordering you want but we can't tell you what it might mean in your context w/o more info
Okay... no problem
Yes
The only group for which those are equal is the trivial group
Wtf is Perm(G)?
Maybe that’s S_G
Yeah, you have to send e to e
Which is why what Buncho said is true
A fun thing tho is to see when Aut(G) is Perm(G\{e})
?!?!?!
Lol
im confused
yes but ur the one confusing me
lol
what is G/{e} + 1
oh its not 'or sumn'
you know thats true for a finite group hahaha
It’s true for infinite too...
i dont believe in cardinal arithmetic
did someone write G/{e} when they meant G\{e}
This is what I said
Notice I did \
I did \ I tell you!
Oh lol
Those are the same for every infinite group
By size considerations
I am talking about Aut(G)
Aut(G) acts on the non-identity elements
When is it all of S_{|G| - 1}
Is the question
So when do you have every possible permutation of non identity elements
The answer IIRC is not very often
I don't think it's possible
I don’t know if when I proved it I ruled out infinite groups
Or if I only looked at finite
Mizra don’t look at this
|| you get every non identity element is the same order, so in the finite case prime. This tells you it’s a p-group so it has non-trivial center so it’s abelian. Then apply classification, and do whatever you need to finish||
I meant Mirza

No haha since then G\{e} is empty
And you have exactly one automorphism
you also have exactly 1 permutation of the empty set
xD
Fair
I guess that’s true
Like the empty permutation would say
“This is what you do to non identity elements”
And there are none
So you just do nothing
And we know you fix e
Is there any "easy" way to show that $\frac{x^p - 1}{x - 1}$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$?
Older Sister
Like a way to use Eisenstein criterium?
yeah plug in x+1 for x
But how do I use Eisenstein on $\frac{(x+1)^p-1}{x}$
Older Sister
just simplify
think about the binomial expansion
cool pfp btw
ty ty
also worth mentioning the constant term is when x=1 in the original polynomial which is just 1+1^2+1^3+...+1^{p-1}=p
@rigid cave did you get it?
well I am honestly not that comfortable with the binomial theorem. I am still in highschool...
lmao but youre doing AA
But I think that this becomes $x^{p-1} + px^{p-1} + \cdots$
Older Sister
well if you don't know the binomial theorem by heart you should do that first
$$(x+y)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} x^k y^{n-k}$$
Merosity
I still google it sometimes
I used to always google it
since in our case n=p means when 0<k<p that you have p! in the numerator divided by smaller factorials less than p, so they never can divide out the p
but now taking discrete so I kidna had to remember it
which meets the requirement for Eisenstein
full solution
you can derive it by thinking in terms of the binomial expansion literally counting the combinations
ooohhh
(x+y)^3 = xxx + xxy+xyx+yxx + xyy+yxy+yyx + yyy
see how if you start to think about order mattering you're literally counting the number of ways?
yup
haha I am thinking of them as being noncommutative temporarily
okay, I got it now. Thank you so much!
if you have more questions about it just ask no pressure
d(-_^)
slimvesus
yes; S^G = S \cap A^G. 1 is in both of those on the right so it's in S^G
np and gl
did they forget to define G_s ?
G_s = {g in G | gs = s} ?
are you missing that f is surjective ?
ah wait it says
it's just surjective by definition?
"a bijection onto the orbit Gs"
An element of Gs is gs for some g, so f(gH) = gs?
well not really, but you have to show that the image is Gs
which is uuh obvious
?
f itself isn't surjective, but they are saying its image is Gs
and since it's injective
you get a bijection from G/H to Gs
Question: Prove that if m|n (m divides n), then the function π_m,n :Zn -> Zm is well-defined.
the function?
how we should proof if (x,y1) (x,y2) exist then y1=y2 in this case ?
π_m,n
nate, could you define that function for us?
so that we're all on the same page
the notation π_m,n isn't universal
just wait a moment
$\mathrm{\Pi}{m,n} : \mathrm{\mathbb{Z}}{n} \longmapsto \mathrm{\mathbb{Z}}_{m}$
Nate
is our function
what does the function do to elements of Z_n
we know its domain and codomain. what does the function actually do?
i can take guesses but it's better if you tell us
our hypothesis is if m|n. it just assigns integers from set n to m

is the function $\pi_{m, n}(x + n\bZ) = x + m \bZ$???
(T*Terra, dq^i \wedge dp_i)
no
then what is it
can you like
send a picture
or share what you're working out of
actually I have faced this question without more explanations. I thought maybe there is something obvious that I don't know.
so you don't know what pi_{m, n} is
no
are you working out of a textbook? is there a list of symbols in the back?
maybe it's defined in an earlier problem?
i have just found it in exercises and doesn't make sense for me
are you working out of a textbook?
can you share what you're working out of?
found it. it relates to Chinese remainder theorem.
let me focus on it. I'll share my answer
pls post it
$\mathrm{\Pi}{m,n}([a]{n}) = [a]_{m}$
Nate
lmao
that's this
yes, the equivalence class of a with respect to the equivalence relation of congruence modulo n
to prove that, we just have to say a+nk = a+mk, m=n for all pi_m,n([a]_n)=([a]_m) therefore, for all (x,y1)(x,y2), y1=y2 for all y1,y2 member of Z.
suppose I wish to show that ∛2 is not in ℚ[∛5]
why is it sufficient to show that ∛2 is not in ℤ[∛5]
I saw this on a post and I am not immediately able to accept this sufficiency
@chilly ocean was it correct ? xD it seems you are a master in this field
this kind of feels like irreducible over ℚ ⇔ irreducible over ℤ
except in the extension
but I do not see why it is “obviously” true
@native orbit it should be since the third root of 2 is an algebraic integer and since Z[third root of 5] is the ring of algebraic integers of Q(third root of 5)
I'm not sure what you mean
The algebraic integers of Q(∛5) are exactly Z[∛5]
So if ∛2 is in Q(∛5), it must be in Z[∛5]
This is false
Consider 1
?
Exactly
r u trolling or
Yes
ok
Why aren’t you piss color btw
i can see why u didnt get into columbia
Actually also more generally
How do you know the algebraic integers is Z[cube root 5]
sagemath told me
Like the algebraic integers aren’t always just like, adjoin whatever you adjoined to Q
Oh
Lol
yea
I see
Very well, have a nice day
Does anyone know anything about the ramification theory of valuations? If so, where does it appear, and why is it important?
I was going to reply with the algebraic integer thing but then I decided I was too lazy to check what the integers of Q(cbrt(5)) were
sage good
@next obsidian it's kinda like the ramification of primes
wtf does that mean
do you know what ramification of primes are
fails to be a covering map
okay
ramification is when you have anything to a power higher than 1
since ur a geometry bro
in Z[i]?
does 5 ramify
no
🤔
Right
So can't you only ramify up to degree 2
like isn't there something about irreducibles in Z[i[
like if you're 1 mod 4
you break up into two things
and that's all that can happen
well for Z[i] yes
Oh so you consider other extensions
only up to degree 2 but in general
I bet this is secretly
you can get higher
geometric ramification too
yes
So how is valuation related
the inclusion Z -> Z[i] gives you a map from spec(Z[i]) -> spec(Z)
Yeh
oh so if we do the galaxy brain thing and think of Q as the field of functions on Z or Q(i) as the field of functions on Z[i] we're sort of asking when a function on Z has a double root after lifting it to a function on Z[i]
the ramification of primes is exactly geometric ramification
so for number fields at least
how is Q functions on Z
expalin

all valuations comes from either p-adic valuations from some prime p
Oh I meant functions on Spec Z, not Z
or is an infinite valuation coming from the usual absolute value
They're meromorphic/rational functions
Like
okay
I don't see how you can tell order of vanishing
but I guess this is like
via valuations
lol
haha
Sure but like
how big of a power of (x-a) are you divisible by
p/q evaluated at (n)
should be like
looking at
p-bar/q-bar yeah?
and like maybe q is in (n) so it's all fuck but
right
How is this different from the case of the order of a zero of something in k(x)
you still mod out and lose the information
actually I think this is why valuations measure order of 0
For C
and just get 0
you get a valuation for every point
Sorry for interrupting your explanation zoph
i do
So how does
a valuation and it ramifying
have to do with this prime ramifying business
so for every prime, you can form the usual p-adic valuation
uh
chm didn't you do like I-adic completion stuff. Don't you have an I-adic valuation there?
or an I-adic absolute value
I think this is related to that
just take I = (p)
but I never described what the number was
like
we described convergence of cauchy sequences
but I never saw an actual like metric
it's just the highest power of p you're divisible by
(the absolute value takes the reciprocal of this)
Oh
you're just like looking at the highest value of I^n you're in
err
no like
the highest one you're still in
wait that's what I said
okay I see
this is just the valuation for a DVR lol
I'm not certain that this gives a valuation tho
since then you should be a DVR I think since this thing is gonna be a subgroup of Z
So we should be able to turn any ring into a DVR by doing this I-adic thing
So I looked it up and
somehow apparently looking at the highest power of p you're divisible by does give a valuation
but this makes me think that Z should be a DVR...
oh no I see
actually the valuation ring associated to this has to have (p) be the maximal ideal
so that it's actually Z_(p)
which is a DVR
yeah when you localize you get a DVR
so you get a valuation for all the prime ideals of your ring
yup
and for number fields at least, you also get valuations coming from the usual absolute value
Value group a subgroup of R^+
So for any embedding K -> C, you get a valuation coming just from the usual absolute value on C
yee
ostrowski's theorem tells you this is all the valuations
why are these valuations important tho
They encode all the possible completions
Of Q yea
of Q?
Or more generally of any number field
Q shouldn't be able to be completed right?
What?
I mean
the only ideal of Q is 0
but I remember that
You know... you can complete it... as a topological space
in different ways
Yes
The completions corresponding to the finite primes are indexed by the nontrivial prime ideals of the ring of integers
right
Q has nontrivial completions Q_p for p prime and R
The former correspond to the closed points of Spec(Z)
The latter corresponds to a point at infinity in some sense
Yes
The trivial completion corresponds to the generic point
right
So what you're saying is... Spec Z is the Riemann sphere
or the projective line
what's the trivial completion, ng?
It’s analogous to A^1
I'm reading this conversation in the sense of metric completions
With different metrics on Q
Not really sure if that's what you mean
You have to compactify Spec(Z) in some mysterious sense to get something analogous to P^1
And yes this is what I mean
On Q you either have various ultrametrics for each prime or the usual metric
ultrametric...
metrics that satisfy the strong triangle inequality
Anyone have an idea of what i've done wrong here? I assume i'm incorrect since I didn't use that the degree of K(u)/K is odd
You have your inclusion of fields backwards
K(u^2) is a subset of K(u)
since everything in the first is in the second
oops, thanks
i mean you can explicitly write u as a rational expression in u²
Let M(x) be the ℚ-minimal polynomial of u, and M(x) = E(x) + O(x) (even and odd parts)
odd polynomials always have 0 as a root, so E(x) = xU(x)
E(u) + u U(u) = 0
u = -E(u)/U(u)
polynomials of strictly even degrees have the identity A(x) = B(x²) where B has the same coefficients of half the degree
Hence, u = R(u²)/S(u²), which is in ℚ(u²)
Therefore, we have ℚ(u)⊆ℚ(u²) and the trivial inclusion ℚ(u²)⊆ℚ(u), so the extensions are identical
Pretty sure you can only take Q-coefficients if its characteristic 0
oh i misread
so i gotta find the monic $f(x)=3x{^5}-4x^{2}+1$ in $Z_5$
NocuousNick
whihc like u just factor out the three or whatever and get the c=3 and g(x) is just f(x) with a 3 takin out and 4/3 and 1/3 but then im supposed to find the inverse of 3 in $Z_5$
NocuousNick
so like how do i find the inverse of 3 in Z5
Guess and check
but like how tho lmfao it is just going right over my head rn
What does something the inverse of 3 mean
how is 1/3 an element of Z5?
so elements fo Z5 have to be like 0,1,2,3,4
1/3 is totally an element of Z5
so why does the remainder being 1 make it the inverse in Z5
yea my bad forget shit yuh know simple mistake.
"a has inverse b" means ab=ba=1
then it exists as ||number here||
but like 1/3 looks like you're talking about the image of 1/3 mod 5Z
Wow, you just gave him the answer
which doesn't exist
lol i figured it out since the remainder is supposed to be one $3*2=1$ in Z5
NocuousNick
so the inverse of 3 in Z5 is 2
alright this make 0 sense lmao
Find a monic associate of $3x^{5}-4x^{2}+1$ in $Z_5$
NocuousNick
You basically had it
yea so u multiply it by 2 by why do u only multiplly the -4 and 1 and not the x^5



