#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 530 of 407
So I dislike AM in general I like Matsumura more
But one thing to be said is both present it as just
This is algebra
D_n -> D_{kn}
And I used to hate on Eisenbud
Because it’s so big
But Eisenbud has like
Really good geometric intuition in it
And explanations of what this algebra really says
So if you’re someone who’s motivated by that maybe check that out
:o cool
i burnt all my time on am lol
Rip Ari
I mean AM is good to get a workable knowledge quickly
But it’s painful
If you have time I think learning it a different way is better
never mattered to me
Or at least more enjoyable for me
Dan
NP
He also outlines a “first course”
In the start
But it’s more than enough
To get started with AG
Yes
So my view on commutative algebra and AG
Okay so you CAN look things up as you go along
And you’ll be forced to just prove commutative algebra results as you go along
The thing is for me, when I started it’s really hard to know what to do and like I felt really out of olce like umm
I knew 0 CA
So I didn’t really have any intuition for what SHOULD be true
So I think you should have a basic understanding going in
But from then on knowing more is VERY HELPFUL
Like I can only speak for schemes but
Before I would see a problem and go aaaaaa
Then struggle and finally reduce it to some CA thing and go “is this fucking true???”
But now thag I know more I see an AG thing and go “wait I think this is just secretly ___ CA result”
And knowing what I want to reduce the problem to
Helps me know how to do that reduction
I think you can do both probably
Hartshorne will like
Cite results
And like you know localization
So that’s a good start but
At least in Hartshorne
He won’t make everything explicit and you’ll get lost so
I think having a basic knowledge up till like basic dimension theory
I think knowing properties of finite type k algebras is important
And without that knowledge things can be tough
But the rest I think you can just do as you feel is best for you
For me I’ve found this is a slightly more CA-forward style
I find the algebra easy to learn purely as algebra since I like it
Then this informs the geomwtry
But others might be backwards
Yeah then I think maybe once you learn a bit (this actually might be where AM is good)
Or just try Eisenbud
But once you have the BASICS
For you I think switching off of AM if you did use it is 100% the right way
And switch to Eisenbud or check out Reid’s undergraduate commutative algebra
That might even be the best place to start, I’ve heard that it’s geometric
Reid’s book, that is, and it should cover the basics so that you won’t get owned just starting out
And then as you need just fill in with Eisenbud might be good
NP, lmk if you have more questions. I like talking about this stuff since I didn’t really know any of it going in so
I feel like I should pay it forward haha
This paper defines Ulm sequences and characters for Abelian p-groups (it’s open access): https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0168007208001863
Now suppose that you have proven that two Abelian p-groups G and H have the same character. Then my question is, what else do you need to prove on top of that to show that they are isomorphic? Does the fact that they have the same character narrow down how different their Ulm sequences can be?
I've seen the infinite dihedral group defined as a semidirect product of Z and Z/2
which fits into Dn being the nonabelian semidiect product of Z/n and Z/2
Hey all, I thought that I could only get r + I = I if r = 0. So surely the only element of the ring that would work is the zero element. How am I assuming that I intersection J only contains {0}? or am I totally misunderstanding this
I and J are coprime ideals here
r + I = I for all r in I
^
ah of course, thats what im missing. Thank you!
how are they defined?
Inverse limit of Z/(6^nZ)
hmm, inverse limits are limits
and products are limits
and limits commute with limits

so im pretty sure that thing is iso to the product of 2-adics and 3-adics
which obviously has zero divisors
(1,0) (0,1) = 0
Interesting
yeah that should do it
lmao
never thought of n-adic where n isnt prime
anyway, doing everything using properties of limits seems to be the way to do a lot of these adic problems
there was a problem on proving that a p-adic number with the first term nonzero is a unit
which is horrible to do using the series definition
Z/(10^n Z) is also the product of 2-adics and the 5-adics, which means you can find two "infinite decimal numbers to the left" x and y such that x * y = 0 but they are not 0
corresponding to (0,1) and (1,0)
and such that x + y = 1
What is p^2-adic then?
um what
the limit of the Z/((p²)^n)Z is just the same as the limit of the Z/p^nZ, so the p-adics
oh....ok
Yes this is because p^2 -adic valuation and p-adic valuation generate the same topology on Z
So the completion, which is a topological operation, remains the same
The inverse limit will work out to be the same over any cofinal subset
Do you know what is the order of an element in a product of groups?
in terms of the orders of the components
Consider (g,h) in G x H
can you express the order of (g,h) in terms of the orders of g and h
is k1 the order of g?
okay
so now if you have (a,b,c,d) in the group you mentioned above, what would the orders of a, b, c and d need to be so that that order of (a,b,c,d) is 60
what is the lcm of 2,2,3,5
well there are no order 4 elts in C2
right, so 1,4,3,5 or 2,4,3,5 would work
and those are the only ones that work as 9 or 25 do not divide 60
and you need a 4
well the lcm of the orders are all that we care about
and we do have an order 1 element in C2
we havent started counting yet
we're trying to figure out which ones do we want to count
uhh, let's say we want to count order 4 elements in C2 x C4
what do the orders of 'a' in C2 and 'b' in C4 need to be so that the order of (a,b) is 4
what is the order of (0,1)?
yup in C2xC4
the order is a single number
what is the order of the element (0,1)?
we have (0,1) + (0,1) + (0,1) + (0,1) = (0,0)
and it doesnt work for any smaller number
yeah so the order is 4
but the order of 0 is 1
in C2
so what orders do we need to count in C2 and C4 to get order 4 elements in C2xC4
well, yes
but what do the orders of g and h need to be
we just saw that if ord(g) = a, and ord(h) = b, then ord((g,h)) = lcm(a,b)
bingo
the combinations of orders that work are 1 ,4
and 2 ,4
1,4,3,5 is also a combination that works
is it obvious that Z/4Z X Z/3Z would be isomorphic to Z_4 X Z_3?
like we know that Z/4Z is isomorphic to Z_4 and Z/3Z is iso to Z_3
the integers mod 4
the quotient of the integers by 4Z = {4n | n is an integer}
those are the same thing...
👀
oh they're actually equal not just isomorphic
Equals is a nebulous thing
which does not matter
They're isomorphic so you can just exchange them at will
and the cartesian product doesnt affect any of that?
It's a purely algebraic construction, it doesn't depend on the specific actualization
if you're not convinced then construct an isomorphism G x H to G' x H'
when G is iso to G' and H iso to H'
if you're categorically minded x is a product
and products of isomorphic objects are isomorphic
Actually
ignore what I said this is highly not useful
I doubt that would elucidate anything
What is the precise meaning that isomorphic objects are "the same"? I have wondered about understanding the precise meaning of this, I guess it has something to do with logic
I mean they're not literally "the same" unless, well, they are literally the asme
It's not a precise statement really
there is a bijective mapping of generators satisfying the same relations?
there are various levels of sameness
It just means that for properties which are "algebraic"
in the sense that it's stated purely in terms of the like... algebraic structure
But I could probably say something like all propositions which are true of one object are true of an isomorphic object
that they operate the same
No
The statement has to be isomorphically invariant
aka like "algebraic" in nature
usually it's always okay to identify two isomorphic objects as the same in practice, but you can only really do that once
Like say you have two isomorphic things
which are subsets of the same thing
(you can even find this for subgroups)
Like lok at Z/2Z x Z/2Z
you have {(0,0), (1,0)} and {(0,0), (0,1)}
They're isomorphic but we can't say they are the same subset of Z/2Z x Z/2Z
Sure
since that's about objects like in their conrete realization
that's not an algebraic statement, and it gets nebulous
But this is just restricting to some set of "acceptable" propositions
since in S_4 you have 4 copies of I think Z/4Z
and 3 are not normal
and 1 is
Or no 4 copies of klein 4
This is just rephrasing the definition of isomorphism, but basically you can "relabel" the elements of one group in a different labeling convention in which the algebraic operations are compatible.
Like in an infintie cyclic group, it doesn't matter if you call the generator 1 and signify the group operation by + (like integers) or if you call the generator x and signify group operation by taking powers.
Eg I'm thinking something like a proposition like "there exists x such that P(x)" is true among isomorphic objects where P consists of symbols in the language of <whatever kind of object you are studying>, or whatever the correct terminology for this is
I am certainly familiar with what kind of things you can do with isomorphic objects, but I am more curious about the formalization of the idea
mathbath, I think there is like a model theoretic way to state this. If you have some theory then an isomorphism between two models is an invertible map which commutes with the interpretation of the functional/relational symbols. Two isomorphic models should then be elementarily equivalent (satisfy the same set of first order formulas)
But elementary equivalence of models is extremely weak, iirc C and Q-bar are elementary equivalent
We usually care about a lot more than first order statements
You could also interpret yoneda as a statement like this. An isomorphism X ≈ Y is the same as a natural system of bijections between the sets of maps Hom(X, Z), Hom(Y, Z) for each object Z
oh and we define isomorphisms of algebraic structures to be invertible maps preserving the operations, so this agrees with the model theory definition
What is the best way to think of the orbits of a set X under the group action, conjugation?
I don't know how to visualize this.
like the conjugation action of a group on itself?
ahh
conjugation action of group on itself.
idk if theres like a visual way to see it but it kinda is like has the "2 elements are the same under a base change" idea (like in perspective of matrices)
What would the individual orbits be? Sets that contain permutations which if conjugated enough times give the original permutation?
Wasn't clear, but an example.
One orbit would be Orb((1 2)) = {1,(1 2),(1 3), (2 3)}?
Because the orbits would have to be orbits of elements of S3
rmb h(g(x))=(gh)(x) so you only need to check conjugation with all other elements and not repeated conjugations
rmb?
but yea
rmb=remember
theres a super simple condition to determine if 2 elements in symmetric groups are conjugated
What do you mean determine if they are conjugated?
Isn't my job to conjugate them and write the orbit set?
also yes but generally this is super tedious
yeah
My guess is that Orb((1 2)) = Orb((1 3)) = Orb((2 3)) = {1,(1 2),(1 3),(2 3)}
So I would only need to write {1,(1 2),(1 3),(2 3)} for one orbit
and the other would be the other 3 elements of S3
If $\alpha$ is any permutation, then
$$\alpha\left(i_1,i_2,\dots,i_n\right)\alpha^{-1}=\left(\alpha\left(i_1\right),\alpha\left(i_2\right),\dots,\alpha\left(i_n\right)\right)$$
so why do you think 1 is in the orbit?
ariana:
but this doesnt mean 1 is in the orbit
yup
ok i had a feeling
so 1 has its own orbit
the trivial orbit?
it always does I think
nvm its obvious now
if you ever need to compute orbits of elements in symmetric group try using this
super useful
aren't there other examples of orbits with 1 element besides the trivial group?
in symmetric groups nope
ok
but in like
d4
rotating twice
is an example
or wait let me think about it a little more because I guess it depends on the set it is acting on
So d4 acting on itself
under conjugation
rotating twice is an orbit with 1 element
or it would have 2 nvm
what do the i_n represent?
other permutations?
wat
ok
you say for any permutation a(i_1,...,i_n)a^-1 = (a(i_1),...,a(i_n))
are the i's permutations?
or just a list of elements
list of elements
ok i shouldve gotten that from context
@north widget
Consider any abelian group. What does conjugation do to it?
leave it at the start
so
x+g-x = g
for every element x
are you gonna give me leading questions to understand something better? @stone fulcrum
Actually I think I misread, I'm sorry. You're primarily interested in the permutation groups, which never have "trivial orbits"
Note that any abelian group only has "trivial orbits", or any element in the center of a group
The question I am trying to answer if to find all the orbits of X under conjugation where X is a G-Set under conjugation and X=G=S3
Has trivial orbit ⇔ in center
oh
Oh haha yeah okay so the permutation groups have a really neat orbit rule
from computation I got an answer
If you try a few it might become apparent
actually nvm
im doubting my answer
i was gonna say the orbits were:
{( 1 2), (1 3), (2 3)} , {(1 2 3), ( 1 3 2)},{1}
Nailed it
but
im doubting my understanding
The reason for this is because when finding the orbits for the first set I just went by purely computation and found that with (1 2), conjugating twice with (1 3) and (2 3) gave me identity.
For the second set I found the orbit of ( 1 2 3) and noticed that it looked similar to (1 3 2) in that it had same order
It shouldn't have. Check your calculations
I did (1 3)(1 2)(1 3) = (2 3)
doing it twice gives identity
(2 3)(1 2)(2 3)
gives not a transposition
so i did something wrong there
wait
nvm
(2 3)(1 2)(2 3)= (1 3)
and (1 2)(1 2)(1 2) = (1 2)
and i noticed if I did their conjugation twice I would get identity
as always super helpful exercise to do😛 makes your computations exponentially fastwe
yea
I applied that to my second example
showing the orbits of (1 2 3) and (1 3 2)
and I noticed that since they are pretty much left and right shift, doing them 3 times puts you back at start
yea
and that 2 right shifts = a left shift
and vice versa
then I wrote down their orbits
and i noticed they looked similar but inverted
so I just assumed they would be in the same orbit
What is throwing me off about this question is the way the question was asked. Find all the orbits of X using conjugation.
orbits of X was defined to me as an equivalence class in the book im using.
i am confusion, i gots a proof "prove that the ideal <x^2 + 1> is prime, but not maximal in Z[x]"
ik Z[x] isn't a field and x^2+1 is irreducible in Z[x]
uhhh for <x^2 + 1> to be prime, Z[x]/<x^2 + 1> has to be an integral domain and <x^2 + 1> to be maximal, Z[x]/<x^2 + 1> has to be a field, so I have to prove Z[x]/<x^2 + 1> is an integral domain? so its a ring, and i just need to show it contains unity and has no zero divisors? i be confusionnn
Sorry I never heard the term, "finding two elements conjugate to eachother" my book didn't define it well and I found it while looking things up
thats why I was confused
ic
Yup just show that it is a integral domain
hint: ||assume it isnt, it implies x^2+1 isnt irreducible||
ok so if it isn't an integral domain, then the ring has zero divisors, so instead of ab=0 giving a=0 or b=0, i have ab=0 gives a=0 and b=0??
Ring has zero divisors means that
There exists an a, b ≠ 0 such that ab = 0
ahhhhh proof by contradiction confuse me is there another way to do this
also proof by contradiction is kinda super commonly used
so uh
may want to get familiar with it
concept of contradiction don't confuse me i just have very weak understanding of these definitions
hurb
what is "write down explicitly" supposed to mean here if not finding generators
am i supposed to just literally list all the elements
m8 those are tiny tiny groups
lol
if you list the elements you really wrote down the set explicitly, something like a cayley table is more akin to explicitly writing down the groups lmao
im not doing that
cayley is cursed
acceptable
ive never drawn a cayley table in my life
cayley graphs are pretty and nice
im not starting now
haven't drawn one since the 1st grade
15 year old me was so gullible theyd just do exercises. even the shit ones
haven't drawn one since age 4
someone: I did all the exercises in the book!
Moth: points out to 17 exercises that are completely pointless repetitions of the same boring thing with different numbers, some of them have more than one digit
rip
the only cayley graph i drew
was in latex
and i wrote code to generate it
just to stress test tikz

tikz broke when i fed S6 into it
cayley graphs (not tables!) are genuinely cool
i don't mean drawing them as an exercise or smth
i havent rlly seen the appeal
i mean just the graphs
they intuitively capture something about the structure
why is ari a hyperbolic shitposter now
particularly in small finite groups
unironically geometric topology in 3D is cool
2D is trivial
4D is pain
hurb
3D is a good mix of difficulty and doabilitt
Hi moth
high dim seems neat
Cayley graphs come up in GGT I think
ggt?
Geometric group theory
ah
i only saw cayley graphs when trying to construct the boundary of a hyperbolic 3-manifold

the problem is groups are generally infinite
hatcher has so few exercises in the cohomology chapter
it goes from like 30+ per section to around 15
imagine trying to construct infinite cayley graphs
have you seen the cayley graph for the free group on two generators?
Oh lol that's the only one I really did exercises from
o-oh
Well like
I already knew the non homology stuff
And I had 2 weeks to get through the homology section
it seems really neat
i finished the exposition on 3.1 im doing the problems tmrw
i think i can be done by ch 3 pretty soon tbh
like middle of december
I was gonna say you should do the de rham version and look at the proof of de rham's theorem in Lee, because it's similar
Let F' be an algebraic field extension of F, P a place of F, and P' a place of F' lying over P. If F has characteristic 0, is it true that the ramification of P' over P equals 1?
tfw no diff top
sad
You will surpass me soon
Ahh, so beautiful.
Wrt AT
spooky
You can see the structure in the graph.
i dont see any structure
I don't like how they chose right multiplication instead of left multiplication, but still.
im getting 2 for xmas/end of year stuffs
woke
s&s also p ok actly
the DC comics universe wikia fandom webpage is also telling me to get intro to smooth manifolds you must have great taste sham
s&s or rudin🤔
i literally get GTM ads all the time now
@golden pasture I didn't know they did a diff top book
its rly meme
or wait you mean vs Rudin lol
:o did they?
yea this
someone post graduate texts in homophobia
i love that edit so much shamrock
lolwtf
@golden pasture think of it like this: the red paths show the structure of <r> (here <a>), the way the graph is extended by making two of them and connecting them with blue shows how we take a semidirect product by $Z_2$, and the manner in which they go in the opposite direction to each other shows how it's the nontrivial semidirect product (instead of the one which is also a direct product)
Intel:
you can probably make it look a little nicer
Yeah but why would I
by copying the hex code of the color
on the different sides of the reflection, the rotations are opposite - that corresponds to the reversal of the arrows between the cycles
hm that’s interesting ig
I made this on my phone
so the yellow around the homophobia doesnt look weird
Yeah but it's funnier like this
i look at that graph and immediately see $D_4$
feels too specific and like iffy still tho
Intel:
mayhaps
i intuit groups by group action
xd
Oh lol I never did that
I intuit groups by how group elements "do things", but without specifying what they do things to
so i guess that's sort of like group actions
and it includes it
but also, it's somehow built to work with the action of G on itself by left multiplication
because
ab is a applied to b
just intuit groups by K(G, 1)
OMG THIS IS SO COOL
(incomplete) cayley graph of free group on two elements
it's (going to be) A FRACTAL!!!
up = multiplication by a, down = multiplication by a^-1, right = multiplication by b, left = multiplication by b^-1
this picture doesn't specify inverses and only accounts for words with up to 4 terms
this fractal nature generalizes to more dimensions, it seems, but I can only imagine it in 3 dimensions
if you blur your vision, it kinda looks like the hyperbolic plane (it's quasiisometric to H^2 in fact). It's not a coincidence that the thrice punctured sphere is both hyperbolic and has fundamental group F_2.
you can get lots of pretty cayley graphs this way.
re hyperbolic these free groups appear as schottky groups which have pretty cool stuff related to it
i've recently seen a talk about these graphs, and the fun things you can do when topologizing them, like considering its gromov boundary https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gromov_boundary
In mathematics, the Gromov boundary of a δ-hyperbolic space (especially a hyperbolic group) is an abstract concept generalizing the boundary sphere of hyperbolic space. Conceptually, the Gromov boundary is the set of all points at infinity. For instance, the Gromov boundary of the real line is two points, corresponding to positive and negative i...
i have no reason to care about this but it is a really pretty idea to think about the boundary of this graph as equivalence classes of rays starting from zero
i have no reason to care about this but it is a really pretty idea
said every mathematician ever
or no mathematician ever, or only pure mathematicians, depends on how you think about it
i only have reason to care about things about which i can write papers
but because humans are cursed, sometimes i care about things against my own financial interest
the reason why i care about things is to care about other things
anyway i have no idea what the hyperbolic plane is, what H is, what F_2 is, what schottky groups are, and how one would topologize these graphs, i have so much math to learn
and to care about other things eventually leads to how to solve number theory
i mean, I'm guessing the hyperbolic plane is a topological space, i don't know topology 😦
ye it's like differential topology ish
are any of the things I mentioned that I don't know relatively simple without prerequisites in topology or any field like (insert adjective) topology/geometry?
topology is kinda like
a prerequisite for math
like sure in theory you could study some of it without topology but learning topology and algebra opens up a lot
point set isnt too hard to learn, jus read like first 3-4 chapters of munkres
is it correct to say that a field is an extension of itself?
because a field contains itself
yup
@golden pasture yeah, i sure will learn topology
which parts of algebra would you say are most important in algebraic topology?
i dont recall really needing like algebra algebra
as long as you know definitions
I see.
An Abelian p-group is divisible if every element is divisible by p. An Abelian p-group is reduced if it has no nontrivial divisible subgroups. But how is it even possible for an Abelian p-group to be reduced? If G is a reduced Abelian p-group and g is an element of G, then isn’t <pg> a nontrivial divisible subgroup of G?
wdym by p-group ?
A group where the order of every element is a power of a fixed prime p.
then it cannot be divisible, since if you take a non trivial x, you can find an y st py = x, and by iterating this you have a non trivial z st p^kz = x. But if your group is of order p^k, we would have x = 0 which is impossible
Yeah, I see my mistake now, I incorrectly assumed that if every element of a subgroup is divisible by p in the larger group then the subgroup is divisible. But it’s actually about divisibility by p in the subgroup.
New question: Let $G$ be an Abelian $p$-group, let $g$ be an element of $G$ such that $g\notin pG$, and let $x\in \langle g\rangle\cap pG$. Then is $x\in p\langle g\rangle$?
lugita15:
The condition is saying that x = ng = py
and you want to show that p divides n
write n = mp + r for some r less than p
then you have rg = p(y - mg)
so rg is in pG, for some r less than p
@sturdy marsh OK thanks, I figured it out.
Prufer p group is the direct limit of Z/p^nZ while p adic integers are the inverse limit of Z/p^nZ
Cool
If a countable Abelian p-group G is written as a direct sum of at most countably many finite cyclic groups and at most countably many Prüfer p-groups, then does that mean that the number of Prufer p-groups present in that decomposition is equal to the number of subgroups of G which are isomorphic to the Prufer p-group? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prüfer_group
the picture is really cursed
okay im doing a hom alg thing
basically i need to show that regarding Z2 as a Z4 module, Ext^i(Z2, Z2) is always non-zero
that is i need to construct a free resolution of Z2 as a Z4 module and show that after dualizing ker f_i/Im f_i-1 is never 0
the free resolution I constructed was
the map induced by multiplying by 2 is going to be the zero map bc composing either 0 or the quotient w/ it is pretty clearly gonna just get u 0
The problem is finding the map induced by the quotient
so clearly i fucked up
but idk where
wait am i an idiot
arent i supposed to remove the first Z/2Z term
lmao
yup
so what you get should be identity, and then all 0
yeah
lmao one of the exercises in hartshorne asks you to prove the riemann hypothesis for curves
surprisingly, it isnt bad at all
for elliptic curves?
ohh
over finite fields?
yup
me not enuf machinery yet
the solution doesnt need too much machinery
oo
you just need the intersection pairing on surfaces
brofibration you're at UCLA right?
yea im missing this stuff rn
3
mhm
but gen eds dont seem that bad if theyre specific and interesting
instead of
ap lang
some of them are interesting
but not interesting enough to motivate me to study and write stuff on them
¯_(ツ)_/¯
its insanely expensive out of state
uuuuh wait lemme pull up the french name to be super pretentious
fondements de la geometrie algebrique
Fondements de la Géometrie Algébrique
but probably with an aigu on the first e in geometrie and algebrique
yeah
FGA SGA EGA
how many other variations are there on this
those are the only ones I know
but anyway, the book im reading is 'fga explained'
not fga
there's like 6 authors
woke
broke: FGA
woke: FGO
fantechi, goettsche, illusie, kleiman, nitsure, vistoli
stop
is that kleiman from altman & kleiman
what's fgo
a shitty mobile game
(a term in commutative algebra)
yup
Suppose that $G$ is a countable Abelian $p$-group which equals a direct sum of at most countably many finite cyclic groups and at most countably many Prüfer p-groups, where there exists a k such that there are no cyclic groups in the decomposition of order greater than $p^k$. And let $N$ be the number of Prufer p-groups in the direct sum decomposition, where $N$ can be zero, finite, or infinite. Then what is the number of elements of $G$ of order $p^{k+1}$, as a function of $N$? Does it matter what the specific orders of the finite cyclic groups are?
lugita15:
What da fuq...
this must be what mochizuki is working on now
Lol
the finite cyclic groups have no elements of order p^k+1
every element of the direct sum ignoring the prufer part has order at most p^k
so they probably dont matter
maybe
idk
that shit looks scary
@sturdy marsh Yeah, the Prufer part is key. Now there are $p^{k+1}-p^k$ elements of order $p^{k+1}$ in the Prufer p-group. But the thing is that $G$ has uncountably many subgroups that are isomorphic to the Prufer p-group, but most of them overlap.
lugita15:
@sturdy marsh I’m guessing that there are only finitely many elements of order $p^{k+1}$, I’m just not sure how to go about finding that number.
lugita15:
Let's ignore the finite cyclic group part for now, assume G is a direct sum of some number of prufer p groups
Sure
@sturdy marsh What do you mean by orders over the components?
if $x = (a_i)i$ is an element of G, then I think $\text{ord}(x) = \sup{i}\text{ord}(a_i)$
Brofibration:
definitely if it's a finite direct sum lol
yeah it should be
only finitely many can be nonzero
oh wait wtf
say x is an element of order p in the prufer group
then (x,0,0,0..) has order p
and (0,x,000)
and (0,0,x,000)
if the direct sum is infinite, cant you have infinitely many?
elements of order p
@sturdy marsh Oh yeah, I think you’re right. But what about the case when the direct sum is finite?
okay, let's assume we have N summands
an element $x = (a_i)_i$ has order p^k iff $\sup{i}\text{ord}(a_i) = p^k$
Brofibration:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
there are p^k elements of order at most p^k
in the prufer group
and p^k - p^(k-1) elements of order p^k
So we just need to count the number of ways we can form an element such that at least one of the components has order p^k
@sturdy marsh Is it really enough for just one of the components to have order p^k? Don’t the other components need to be 0?
nope
let's say it is a product of 2 of them
(a,b), a has order p^k, b has order p^l for some l<k
then (a,b)^(p^k) = (a^(p^k), b^(p^k) ) = (1, (b^(p^(l))^(k-l)) = (1,1)
Oh right
that was a stupid thing to write, ord(a,b) = lcm(ord(a), ord(b)) = lcm(p^k, p^l) = p^k
as p^l divides p^k
anyway, so there are (p^k-1)^N ways to pick an element such that all components have order lower than p^k
So the number of elements of order p^k is (p^k)^N - (p^(k-1))^N
brb
@sturdy marsh Don’t we care about all components having order less than or equal to p^k, not just less than? In your (a,b) example a had order p^k.
yeah less than or equal to
at least one of them needs to have order p^k
the others can have order less than or equal to
that was just an example to demonstrate that the other components do not need to be 0
@sturdy marsh So how did you get (p^k)^N - (p^(k-1))^N?
just count
you want to count the number of ways at least one happens
to do that count the number of ways all of them have order less than what's required
and subtract
@sturdy marsh OK now I see
now if you multiply that number by the order of the direct sum of all the finite cyclic groups involved, then you get what you wanted
oh, and replace k+1 in the problem statement with k
i switched notation
@sturdy marsh Wait, what about if there are infinitely many summands in the finite cyclic group part of the direct sum, even if each finite cyclic group in the direct sum has size bounded by $p^k$? Then are there infinitely many elements of order $p^{k+1}$?
lugita15:
@sturdy marsh Actually mathematical logic.
@sturdy marsh This came up in the course of trying to solve some research problem in logic.
Haha
no
yessssss
there are quite a few people interested in logic for some reason lol
¯_(ツ)_/¯
@sturdy marsh By the way, even if there are infinitely elements of order $p^{k+1}$, they’re not all linearly independent, right? Are there finitely many linearly independent elements?
lugita15:
oh also since C_i(X) is free abelian over Z, Hom(C_i(X), Z) = C_i(X) right
and thus the cohomology is only dependent on the dualization of the boundary maps
Model theory is a branch of logic, this problem actually came up in the context of model theory.
model theory sounds dope
Computable model theory to be precise.
yes
yea ok
I’m more of a proof theory man myself. Proof theory is more connected to the very foundations of mathematics.
makes sense
i dont know anything about logic tbh
something to fix
but i have lots of other things to do >_>
dont fix it if it aint broke
Then read Godel, Escher, Bach. I read it in 8th grade, it’s what got me interested.
@sturdy marsh Did you see my question here?
linearly independent over what?
Fp?
every element is torsion so the only independent set over Z is the empty set
@sturdy marsh I think linearly independent over $\mathbb{Z}_{p^{k+1}}$ is the relevant notion?
lugita15:
nah I don't think it's true
let x be an order whatever element from the prufer part
(x) \oplus (1,0,0,...), (x) \oplus (0,1,0,0...), etc. are all independent
yes
yea makes sense
and then universal coeff thm gives us isomorphisms w/ the nth homology group
@sturdy marsh OK yeah, you’re right, there are infinitely many independent elements.
@sturdy marsh By the way, earlier I had posted this question on MathOverflow. I just got an answer, and the formula at the end they give seems slightly different from yours:
they seem to be using your notation
i was doing it for elts of order p^k
not p^k+1
@sturdy marsh I'm not talking about that, I'm talking about the fact that they seem to be raising p to the k^2 power.
They're doing m^k, and m = p^k(p-1).
I think they're wrong.
theyre assuming the number of prufer factors is k
set N = k in my solution and you get the same thing
I assumed there were N copies of the prufer group
Oh, that's a weird assumption to make.
That is the whole answer.
But here: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/377554/how-many-elements-of-each-order-are-there-in-this-p-group
alright
fair warning this doxes you i think?
yeah they assumed k(or k+1 depending on notation) = N
@maiden ocean I dox myself every day of the week and twice on Sundays.
sad!
rip
well, the weirdest thing we know about you is that you do logic so you're probably okay lmao
there seems to be quite a lot of them
that's a decent number
i know like 02139402934 234213421 3algebraists
they're probably overrepresented online too
yeah for some reason everyone on mathoverflow does AG
there's a few unis with a lot of logicians
I've heard berkeley has quite a few
UCLA has over 20
I think
graduate students
there's a lot of them too
wonder why
do you?
i guess it's just because for whatever reasons there were initially some good analysts there
and then it just builds on that
those people attract analyst grad students
etc etc
there are a few really good analysts even right now lol
who are the big analysts these days 🤔 im not really familiar lol
terry tao
besides tao 
I do not know many analysts
Tao
james maynard if you count ANT
cant believe no one mentioned gomez

yeah, i'm not sure what people mean when they say there are more algebraists
online
online there's definitely a greater number of algebraists
more visible at any rate
There would be more analysts if analysis was better
but where is "online"?

the internet
hello chmonkey
so, the number of algebraits that use the internet is more than the number of analysts that use the internet?
wait this isn't #chill
yes
analysts are boomers
they don't use the internet
at least that's my hypothesis
i really don't know why there aren't more analysts online but there does seem to be a gap
Yeah most algebraists are weebs
Is that true? @uncut girder
(g)Let X be a G-set and let H < G. Then X can be regarded in a natural way as an H-set.
(h)With reference to (g), the orbits in X under H are the same as the orbits in X under G.
False for h since H may have less "action"/"permutation power" than G. An example of this is to take G as D4 and H as {e,r^2} where r^2 is rotation twice. Then take X as a G-Set containing the vertices, edges,diagonals,middle lines, and center.
Then H would have two orbits for the vertices while G only has 1.
I would like clarification on "action"/"permutation power"
don't know of another way to phrase it. I want to say that elements of H moves elements of X to less places compared to what elements of G do.
can someone check my work
yup h is false
how about g?
(just write down the action)
I wrote g is true
thought of it intuitively
I don't know definition of H-Set but I just assumed it is another type of G-Set
the only properties needed to be satisfied for something to be a G-Set is that
1.ex=x
2.(g_1g_2)x=g_1(g_2x)
if thats true for G, its also true for H
since h has identity and g_1,g_2 can be elements of H
@golden pasture Two questions, What is your name since I don't have correct locale downloaded so I can't see your name.
Is it true that every G-Set is isomorphic to a disjoint union of left coset G-Sets?
My answer is that since a G-Set is just another set, it is saying:
Is a set A ismomorphic to a disjoint union of its left cosets?
which is true since a disjoint union of cosets of a set A equals A
"a cute cat" literally
sounds about right
Hello how do I show that there is an irreducible polynomial of degree p with exactly 2 complex roots?
For context, I'm trying to prove that there is always a field extension with galois group Sp
My professor provided a proof of "degree p irreducible function with single pair of complex root over Q has galois group of Sp"
I guess I have to use that
I'm wondering about how.
<@&286206848099549185>
=/
maybe there is some easy way to construct polynomials with many number of real* roots, then eisenstein criterion?
not sure
i was thinking maybe descarte rule of signs, but i guess that gives an upper bound on the number of real roots, not a lower bound
Yep.. lower bound is more helpful in this case
I wonder if it is possible to recursively construct functions with n-2 real roots for degree n
Perhaps slightly modifying a function with n-2 roots in Q? hmm.
maybe something to do with the fact that if a polynomial has n-2 roots then its derivative must have n-3 roots? (ie it must be very wiggly)
Success!
If $G$ is an Abelian group and $A$ and $B$ are subgroups of $G$ which are both direct summands of $G$, then under what circumstances is $A\oplus B$ a direct summand of $G$? Does it suffice that $A\cap B = 0$, or is more required?
lugita15:
the orders match
like the order of |A||B| is |G|
and also (|A|,|B|) = 1
and they are normal
for an abelian group
of order xy for some x and y coprime
you can always find two such subgroups
@chilly ocean
@solemn rain To be clear, I'm interested in the case when $G$ is infinite. And also I'm not asking for $G$ to equal $A\oplus B$, I just want $A\oplus B$ to be a direct summand of $G$.
lugita15:
oh sorry
I'm working through some of Rotman's group theory text. I'm given that G = <a> is cyclic of order rs, with gcd(r,s) = 1. I need to show there are unique b,c in G with b of order r, c of order s, and a = bc.
I know there exist integers x,y such that xr + ys = gcd(r,s) = 1.
So my sort of idea is to let b = a^ys, c = a^xr. This makes their product a.
But if I set b and c like that, are their orders as required?
I'm just unsure about the properties of x,y
I get stuck trying to get their product to be a when I do that
Taking their product gives me a^(r + s)
I sort of got stuck trying to get r + s = 1
Why are you taking a product
It says we need a = bc
mb
if I set b = a^s, c = a^r, how does a = bc?
since s and r are coprime
any element of order r is of the form a^ks and any element of order s is of the form a^jr
This isn't even using coprime actually
You can show just show this from the order of a being rs
now we want ks + jr = 1 mod rs
by coprimeness we can find such k,j so that ks + jr = 1
Yeah this was sort of my idea I mentioned above
and basically if we enforce k,j to be positive, but within [1,r] and [j,s] we get uniqueness
this is because a^{ks} = a^{(k+k'r}s}
basically since a^{rs} = 1 we can change k by a multiple of r and do nothing
and can change s by a multiple of r and do nothing
so we can WLOG k,j to be in the ranges I specified since it changes nothing
Then it's just showing that there's only one pair (k,j) in [1,r] x [1,s] for which the equation ks + jr = 1 mod rs holds
In your range above, should that second range be [1,s]?
yeah i jus corrected it haha
Does that reduction make sense?
It's a bit hard maybe to see that this actually does it but
I think it's easier to assume that we had non-unique elements
It doesn't make sense immediately, but I think I can get it
then we get like k,k' so that say b = a^{ks} and b' = a^{k's}
(this is saying b isn't unique)
yeah
from here we can shift k and k' to be inside of [1,s]
yeah?
but once we do that, k can't be equal to k'
else b = b'
so this gives us more than one solution to
ks + jr = 1 mod rs
where (k,j) is in [1,r] x [1,s]
So really we're arguing by the contrapositive
How do I know I can find k, j in that range?
this is by bezout's lemma
we can always find SOME k,j so that ks + jr = 1
since s,r are coprime
RIght I get that
from here just take that k and add multiples of r
OH!
and take j and add multiples of s
I see
Okay, this is clear now
NP
There's also a nice counting argument
👍
number of elements of order a is phi(n/a)
Yeah, and this bit of the exercises is about euler phi
Note that any element of form bc(|b|=r,|c|=s) generates <a>
And there are phi(r)phi(s) elements of that form
There are phi(rs=n) generators of G
And the second part of this question is showing phi(rs) = phi(r)phi(s)
Implying any generator of G is of that form(since gcd (r,s)=1)
nvm, That's your answer
Appreciate the help in here. I'll let it sit for the day and try to reproduce it this evening or something
but a^ks isn't always order r
I think the idea works pretty much in this same fashion
Yeah this was what I was wondering
but certainly any element of order s MUST be of the form a^ks
Yeah
Which is probably enough I think
And I can still force it to be within that range
Right
So I think it does go through unhindered
probably
so we need k to be coprime to r
This still sounds true IMO
But if we choose k in [1,r) it should be fine right?
I think so
oh yeah
nice
or hmm
I think this is gonna require more weird coprime stuff
I think we don't strictly need [1,r) either
we just need some like
[ir + 1, i(r + 1))
since I think we should still only have one solution
in someting of the form [ir + 1,i(r + 1)) x [ks + 1, k(s + 1))
and then by being able to have a bit more freedom we can always take it to be coprime or something
tbh I don't know off the top of my head but coprimeness sounds like it probably means this stuff is true lol
oh wait
THIS IS EASY
take
ks + jr = 1 mod rs
Or wait
oops
Well, maybe this still works
k isn't coprime to r so we have an a with ak' = k and ar' = r
then
ak's + ajr' = 1 mod rs
factor out the a so we get
a(k's + jr') = 1 mod rs
and uh...
hmm I want to conclude that this is bad somehow







