#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 531 of 407
a is not coprime to rs
since it shares a factor with r
so a isn't a unit mod rs
but that equation says it is!
Oh wait, I missed these.
k doesn't need to be coprime to r. If we choose k < r, then ks < rs
so a^ks != e
Oh right
but the proof above shows it is coprime to r
if it satisfies the equation
ks + jr = 1 mod rs
(for some j)
the a you're using above is a different a than my group generator?
yeah
that's just the gcd
(assuming the gcd is not 1)
I'm just running out of letters haha
all we need is a nontrivial common factor of k and r
Yup
I had the idea of this, but couldn't show it.
Then by adding multiples of s and r
This is quite clear
you can make k,j be in the ranges we want
then you just show there's only one solution there
and boom
Yup via contrapositive
it does
Suppose we had two b's which worked
(or two c's)
then b = a^{ks} and b' = a^{k's}
then we do the shenanigans to make k,k' be in the range we want
they (along with whatever j we have)
form two solutions (k,j) and (k',j)
so we get k = k'
but then b = b'
This was bothering me all of yesterday. I don't have a good group theory foundation and am trying to build it up a bit.
this is mostly elementary number theory I thin
once you translate some of the gruop theory it turned into just number theory, which is common to a lot of group theory
TBH at first I was just saying stuff, I wasn't even sure why what I was saying would imply it
I just have quite a bit of experience with this stuff, and usually if we have "prove if (a,b) = 1 then..."
the coprimeness just does soooo much work
so I did what felt right, and that's just cuz I like groups a lot and have a lot of experience with them, point simply being that you'll get there
I wasn't sure either
it just felt right, and I just went with contradiction
since if something feels true and you're not sure why, just assume it's false and see what breaks
I'm a bit unsure about the step where we assume that the number of T:s is also d
For reference, this is thm 4.33
I think the number of T's should be at most d because they are assumed to be algebraically independent in k[Y1,..., Yd], and the last inequality would be $r \leq h(r) \leq e \leq d$
Apopheniac:
Yeah, I thought something like that. But I'm not sure how to prove d+1 elts can't be independent
I’m not quite sure what it’s doing, but are you asking why you couldn’t have d + 1 algebraically independent elements in k[Y_1,...,Y_d]?
That’s isomorphic to a d-variable polynomial ring and the d indeterminates form a transcendence basis, so you can only have d algebraically independent elements
Also $k[T_1,...,T_e] \subset k[Y_1,...,Y_d]$ is a finite extension
Apopheniac:
Does any finite field extension of rational numbers subextension of cyclotomic extension? Just curious.
no, only abelian extensions
that's a pretty important theorem btw
the fact that all subextensions of cyclotomic extensions are abelian just follows from basic galois theory but the converse (that every abelian extension is a subextension of a cyclotomic field) is difficult but also really important
it's called the kronecker-weber theorem
Oh right. Subextensions should be abelian
I guess it is hard to prove
Btw it's relatively easier to prove that there is field extension of Q with galois group Sn right?
it's not hard to prove that subextensions of abelian extensions are abelian
the S_n fact is easier to prove than "every abelian extension is contained in a cyclotomic field" but harder than "subextensions of abelian are abelian"
I mean, subextension of abelian is trivially abelian
just checking, but yes
I guess it's feasible to find function f with Gal(f) = Sn over Q
Tho how feasiblee is it?
How hard to find it
kind of hard
I believe it’s a result of Hilbert
Hilbert?
What result you mean?
For every n, there exists an f in Q[x] such that Gal(f)=S_n over Q
In Galois theory, the inverse Galois problem concerns whether or not every finite group appears as the Galois group of some Galois extension of the rational numbers Q. This problem, first posed in the early 19th century, is unsolved.
There are some permutation groups for which generic polynomials are known, which define all algebraic extensions ...
Interesting that Hilbert did this kind of work
I thought all their work would be supreme advanced that undergrad cannot even conceive
hilbert was kinda old tho
Why thonk :/
Was Hilbert that old?
he was 1900s ish
I mean that is fairly recent
Compared to ppl like Gauss, Pascal, Fermat..
it is like the start of what we usually call abstract algebra
I see, so Abstract Algebra is a fairly recent field
like for groups galois had the idea in 1830 but it really started off at like 1880s
yup
What even
die at 20 from simping someone? yes
Ideal before ring is fine tho
..maybe group is defined after ring and field
Now that would be.. orderly hell
nowadays you define ideal as a subset of a ring with properties
field is defined way earlier i think
seems like 1880s as well
Or is it me who don't get groups
more like
What is Galois Group then
in the past people didnt have the idea of like needing to concretely define such algebraic structures
you can see the ideas of these in like super early on in math
prob pre-1800s
jus no formal definition yet
"just Intuit math"
How did Galois do things like S5
That was prob how people did math in the olden days
Or is Galois theorem not by Galois
oh ye and limits and stuff were only really formalized in 1800s/1900s 
I mean limits are indeed hard
When I first learned it, I struggled at getting wth it is
Too wiggly
Actually
How is advancedment between 1900s and 2000s so huge
Compared to like 1800s and 1900s
- imho intuit math worked better than formalism which struck hard by limitations
prob like start of 1875s things got fyn
Now it's nearly impossible to do new stuff in math
uh
"femat's last theorem is trivial by Intuition"
I mean
Ask fermat
there is
Intuition does not give you Fermat last theorem
Certainly
Nevertheless it's going to be simply too hard to learn I think

What is too hard to learn?
i mean it is impossible to learn every field probably
but idt anyone expects anyone else to be such a chad
I don't think I'd be able to like read modern papers even after decades of learning
Erdos
uh
really you only need like
depends on field
actly
like there are some very accessible paper and others that are super specific to a field
most ppl get phd before 30
so
I think whatever paper would require lots
Too much for smone like me to even conceive
eh not rlly you're seriously overestimating how deep fields are
I don't think I'd ever get a chance in pure math tbh
Which is why I'm trying to go for buzz nonsense field like applied math
i think everyone can do pure math lol it is just interest and resources
Interest and resources?
How would that help
Okay I guess I'm so dumb for anything
I wonder how would I get any job or sth then
Wouldn't it be "that and high IQ"
That's contrary to what I'm hearing
Why would a bunch of random puzzles determine how good you are at math
Colleagues? Idk

Oh and some graduates
Also by IQ I mean how actually smart a person is
i wouldnt continue XD but basically anyone can do math
just choose a field you like
and learn
Hmm, I see
I don't think really anyone could do math, especially after getting crushed during my abstract algebra homework
if it isnt hard are you learning?
Though
did you solve that problem about irreducible degree p polynomial btw?
what was the solution?
I just calculated the function
Afaik x^3(x-2)(x-4)...(x-2p+6)+2 becomes irreducible for p>4
sounds right
ah
The problem "Degree of Q(a + b + c)/Q where a, b, c are prime roots of primes" was particularly hard, I could not solve it myself until asking abt it here
yea it will be difficult i doubt im able to solve it like 3 months ago
you jus kinda like gain experience as you solve these type of problems
it takes time to realize
just look back like one year later
I'm trying to determine the units in R=Z6[x]/<x^2+2x>
I know that
1 = (a + bx)(c + dx) => ac + (ad+bc -2bd)x => ac =1 and ad + bc - 2bd = 0.
what do I do next?
little algebra exercise: compute order of sylow p-subgroup of GL(n, p) 
next just brute force all the possibilities 
maybe a bit more efficient you know that like x and (x+2) arents units
and product of nonunits are also not units
which saves you from checking a bunch of stuff
Is that ring local?
Interesting one, it isn't even domain
If there’s only a single maximal ideal containing (x^2 + 2x) you get the units for free
But I don’t feel like computing ideals of the polynomial ring over Z/6Z lol
I guess this has something to do with Galois theory
would determining the zero divisors be easier to do, and then the units are the rest of the elements?
no cuz (2)+(3)=(1)
that is iff local ring
ah damn
It's a ring with only one maximal ideal
I hadn't heard about it until I took a course in commutative algebra
The nice thing about them is that a ring being local is equivalent to the non-units forming an ideal, which is sometimes easy to prove/disprove
ah, sounds fun actually
to be honest I don't even know how to brute force this like.. how does it make sense to solve this even
Oh, only one maximal ideal. ..too highly specific tho
you can take any ring, and take a prime in that ring and localize at that prime
local rings are actually quite common in the sense we see it very often because it is super nice
oh nevermind
wait no
to bruteforce, you multiply <x^2+2x> over all the polynomials in Z6 one by one, find which ones are =1?
I think so
yes
well, originally I had thought that if R is a finite ring, then every element of R is either a zero divisor or a unit
is that not true?
I see..
It should be pretty easy to find zerodivisors here, try to factorize x^2+x
I mean, that's specific in my eye
well it occurs very often cuz youll localize at primes quite often in the future
theres also a lot of properties (local properties) that if you prove for when it is localized at primes/maximal ideals, it implies it is true
so essentially proving for local rings is sufficient for quite a lot of things
Oh, is this the local vs global thing
what are you having trouble with?
so typically you can show this by first defining a bijection, then showing that it respects addition, then showing it respects multiplication. Are any of these steps giving you trouble?
you never specify what the function f actually is
it seems that it maps $\begin{pmatrix}a&0\0&a\end{pmatrix} \mapsto a$
Namington:
which is indeed the correct isomorphism
but you need to actually say this, rather than just have people assume it
anyway, you havent proven that its injective or surjective in that image
oh okay
hmm so where do i put that the matrix maps to a?
for the one you were referring to
...when you introduce the function f?
you cant just randomly start talking about a function f without telling the reader what it actually is
is the point
generally these sorts of proofs start with "Consider the function f: S -> R defined by [blahblahblah]. I will show that this function is an isomorphism:"
and then you proceed to do the stuff you did
so a proof structure would look something like
"Define f : S -> R by (a 0, 0 a) |-> a. This is injective [etc] and surjective [dfasfdsaf] and structure-preserving (show that f(ab) = f(a)f(b) etc) hence an isomorphism, qed"
@leaden finch in the format of your notes as in the picture you posted, you could just put "define f: S->R by (a 0, 0 a) |-> a" right below "isomorphism"
the case m neq 0 is easy. pl give a hint how to do the case m=0
from dummit and foote
What is your proof in the case m \neq 0?
@open torrent
let u have norm m. 1=uv+w for some v and w. N(w)<m
so w=0
when m=0, N(w)=0.
this doesn't imply w=0
oh! got it
Let F be a finite field. Prove that F[x] contains infinitely many primes
first I'm trying for F=Z_2.
since F[x] is pid, irreducibles and primes coincide.
I'm trying directly from definition. ie to find f(x) s.t. f(x)=g(x)h(x) implies either g or h is constant.
I'm struggling partly because polynomial multiplication is complicated
please give a hint
copy Euclid's proof
Wow, Euclid works here as well?
\tex I need some clarification for the following notation for elements of the Dihedral groups
Let's say we have an element of $D_{30}$, written as $(12,-1)$. Is this the same as the element $r^{12}s$ given presentation $\langle r,s, |, r^{15}=s^2=(sr)^2=1 \rangle$?
Espio:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
We build rings like ((R, +, 0, i), *, 1) where i is the unary inversion and * is the multiplication and 1 in the multiplicative identity element
But this is sometimes not commutative, and how come?
(R,+,0,i) is an abelian group or sometimes called a commutative group
- is commutative, but * might be not
But how is that possible? Rings are made of abelian groups
only (R, +) is an abelian group
So I guess I am confused of the structure
In my mind, if we have something
Like I mentioned above
A ring consists of an abelian group, the multiplicative identity and the multiplication
Since it consists of the abelian group, it must be commutative
Since an abelian group is commutative
How can it not?
yes, but the abelian group is additive
you have an additive abelian group
think of the set of matrices
with matrix addition and matrix multiplication
matrix addition is commutative, matrix multiplication is not
Multiplication in abelian groups is commutative???
a group has just one binary operation
a ring is a set R with two operations + and *
such that (R, +) is a commutative group
By the way silly question but is there any reason we use the letter R? Just because for Ring or what?
Is it connected to the reals?
R for ring yeah
the reals happen to be a ring tho
and also just to give a succinct answer to what you asked above: a ring is an abelian group (R,+), where you have another binary operation * on R. That second operation doesn’t have to be commutative (but it is associative, distributes over addition)
yes
And only addition is necessarily commutative?
oh my god
Thanks
That was my confusion
you got it
R = space of 2 x 2 matrices with matrix addition and matrix multiplication is a nice example of a non-commutative ring btw
Thanks now it makes so much more sense now
algebra pro tip: when a binary operation is commutative, we usually use “+” to denote it. if it’s not necessarily commutative, we use “*”
just a convention
Okay cool
a lot of time people use K for rings
i usually use K to avoid confusion with the real numbers R
Where can I find a paper summarizing each one of the fundamental steps and corollaries used to give a proof of the classification theorem of finite simple groups?
I intend to give it a read, the page on the subject in Dummit and Foote's book made me interested in its proof. I know it's really huge and difficult. But slowly and with some pace I may be able to read it all.
I don't think such a thing exists right now
It will prolly take a year or so I'm pretty sure.
the original proof is over 10,000 pages long
Oh
combined over hundreds of separate papers
I believe there is a group right now working to condense that
That's good news to hear.
Is Dummit and Foote's book considered undergraduate material?
because within all of those pages there is some redundancy, and some arguments can eb simplified
but I don't know what their progress is like
In mathematics, the classification of the finite simple groups is a theorem stating that every finite simple group is either cyclic, or alternating, or it belongs to a broad infinite class called the groups of Lie type, or else it is one of twenty-six or twenty-seven exceptions, called sporadic. Group theory is central to many areas of pure and ...
the outline on wikipedia is probably the best you'll get haha
I guess Feit-Thompson's proof may be readable.
Yeah, I've checked this article right after finishing the book's chapter on the subject.
Ncat prolly has an article on the subject
Lemme see
Yup
I'll also read this one when I get some time
But hey, what about Feit-Thompson's theorem?
also long and also complicated
Y'all know where I can find a pdf for the article.
That one has 255 pages according to Dummit and Foote's book.
Yeah, as I said. I'll give myself some time to read it.
It's just that I want to do something to consolidate some of my knowledge on the subject.
I'm not sure if that's really a good use of your time
the proof is highly technical and I'm not sure if it would make you a better group theorist
I see, thanks for the clarification anyway.
wiki says the proof uses some heavy rep theory
and idk how accessible that is right after doing GT from d&f
i'd guess not very
yeah, I would recommend learning some finite group representation theory first
or just reading about p-groups as the classification of p-groups is more accessible (although still really technical) but a little more concrete
I was intending to read the proof right after finishing the book actually.
I know...
I don't think that whatever rep theory d&f does would really be enough anyway
does d&f do any at all?
d&f has some i think
in any case even after reading d&f it's not going to be enough to take you to the level of feit-thompson
I see it
But yeah, it's a really huge book
But I'll try to maintain you know
I actually have tried to read it twice and didn't finish it all
you don't need to finish it all to get something out of it
I've always stopped reading after ring theory
honestly I feel like you'd be better to just pick up a book on rep theory
instead of trying to read the rep theroy section here
similarly with geometry
^
ty i will check it out
i say as my alg class hasn't even finished the GT part of d&f 
It's just that I don't want to be an algebrist at all I guess. And since D&F talks about a lot of subjects in a somewhat concise way, I think it's perfectly suitable for me.
At least for now
It will do the job
lmao don't want to be an algebraist and read entire d&f?
"somewhat concise" = "over 1000 pages"
Algebraist, damn. Didn't have any idea how to write that in English, thanks.
I see each of the chapters as small presentations of the given topic.
I'm pretty sure he doesn't go full detail on representation theory of finite groups.
It's prolly more concise than an entire book about it.
wait a minute also
why would you want to read the entire proof of classification???
or feit-thompson?
if you don't want to be an algebraist
lol

I think you should reevaluate your priorities
I am an algebraist and I have no desire or need to read either of those
Not the entire proof, just the main ideas. But I guess you are totally right.
thats why hes not an algebraist
I thought that the proofs would have interesting insights on the subject, so that's why they would be important to read.
\tex I need some clarification for the following notation for elements of the Dihedral groups
Let's say we have an element of $D_{30}$, written as $(12,-1)$. Is this the same as the element $r^{12}s$ given presentation $\langle r,s, |, r^{15}=s^2=(sr)^2=1 \rangle$?
Espio:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Group theory is more interesting when its applied to other subjects imo, like Algebraic topology and galois theory
But it seems that they are just really technical and don't present so many interesting new ideas from what you are describing.
So yeah
I wouldn't really need to read the proof if it really is like what you are saying.
correct. they are extremely technical
I just didn't have a clue about how it was like.
And thought they'd have interesting new ideas.
I mean, in some sense the ideas are interesting because they can be used to prove hard things
but "interesting" is relative
also -- are you a student somehwere?
or are you learning on your own?
I'm learning on my own
oh, I was going to suggest asking a prof who knows you better or something for recommendations
Maybe next year I will be able to do that.
But currently that's not possible.
Anyway, thanks a lot for the clarification.
Also, I have already studied the theory of finite vector spaces over the reals/complex.
Would this together with group theory be enough to study representation theory of finite groups?
yep
Niceee
So I'll read some rep theory right after finishing his chapter on the subject.
Thanks
gl
There's a book specifically on Feit-Thompson
It doesn't require too too much background as far as I know, but it's very dense
I plan to read it eventually
Mind telling me the name of the book?
lmao nerd
This is the math version of having a really cool idea for a novel/startup
I don’t know the title off the top of my head. If you google Feit-Thompson book or something I’m sure you’ll find it
My old TA has a copy he hasn’t got around to reading from Berkeley’s library
I suppose you may be referring to "local analysis for the odd order theorem", right?
There's also "character theory for the odd order theory"
But it was written by a different author it seems
So not sure which one, if any, of these books you are referring to.
I've gone back and checked and my TA said that it's over two books, the first one being "local analysis for the odd order theorem"
If I had to guess I bet the other one is the second
hell, even the cover of the two books look the same lmao
i'd also bet it's this one
thanks man
NP
I heard about a (possibly troll) question, I wonder if it is true:
"Let G be a group of order factorized into powers of three prime integers. Is G cyclic if its all proper subgroups are cyclic?"
Ya it was quite a while ago when I learned abt groups, so I had hard time constructing counterexample
My intuition was indeed saying that there was a counterexample, but I forgot how to make a group 
Why thonk
@open torrent is the counterexample you have in mind abelian?
There's a super easy nonabelian example
What is it.. my memory ded
it's sorta troll tho
Lol wait why
whats the smallest nonabelian group you can think of
Nah
yea
@sturdy marsh well that was me sucking at description
no no no 5^0 doesn't count imo
oh needs 3 prime factors
then nonabelian groups of order 30
Why does it work
wait maybe not oops
He
pretty sure there aren't any abelian examples
Ya I thought about that but hassle to check that all its proper subgroups are cyclic
I'm sure that statement holds for abelian, ye
im thinking maybe some sort of semidirect product
Viburnum said that it was trivial hm
it should be easy enough for that group
assume you had a subgroup H of that semidirect product, if the Z/2 component of every element was 0, then we're done
so assume there is an element with of the form (g,1)
ord(g) is odd
so we have (0,1) in there
uhh wait
sorry
that was bs
Is there like online calculator for finite groups
this group isnt hard to work with
it's the dihedral group of order 30
there's a regular triangle inside a regular 15-gon right?
if there is then we have a noncyclic subgroup
<r^5, s> generates a subgroup iso to S3, right?
You can probably even classify all groups of order pqr with some sylow bashing
im waiting for "Viburnum's last counterexample"
there's a triangle inside any n-gon
so dihedral groups dont work
😦
I think there cant be an abelian counterexample
finite abelian is not cyclic implies you have two summands corresponding to the same prime
and those two summands give you a non-cyclic proper subgroup
lmao apparently it's true
there are no counterexamples
r i p. it was probably S3 kek
Lmao ffs
:o
hello I need to find 4 morphism from R to U I already have the exponential and the neutral element of U
sorry, what's U?
well, if you have the exponential, consider the periodicity of sine/cosine
(im assuming R is the group of reals under + here)
in fact periodicity isnt necessary to consider, but its a good starting point
ok thx
I didnt find 😦
Sry what is complex number of modulus 1 again?
Numbers on the unit circle
Maybe i could considere rotations
thats kinda the idea, yeah
if you can find an automorphism on U (intuitively a rotation of the unit circle), then you can compose it with the exponential map
you might notice something interesting
consider part b. x^2+2 \in R is irreducible in R but it does not belong to the set '±p where p is a prime in Z and the polynomials f(x) that are irreducible in Q[x] and have constant term ±1'.
where's the discrepancy?
If I have the field $F = \mathbb{Q}[x]/\langle x^3 - 5\rangle$ I know that I can express every element as a linear combination of $1, x, x^2$. Could someone give me a hint as to how I would find the multiplicative inverse of $x + 1$ in $F$ expressed as a linear combination of $1, x, x^2$? I tried solving for $a, b, c$ in
$$
(a + bx + cx^2)(x + 1) = 1 + (x^3 - 5)g, ; g\in\mathbb{Q}[x]
$$
but it's not really getting me anywhere...
vov&sons
doing polynomial division on $\frac{x^3 - 4}{x + 1}$ I get
$$
a + bx + cx^2 = x^2 - x + 1 - \frac{5}{x+1}.
$$
I think I'm just not seeing how to convert $5/(x+1)$ to an element of $F$.
vov&sons
Are you certain that’s a unit?
Anyway, my first thought is to take a general possible inverse of the form a + bx + c
Immediately a = 1
well F is a field
Is it?
Yes 100%
I haven’t thought about if x^3 - 5 is irreducible
It probably is
Lol
Yeah it totally is
Okay
So a = 1
So we deal with
1 + x + (x + 1)(bx + cx^2)
Oh hmm
Nevermind
You're trying to solve for x^3 - 4 right?
For some reason I thought x^3 = 0 not 5
I don’t think we can say that a = 1 then
Well... actually maybe we can
The thing is, when you try to just solve for a,b,c you end up having to set a=-b=c
From what I've tried
Well the constant ends up being a + 5c
And even if we could solve for a, b, c, then my long division shouldn't have a remainder?
Right?
So we can say that a + 5c = 1
I don’t think that’s necessarily true I’m unsure how long division works in a quotient like this
Where are you getting a + 5c btw?
(1 + x)(a + bx + cx^2)
The only terms that contribute to the constant are the normal constant which is 1*a
And the coefficient of the x^3 term since x^3 = 5
And the x^3 term has coefficient c
Ah right
So from a +5c = 1 I arrive at a = 1 - 5c
We have two other equations for the linear and quadratic term
The linear gives us a + b = 0?
I believe
Let me try and write this out one sec
And I believe the quadratic gives b + c = 0
I believe these let you solve for c
From which you can solve for a and b
I think c = 1/6?
Giving us a = 1/6 and b = -1/6
This seems kind of suspicious tbh but this is what my mental math gave me lol
Actually I think this works lmao
@next obsidian wow, you're totally right. We can check this because this field is isomorphic to Q[cuberoot(5)] and the element x + 1 corresponds to 5^(1/3) + 1
Oh huh, lol
I just multiplied the two polynomials and saw it ended up working out lol
Taking the inverse of 5^(1/3) + 1 is exactly the value that we get by plugging in a, b, c
Cool
I'd multiply out to get c*x^3 + (b + c)*x^2 + (a + b)*x + a and then plug in x^3=5 and then solve the system of 3 equations
tl;dr
That’s what we did smh my head my head
Yea thats what Chmonkey suggested
looked like a buncha foolery
lol
wanna see a crazy solution?
$$\frac{1}{1+x} = 1-x+x^2-x^3+x^4-x^5+\cdots = (1-x+x^2)(1-5+5^2-5^3+\cdots)$$
$$ = (1-x+x^2)\frac{1}{1-(-5)} = \frac{1}{6}(1-x+x^2)$$
Merosity
valid because we can see this being a subfield of a 5-adic field extension where this converges
and hey I got the same answer as you
🤬 you Mero
🤣
Wow thats actually really cool
p-adics having applications in the """real""" world
💪
this is why thinking of extension fields lying in C is a disability though, you can look in more places and you suddenly gain more freedom
How did you get the second equality in your image there?
I get that you're factoring 1 - x + x^2
But why is the stuff on the right 1 - 5 + ...
that is Z_5 stuff
wait how does it hold

oh are you like
doing something along the lines of
Z_5 = Z_{5^3}
kinda thing
could really just say (1-x+x^2)(1-x^3+x^6-...) tbh
I was heating up tea what'd I miss

Wondering how are you factoring to get the second equality
no no, x is actually a cube root of 5
we're working in $\mathbb{Q}_5/(x^3-5)$ so we're in this field ext
Merosity
it's a complete metric space
so we can do infinite sums just fine, plus there's no "rearrangment issues" either for infinite sums
well wait did you get the simplification @south temple
I'll try to show you, but every power of 3 larger I simplify to 5
yeah this was just for fun lol, they already had a solution @golden pasture
I'm wondering how that factors so nicely
I was just flexing
thanks
To terms of multiples of x^3
this should be clearer
can see like
you group the terms
into chunks of 2
basically like,
1-x+x^2
-x^3+x^4-x^5
x^6-x^7+x^8
etc.
$(1-x+x^2)-x^3(1-x+x^2)+x^6(1-x+x^2) -x^9(1-x+x^2)+\cdots$
essentially yes
Merosity
Damn that's clever af
now go learn Hensel's lemma and start your journey to learning p-adics
study completions
all you need to know is that completions are taking all limits and chopping them up into equivalence classes by which ones vary by a limit that goes to 0, this forms a maximal ideal in the ring of limits and so when you mod out by it you get your comfy field
The next section of Matsumura is about completions
is that an anime?
I ought to finish the exercises in my section, I think I’m mostly done anyway
I just need to type it up
...
R u srs?
It’s a commutative algebra book
I didn't think they made others than atia McDonalds
This one is actually good
good to hear, I might check it out eventually since my commutative algebra is nonexistant/weak af
What is the complete classification of all countably infinite Abelian groups upto isomorphism? How complicated is the classification?
not sure it exists
You might be interested in this: https://simpletonsymposium.wordpress.com/2013/05/31/countably-generated-abelian-groups/
It features a gadget called the Ulm Invariant.
@glossy yoke So as far as I can tell, the post doesn’t address the case when a group has some torsion elements and some torsion free elements, right?
afaict they just take the torsion subgroup and the quotient of that is torsion-free, and go from there
ye it seems like it so we essentially have a extension of group with no torsion with a group with torsion, which unfortunately is also rather hard to handle as some extensions could have no torsion and others with torsion, i dont quite forsee any nice results here other than like "these are all possible groups, some of these have the correct torsion subgroup"
tho maybe with some fiddling around with the extension construction you could maybe get something
im thinking something possible would be like
this subgroup/subset? of Ext^1_Z(T(A),A/T(A)) that has torsion group T(A) have some xxx property
idek if it would form a subfroup lol
So really we’re just taking “norms”: 1/(x+1)=(x^2-x+1)/(x^3+1)=(x^2-x+1)/6
shhh delet this
Under what circumstances is $\Pi_{i\in\mathbb{N}}\mathbb{Z}_{p^{n_i}}$ a $p$-group?
lugita15
when it has order p
Does p group mean any element has order dividing p? Do we exclude groups which have infinite order elements from our definition?
Sorry, I don't know what p group means for groups of infinite order
According to rotman, therefore my prof of my gt class, it's a group whose elements all have order a power of p
Are uncountable intersections of rings closed even though within a ring only finite unions and intersections are closed?
Lol sorry that's what I meant benny
I always try to talk math right after getting up and I always say the wrong thing
By ring here do you mean a collection of subsets of X closed under complements and finite unions?
my text uses closed under symmetric difference and intersection, but then it shows that it implies closed under union and set difference
Sure, that should be the same. I was trying to distinguish from the algebraic meaning of the word ring
oh sorry, i didn't know there was another meaning
Np
So no, a ring won't be closed under arbitrary intersections
Or even countable ones
oh is that still a ring?
I think it should be, yeah
Take A, B in the intersection
Then for ring, A, B are in the ring
So their symmetric difference and intersection are in the ring
so they're in the intersection
ye each of the intersection will be ok for the sym. diff and intersection
i found this result a bit surprising since individual rings are only closed for union and intersection for finite number
@latent anvil if S is a semiring is it true that if A is in S then A may not contain a finite expansion?
apparently this is so, but by the definition of a semiring couldnt we just take A = union A a single union?
Can you explain what a semiring is lol
Because I'm guessing it's not what I think of as a semiring
yes sure
also what's a finite expansion?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semiring see semiring on sets section, although my text is a bit diff
In abstract algebra, a semiring is an algebraic structure similar to a ring, but without the requirement that each element must have an additive inverse.
The term rig is also used occasionally—this originated as a joke, suggesting that rigs are rings without negative elements, similar to using rng to mean a ring without a multiplicative identity...
the finite expansion is that finite union of pairwise disjoint sets
i guess this pages definition 3 is the same, just take F = empty set and then it is saying E = that finite expansion
but then i am saying cant you just take E = union E
Sorry, gtg. Ill help later if you're still confused
sure, thank you
this theorem says if S is a semiring and R(S) is the minimal ring containing S then it coincides with the elements of S having finite expansion.
Since not every semiring is a ring i am confused since it seems every element of S has a finite expansion
do you mean "finitely generated"?
I don't think so since that subset of S may be infinite
what does expansion mean?
it means that if A is in S then A = union C_i where C_i are in S and pairwise disjoint
and union is finite
If an element of R(S) didn't have a finite expansion, you could probably exclude it and still have a structure that contains the semiring S. Does that get at what you're asking? I think the assumption of minimality would allow you to exclude the case of some infinite sum/product that you couldn't get around.
One thing confusing me is how can any A not have a finite expansion by the semiring definition by taking A = union A
are these elements, subsets, or what? what is A?
A is an element of the semiring
ok i think i got it now
the definition is saying if there is any subset of A also in S then you must have a finite expansion
and i think the theorem is saying take all the elements of A with a non trivial finite expansion then those generate R(S)
but that seems like an impotant thing to leave out, maybe i don't get it. i gtg , thanks for your help
Does that belong here (old reply)
oh sorry i think i should ask in the linear algrebra channel
@latent anvil @bleak abyss here's my writeup
i was looking at the paper trail
This is also how I did it
and i found that it apparently originated with erdos and turan
or something
oh cool
lol i thought my proof was questionable because i couldnt find it online
until i realized baez's long ass post was it
lol
oh yeah and one of my friends did further stuff on this
like with the weird interval bounds
I don't think it was original work
He was just giving a talk at a student seminar
oh i see
apparently k.s. joseph showed in his 1969 ucla thesis (that was apparently not published or something, i only found like one link and it was behind a paywall i think) Commutativity in Non-Abelian Groups that the probability is at most $\frac{p^2 + p - 1}{p^3}$ where $p$ is the minimal prime factor of $|G|$
アークシス||Aut(ℤₚⁿ)| = 𝚷(pⁿ - pⁱ)
and taking p=2 gives back 5/8
yeah, this is in the pdf I just sent
oh i see
That bit isn't very hard
I mean
oh okay
with C(g) taken to be |G|/p
lmao frenchposting
lol

o thanks
archsys putting together more interesting looking exercises than my algebra prof damn
lol thanks
i just do this from time to time
if i find a problem i think is cool
i make a proof sketch
this was my first one
(lmao)
?
@latent anvil wow this paper is really cool
imagine if like, i could forget the contents of this paper, and then this paper hadn't been written, and then i later went and wrote this paper in undergrad
that would be poggers
Yeah!
lmao
oh nice
@latent anvil https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.437.5938&rep=rep1&type=pdf also look at this stuff lmao
i am not sure what scares me more, the formatting or the way they're doing group theory
This paper looks like it fucks
Dummit and foote? I mean that's all I know of it
oh I see lol
I should learn more rep theory
Jacobson doesn't really do rep theory afaik
@vital quail I think fulton and harris is a common rep theory book which does character theory pretty early iirc
oh alright I'll check that out, thanks
also what are your thoughts on serre? that's the one I know about
If $k_1,k_2\in\mathbb{N}$, $k_1\geq k_2$ and $X\subset\mathbb{Z}$, then does $X$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}{k_1}}$ imply $X$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}{k_2}}$, or vice versa?
lugita15
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Z is not a module over Z/nZ
@sturdy marsh Hmm, it’s not? Is $\mathbb{Z}{lcm(k_1,k_2)}$ both a module over $\mathbb{Z}{k_1}$ and a module over $\mathbb{Z}_{k_2}$?
lugita15
@sturdy marsh OK, so then if $k_1,k_2\in\mathbb{N}$, $k_1\geq k_2$ and $X\subset\mathbb{Z}{lcm(k_1,k_2)}}$, then does $X$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}{k_1}$ imply $X$ being linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}_{k_2}$, or vice versa?
lugita15
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
these two notions may not have anything to do with each other I think
you probably want some condition involving something dividing something else
not something greater than something else
@sturdy marsh OK yeah, suppose further that $k_2$ divides $k_1$.
lugita15
oh wait i probably got it the wrong way around lol
if n divides m, then Z/nZ is a Z/mZ module
so no, Z/lcm is not a Z/k1 module
sorry
Yeah if M is an R-module, then the smallest quotient of R that the module structure descends to is the annihilator
anything you quotient out by needs to be in the annihilator
quick question for yall what is meant when it is said that a homomorphism is given by reduction modulo N?
id probably just interpret that as the canonical map G to G/N
ah ok
makes more sense now I've never seen the terminology before and its actually kind of hard to google
yeah looking at my book thats exactly what it is
thx
npnp
Heyo, can someone check If I got this down right?
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/486844875632017408/782814697929310278/unknown.png
Given a polynomial
it would only be represented in this marked down area F_5[X] here?
As in
F_5[X] -> F_5[X], x --> some polynomial
and for the polynomial the coefficients must be in the field but the exponents can be any (natural) number?
In this context F_5[X] is not being divided by a irreducible polynomial
And for the case there are irreducible polynomial, I can use any such with a max degree of 5?
Still learning the foundations
It's just an empty coordinate system with the limits of F5
But thanks for the confirmation
C(f) denotes the content of f in D[x] and a \approx b means a is an associate of b. I am stuck on the underlined part. Why does p not divide C(f_1)?
Eh.. perhaps since it is a unit? Idk
if u is a unit and d | u then u = xd for some x, so (u^-1x)d = 1, which means d is a unit. But (I think lol) irreducible elements are by definition not units
Does it really saying that C(f1) is a unit?
That part is confusing to me
Then Ofc prime should not divide unit
if u is a unit and d | u then u = xd for some x, so (u^-1x)d = 1, which means d is a unit. But (I think lol) irreducible elements are by definition not units
ah yea okay, thanks
p isn't a prime here cascadar
Irreducibles still don't divide units, but I wanted to make the distinction
okay, I am pretty sure R is a typo for "D" which is a UFD. I'm not sure how p being prime makes it any more clear that p doesn't divide a unit.
Could some give me a hint as to how I would approach part (b)?
Since it's asking to use the FIT I'm thinking that $F[x]/\langle g \rangle$ is isomorphic to $\phi(F[x]) \subseteq E$?
vov&sons
Now because $\phi$ is a homomorphism we know that $\phi(F[x])$ is a subring. But how can I show that every element of $\phi(F[x])$ is a unit?
vov&sons
@south temple you can show that F[x]/<g> is a field (due to g being irreducible) and then you can show that the preimage of an ideal is an ideal, so the codomain of a homomorphism from a field is also a field
ping me back if you need more detailed help with any of these parts
sorry, how do we go from preimage of an ideal is an ideal to codomain of a hom. of a field is a field?
@vital quail
hmm
if you have a nontrivial 'a' in an ideal
uh well ker(phi) is an ideal?
yes, since ideals are closed under multiplication by elements from the entire ring
so you just do *a^-1
anyways
lets say I is an ideal in your codomain
then the preimage of I is an ideal in a field
yeah I've proven this in a previous assignment
ok I'm following so far
so now do you have any ideas for the other part
so the ker(f) is either 0 or F
i meant for the other part as in showing F[x]/<g> is irreducible but uhh for this one
i mean yeah
oh I've shown that F[x]/<g> is a field by showing that g must be irreducible
you can just show that (assume R nontrivial) any nontrivial ideal I in R is just R
I'm just not sure how to apply FIT
okay cool
or rather I know how to apply FIT
but don't know how to confirm that phi(F[x]) is a field
so far we just have that phi(F[x]) is a ring
a subring of E
so you have an isomorphism phi between F[x]/<g> and phi(F[x])
right
isomorphism always takes a field to a field?
it was just a matter of showing that F[x]/<g> is a field and then that
oh I see, I have to show that in general isomorphisms map fields to fields
well yes it's just due to our previous work
if you have f: F -> R an isomorphism with F a field and R some ring
and I a nontrivial ideal of R (assume R nontrivial) then the preimage of I is just F
of course, f is a surjective map since it's an isomorphism after all
so I is just R
so that proves R is a field
the only ideals are the trivial one and R itself
@south temple does this all make sense
I'm trying to understand it
the preimage of an ideal is an ideal

