#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 508 of 407
Haha np
maybe chmonkey can help
I'm willing to believe that, I can google it later otherwise
Ok but then we have one inclusion
Well we have an inclusion
But it's an inclusion of a maximal ideal
And (x-a, y-b) cap k[x, y] is an ideal of k[x, y] too
Not quite
I think you can prove it for rings maybe
You need to check (x-a, y-b) cap k[x, y] isn't all of k[x, y]
and consider F[x,y] as F[x][y][
But that's pretty easy
and do it in two steps
Yeah I was thinking of something similar
But yeah @woven obsidian we're pretty much done
I guess no element except 0 in k is in the ideal
Yeah exactly
If it contained a unit, we'd have 1 = (x-a) p + (y-b) q in F
But this is absurd
Yeah, thanks a lot for the help
We didn't do much ideals in my last algebra course, so this book will be a challenge
Yeah
We used it in my comm alg class too
It was good
But definitely worth reviewing some ring theory stuff first
Yeah I'm looking at Durbin at the same time, for the more basic stuff
by any chance anyone knows where the word 'characteristic' of a ring/field comes from?
its weird
i asked this question b4 and i just got a trash answer
cuz theres also a characteristic subgroup which has a totally diffdefinition
but same name so meh
I think it's often very difficult to track down those kinds of things.
If it were me, I'd be satisfied with making up a reasonable etymology.
In this case, it's characteristic in the sense that it's a property of the ring/field. And it's one that happens to be easy to see on the surface.
ig it is quite a natural one to think off but still feels unanswered
Yeah. I would say it's unlikely to find a good answer.
Unless you really dig hard for it. I wouldn't count on the Internet to provide.
time to stare at old manuscripts
Probably something to do with hilbert
Or dedekind
Or it's characteristic because it is such a easy property to define
Steinitz’s groundbreaking 150-page work “Algebraic theory of fields” of 1910 initiated the abstract study of fields as an independent subject
it seem to have came from this
Prior to the nineteenth century, algebra meant the study of the solution of polynomial equations. By the twentieth century it came to encompass the study of abstract, axiomatic systems such as groups, rings, and fields. This presentation provides an account of the history of t...
Any idea whether electric "fields" are related to fields?
they prob originated differently
I'm having some trouble understanding how to conclude the "Moreover" part from the proof
I guess the point is that any (f1,f2) without common factors is of the form described in the statement, but I'm not sure how to show this
so do you see one direction?
Namely that any ideal m of that form is maximal?
@woven obsidian
Two such polynomials should not contain any common factor so by the proof of the theorem they should generate a maximal ideal I think
well really we should think about it like this
Z[x]/(p,g) can be calculated by quotienting in steps
so first you quotient by p
so you look at F_p[x]/(g)
except the image of g inside of F_p[x]
then if g is irreducible this is a field
And then that should be a field
yup
Ok that's a nice way of thinking about it
So the other direction is harder I think, but I have a method which might work, but let's try and figure it out
so first thing is a maximal ideal must contain some element not in Z
the proof is, if m is maximal then it's the kernel of some map Z[x] -> F for some field right?
suppose the kernel is contained in Z
then Z[x]/m is actually (Z/m)[x]
which isn't a field
Actually I don't think you even need to consider that it's a kernel for that haha
Hmm ok
Now the next idea would be to try to show it contains a prime number
My goal is to show it has a polynomial, then a prime number
Show that there needs to be a polynomial which is irr mod that prime
Ok makes sense
then if p, g are those, we know that (p,g) subseteq m
but since we already showed (p,g) is maximal we conclude the two are equal
I don't know if I can actually manage to do this, but we can try haha
The proof does establish that any two polynomials without common factors generate a maximal ideal doesn't it?
I remember actually reading a pdf for this and if I recall it's sort of complex
I don't think so
take like x - 1 and x + 1
They generate the whole space?
I'm pretty sure
Like I know coprime ideals generate evertying
but I guess a better example is x + 1 and x + 2
you can see that 1 is in there
For x - 1 and x + 1 I struggle to see how you could get 1
I don't think you can
Oh I think you get 1
So consider that if you quotient Z[x] by (x - 1) you get Z
so if you do it in steps again
The image of (x + 1) under this map is just 2
Actually huh
F_2???
Hmm
Oh duh
I see now though
Here's the proof lol
you have 2 in there
so it's equal to like (2, x + 1)
which is of the criteria from before
But (x + 1, x + 2) is equal to (1)
I mean
Which (x+1,x+2) isn't
a maximal ideal is always prime
Yeah
Point being is coprime polynomials gives weird stuff
I think
Anyway, I want to figure out why a prime ideal is in any maximal ideal
I'm guessing the author thinks the moreover part is a trivial consequence of the proof
I believe this is the idea
OOO
Nice
Consider the inclusion of Z in Z[x]
for any prime ideal of Z[x] p, p\cap Z is prime in Z
You can frame this in terms of ring homomorphisms
for any ring hom f:A - > B, f^{-1}(p) is prime when p is prime in B
Consider that p\cap Z is just the inverse image of p under the inclusion i:Z -> Z[x]
So the point being is m\cap Z is prime, so equal to (p) for some prime number
So that means p is in m
Ah right
So now we just need to show that there's some polynomial which is irreducible in F_p
or like, its image is
Also it should be clear that no other prime exists besides this p, if that ends up mattering
because of Bezout's lemma if you had p,q prime they're coprime so you get 1 as some Z-linear combo of p and q
i.e. there exists a,b such that ap + bq = 1
Yeah that's true
So if that ever ends up mattering
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Okay so, here's my idea
Maybe this is the kernel of a hom time?
Suppose m is maximal, then it's the kernel of f:Z[x] -> F
then we know m contains (p)
so we can factor f as like
Z[x] -> Z[x]/(p) -> F
by the universal property of quotients
Right
Then Z[x]/(p) = F_p[x] right>?
So now we can look at the kernel of F_p[x] -> F
since this is a field, it has to be equal to (f) for some irreducible f in F_p[x] right?
Yeah
Like, it's a PID so it has to be generated by one thing, prime <==> maximal so the generator is prime <==> irreducible
So now f has to actually be the image of something in m
And the reason is ummm
Oh it's surjective right? the map Z[x] -> F_p[x]
now if f maps to 0
Okay so take something in Z[x] mapping to f
call this g
Then you know that g maps to f, which maps to 0
In the composition Z[x] -> F_p[x] -> F
but that's the same as saying g maps to 0 in Z[x] -> F
so it's in the kernel, so it's in m
And this g is our polynomial?
Yup
since its image, f is irreducible in F_p[x]
So from what I argued before, (p,g) subseteq m, but both are maximal so they're equal
Thanks for the help, I'm not used to these kinds of arguments
No worries
I think this is the first time I came up with this argument all by myself so I'm happy to have gone through it
When I was reading the same book, I think I just remember that I saw the classification of maximal ideals in Z[x] before
and I just shrugged it off without thinking about it more
Yeah I haven't really studied anything similar before
Starting to wonder how this course will be if this is in chapter 1 haha
FWIW the first chapter is like
harder than the rest
IMO
It's like "here's the stuff about general ring theory you should know"
ludicrously hard problems
Atiyah Macdonald did the same
I guess A-M's exposition wasn't as hard
but god the chapter 1 problems
were crazy hard
Once you start to develop the machinery they do a lot of the heavy lifting
That's very nice to hear :)
But that's also why I want to make sure I understand everything from this chaptet
I read an uncited claim that said for a maximal ideal $m \subset R$, that the multiplication map $m\otimes m \to m^2$ is an isomorphism whenever $m$ is a flat $R$ module. What is meant by $m^2$? The product of ideals $mm = m$? If so does this simply follow from looking at the exact sequence $0 \to m \to R \to R / m \to 0$ under the $m\otimes _ $ functor?
datorangeguy:
datorangeguy:
There’s a result that a module F is flat iff for all ideals I, the map I (x) F -> IF is an isomorphism
Take I, F = m and the result follows
Note: hard to prove without Tor. With Tor it isn’t that bad, without Tor my proof used the snake lemma like... 3 times?
For these purposes, it’s basically as you said, the map is injective by flatness of m, and the map m (x) m -> R (x) m = m is just given on simple tensors a (x) b by multiplying the two. This clearly maps into m^2, and is surjective almost by construction
I don’t see any reason this is limited to maximal ideals, it should hold for all ideals
Oh right m^2 is not all of m.
Following the exact sequence we get m(×)(R/m) is isomorphic to m / m^2 ? That's pretty cool
yes, this is also an instance of a more general fact about tensors
If M is an R module and I an ideal of R, then M (×) R/I = M/IM, where IM is the submodule generated by all products ix with i in I and x in M
quaternions
How do I show that $\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{x^k}{k!}$ is irreducible over $\bQ$ for all $n$?
Whoever:
I found a proof
That uses prime ideal factorizations to show a more general result
Don't know what prime ideal factorizations is yet so rip me
@latent anvil
I have not looked at the link, but I'd try to use Bertrand's Postulate
(and Gauss's Lemma)
If the multiplicative sets S, S' are such that S is a subset of S', then there is an injection of A_S into A_S' right?
Not looking for proof, just a yes or no
I am using the definition that multiplicative sets are closed under multiplication AND do not contain 0
Is it an injection now?
No, take S' containing a zero divisor but not zero
Yeah you're right
A = Z[x, y] /(xy) and S' = {x^n}
What about an injection from A_f into A_fg?
hmm
This says that if f^r g^r x = 0 then f^s x = 0 for some r
Doesn't smell like it's always true
Geoemtrically A_fg is the intersection of the open sets A_f and A_h
*A_g
But I'm not sure what injectivity of rings maps says on schemes
oh no it doesn't
Take my example from before
Are you okay with a case where fg = 0?
Actually wait
Take f = 1
g = x
Then my example from before works
@vestal snow
Hmmm
Generally localization is weird
It will add things
But it can also collapse things
I don't think you need to deal with colimits
But φ is a map out of a colimit?
I'm not sure how you'd avoid dealing with colim A_f here
My bad you're right
I was thinking of something else
So the idea here is that anything that maps to 0 in the codomain eventually becomes 0 in the colimit right?
Yup
like formally
Take an element of the kernel
That can be represented as the equivalence class of an element of A_f for some f
any help?
in the ring A[x] prove that the jacobson radical is equal to the nilradical
This doesn't seem true to me but I've been unable to find a counterexample
its an exercise for me in atiyah macdonald
number 4
the problems are super hard
for me
tbh
im getting fucked badly
Hmm, so we're saying a maximal ideal in k[x] must contain every nilpotent polynomial
i only did 1 problem on my own
And a polynomial being nilpotent implies the coefficients are nilpotent
yes
i didnt know how to prove this for jack shit
the author just hitned at induction and i was just put off
im now doing the zariski topology thing
which looks eaiser
does 0 and 1 in number 15 mean the ideals generated
or the subsets {0} and {1}?
obv subsets right?
You mean exercise 2?
yea 15 in 2
So I feel like you want to use 2i and 2ii
ofc subsets right?
Oh oh
Oh lol other people said that didn't they
With that hint
yes it means that
This problem is an actual freebie
Or just {0} and {1}
yea im sorry for that stupid question
if an ideal has a unit then its just the whole ring
and 1 is a unit so lmfaoa
Oh I was talking about problem 4
i left it for u guys
i gave up
the problems are just too hard for me
i cant do single one of them
The hint should help
dude they're too hard for everyone, I haven't met anyone who's been like "oh yeah ch1 of AM was a breeze"
which is to say
i literally cant solve any of them
Do them
mo2men this is how you get good lmao
You gotta power through
Here's the hint
Look at problems 1, 2i, and 2ii
yeah cuz they're hard
Use them even if you didn't do them
Don't be afraid to use theorems
those problems could take hours
4 is easier than 2
They're hard
i cant do 4
or days
Think more
maybe somethings wrong with me
anyways im trying again
but after i finish the zariski topology tghing
its def unfolding so wont take ami n
a min*
?
dox????
??!
@ mods
Whoops
@bleak abyss hey someone doxed an admin
😠
Not cool
If only we knew
Then I could ban one of them
And yeah mo2men everyone has that revelation eventually
And they're like ohhhhhhhhhh
But yeah you continue, tbh I should've done Atiyah-Macdonald or something
I had various opportunities to just take some time and be like
Aight doing some problems now
But I missed that window so instead I'm reading Matsumura
wait what revelation
That sloth king daminark is an anagram of I Am Lord Voldemort
oh i thought it was "dami is a nerd"
but i figured that no one can truly understand the full scope of dami's nerdhood
is this correct proof of iii:
-i
(just one side for now): let x be in V(UE_i) --> x is a prime ideal that contains UE_i --> the intersection must be contained in x aswell --> E_i is contained in x for every i in I --> x is in intersection(V(E_i)) for i in I
no thats the topology stuff
i just wanna make sure
15iii
okay okay
The intersection must be contained in x is a bad way to phrase it
i do the otrher side and last one
yea yea
sorry
okay i do other side and last one and now i know what spec(A) means
then i do the hard boys
oh i think that comes later in AG
The topology isn't bad to write down
yeah dude draw
idk how to do that i dont know topology
lol it's not asking for real pictures
These exercises are kind of silly
okay so
what are the primes of C[x]?
wait
b4 that
i did the other side :
let x be in the intersec(V(E_i)) --> x is in V(E_1) and V(E_2) ..... --> x is an ideal that contains E_1, E_2 .... --> x contians the union --> x is in V(UE_i)
correct?
hence both equal by containment or wahtever
V(a intersects b) = V(ab) where a and b are ideals
let x be in V(a intersects b)
i want to show x contains ab
so let z be in ab --> z = cd for c in a , d in b --> c is in x and d is in x --> x is an ideal tho --> z is in x
thats first containment
okay i can do the other1
for number 4n ow
so the jacobson radical is the intersection of all maximal ideals
and maximal ideals are prime iddeals ( cant remember how to prove that lmfao im bad )
can i say therefore the jacobson is a subset of the nilradical?
tag if help
Hello, here is my attempt to prove the uniqueness of the division algorithm
Suppose there exists $s,s',r,r' \in P(F)$ such that, $q=sp+r$ and $q=s'p+r'$, where $p,q \in P(F)$. Subtracting both equation, we obtain $p(s'-s)=r-r'$ , rearranging $p=\frac{r-r'}{s'-s}$ . Since $p \in P(F)$, $s-s'$ is divisible by $r-r'$, hence we could write $r-r' = Q(s'-s)$ where $Q \in P(F) \setminus {0}$.
However, $deg p > deg r$ and $deg p > deg r'$. So $deg p > deg (r-r')$. The only case where $p=\frac{r-r'}{s'-s}$ holds is when p is the zero polynomial. Thus, $0=r-r', r'=r$. From
$r-r' = Q(s'-s)$ we can conclude that $s'=s$, as $Q \neq 0$.
Otoro:
<@&286206848099549185>
@winter vigil if sp + r = s' p + r'
you can rewrite it like this: (s-s')p = r'-r
now you want to show r'-r = 0
using the fact that 0 <= r',r < p
and the fact that p divides the LHS so it divides the RHS
I would avoid doing the division p = (r-r')/(s'-s)
Oh what would be the difference ?
May I ask why would we avoid division ?
Oh, I'm sorry I haven't learnt rings yet. This is a chapter about polynomials in axler's linear algebra
So what would be the changes do I have to make to my proof ?
i outlined what to do
my advice was to go straight from (s-s')p = r'-r to showing that r'-r = 0
rather than dividing
the LHS tells you that we have 0 or p or 2p or 3p ..
the fact that r' and r are small lets you conclude that we have 0
@knotty mason is right. And since r-r'=0, you can conclude that s-s'-0 proving uniqueness
The fact that $r-r'$ is a multiple of $p$ implies $r-r'=0,\pm p, \pm 2p, \pm 3p,\ldots$. But remember that each of $r,r'$ are such that $0\leq r,r'\leq(p-1)$. Hence, $r-r'=0$ is the only appropriate choice.
Mega Jeff:
Okay, thank you
is there any well-established name for the semidirect product $\mathbb{Z}\rtimes\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$, where $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ acts on $\mathbb{Z}$ by $n\mapsto -n$?
gustavn64:
Maybe something like the affine transformations? On a vector space, if you consider maps of the form f(v) = Av + w for some invertible A and vector w, I think those are the affine transformations.
This is like that but on Z (as the identity and n to -n are the only automorphisms of Z)
I think some people wanted to read matsumura with me
Maybe @maiden ocean @bleak abyss
I'm going to do that now
nice
However I don't know if I should read commutative algebra or commutative ring theory
I'm waiting for comm alg to download
Probably comm ring theory since that's what chmonkey has been reading
Commutative ring theory seems better™️
The only thing it doesn't have are "Excellent rings"
Yon says some homological methods are missing but I'm not planning to get that far that it matters
On this read
And I'll cover those in my classes in spring anyways
How do I show that a finite algebraic extension is simple? Any hints are appreciated (I tried to read this in the one book and I did a bunch of googling and none of that helped)
Note I do not want to assume separability
Are you assuming the field is characteristic 0?
Is this true?
Let K = Fp(x, y)
consider K(x^(1/p),y^(1/p))
Isn't this algebraic but not simple?
Is it finite?
Yeah it's a degree p^2 extension, right?
Well yeah we also adjoined two elements which are degree p
I want to say every element of that extension is degree p over K
What’s the result in the char 0 case called?
Ok, let me reprhase then. I want to show that a finite algebraic extension of the form k(c_1, ..., c_n) is simple
yeah I think it is, lemme grab the book page
to make it clear what theorem I mean
sorry about that
So if we restrict to characteristic 0, then I am looking to prove this "primitive element theorem" then I suppose
Any finite extension is algebraic anyway so
Yes, in char 0 separable is automatic
Shamrock’s example probably works
works for what?
And if you buy Wikipedia’s thing then that’s a counterexample
A counterexample in char p
yeah you just take the pth power of an arbitrary term (sum of ai x^i/p y^j/p) and use the freshman's dream
Yeah
To get that the pth power is in K
Yup
Uhhh wait what?
In particular, finite separable extensions are simple.
Oh nvm
Right, we worked over Fp(x,y)
Not Fp
I believe the multiplicative group is cyclic, so you can pick a generator
Oh lol I can just appeal to the classification can't I
I know what all algebraic extensions are
yes but we know what the algebraic closure is
It's the union of all finite ones
Actually no that's not exactly what I mean
Separable means the minimal polynomial of every element is separable
But this is "local"
It reduces to finite algebraic extensions
Right
so we just need to know that Fp^n/Fp is always separable
I was in an AG lecture today and someone used the phrase "a fixed algebraic closure of k" but this confused me because k bar is unique, right?
no countable
It's weird okay
So
It's unique up to isomorphism
But there's lots of weird isomorphisms
Isn’t there a good example like if you take an algebraic closure of R
You can get C in the usual way
But you can do some other weird crap
Does that actually
and that's not as convincing
Okay
Gal was Aut_k(L) right?
is it not unique no matter the characteristic?
someone compared it to choosing a basepoint when you calculate the fundamental group
you have to choose a basepoint, but it doesn't really effect the outcome up to isomorphism
affect
ok I see what you mean
But it kind of does, because you have to pick a path to show π1(X, p) ≈ π1(X, q)
so like Pi_1(s^1) = Z but the equivalence classes are technically different with a different basepoint
And that depends on the homotopy class of the path from p to q
right, if I choose a different basepoint
And my path between 1 and that basepoint winds around the circle three times
I'm identifying the fundamental groups in a kind of weird way
similarly there are a lot of automorphisms of "the" algebraic closure, and so lots of isomorphisms between two algebraic closures
Yeah
The algebraic closure is always like some colimit?
Probably a colimit of algebraic extensions
If you choose all the finite extensions
algebraic is dumb dami
you're including the algebraic closure
colimit sounds like something category theoretic, lemme look this up real quick
so if you take all finite ones but remove the isomorphisms
Like
You choose a canonical way of embedding all possible finite extensions into one another
You can then take a colimit
But if u have multiple embeddings
You're going to like try and coequalize them
And get fucked up
Oh isn't it a thing that like, if L is an algebraic extension of k, then a homomorphism from k into an algebraically closed field extends to a homomorphism out of L?
Yeah that's true
basically an algebraic closure/extension is the limit of "all" finite extensions
Terms and conditions apply
like inside your actual fixed algebraic closure everything includes into everything else uniquely
You get an embedding and the image should be surjective since otherwise it'll be a smaller field which is algebraically closed and algebraic
You want to reproduce that structure in the colimit
wait dami I'm not sure what you're saying right now
Are you proving uniqueness of algebraic closure?
@countable you don't need to learn about colimits right now
I can't ping your nick lol
I mean you can if you want to but the colimit thing was just a question chmonkey was asking
@next obsidian category theory would give you a unique iso
And the whole point is we don't have that kind of canonical structure
Yeah but setting it up in a way to express it as something universal seems kinda hard
That's why we need to make these weird choices about how all the finite extensions sit inside one another
Yeh
I see
I guess I am just looking for examples of different alg. closures after fixing a field
so idk say if I fix Q or something
Oh I thought he was asking it specifically in service of uniqueness
Yes
Countable what do you mean by different?
Well the work involved in showing it's a colimit of stuff is the content of this proof too
I mean different as in not equal sets
Either way you need to know that you can extend homs
Oh
And then conclude in a line
Then take an algebraic closure K of k
Look at K × {0}
We do all field operations on the first component
would we say that K x 0 is an algebraic closure of k though? as opposed to k x 0 ?
okay so take (K × {0})\(k×{0}) union k
Not exactly chmonkey
What does field extension mean?
Wat
does it mean set theoretical containment?
I thought extension normally meant that it must contain k as sets
No
Okay well
we have two answers in chat
Just redefine all the k x {0} elements as their k counterpart
And then nothing changes
Countable suppose F/k is some field extension and α is an element of F. Let m(x) be the minimal polynomial of α. Would you say k[x]/(m(x)) and k(α) are isomorphic extensions of k?
so is it correct to say that $\mathbb{C} \times 0 \times ... \times 0$ is an algebraic closure of say $\mathbb{Q}[i]$?
𝓒𝓸𝓾𝓷𝓽𝓪𝓫𝓵𝓮:
ok then what about if we replace Q[i] with the reals?
in the natural way, alright
okay so about my question above
Would you say k(α) and k[x]/(m(x)) are isomorphic extensions of k?
are you asking me?
Yup
I'm just used to an extension being a field that literally contains the subfield, but I see the natural way that k[x]/(m(x)) would contain k (I think...)
by sending like c to c bar I guess
Sure, I'm just trying to point out that k[x]/(m(x)) doesn't actually contain k
But we refer to it as an extension of k all the time
ok that is what I was not sure about (I mean after applying an isomorphism)
Like this is one of the most important basic facts about field extensions
That you can adjoin an element by modding out by its minimal polynomial
But you can't state it very well unless you generalize the notion of field extension a little
Shamrock do you feel like isomorphic field extensions should mean they’re isomorphic as like in the coslice way or whatever.
I think that’s the most natural way to explain it
an extension of k is a field F with a field homomorphism k -> F
That's what I would say
that's what it is, isn't it?
like by definition
I mean that adds nuance, so the way they’re iso matters
Since it has to be compatible with the embedding
Anyway, this is not important rn
is it literally just a homomorphism? Does it not have to be surjective or anything?
well countable, what property does every field homomorphism have?
nonzero implies injective
Oh
(if the map is nonzero I mean)
In my brain field and ring homomorphisms have to preserve 1
So it's just "injective"
but yeah I would say an extension is a field with a nonzero map k -> F
ah ok I wasent assuming that but then yeah
that would make more sense to assume nonzero I see
because I guess we wouldnt want 0 to be an extension of a field
And then a homomorphism between extensions has to preserve these embeddings. So if $i : k \to F$ and $j : k \to F'$ a homomorphism $φ : F \to F'$ of extensions of $k$ should satisfy $j = φ \circ i$
shamrock:
So if you embed an element of k in F and apply φ, it's the same as embedding it in F'
so in the familliar case of like Q and Q[i] then we just naturally use inclusion for this then I guess
Right
Actually Q is special
If Q embeds into a field at all, it does so in a unique way
Right, it has to send 1 to 1
And Q is generated by 1 and field arithmetic
@next obsidian do I need to read the appendices
Of matsumura
I didn’t
Kk
I think it’s like here’s tensor product facts, here’s homological algebra facts we know
Like snake lemma, and some stuff about Ext and Tor
Yeah I figured
I glanced at it
So is it true that: a field extension is not unique as a literal set up to equality iff we take this generalized (what to me is "generalized") definition of extension? as opposed to the definition of extension that requires set containment, right?
if you get what I mean
(I can state that more precisely if it is unclear)
If you mean it in the first way
Like requiring set containment
What’s your notion of equivalent field extensions?
I'm not sure what unique as a literal set up to equality means
like
The field F with a map k -> F is unique
unique object in the category Set
Here lemme restate then
I meant closure unique not extension
sorry about that
Is algebraic closure unique if we use the very specific definition of field extension that requires literal set containment --- this is my question
not up to isomorphism though (unless Im still misunerstanding)
I mean that another algebraic closure would have to equal a fixed k bar
You can always take a generalized extension ι : k -> F and (F\ι(k)) union k will be a literal extension of k which is isomorphic as a generalized extension to the one we started with
I'm not sure what you mean by the last comment
Two algebraic closures might not be set theoretically equal
They will be isomorphic
There are lots of isomorphisms to choose
And it's not clear which one is best
yes I know but I mean if we enforce the further condition that they are
then is it unique?
that they're equal?
equal yes
if two algebraic closures are equal, they are equal
like if we include that, and the set containment thing
what's the that?
I'm confused by what exactly you're asking
If you have two algebraic closures K, K' of k
k is a literal subset of both
and (???)
then they're (equal? isomorphic?)
Yeah we can still have K ≠ K'
ok that was my question
Right, I posted an example earlier
sorry I wasnt sure exactly how to phrase it
okay so take (K × {0})\(k×{0}) union k
@latent anvil
Let K be some algebraic closure of k
Literally containing k
Then you can turn the set above into an algebraic closure of k too
Add/multiply elements like you were actually in K
Thanks
For some reason I can do commutative algebra just fine and then when I try to do Galois theory it is always slow going
It's certainly a different flavor
I think these kinds of issues come up in commutative algebra too
Or at least in algebraic geometry
I mean its probably healthy to know a good bit of Galois for com. alg.
does not seem super important to me until AG though
Oh sure I meant the non uniqueness stuff
I was thinking about defining the structure sheaf on a basis of distinguished opens
we say stuff like O(D(f)) = A_f
But this only makes sense up to isomorphism
It might just be a slight, not really linguistic but maybe mindset barrier with me and Galois idk
sure
I have seen structure sheaf, and I take it O is your functor, but can you remind me of this A and D?
oh so like
Let A be a commutative ring
The sets D(f) = { p in Spec A : f not in p } form a basis for Spec A
They're the "distinguished opens"
You can define sheaves on a basis of open sets instead of on all the open sets
then the rest of the mappings should just be naturally induced right?
and so one way to define the structure sheaf of Spec A is by O(D(f)) = A_f
Well it's more about defining O(U) for U not a basis element than the restriction maps
The problem with this "definition" is that we can have D(f) ≠ D(g) for different f, g, so A_f and A_g are set theoretically different rings
but they're isomorphic, and you can make it all work because there's a big family of isomorphisms between all the possible A_f's and A_g's with D(f) = D(g)
I'm really just rambling at this point
It's not that related to your original question
@open torrent hi
This reminds me of how sheaf cateogry was sort of described as 'encompassing' com. ring theory on the wiki page
(although what I said is sort of a sloppy restatement of what they said)
Stick to one channel and don't post the same question in multiple channels. Please don't ask for help in other channels if no one is responding in the one you have posted your question in.
@leaden finch you can use mod 5 arithmetic for this
check what possible values n^5 has mod 5 for n=0,1,2,3,4
how do you do mod 5?
mod 2 is {even, odd}
mod 5 is {0,1,2,3,4}
the system works by adding and then reducing, 4 + 3 = 7 = 7-5 = 2
@next obsidian I'm already stuck on a matsumura problem
Oof
Which one?
The benefit to Matsumura problems is solutions are in the back so if u crack you can look at it, and I have definitely done that before after a while
Why should Z[Z/p^nZ] be an interesting ring? It seems really cool
Hi. Can someone help me to prove this?
f:(A,+,) -> (R,(+),()) is a group homomorphism and S <= A then prove that f(S) <= R
Can you use texit,pls?
I don't know how to use it
S is a subset of A,right?
yes
what have you tried
nothing for now, but I think that there is a theorem who should prove that
well, you want to show f(S) is a subgroup of R
there is a so-called subgroup criterion that makes that easier
You want the solution?
yes
$Take A,B \in f(S).$
$ A=f(a),B=f(b)\exists a,b;
AB^{-1}=f(a)f(b)^{-1}=f(ab^{-1})
\implies AB^{-1} \in f(S)$
this is the greatest help of all time
nothing for now, but I think that there is a theorem who should prove that
@wintry yacht prove that
DrunkenDrake:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
@carmine fossil I think a and b should belong to group A
I mean the lowercase a and b
Yes
ok but is that enough?
Yes
thanks then
Did you prove the subgroup criterion?
No
Do it
ok
Not that one
How do you determine whether a subset with the group operation,is a subgroup,in general?
Well by proving the subgroup criterion
but I think that it's not needed here because we have a group homomorphism
Just do that
Why?
you can use the main homomorphism property to do it
That criteria provides a convenient way to deal and prove things like this theorem. And if something makes your life easier,you should definitely use it. Which means you should prove it
damn
i knew i would pass the exam but i didn't expect to have 93% 😎
wtf i love rings now
{0} x {0} = {0}
😭
is "all convergence is uniform" a new take on acab
No, it's what complex analysts believe
all modules are algebras
@smoky cypress infinite product of Z maybe?
Can I use Löwenheim-Skolem for this lol
Consider a language with two constant 0, 1 and binary function symbols *, +, f. Let A be the set of ring axioms (commutative ig) along with axioms staring f is an isomorphism, so
- for all x, y, z, w, if f(x, y) = f(z, w) then x = x and y = w
- for all x, there exists y, z with x = f(y, z)
- for all x, y, z, w, f(x+z, y+w) = f(x, y) + f(z, w)
- for all x, y, z, w, f(xz, yw) = f(x, y) f(z, w)
- f(1) = 1
Models of A are then rings equipped with an isomorphism A × A -> A. There's finitely many axioms and I showed there's some model, so there's a countable model
we love existence proofs
@smoky cypress do you have an explicit example?
countable product of (Z/(2)), and you take the elements that have finitely many nonzero entries
@latent anvil
Oh I thought of that but my rings need to have 1
oh like freely?
sounds plausible but I'm worried it would fuck the product thing up
I thought about this but stopped there
You might be able to get it to work
the model theory above proves there's some example though
just gotta find it
Lmao high tech theorems
look I have a hammer for producing countable for examples from uncountable examples
you're telling me this isn't a nail??

Has anyone read Algebraic Function Fields and Codes by Stichtenoth?
If so, are there any prereqs from AG?
a local ring has no idempotents other than 1 and 0
proof: suppose A has the unique maximal ideal M
and e is idempotent
now what i dont get it
think about it lol
what does e being idempotent mean
e^2 = e --> e(e-1)=0
how can you use that
so now
yes
i know by purer
pure luck
that u cant be both zero dviisor and unit
so now
ik e is not = 0 or 1 so neither is 0
now im stuck here
if e is a unit then e is in M
non*
nonunit*
and e is idempotent
so 1-e is a unit
i proved that b
4
but im still stuck somewhere
okay, so why is 1-e a unit?
cuz e is idempotent
no]
thats e+1
i think cuz if e is in the maximal idea?
ideal*?
can i use the jacobian shit?
jacobson*
i know the jacobson of the ring is just M right?
so if e is not a unit 1-e is a unit
yea
how did you get that e was not a unit?
yeah, you have the equation e(1-e) = 0
and you know e and 1-e are not zero
right
is 1-e in the maximal ideal
think about the equation e(1-e) = 0
yes
yes
the equation e(1-e) = 0 tells you both e and 1-e are zero divisors
yea
yes
You're assuming e ≠ 0,1, so neither term in the product is zero
yes
so if e is a zero divisor --> e is not a unit --> e is in M --> M is jacobian --> 1-e(1) is unit
1-e is unit
am i rightr?
jacobson*
Yeah that logic tracks
now whats wrong with 1-e being a unit
what contradiction is there
1-e is not a zero divisor
ur smart af lmfao
yea the equation
says that e must be 0
now
right?
the equation e(1-e) = 0 tells you both e and 1-e are zero divisors
@latent anvil
so e must be 0 here
cuz 1-e is not a zero divisor
neither e is lmfao
am i right
yes
so e must be 1 or 0
yes
here is a slightly simpler proof
okaay
