#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 509 of 407
wtf
thats so cool
yea thats what im writing
tysm
im done with rings in AM π
trash structure anyways
now onto vec spaces over rings lmfaao
i know normal G-module
is virtual different?
usually "virtual" means it's a formal sum of G-modules
with possibly negative coefficients
so if X and Y are G-modules then "X-Y" is a virtual G-module
cool
could someone help me understand why v is preserved in the successor ordinal case?
okay so M_a and N_a will always intersect trivially, as M and N do, so you just need to check that they span F_a
clearly they span F_b still
and our big process with the Qs involves making sure the generators of each x_{ij} are in F_a
so I think I get it
and if I understand correctly the process terminates because we strictly increase F_a at each successor ordinal step? so if we didn't hit F eventually we'd get an injection from Ord to 2^F which is a no-no
i really want to help you as you help me everytime but i know nothing of what ur saying haha
i think i got it
okay there's this lemma that if $x \in M$ and $M$ is projective we can find a free direct summand of $M$ containing $x$
shamrock:
we first find a free module with $F = M \oplus N$ and write $x = \sum_{i = 1}^n a_i u_i$ in a basis, then write $u_i = y_i + z_i$ for $y_i \in M, z_i \in N$, so that $x = \sum_{i = 1}^n a_i y_i$
shamrock:
and because we actually chose this basis to be miniml somehow we can replace $u_1,\ldots,u_n$ in the basis with $y_1,\ldots,y_n$.
shamrock:
so clearly this means $\langle y_1,\ldots,y_n\rangle$ is a free submodule of $M$ containing $x$ which is a direct summand of $F$
shamrock:
but it then goes says "hence also of M"
which I do not get
so let $P = \langle y_1,\ldots,y_n$ and $Q$ be such that $P \oplus Q = F$. can we just say $M = P \oplus (Q \cap M)$?
shamrock:
that feels wrong, I don't see why those two would generate $M$....
shamrock:
okay so given any element $t$ of $M$ we can write $t = a_1 y_1 + \ldots + a_n y_n + q$ where $q \in Q$. Then uhhh $q = m + n$ for $m \in M, n \in N$
shamrock:
oh and in fact $t = a_1 y_1 + \ldots + a_n y_n + m$
shamrock:
but there's no reason that $m \in Q$
shamrock:
oh i forgot to say up top but this is all over a local ring in case that matters
okay let $Q' = {m \in M : \exists n \in N, m + n \in Q}$. This is clearly a submodule of $M$ and as I showed above $M = \langle y_1,\ldots,y_n\rangle + Q'$. Is this a direct sum?
shamrock:
that is, suppose $z = a_1 y_1 + \ldots + a_n y_n$ is an element of $Q'$. Then there's an $n \in N$ such that $a_1 + \ldots + a_n y_n + n \in Q$. The decomposition $F = P \oplus Q$ and the fact that $P \cap N \subseteq M \cap N = 0$ shows that $n \in Q$, so also $(a_1 y_1 + \ldots a_n y_n + n) - n \in Q$. But this clearly implies $a_1 = \ldots = a_n = 0$
shamrock:
blech that should not have been hard, I'm missing something obvious
omfg I'm dumb
start at the top
let $P = \langle y_1,\ldots,y_n\rangle$ and choose $Q$ such that $F = P \oplus Q$
shamrock:
I claim $M = P \oplus (Q \cap M)$. It's clear that these two intersect trivially, so we just need to show any element of $M$ can be written as a sum of $P$s and $(Q \cap M)$s. Let $x \in M$ and write $x = p + q$ in $F$ for $p \in P, q \in Q$. Then $q = x - p \in M$, so in fact $q \in Q \cap M$ as desired.
shamrock:
the proof that a projective module over a local ring is free is whack
If I have a ring R with it's composition law: $x^2-x \in R$, then is it correct to assume that $x^2 = x$ for any $x \in R$ ?
canfly:
No
Can you guys help me if C and G are true or false??
@carmine fossil how can I prove that $x^2 = x$ ?
canfly:
What is the original question?
@solemn rain im so confused what's "trivial subgroups" , does it mean {e}
Yes
Let (R, +, *) a ring with &x^2 - x \in Z(R)& for any &x \in R&. Then prove R is abelian.
yes
@carmine fossil here is the original question
Ok
@solemn rain well I assumed that &(x+y)^2 - (x+y) \in R& for any &x,y \in R&
I feel like there must be something with this center who will help me prove that it's commutative
yea
because the center is already commutative
so if I can prove that R is Z(R) then it's commutative
but seems too easy to be just that
first say x^2-x is in Z(R) for some x
play around that
u know that (x^2-x)(y)=y(x^2-x) for any y
in the ring
cna u show that xy=yx
@solemn rain so as it's e and itself, should be true?
yea thos eare the trivial subgroups
for (g) i know 1 2 3 4 6 8 12 24 orders, i have no idea how g^2 is identity
@solemn rain I see, but is that enough to prove commutativity?
yeda
ok thanks then
how about the (f)?? i think su(n) is normal subgroup of U(4)
wahts U(4)
okay
SU(4) is special unitary 4x4
i think the element of U(4) belongs to SU(4)
so i guessed like it would be normal subgroup
but im doubting muyself
can someone recommend me some good sources from where I can learn abstract algebra?
check pinned in #book-recommendations @wintry yacht
so from my poor logic, i guessed it'd be normal subgroup
so U(4) is the set of all 4x4 unitary matrices
unitary meaning its inverse is its transpose
now for any unitary matrix
the determinant is = to 1
1 or -1 tbh
for det = 1, isn't it for SU
yea
okay so 1 or -1 for U
so it's normal iff ghg^-1
yes and h in H
okay thankss
Does anyone have ideas for this problem?
Let $A,B$ be noetherian rings and $f\colon A\to B$ a ring homomorphism. Let $M$ be a finite $B$-module, and $f^\colon\text{Spec }B\to \text{Spec }A$ the corresponding map, show that $f^(\text{Ass}_B(M)) = \text{Ass}_A(M)$
Chmonkey:
So first thing to note is that one can show that $f^*(\text{Ass}_B(M))\subseteq \text{Ass}_A(M)$ even without the Noetherian or finiteness hypotheses, you can just manually take a prime in the first set and show that it exists in the latter set.
Chmonkey:
For the other direction though, I'm really not sure. If you take a prime ideal of the form ann$_A(x) \in \text{Ass}_A(M)$, and then look at $f(\text{ann}_A(x))$ this certainly is a subset of ann$_B(x)$, but it might not be completely equal, and there's not even a reason it should be prime. Finite Noetherianness means I can find a maximal element of the set of annihilators containing ann$_B(x)$ and that this is prime, but I don't see why it should have to pull back to ann$_A(x)$
Chmonkey:
heh Ass
I could try and do some weird localization stuff... but it would complicate things + I don't know neat stuff about modules (finite or otherwise) over local Noetherian rings (although I know there's a lot of stuff about Noetherian local rings, I just don't know them yet and I don't imagine it's actually necessary).
what is the exact relationship between R^2 and C? it seems like they should be isomorphic but in what context, if any, is that appropriate to state?
Both are 2 dimensional vector spaces over R, this leads to them being isomorphic as vector spaces, and gives an isomorphism of their underlying additive group
The multiplication of C is special tho
R^2 is not even a field
there's a lot of differences between the two, pretty much all you can say is you can add things inside of them the same way
this is fine for some purposes in complex analysis or something but the two are way different
good question
Hmmmm
Like using the inclusion $A/\text{ann}_A(x)\rightarrow B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ construct an associated prime $p\subset B$ for $B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ such that $\text{ann}_A(x)=f^{-1}(p)$ (this is where you will need noetherian hypothesis ...) and then using the inclusion $B/\text{ann}_B(x)\subset M$ conclude that $p\in \text{Ass}_B(M)$ .
WhyamIsohot?:
If we're creating an associated prime for B/ann_B(x) why do we need to assume that M is finite as a B-module?
Or is the claim here that we don't actually need M finite?
Yes M being finite is rebundant
okay, I had a suspicion that it might have been
The other part of this is just to say that (then Ass_A(M) is a finite set)
Even A neednt be noetherian
huh, interesting
All we need is B to be noetherian
Cool, that's nice
I guess it makes sense that if we consider "restriction of scalars" that I'd hope a module with finitely many associated primes stays having finitely many associated primes
@next obsidian i think thus is the problem I did at Oxford lol
The one which I wrote down on a whiteboard and said to email me if anyone solved it
But then I solved it a couple days later with no email π
@solemn rain yo homeboy where did you learn group stuff from
Lmao
Here's my final proof'
Wait wut
Conversely, suppose we have ann$A(x)$ an associated prime, then we have an injective map $A/\text{ann}A(x)\to B/\text{ann}B(x)$, and we see that the map on specs must hit all minimal primes of $A/\text{ann}A(x)$, this is because for any injective map $A\to B$, the associated map on specs has this property. If $\mathfrak{p}$ is a minimal prime of $A$, then $A\mathfrak{p}$ has only $\mathfrak{p}$ as its minimal prime, and since localization is exact (thus $B\mathfrak{p}$ is not zero) this implies it is in the image of Spec$B\mathfrak{p}\to \text{Spec }A\mathfrak{p}$, and thus $\mathfrak{p}$ is in the image of Spec $B\to \text{Spec }A$. We see also that any minimal prime in the image of the map Spec $B\to \text{Spec }A$ is mapped to by a minimal prime of $B$, suppose $\mathfrak{p}\subseteq A$ is a minimal prime, and mapped to by $\mathfrak{q}\subseteq B$. Take a minimal prime $\mathfrak{r}\subseteq \mathfrak{q}$, then the image of $\mathfrak{r}$ is a prime that is a subset of $\mathfrak{p}$, and thus is equal.
Chmonkey:
To go back to our specific case, since $0$ is a minimal prime of $A/\text{ann}_A(x)$, there exists a minimal prime $\mathfrak{p}\subseteq B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ mapping to it, and we identify this with a prime of $B$ which is minimal among primes containing ann$_B(x)$. We see that this is in Ass$_B(B/\text{ann}_B(X))$, to do so we show that it is a minimal prime of Supp$(B/\text{ann}_B(x))$, remembering that this is a finite module over a Noetherian ring. Consider that any prime being in the support of $B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ is equivalent to containing ann$B(x)$, as this is the same as saying that ann$B(x)B\mathfrak{p} \neq B\mathfrak{p}$, and this is true if and only if ann$B(x)$ does not contain a unit of $B\mathfrak{p}$, if and only if ann$_B(x) \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$. From here it follows that it is a minimal element of the support, and thus a minimal element of the associated primes, and since $B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ injects into $M$ we see that this prime $\mathfrak{p} \in \text{Ass}_B(M)$. We see further that $f^{-1}(\mathfrak{p}) = \text{ann}_A(x)$, due to the fact that $\mathfrak{p}$ when considered in $B/\text{ann}_B(x)$ lies over $0 \subseteq A/\text{ann}_A(x)$ which lies over ann$_A(x) \subseteq A$
Chmonkey:
whats the source btw is it from vakil ?
This is from Matsumura
@chilly ocean dummit foote
no it isn't enough to do that
do you know the formal definition of a presentation?
@chilly ocean
quotient of free group?
cool
What group and presentation are you thinking of?
For what group?
Oh sorry I just didn't see the D_n message
until now
okay so
Because those relations are satisfied, you get a homomorphism Ο : F(a, b)/N -> D_n where N is the normal closure of {a^n b^-2, abab^-1}
Does that make sense?
well, people like to use presentations without actually defining what that means
and if you're doing that there's no way to prove anything
because you don't have a definition
ask them
I can't help you
oof
Okay fine you can maybe do this
show that any word can be broken up into a small number of words
Using those relations
Like you can assume it's a^i b^j using the second one
yes
Yes
It's good to figure out miniquestions like that/sanity check yourself, good job
So I'm using the second relation here
To say any word of as and bs can be written as a^i b^j
why is that true?
I was actually trying to figure it out lol
actually wait
I don't think I believe your presentation
maybe I do but I'm concerned
How were you able to show b^2 = 1 from those relations?
you can't use the fact that b is a reflection
b is just some symbol
yes
oh
That simplifies things lol
okay so
then I have a proof
you can use the second relation
Get a^i b^j
wlog 0 <= 1 < n and 0 <= j < 2
how many possible products are there?
Right
How big is Dn?
Exactly
So these relations are good enough to distinguish all elements of the group
Not sure exactly how to phrase it
wym
oh
well
You have some big word
Of as and bs
but the second one always let's you turn ba into a^-1 b
so I keep swapping the rightmost b forward
this works even if it's b^-1 btw
and then you do the same for the second rightmost b
and so on
yes
Sorry
it's the rightmost among bs
but maybe our word is ba^2
yup
I'm sort of describing an algorithm here
proving that it preserves equality of words under each step
and then when it's done all the bs are to the right of all the as
I wouldn't phrase it like this in an algebra course ofc
so what I'm really doing
Is we have this surjection F(a, b)/N -> D_n
And I've shown the left group is at most as big as the one on the right
so the map is necessarily a bijection
By pigeonhole
Does that make sense?
We showed each element of the left can be represented as a^i b^j, so there's at most 2n elements
Yup, np
I really hate this kind of thing lol
I've seen it in intro algebra classes before
my prof for grad algebra did something like this but more based
he put a presentation on our midterm after never talking about them before
but he was like "cmon yall can read what they are in the book"
and we'd covered free groups
Yeah mine was like that too
It swapped fields for modules and did Galois theory in the second quarter
But it was the same amount of content as ug algebra
Just a slightly different choice of topics
man now I'm nostalgic for 11 months ago π’
I was a different man...
Lmao
I'm taking advanced comm alg with the prof in spring
Looking forward to it a lot
Hopefully
idk lol
We covered a fair amount of comm alg last spring in grad algebra
Suppose $f : A \to C, g : B \to C$ are surjective ring maps and $A, B$ are noetherian. I want to show $A\times_C B$ is noetherian.
Let $I = \ker f$ and let $\pi : A\times_C B \to B$ be projection onto the second coordinate. Then $\pi$ is surjective since if $b \in B$, we can use surjectivity of $f$ to find $a \in A$ with $f(a) = g(b)$, meaning $(a, b) \in A\times_C B$. Clearly $I \times 0 \leq \ker \pi$, and if $(a, b) \in \ker \pi$ then $b = 0$ and $f(a) = g(b) = g(0) = 0$, so we get the reverse inclusion as well. Note that since $B$ is a noetherian ring and a quotient of $A\times_C B$, it is also a noetherian $A\times_C B$-module. By the short exact sequence $0 \to I \times 0 \to A \times_C B \to B \to 0$, in order to show $A \times_C B$ is noetherian it suffices to show $I \times 0$ is (as an $A\times_C B$-module).
We show that submodules of $I \times 0$ are all of the form $J \times 0$ for $J\leq I$ an ideal of $A$. It's clear they have to be of this form for some subgroup $J$, and if $j \in J$ and $a \in A$, we can find $b \in B$ such that $f(a) = g(b)$ (by the same trick as before) and then necessarily $(aj, 0) = (a, b) (j, 0) \in J \times 0$. This shows $J$ is an ideal of $A$.
Now if we have an ascending chain of $A\times_C B$-submodules of $I\times 0$ it's really just a chain of ideals of $A$, and so has to terminate
shamrock:
@next obsidian
I couldn't quite get the idea I had earlier about $(AΓ_C B)/(I\times J) \cong C$ to work, but I realized that $(A Γ_C B)/(I \times 0) \cong B$ and submodules of $I \times 0$ are much more constrained so it works out. I did manage to show $I \times J$ was finitely generated but I couldn't quite get noetherianness lol
Is this what you did?
ping me if you reply
@latent anvil that is not what I did.
I used the previous problem
Also dang heβs gonna do local cohomology in the Spring?? Dope
Stop doing that
and be stuck with them forever?
Look up after struggling for a sufficiently long time
whats a suifficiently long time
How long do you try before giving up?
idk like
20 mins is extreme
maximum
earlier it woudl take me 3 mins to figre i couldnt do it
but shamrock advised me to take longer
haha is this good enough
Try atleast an hr
bro listen
solving math problems
is just tricks really
like either you see it or not
tahts it
its so trash honestly what do i do
99% its just doing this 1 trick and thats it
Can say the same about physics
lmfao so you agree
Or literally any field in existence
what a trash field
'harder' problems are just doing more tricks and having to know more sutff
thats it
trash
99% its just doing this 1 trick and thats it
@solemn rain Definitely not "1" "trick"
doesnt matter really just trash
So, what do you think is not trash?
idk
im just saying bro
problems are just getting these tricks
thats it
knowing ohh did you know that bla bla bla
no 'creativity' bullshit
false advertisment
anyways this is #groups-rings-fields
so an algebra problem: how can i show that the set of prime ideals has a minimal element
wtf 20 mins?
Dude I spend like upwards of 3 hours on a problem before I try and look anything up
Anyway, Zorn's
problems are just getting these tricks
Being mathematically precise, what do you call a trick?
Is understanding a certain property, and interrelationships between different properties, or their implications a trick in your opinion?
I'm also inclined to believe you believe these to be tricks because you just look them up after struggling for not even half of an hour
if you spent serious time on the problems you'd come up with them yourself and see the natural path of thought which led to discovering that method and it wouldn't feel like a trick
(Some things though are just tricks IMO, but they come few and far between)
I guess what most people think is a trick is actually ingeniousness of someone's persevered efforts.
I'm inclined to believe the quote by person I don't remember which says something is a trick if you only ever use it once
and if you use it twice it isn't a trick
Just the fact that we're not able to come up on our own in a given time period doesn't mean the proof/solution is a trick/farce.
I'm inclined to believe the quote by person I don't remember which says something is a trick if you only ever use it once
I second that opinion. Although that makes tricks more interesting, since they'll require genuinely creative thinking.
He might just be seeing anything as a trick
People who don't see the depth in math tend to write it off as a bunch of formulas/tricks(my high school physics teacher who had a PhD is one example for me)
Is the normalizer of a group G actually the set of all centralizers of G?
alright, thanks @knotty mason
that doesn't look like the definition of a scheme to me
it doesn't even say "scheme" anywhere in there
it does
oh sorry
under the following scheme:
i mean, this is just a regular old map
so I was confused
yes
that is a map
are you confused about how the map is defined?
if you're asking about the wording, that's not a scheme in the algebraic geometry sense, it's a scheme in the common english usage sense http://prntscr.com/ubomdb
if you're asking about defining that map, the goal of that exposition is to prove that Z_6 is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_3. To prove that, we just need to find an isomorphism between them. It doesn't matter how we found that isomorphism, just that we can find one. And the one that they wrote down is an isomorphism
(or if you're asking about something else, maybe someone else can answer cuz I need to run)
Is any finite length module the sum of length one submodules?
okay chmonkey I have a dumb question, does finite length means there's a finite chain up to your module with equal quotient simple?
and length 1 just means simple?
I think Z/4Z over Z is a counterexample
any way to write it as a sum of submodules has to include Z/4Z, which is not itself simple
@next obsidian
What
Are you thinking of klein Four?
yup
fuck
ugggggggggggggggggggggggg
And this is length 2
Okay so maaaaaybe
let's think
okay what are the associated primes?
is it just (2)?
2 probably?
I forget what an associated prime is lol
0 isn't even one
fuck it really is just 2
God damn it
okay wait a second hold up???
ugh
nope
Z/4Z = Z/4Z
and the prime it belongs to is (2) which is maximal
That wasn't meant for you to understand it at all
that was me thinking out loud via discord
Okay so this is the thing right
I can sort of dumb this down
Let M be a finite length module <==> noeth and Artinian
suppose it has only 1 associated prime
show that $\sqrt{\text{Ann}(M)}$ is that associated prime
Chmonkey:
You can do this on the length 1 case since the module is cyclic
and via some stuff (like induction and some other theorems) if I could write M as a sum of length 1 submodules then I get it for M as well
Well the only way I can see getting length 1 stuff is using SESs
Like
Could you maybe inductively prove this by showing it's preserved by SESs?
Oof
the issue is with an SES
you get Ass(M) a subset of the union of the Ass of the two outer ones
@open torrent yeah, I understand everything else in the image except the part where they map like (0,0) to 0 and (0,1) to 4
I donβt know exactly how to explain why I donβt get this, but it feels like theyβre just renaming elements of the set to make it isomorphic
and same for Att(M)
where Att(M) is this thing which for our purposes is just {\sqrt{Ann(M)}} due to the work I already did
I put it on SE
but since this is some whacky thing that's really odd no one's responded
If A were Noetherian I could actually be done
But I don't know of any way to like "Noetherianify" a ring
and module lol
hmm
So one thing is
the associated ideal of M contains sqrt(Ann(M))
but I don't see how I can show the other one
M is f.g. and if I can show that for each generator that ann(x) is prime I can get it
via the like reverse prime avoidance
I tried to show this by taking a minimal set of generators but I couldn't make it work
Oh sorry I misread ass(x) as ann(x)
ann(1) = 4Z isn't prime
ugh
Yup
For me it feels like if someone said:
$(\bZ, +)$ is isomorphic to $(\bR, +)$. These structures are isomorphic under addition, under the following scheme (interval notation):
All elements in $[0,1) \mapsto 0$. \\
All elements in $[1,2) \mapsto 1$. \\
All elements in $[2,3) \mapsto 2$. \\
etc.\\
For example, $3.5 + 4.2 = 7.7$, which translates in the other system as $3 + 4 = 7$.
I know I'm wrong here but I tried to make an analogy, I don't quite understand how you can just map numbers
abs_0:
They aren't isomorphic under that tho
if you have a finite set
you can define a map by listing where every elemetn goes
the example you were looking at only had like 6 things to map i think
yeah there were 6 elements in each group there
You could define it on each element, then verify it's a group homomorphism
then verify it's bijective
ohhhh I think I get it
so it's not about the numbers being equal, it's more that they have the same number of elements and if you map the numbers like that, then addition is preserved
yes
ok that makes sense lol
couldn't you just compare the multiplication tables?
That's essentially what this is doing
(for something small enough obviously)
this is just renaming the elements
ok I may be dumb
a map between two sets of the same size need not be bijective
it has to be surjective and injective
but in order for two groups to have a bijection don't they have to have the same cardinality
o
Ah, each element in $\bZ_2 \times \bZ_3$ was mapped to a unique element in $\bZ_6$
abs_0:
yes
ok, wow
but it's more than that
it's also additive
which makes it a group hom
protip also: for finite sets of the same size bijective <==> surjective <==> injective
proof: pigeonhole
wait does a <==> b <==> c mean a <==> b and b <==> c and a <==> c
okay so
(a <==> b) <==> C means something different
And maybe we shouldn't use a <==> b <==> c because of ambiguity
But what chmonkey meant above is equivalence
@latent anvil I realized I can quotient out by Ann(M) and consider M an A/Ann(M) module
In this case we want to show that the nilradical is an associated prime
We also know that every endomorphism map given by multiplication by a for all a in A is either surjective or nilpotent
hmm
Makes sense I think
I looked at the first part of the SE post
Wait if x -> ax is nilpotent and Ann(M) = 0 isn't a nilpotent in A?
well this is only after we have quotiented out
so a is really an equivalence class
Sure but you're wloging it right?
So assume Ann(M) = 0
you're right
then every element is either surjective onto M or nilpotent
yup
but I need some x in M such that ann(x) is the set of a which aren't surjective
wait so you want to show the nilradical is the annihilator of some element?
so I don't need that bit
why?
Uhhh
Whatever I'll just assume you assumed it
Oh yeah sorry
is either surj or nilpotent
Yup
you can show then that sqrt(Ann(M)) is prime
So the nilradical is prime
yup
yeah
there's a minimum prime even
Idk I'm just thinking
So I have idea
can I embed
A/nilradical into M?
or something
this would give it to you
hmmm
I feel like
Yeah I see what you mean
the natural way you embed the ring is as
like take map A -> M by a maps to ax
then mod out by ann(x)
but I don't have a distinguished x to use here
lol you're going in circles
yeah
Can we assume M is finitely generated? I remember you using that above
Yes
It's finite lenght
so noeth and artinina
But we don't have assumptions on A
other than, now, that it's reduced
Oh lol I totally forgot it was finite length
yeah
That's important
we also have inductive stuff for all submodules
but I don't see how to relate it back up
Hmm okay so
let me think
take the set of nilpotent a
look at like uhh, the a-torsion of each one
we want this intersection to be non-empty
is the idea
a-torsion within M?
yeah
That isn't even quite enough
if I take something inside the intersection
ann(x) contains the nilradical
Wait hold up
okay so easy thing duh
Umm
there exists one associated prime
Any associated prime contains the nilradical
Oh you said that
oof
Can there be more than one associated prime?
I don't need a proof
nope
Cool
I am assuming there isn't haha
I showed that
one associated prime <==> secondary
for a finite length module
Sick
But the proof relies on using the fact that the associated prime is sqrt{Ann(M)}
I used that for doing it via induction
So I need to show it now
wait I'm confused
do you know M has exactly one associated prime or not?
wait
Isn't there stuff about minimal primes in Ass(M)?
Like from primary decomp?
Idk I barely remember this
I do know that
Ah I checked stacks and you need noetherian
Wtfffff
For what I was thinking of
Oh okay
Yeah o know what ur thinking of
Minimal primes such that thereβs a submodule such that the quotient is iso to A/p
Minimal primes of uhh supp
And minimal primes of Ass
So I did already prove one associated prime
I want to show itβs the radical of the annihilator
So like what I was thinking of was whether Ass(M) has to contain some minimal prime of A
Because if so we're done I think?
Yeah
but that's probably not true in general
Hmmm
Yeah yeah good catch
Yeah I mean what we really care about is minimal among primes containing Ann(M)
Then the two coincide
For our problem
and there's no way to like, zorn
based
It being coprimary (one associated prime)
Is equivalent to the map give by mult by a either injective or nilpotent
But if you remember
Yup
Surj endomorphisms are bijection a
When the module is finite or w/e
Itβs in Chapter 2 haha
Oh yeah yeah I remember this
Section*
So yeah haha
Blech
And the example u gave with Z/4Z
Z is Noeth
So I wonder if you need a Noetherian hypothesis for this
wait dude
But I doubt it because I managed to show both Ass(M) and Att(M) are finite
hang on
We said we could wlog Ann(M) = 0 right?
and M is finitely generated and noetherian
Yeah
doesn't that mean A is wlog noetherian?
Lmaoooo
I'm looking at the thing
Yup
Totally works lmao
wlog Ann(M) = 0 and so A is noetherian
Bro BASED
I'm a god it's true
Wooooot
You should double check that this is actually wlog btw
So now all I need to do is show itβs a direct sum of secondary submodules belonging to maximal ideals
I think so
I don't really understand the assumptions
So
It's definitely still finite length
and I think Ass(M) shouldn't change?
All I need to do is show it still has 1 associated prime
Or that itβs secondary
Iβm pretty sure I convinced myself itβs secondary
If the map mult by a isnβt surj
Then taking a representative that one isnβt
yeah if you take a representative of an element of A/ann(M) it's action on M is the same
So all the maps are either surj or nilp
Well
Pretty sure
Yeah
Massively based
Dang I forgot about that
I said I didnβt know a way to Noetherianify a ring and module
Okay wait this is huge tho
I can consider any like finite?? Noetherian Module
As a module over a Noetherian ring
By doing this trick right?
I feel like this proof also works for artinian
You get that A is a submodule of an artinian module right?
I think products of artinian modules are still artinian...
hmm
If itβs also Noetherian absolutely
Cuz finite length still
Right?
Just go in each component one at a time
To get your composition series
Okay so A is artinian
If not Noetherian I hope so
And thus noetherian
And M is faithful
This is pog imo
A has finitely many primes
Right but... we already knew it was Noetherian haha
their intersection is the nilradical
Okay so this is nice tho
Any Noetherian module
Is a module over a Noetherian ring
dude
Im a god
Sham
yes
oh hell yeah
One of us unironically should
I will I already up voted it
π
That Ass(M) = Att(M)
ahh okay
So itβs p-secondaey for p = sqrt(Ann(M))
Att(M) is the set of attached primes
= primes for which a quotient of M is p-secondary
But a quotient of a p-secondary module is p-secondary
Okay so I get why M is p secondary
but I don't get why a quotient can't be q secondary for a different q
Basically why is $\sqrt{Ann(M)} = \sqrt{Ann(M/N)}$ for all $N$?
I get why a quotient is still secondary
You showed that Ann(M/N) is a subset of the first one there
Is what I did I believe
so if a in Ann(M/N) then aM subseteq N
so it isn't surjective
so then a is nilpotent
hmm yes based
(as maps)
got it
I was looking at the chicken scratch I was writing yesterday haha
it took me a sec
and in the case N = M the radical isn't prime
So I guess we exclude it from the definition of Att
All primes are maximal+nilradical prime means there's only one prime ideal, right?
Yeah
Uee
what does nilradical prime really mean?
if a product is nilpotent, one of them is
wonder what that means for the
G E O M E T R Y
how did you know M has an associated prime? Is this always true?
Sorry lol I'm not good with this stuff
I'm assuming it
first I showed that for length n M, that being coprimary (having one associated prime) is equivalent to being secondary
Ah okay right
then using both of those I want to show Ass(M) = Att(M)
Showing secondary => coprimary was hard and suuuuper fucking whack dude
Right right the coprimaru thing
First I had to show it even had an associated prime
I used the fact that maximal annihilator ideals are prime
and the artinian thing
I looked at like Ax_1
then for an x_2 in there looked at Ax_2
assuming ann(x_1) was properly contained in ann(x_2)
wait dude
I can eventually get an end to this chain
right
I feel like
quotienting out by the annihilator from the start
might've made it easier
but dude it was so whack
So at the end right
I had an associated prime p
and then sqrt(Ann(M)) = q
Do you have the direct sum thing?
Nope not yet
But dude it was so dumb
I'll answer as is
Pls proofread my answer
so assuming q isn't in there it's coprimary
Oh lmao
I love non contradictions like that
like you do get a contradiction
But like
the contradiction is
You also just prove it
Yeah lmao
to avoid contradiction
but you can't get that unless you assume it ins't
lmfao
It's like assume RH, true, assume not RH, true
(Β¬p -> p) -> p
lmfao what
nerd
what were u doing then umm
I don't even remember
this was post Linear ALgebra
was this homological algebra?
Oh right
shamrock:
Suppose $I$ is an invertible fractional ideal of $A$, and also $I \leq A$
shamrock:
by the previous problem $I = (f_1, \ldots, f_n)$ and $I^{-1} = (\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_n)$ where $1 = \alpha_1 f_1 + \ldots + \alpha_n f_n$
shamrock:
we can write $\alpha_i = \frac{p_i}{q_i}$ for each $i$, for $p_i, q_i$ coprime
shamrock:
For each $i, j$, we have $\alpha_i f_j \in A$, so $q_i (\alpha_i f_j) = p_i f_j$. Thus $q_i$ divides $p_i f_j$ in $A$, and since $p_i, q_i$ are coprime we get that $q_i$ divides $f_j$, i.e. $(f_j) \subseteq (q_i)$. Thus $I = (f_1,\ldots, f_n) \leq (q_1) \cap \ldots \cap (q_n)$
shamrock:
since we're in a UFD, that intersection is principal, generated by the lcm (write every qi as a product of irreducibles and take the max of the powers of said irreducibles)
so we just need to show the reverse containment, i.e. if $x\in A$ is divisible by each $q_i$ then $x \in I$. If this is the case, then $x = x \cdot 1 = x \cdot \left(\sum_{i=1}^n \alpha_i f_i\right) = \sum_{i=1}^n (x \alpha_i) f_i$. The coefficients $x \alpha_i = p_i (x/q_i)$ here are all in $A$ since $q_i$ divides $x$, and so this equality shows $x\in I$
shamrock:
Is this what you did @next obsidian ?
Chmonkey:
Then for any $u/v \in I^{-1}$ it has to be that $u$ is a multiple of the $b_i$ and that $v$ is a common divisor of the $a_i$
Chmonkey:
(take $u,v$ coprime)
Chmonkey:
Because else you don't have $u/v\cdot a_i/b_i$
Chmonkey:
but it's an ideal of A?
Oh right haha I guess all $b_i$ can be $1$ then
Chmonkey:
I think $v$ has to divide all $a_i$ though
Chmonkey:
so it divides the gcd of them all
yeah so in the end I had $I$ generated by the gcd of all the $a_i$ divided by the lcm of the $b_i$
Chmonkey:
if all $b_i = 1$ then the lcm is just $1$
Chmonkey:
wait that's weird
I forgot $I$ is an ideal of $A$
Chmonkey:
yeah so
basically I did exactly that
but then I showed that
$I^{-1}$ is generated by
Chmonkey:
Chmonkey:
So I guess I did mine kinda backwards unnecessarily
Basically the point of this is problem is that if M is finitely presented
solution is really clean IMO
And finite generating set has a finite presentation
then you use the fact that A/I is finitely generated
Do you have one direction?
oh no I forgot to eat
oof
yeah the finitely generated => finitely presented over a noetherian ring is trivial
the kernel of A^n -> M is finitely generated since A^n is noetherian
so we can get A^m -> A^n -> M -> 0 by picking a generating set for the kernel
Oh lol
2.5 a)
I gotta stop this and get food/go home
My apartment was like, testing fire alarms/smoke detectors or something
So I've been at the park since noon or so
haha yes
So my sketch of an argument for the other direction
Suppose finitely generated => finitely presented
Let I be an ideal of A
Then A/I is finitely generated, and we have the SES $0\to I \to A \to A/I \to 0$
shamrock:
Right
thus there's some exact sequence $A^n \to A^m \to A/I \to 0$
shamrock:
Wait so you're trying to show what?
Non-Noetherian implies a finite but not finitely presented right?
Since $A^m is projective we get a map $A^m \to A$ making a square commute
yeah but the contrapositive
Oh
