#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 507 of 407
Since it’s a colimit of im(a)(U)
or did you mean a?
np let's go with phi
Show that im(a_x) also satisfies the property of being the colimit
aka can play the role of stalk of im(a)
okay
Now one thing to note here is that if what I did isn’t cheating
So im a is actually a sheafification of some presheaf
yes
The adjunction of the forgetful functor and the sheafification functor means it suffices to show that this thing is the colimit of the presheaf version of im a
wait
I think, I remember asking my prof about this
Yeah let me think about this harder so I can explain what the hell that means
so the colimit of presheaf = colimit of sheaf in this case?
I think that’s the idea
Since it’s a left adjoint to forgetful which preserves colimits
The only issue I see now is that
is this LAPC?
Yes but
Is it bad that I don't know much about the forgetful functor?
I know it takes away structure
but thats it
Only issue i see is that the colimit itself isn’t a sheaf so it’s sort of eh
It’s literally that
It says “okay you were a sheaf, pretend you’re a presheaf”
It makes it “okay” to have a map from a presheaf to a sheaf
Because that map is actually mapping to the sheaf, as a presheaf
Oh okay so
This is what I argued, I guess Shamrock can pipe in if he thinks it’s okay
So I want to show that im(a_x) is the stalk of im(a)_x
What I noted was that, for a presheaf F, F_x is iso to F^+_x
So it suffices to show that im(a_x) is the stalk of the presheaf version of im(a)
Since then the iso to the stalk of the sheaf im(a) gives it a structure as the colimit of that
The thing about forgetful functor was used for showing f_* and f^-1 were adjoints
pls do not introduce even more identifications
This is the only way I know how to do this
"im(a_x) is the stalk of the presheaf version of im(a)" pls
I don’t know how you did this
I'm just saying track the isomorphism between the stalk and the stalk of the sheafification
First I think you want an abstract iso
Then show it makes the triangle commute
So formerly edible banana, this is sort of why this problem made Shamrock groan lol
It gets really messy, and maybe there’s a nice way to do it but I sure don’t know it
Maybe its time to email my homie Cais
who's cais?
Oh I will
I think hidden in this deluge of text the idea is there
the thing is some people will see this convo and be like
My algebra prof
shamrock and chmonkey are overcomplicating this!
and the guy who wanted me to learn AG in 15 days lol
wow i just read this convo, shamrock and chmonkey are overcomplicating this!
With the solution to that one Hartshorne problem
namington you do algebraic k theory right? So at some point you had to learn basic ag and the basics of sheaves
Which was solved by “universally Japanese”
but uh what are we overcomplicating
Cais was the guy who wrote that pdf
oh lol
universally japanese?
Commutative algebra thing haha
oh ew
The text used an =
It says that like all finite algebras over it are Japanese
fuck that i dont want to deal with this at 1 am
😏
yeah right??
take my moral support
same
I will think about it a bit
= in AG has an implied "up to shit we dont care about"
before giving up and playing chess
Try to understand wyy the = doesn't quite make sense
chmonkey I got very annoying in manifolds last year
My advice is show that the two are iso abstractly first then try and show that triangle commutes. However much progress or lack of progress you make will be valuable
Because there's a ton of identifications we make with the tangent space
That are ""canonical""
and every time we got a new one
Yeah haha, I talked to someone and he was like “bro that pisses me off”
Especially with lie algebras
I was like "okay so is the compatible with the others"
Are they?
And then lee would be like "wait literally one minute I'm getting there"
yeah ofc otherwise they wouldn't be canonical :^)

Chmonkey can you send me a screenshot of your notes on this?
Yeah
Lie(G) can be identified with the tangent space of G at the identity
but also if M is a submanifold of N and p is in M, we have this canonical embedding T_p M -> T_p N
but also lie is functorial so if H is a subgroup of G, we get a map Lie(H) -> Lie(G)
and the rectangle u want to commute commutes
all the identifications are compatible
Manifolds are blessed
amen
I found my solution to the problem
Did you show it commutes with inclusions and stuff
warning, I havent looked at this in a while
no idea lol
yes it looks like I did
kind of
I showed some kind of niceness of the isomorphism
no i did not
Haha me neither!
I decided on a different meaning of = that day
I didn’t realize that’s what I actually wanted. Same
I showed it was compatible with the maps from (im phi)(U) for each U
My meaning was “this is defined by universal property so = means it has that universal property”
yeah lmao same
After thinking for like 6 hours and going
ughhh
Wtf
I think?
@vestal snow not a full solution but very close
I showed that = was nice but nice in a different way lmao
Okay I'm signing off
@latent anvil Thanks!
Any hint for this?
I don't think there was any theorem introduced which could be used to conclude that a given set is open
And since X is an arbitrary topological space, I don't know what the open sets look like
okay so one useful way to think about openness is that U is open iff it's a neighborhood of each of its points
What does it mean for N to be a neighborhood of x? It means that N contains some open set containing x
So it's a little circular, but a lot of the time you can show a set is open by looking local to any particular point and showing you can fit in a smaller open set
So let U be the set of points where s_x = t_x
let x in U be arbitrary
Then s_x = t_x as germs
Yeah thats what I tried
When are two germs equal?
WLOG, we can just consider the set of all points such that s_x = 0
Sure y
That's a little less general since it doesn't work for F just a sheaf of sets
but I'm nitpicking
so when is s_x = 0?
When some restriction of it is 0
Yes
what can we say about s_y for y in V?
OHHHH
haha yeah
Yeah
I got until s|U = 0
And I tried intersecting with the original set, but that would need that the original set is open
so circular
But yeah
I didn't think about that
Thanks
So quick question
How would this change if we wanted to do it more generally?
If s_x = t_x
I mean that means that s and t map to the same thing in the direct limit
But I don't think that's what you were looking for?
No, that's still pretty abstract
Do you know how to explicitly construct a direct limit like this?
I want to say that they eventually map to the same thing, but idk
that's exactly right
So if you have a big directed system
We can just take the disjoint union of all the members of that system
I have seen the construction of the direct limit
Oh okay
It was in Atiyah MacDonald
Then yeah it's exactly the equivalence relation defining the direct limit
That they eventually map to the same thing
But it didn't talk about what happens when s_x=t_x
at some "finite" step, before we take the limit
Yeah so we can simplify things in the casw of a direct limit
Im grabbing my copy of AM
To make sure we're on the same pag.
pg 33
Okay so instead of taking the direct sum, let's take the fiddling disjoint union of all the Mi
Okay
And then mod out by the equivalence relation (xi in Mi) ~ (xj in Mj) iff there's some k >= i, k >= k such that μik(xi) = μjk(xi)
we define module operations by choosing representatives and pushing forward to some common Mk where they're defined
This is iso to the construction in exercise 14 by using exercise 15
thanks
so if μi(x) = 0 we have μij(x) = 0 for some i, right?
then if μi(x) = μi(y), look at x - y
for some j we have μij(x-y) = 0 since μi(x-y) = μi(x) - μj(y) = 0
- might not be defined
well how do you define the direct limit of sets?
Presumably you're not using a direct sum, right?
The construction I gave using a disjoint union does have the right universal property in Set
Right, I'm asking how you define the directed limit of sets
I define it by taking a disjoint union and modding out by an equivalence relation like above
Oh okay
That has the right universal property
So the construction in A-M doesn't work for sets
So no matter what construction you choose it'll be iso to this one
no, it involves a disjoint union
And quotienting by a submodule
neither of those make sense in the category of sets, but coproducts (= disjoint union) and coequalizers (= mod out by equivalence relation) still work
okay
I find the direct sum definition of a directed limit of modules ugly
and more awkward to work with
Got it
I would look at your construction in more detail sometime later, but I think the one I know is gonna work in most contexts for now
Sure
yeah lol that's why I don't do it
Like I spent 6 hours going through just one page
Yup
Wait
I have bad news
So where did you learn about sheaves?
it gets much much harder after sheaves
No pls
Chmonkey and I and another friend not on here did an AG study group last summer
then we took an AG class last year
I bailed after the second quarter because I didn't have time and wasn't learning that much
tbh I'm kinda learning it just for the application to ANT
I know very little number theory
I really like algebra and I really like geometry
but
When you mix them?
Too hard
Based on the notation introduced up to this point, f^#_x should not have the codomain that is listed here
Magician and I spent like 3 hours on it
apply the inverse image adjunction
He was trying to explain it to me
and prove a thing about stalks
oh okay
Lol I was gearing up
he is much better at this stuff than me
has been slamming himself into Hartshorne and doing nothing else for about 3 months now
very diligently
Everybody gangsta until Hartshorne starts slamming back
I've heard that that book is even more difficult than Liu
lmao
I am a very mentally weak man though so take that with a grain of salt
I'm considering going back to it next month
I have until the 30th for school to start
lucky
But I also kind of want to finish this chapter of the analysis book I've been reading
Haha absolutely not
mine started
I'm bored out of my mind
I just managed to reset my sleep schedule
After sleeping from 5am to 3pm every day
It's now 3am, it's happening again
10 hours?
I usually can only sleep 2-3 hours at a time
So I usually sleep, wake up and reddit for an hour, and then sleep again
If I fall asleep I'm out for the day
nailed my algebra 1 exam, thank you so much to everyone who helped me !!!
this exam was one of those where none of the questions are generic or similar to some i've already done
so i really had to work my brain to get it
but i nailed it
nah its abstract algebra, we just call it algebra here
Algebra 1
(im from eastern europe)
we also call calculus "analysis"
🧐
Ok,The americans are weird
fancy as fuck
Nice job, glad it went well for you
ty!
@neat ginkgo how was the exam
it was ok tbh
like sometimes we would straight up get questions like:
"a) prove H and K are subgroups of G. are they normal, abelian?
b) prove that f is a homomorphism
c) determine if G/H is isomorphic to K"
which is usually like the braindead problem anyone can solve because
it always turns out to be the first iso theorem
for the homomorphism we were literally given
lmfao
but this time it was a bit more non-obvious
but still pretty easy
actually damn we did have a super easy problem i forgot
what was it
it was some subgroup of the symmetric group S9, and an action from it to X which is literally {1,...9}
lmfao
and we had to find the orbit and stabilizators for every element in X
that was like...
redundant and easy
so kind of annoying really
ty for the help btw man
i hope u had fun with groups
legit couldn't have done it without you
yeah man im 99% sure ill take algebra 2 next year
👼
is algebra 2 about rings?
no clue
okay
i mean algebra 1 was groups rings fields
you took rings and fields?
an algebra is a vector space tho 
actually fk i didnt have fields, because corona cut our last few classes
i hope algebra 2 gets into galois theory
idk how wil lthat help u in ur cs studies
well if algebra 1 is about that then yea algebra 2 should be on galois theory
but abstract algebra 1 so far made me love and appreciate math so much more man
or maybe more group theory
Galois theory comes up a lil bit in cs
really
i love the kind of formal mathematics that tries to tie together different fields of maths
which i assume is the point of category theory
(idk anything about category theory)
Error correcting codes, elliptic curve cryptography and weirdly enough, RAID 6
yea i think u can know about category theory if u like
know haskell ig?
idk im 0 in this cs stuff
but i mean
In computer storage, the standard RAID levels comprise a basic set of RAID (redundant array of independent disks) configurations that employ the techniques of striping, mirroring, or parity to create large reliable data stores from multiple general-purpose computer hard disk d...
if ur interested
and ur a programmer
check out category theory for programmers
on utube
shold be cool
Scroll down to"general parity" in raid 6
its weird i was entering college to become a braindead software engineer and i ended up falling in love with like nieche ass mathematics that im almost never gonna use for engineering irl
and theoretical computer science
yea
sadly im forced by my parents to become an engineer as well
and engineering here has like 0 theoritical shit whatosever
u just learn what u need
but u can always just study the shit u want
@dawn kiln damn this is cool
CS at least has a reasonable excuse for studying random pure maths stuff lmao
^
"yes, I definitely need to study galois fields to implement this new raid 6 server system 😎😎"
LOL
ikr dude my abstract alg professor was trying so hard to like
show us how useful it is in computer science
its really not gonna be useful to any of us individually
Why is the stalk at every point of V here a local ring?
I don't think that this is trivial
Because (O_Y|_V)_y is the direct limit over open subsets of V containing y whereas O_Y,y is the direct limit over open subsets of Y containing y
Note: Ringed topological space means locally ringed in this book
So the second direct limit being local does not imply that the first is local
@latent anvil This is an instance of what we were talking about
To prove the iff we need to use that f^#_x is an isomorphism iff f^# is
However, f^#_x does not really mean f^#_x as we had discussed earlier
Wait what were we talking about?
Oh right
I can give some intuition for wjy stalk of O_Y|V at a point is the same as the stalk of O_Y at that point
So germs at p are like equivalence classes of functions defined on some small neighborhood of p
but if you shrink the neighborhood it's defined on you get the same germ
If f is a function (i.e. section of O_Y) defined on W and W' <= W are neighborhoods of p we have <f, W> = <f, W'>
and you can always shrink the domain of definition of a function by intersecting with V
Really this is a statement about directed limits
If you have some system ${X_i}{i \in I}$ (e.g. $F(U)$ for $U$ a nbhd of $p$) and you take a subset $J$ of $I$ (the $U$s contained in $V$) such that for each $i \in I$ we have $i \leq j$ for some $j$, then $\varinjlim{i \in I} X_i = \varinjlim_{j \in J} X_j$
By = I mean there's a naturally defined morphism from the left to the right and it's an isomorphism
Exercise: prove this
shamrock:
If you think of a colimit/directed limit like a supremum this should be clear, and that's what colimits look like in a poset category
the property of J which I mentioned is called being a "cofinal" subset of the poset I
Given a sheaf O_X and a sheaf of Ideals (of the original sheaf's rings) J, is J_x an ideal of O_X,x?
I think I will need this here
Because we get that for every y in V, 1 is in J_y, but we need J_y to be an ideal in order to conclude that J_y is all of O_X,y
Oooo so I think I’m qualified to give an answer here
What you want to try and do, consider that being an ideal of A is the same as, considering I as an A-module, that you have an injective map I -> A
Try and show that if you take the direct limit of a bunch of injections like I(U) -> O_X(U), that the map from the stalks is also an injection
I think this should work
Oh this might not work actually
Since you’re taking a colimit and not a limit, you can make that work when you’re taking a limit
to get Q[x]/(x^3+1) field, do I need to add to Q
Commander Vimes:
It is isomorphic to Q(1+sqrt(-3)), yeah
Or I guess just Q(sqrt (-3))
Yeah
Every element is of the form $a + b\alpha + c \alpha^2$
Liquid:
yes, i was typing that
Where a, b, c are rational and alpha is a solution to your polynomial
wait, but should not i then just plug in third unity root?
In general if your polynomial is irreducible of degree n your elements will be $a_0 + a_1\alpha + ... + a_{n-1} \alpha^{n-1}$
Liquid:
So if you just adjoin that polynomial you get one root. Sometimes it happens to be that that one root gives you other roots as well
the issue is that expanding x^3+1 as (x+1)(x^2-x+1) will give sqrt(-3) form
but form with third root of unity is also solution
ok lol i am dumb
So actually you can't look at Q[x]/(x^3+1) if x^3+1 is reducible
Sorry I should have been more careful about checking that x^3+1 is irreducible
(or rather it won't be a field)
the red flag should have been when you wrote that Q[x]/(x^3 + 1) is isomorphic to a quadratic extension of Q
this is problem btw
Oh okay
well looks like cubic root of unity helps but hmhm
So you know that an ideal (p(x)) is prime in Q[x] iff p(x) is irreducible
And in a PID we have an ideal is prime iff it is maximal
And an ideal is maximal iff the quotient is a field
So it suffices to show that p(x) is irreducible to show that the quotient is a field
For cubic polynomials it's pretty easy to show they are irreducible by just showing they don't have roots in Q
lol, i havent studied ideals and like proposition that ring is a field is after this exercise
wait lol
(x^3+1) can be factored in (x+1)(x^2-x+1) and that means that it is not field, yes?
Yeah
Basically this demonstrates that the quotient is not an integral domain
So it can't be a field
oh, lol, i have proved before that it is equivalent to absense of zero divisors
so good
Yeah a quotient of Q[x] is a field iff it is an integral domain
Which is equivalent to the statement I made above about an ideal being prime iff it is maximal
but here i have field, ye?
Yeah, you can show this by hand pretty easily
since cubic root is of two is not in Q
by what i then expand Q? by cubic root of two or by complex cubic root of two?
There is a theorem that tells you that both are isomorphic
But I think it's more conventional to expand by the real cube root of 2
Are there any good books to Galois theory that focus on Q only and ignore the complexity that comes from finite fields?
that takes a modern approach*
why what?
Do you have any reason to think it wouldn't be worthwhile for such a thing to exist?
I feel like the only complication fields with nonzero character bring is that irreducible polynomials might not be separable
But that’s not even an issue in finite fields
@stone fulcrum +1
I don't doubt it's useful.
But things are useful at certain points of development. Generalization is useful for experts, but not always so much for learners 🙂
Finite fields are actually way easier
Like, the definitions aren't really at all harder in general
Maybe you don't have to worry in principle about separability if you focus on number fields
But there's basically nobody who will have an easy time learning the foundational theory only when you restrict to number fields. Like oh a normal field extension of Q vs a normal field extension of a general field
And then Galois theory of finite fields is something you can learn in one go and then you know everything
I disagree. For the same reason linear algebra is always taught first with matrices with real entries, rather than abstract linear maps over an arbitrary field.
But I'll take a look into Stewart's book 🙂
Not always, and tbh that's an overrated decision
Linear algebra is usually taught first to students who aren't interested in math or the general case at all
It depends. Sometimes abstraction can help, because it removes detail. But there's a point where the abstraction itself becomes a burden.
I find it weird when a proof based first course on lin alg for math majors sticks to R and C
I mean yeah for non-math majors obviously don't add extra definitions
I just think that sometimes the jump is substantial and sometimes it really isn't
Like okay maybe linear algebra's a weird case because if you zoom in on R there's dot products
So some people present early linear algebra theorems in terms of the dot product
So okay upgrading to general fields means you have to modify your proofs somewhat. I think for math majors the proofs aren't noticeably harder so might as well but there's a biiiiit of a case
Now, Lebesgue measure on R^n vs general measure, that's pointless to me. The theorems are proved in literally the exact same way
So just do 3 extra definitions at the beginning and then call Lebesgue your main example
Calculus on R vs R^n, that's a real jump in complexity
So okay upgrading to general fields means you have to modify your proofs somewhat.
Yeah. This is more or less the sentiment I was chasing.
I'd like to see what the proofs look like in the Q case. It seems like something you could teach to high school kids without a problem.
So yeah it absolutely makes sense to learn it on R first, then R^n. Galois theory? If anything Galois theory of finite fields is the nicer case rather than Q
Since the Galois groups end up all being cyclic
And you have a concrete generator
Is there any convincing "story" you can tell for why you could care about finite fields that would resonate with someone who passed calculus, though? It seems like it's much easier to explain when you're working with Q-polynomials.
I mean even the motivations for Galois theory on Q is kinda like, okay do you like solving polynomials with radicals or doing straightedge stuff, very historical. Really Galois theory is mostly important nowadays for number theory
But I think finite fields in general have a bit of a CS-y type motivation going on
crypto
Indeed.
honestly we should all use p-adics rationals instead of Q🤔
Plus I think the proof that cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible passes through finite fields?
Tbh I feel like Galois theory should be swapped with rep theory in undergrad algebra
notationally, how do i write that (1,1) is a generator for Z2 x Z3, would <(1,1)> = Z2 x Z3 be correct?
That sounds right to me.
Since the traditional motivation for Galois theory is basically all historical and kinda... I don't wanna say expendable but
It's not like oh everyone should know about unsolvability of the quintic. It's cute but it doesn't come up a lot anymore
Nowadays Galois theory is mainly useful for number theory and to a degree algebraic geometry
it's so boring when all the classical stuff are actually done tho ><
So I could make a case for it being in graduate algebra, that if you've got significant interaction with algebra you should know Galois theory
But undergrad algebra to me is stuff that every mathematician in general should know. So I'm much more inclined to make analysts learn rep/Lie theory
I should probably take this to #math-pedagogy but this is a long-running feeling/thought I've had is that mathematics doesn't do an especially good job with recording "narrative" for its development. This is in contrast to, say, physics, which has a very strong story to tell.
Galois theory does seem to have a consistent and well-defined narrative (although @bleak abyss is expressing skepticism towards its utility here). But it comes off to me like there's a conflict between the polynomials-and-geometric-constructions and the actual meat of the theory.
wished he knew more about rep theory.
Basically what happens a lot in math is that people stumble across things in super inefficient ways, or they come up with stuff with an eye toward solving a particular problem
But then it turns out there's a much more powerful, and much harder to appreciate, use
So a long time ago people liked solving equations, which I think Abel actually did first, but the one we tend to remember is Galois
So Galois pulled out Galois theory and group theory to hit those problems. Okay great now those are a thing
Yeah. The method shouldn't be strictly based on history. It should be the most useful lie you can tell to get students to understand, appreciate, and remember the subject.
(If it's not clear by now, I've sunk a fair bit of time into learning Galois theory, but never made any meaningful progress on it 😛 )
But then turns out there's a ton you can do with Galois theory elsewhere, and we've kinda forgotten about polynomials now since that story is over, and there's a more efficient way to phrase the theory that's way more conducive to the newer motivation
But yeah how do you feel right now about Galois theory? What do you know somewhat comfortably atm?
It's been a few years, but I was originally learning algebra through Aluffi's book.
Uh oh
Yeah
Aluffi is not good
I realize the error of my ways in retrospect 😛
Weak problems and his category stuff is only good if you don't get carried away
I can tell you the general gist if you'd like?
I eventually moved to D&F which I liked a lot more. but I didn't get to the chapter on Galois Theory
sure!
D&F is better yeah. It's kinda boring sometimes but does everything and it's super clear
But yeah so, nowadays we're trying to understand field extensions
And note the difference in perspective compared to group/ring theory, in groups you have a fixed group and vary the subgroup underneath
Now you have a fixed ground field and you're asking what fields contain it, rather than what it contains
Right. You want to know how you can extend the thing.
And I imagine you're often preoccupied with the intermediate stages between a field and its algebraic closure.
Yeah. So the very first observation we make is that if you have a field K contained in a field L, then L is a vector space over K
Since scalar multiplication is just multiplication
Yep. So Q(√2) is dimension 2 over Q, etc.
Daminark:
Right. So that precludes R over Q, because that's very infinite dimensional, as is Q(π). So you're really focusing on even a tiny portion of the field extensions between k and k^bar.
Yes. I'm aware of that.
I meant only that R is infinite dimensional over Q.
as would be Q^bar.
as would be Q(π).
Yeah
And implied in this is that the whole point of doing these extensions is that you're thinking about polynomials in the background.
That each extension you make is really done with the aim to bring new solutions to previously insoluble polynomials.
(aka, to reduce a previously irreducible polynomial)
Well, I won't make strong claims about what the aim is here. But if nothing else you see that these two ideas are linked
You can take an irreducible polynomial and give it a root, this is the classic ring theory trick of k[x]/(f)
Sure. That could be one possible aim, and maybe a good one to highlight.
And yep. The trick then introduces the new equation f = 0 into the resulting field.
And then if you give me finite field extensions, well each element happens to be the root of some polynomial. And if you take the set of polynomials which kill an element, that's an ideal in k[x]
There's a unique monic generator of that ideal, this is called the minimal polynomial
But there is a bit of a tension here
Let's consider the case where our base field is Q. If we want in principle we can think of everything happening inside C
sure
If we do the Q[x]/(f) trick to get a field extension, well in C you could be talking about multiple things
For example, let's say I want to adjoin a root of x^3 - 2
K = Q[x]/(x^3 - 2) gives me one thing. But then in C that polynomial has 3 different roots, so I can embed K into C in 3 different ways
When you say embed, you're not talking about a ring map K → C though, right?
Yes I am
Note that being a ring homomorphism out of a field automatically implies that you're injective
So there should be three such maps.
Yes. That mathfact, I do remember properly
having to do with something something kernels are trivial because fields.
Yup
Sure thing
Analogously R → C embeds in two different ways, intuitively due to the fact that you can adjoin i or -i.
Well, more that C embeds into C in two different ways
R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
But yeah you have the idea. So we can either take the identity C->C, or complex conjugation
Right. I get for C → C that there's two field maps.
But R → C, there should only be one... I think
Yeah
So that means i misunderstood what you said earlier
So in the C case, the fact that the polynomial x^2 + 1 doesn't really know the difference between i and -i is basically the statement that we have multiple embeddings. In other words, we have automorphisms of C sending i to -i
and what you said amounts to the fact that our "generator" for the solutions (the x in Q[x]/(f)) might end up being any one of three of the "concrete" solutions in C.
yeah.
Yup, and in fact if we add on all the roots of x^3 - 2 to Q, then we have automorphisms swapping them around
And this is where the group theory comes in
because you see that field extensions permute the roots. But if you play around, you'll find the permutations are sometimes constrained.
and sometimes they aren't.
Yup, and then the magic of Galois theory is that the group is related big time to the structure of field extensions
In our example, you have three items, but I think you can only "rotate" them in the plane.
Yeah, so that's kinda what's going on here at large
As a tool, it seems to me still that -- unless you have a preoccupation with field extensions for their own sake -- we're still mostly either thinking about the nature of the polynomials or of the fields involved.
I think that's one of those things where, before people used to care about the polynomials more
Now I think people have started caring more about the fields, since in stuff like number theory
You want the arithmetic of higher fields
That sounds reasonable enough to me.
stares at his book on algebraic number theory he never finished.
Well, I'm glad at least everything you described was the parts I actually understood from the classes and books I've gone through.
Algebra is a major artery of mathematics.
or algebraic number theory
or u can study like more shit in rep theory
or specific tools like homological algebra ( for AT )_
To the converse, there's very little you could do without algebra 🙂
category theory ig
xD
you absolutely need algebra for category theory
in theory you could be a half-decent analyst without it maybe
not something u dont need alg for
iidk
sometimes i jusut thinnk ppl think its cool to hate on it
it just attracts alot of newer guyus
and they get trapped tahts it
but nothing else
really thats just my honest take
yea i agree with viburnum do more algebra
uptill galois theory and some like rep theory maybe
if youre interested in serious research in (pure) math
definitely try and get exposure to both algebra and analysis
at least at the undergraduate level
lots of fields are interdisciplinary or sit at the intersection, or at the very least you'll get a better idea of what kinds of things youre interested in
plus it lets you know what kinds of tools are appropriate to answer what kinds of questions
like a course in functional analysis will give you an intuition for when analytic tools can be useful in the study of vector spaces
(since in practice functional analysis is mostly the study of vector-spaces-(or-modules)-with-analytic-structures)
i heard that it's more because so many algebraic xxx uses the same foundations that have a huge amount of prereq that result in all these foundations being represented quite a lot cuz of lots of qns like how do i learn/understand xxx
meanwhile analysis type areas feel more like mostly disjoint areas without a huge chunk of prereq so qns are generally all in different places and also you dont get answers :p
can soemone help me with proofs?
im having a hard time constructing this proof
i have no idea how it relates back to the theorems or defintions
divisbilty and divison algorithm right now
You can do the forwards direction using Euler's theorem if you know that lol
i got stuck i know it relates to theorem 1.2
What book is that? That looks familiar.
It seems kind of stupid to start off with the wellordering axiom. (aka, "Common sense phrased in a way to confuse students")
Can someone explain what the proof of uniqueness would look like?
Say (F, f_i) and (F',f'_i) (using f instead of \phi because its easier) satisfy the given property
I feel like you have to show that there is an isomorphism from F to F' which behaves well with f_i and f'_i
Like there must exist an isomorphism between F and F' such that it does not matter if we go into F_i directly, or if we first go to F' and then go to F_i
yeah so I think you'd want to show you can glue maps between sheaves first
I think that should be true? This is like the sheaf hom right
What do you mean by gluing maps betweeen sheaves?
Let F, G be sheaves on X and suppose {Ui} is an open cover of X
Suppose we have sheaf maps φi : F|Ui -> G|Ui for each i
Let i, j be arbitrary and let V = Ui cap Uj. Suppose φi|V, φj|V : F|V -> G|V are equal
then there's a unique (in the sense of actual equality) sheaf morphism φ : F -> G
Does that make sense?
Do you see why this is useful for the sheaf gluing problem?
for establishing uniqueness I mean
Let me think one sec
Okay
So this would help because then we would get a sheaf isomorphism between F, F'
because each \phi_i in this case is an isomorphism
So that would probably imply that \phi is also one
yeah you'd look at φ'_i ° φ_i^(-1)
Though it would need to be proved
If I understand the notation correctly
yes
Err no sorry
ψ'_i ° ψ_i^(-1)
That gives an isomorphism F|Ui ≈ F_i ≈ F'|Ui
Right?
What I'm trying to say is F and F' are both locally isomorphic to the same thing
And the family of local isomorphisms is coherent
I don't know what locally isomorphic or coherent means 😦
oh coherent is a nonsense word that mathematicians like to use
it means "plays well with one another" or something like that
The isomorphisms aren't just random isomorphisms, they play well together somehow
It's not really a well defined term
By locally isomorphic I mean you have a cover where F|Ui ≈ F'|Ui
I think I understand the problem now
There's a formal definition of coherent sheaves which is not what I was talking about to be clear
I'm probably gonna skip it because it seems like verifying a lot of details
But I think I have the intuition down
Yeah it does
I found this problem annoying
But also
Skipping problems like this is why I gave up on AG
because I didn't have a solid foundation
I get that, but I feel like its fine for now
I proabably would study the subject in a year or so more rigorously.
Right now I just need enough of it to understand research problems in functional and number fields
Most of which is in chapters 6 and 7 of Liu iirc
It suffices to show A_f is isomorphic to A_{fg} by symmetry. There's a map φ : A_f -> A_{fg} because the canonical map A -> A_{fg} sends f to a unit (1/f = g/fg) and I think that map should be an isomorphism
and the result says that A_f and A_fg must be isomorphic since r(fg) = r(f) cap r(g) = r(f)
I dont understand your last line?
Your problem implies that if r(f) = r(g) then A_f and A_fg are isomorphic
Isn't that sufficient
Because A_g will also be isomorphic
Exactly, so instead of your problem we can show that A_f and A_fg are isomorphic
I meant that I dont get why you need to use this r(fg) = r(f) cap r(g) = r(f)
And this feels better to me because there's a natural map A_f -> A_fg
Because I was to say your problem implies A_f ≈ A_fg
And your problem only applies if the two things you're localizing wrt have the same radical
So I'm showing f and fg have the same radical when f and g do
To show that the thing you're trying to prove is equivalent to A_f and A_fg being isomorphic
Is there a more direct way?
By proving that the map induced from A_f to A_g is an isomorphism
What is that map?
A to A_g takes f to a unit
Oh, then yes
It just felt clearer to me that that was the case in A_fg
But if you see why f is a unit in A_g then use that map instead sure
If φ(x/1) = 0, then x/1 = 0 in A_g, so g^r x = 0 for some r
I don't think we should use a
Sure
because we already fixed it above
I'm not sure what you meant by this:
Say g^m = af and f^n = bg
@vestal snow
Oh I was just writing out r(g) = r(f) in terms of elements
there exists m,n,a,b such that
oh duh
Okay I see how to do this now
suppose φ(x/1) = 0
Then x/1 = 0 in A_g
So g^r x = 0
So g^(mk) x = 0 for some k
Just multiply g^r by g until you get to a multiple of m
Oh but hm this only gives a^k f^k x = 0
Not f^k x = 0
Oh jsut go the other way lol
If g^r x = 0, then b^r g^r x = 0
So f^(nr) x = (f^n)^r x = (bg)^r x = b^r g^r x = 0
so x/1 is zero in A_f
Does that proof of injectivity make sense? I got a little turned around so understandable if not
It suffices to only look at elements like x/1 in the kernel since f is a unit
Lol now that I write it down I'm a bit frustrated that I couldn't do this
I felt like an idiot when I was like "was it how did you get f = a g^r"
Like it didn't occur to me to use the assumption r(f) = r(g)
AG very hard
It's been too long since I've done commutative algebra (3 months)
The plan is to start again on Tuesday
I liked that book too
Well, I only read the first two chapters and the appendix on homological algebra
If I have time I'll try to do some Hartshorne problems during September
But probably not during the quarter 😢
Homological algebra is so great
Chmonkey and I are taking a course on it in winter
You will do Hartshorne during the quarter
I'm so glad the Putnam was moved to a later date
Because I will text you
It’ll probably be pure commutative algebra by the time I do tho lmfao
Don't ask me for help when you're reading actual papers
I have so much stuff. There's no way I'd be able to prepare for it
That's why I don't do the Putnam
That’s why I have forsaken the Putnam
Haha some problems can be wacky
Only because I didn’t care enough
uhuh
The Putnam coordinator (who happens to be the same guy who wanted me to do AG in 15 days) basically recruits math majors to take it kinda like Army recruiters at the mall
lmao
Sadly you cant bait him with updog in response like you can with army recruiters
I'm 0 for 3 but someday I'll get one
Some putnam questions are really easy
Yea,I guess so
i have a silly question
why cant we calculate any cohomology group using free resolution ...0 -> Z -> Z ->0
yes
How would you use this resolution to calculate cohomology?
Like, say I give you a cochain complex C
how is this free resolution useful in computing H^i(C)
hmm
what i thought was we can using standard resolution and any projective resolution gives same cohomology groups
Okay so I think you're thinking of a different meaning of cohomology than me
You calculate derived functors using a projective resolution, and sometimes we refer to derived functors as cohomology (eg sheaf cohomology or group cohomology)
Could you define cohomology for me?
i am talking about group cohomology here (dont really know what sheaf cohomology is)
Okay
Please specify that lol
What's your definition of group cohomology? Is it in terms of Ext?
Could you define cohomology for me?
yes. take projective resolution of Z then apply functor Hom(_,A) and then ker / im
Okay yeah that's what I was thinking
You're resolving Z over the ring Z[G]
Not as an abelian group
What's your definition of group cohomology? Is it in terms of Ext?
yes so it is Ext^n(Z,A)
i dont understand why does it have to be? ( we are talking about free resolution of Z)
Nice
actually i remembered that this was used when G={1} so it didnt matter there ! but cant use it everywhere (because as u pointed out Z wont be free)
So just a note, if you say cohomology unqualified it usually means the groups H^i(C) = ker(di)/im(d_{i-1}) for a cochain complex C
Which is why I was so confused earlier
right so i have to specify cochain complex
Weibel if you're fine with your theorems only being true up to homotopy
Ya. Weibel is considered std txt on homological algebra afaik
can homological algebra be taught for its own sake
or is it just uysed as a tool for AT
is it col
Tbh knowing very little of both homological and commutative algebra
I think homological is cooler
I'm having some trouble understanding why a maximal ideal must be of this form
I.e the general form
How they conclude that m = the intersection
Do you see why m is contained in that intersection?
I guess I'm having some trouble moving from k[x,y] to F[x,y]
Because the elements of F are also "polynomials"
Hmm ok
we don't know what it is
And k a subfield
But we have a map k[x, y] -> F with kernel m
Yup
So a map out of k like this has to send x to some value a and y to some value b
Yeah
And really it's just φ(f(x, y)) = f(a, b)
Then I would like to think X-a and Y-b lie in that kernel
well not exactly
Why is that?
Ok I think the second line is what I'm having a hard time understanding
Hmm
So we map into F
I think the thing I said earlier about f being an abstract field is making things more confusing, sorry
Ok so we just use homomorphism property?
That would make sense
So φ(a x^n) = aφ(x)^n
Yeah ok, that makes a lot of sense
So our homomorphism is determined by where X and Y maps
Yup! This is the "universal property" of k[X, Y]
It's the free k algebra on two generators
Okay, so we have a map k[x,y] -> F
It's given by evaluating at (a, b) for some a, b in F
Now if f is in k[X, Y]
and f(a, b) = 0
Then thinning of f as a polynomial with coefficients in F, we have f in (x-a, y-b)
Because if an element of F[x, y] is zero at a point it's contained in the corresponding maximal ideal
For any field F
Ok, we proved that for one-variable polynomials
I guess you can do the same with two variables?
any number
I meant this part
Yeah pretty much
Then thinning of f as a polynomial with coefficients in F, we have f in (x-a, y-b)
@latent anvil
If f(a, b) = 0
Yeah
