#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 476 of 407
oh yeah... I kept looking at it as x^7 - 11 = 0.
oh true
but we couldn't adjoin the one real root of x^7 - 11 = 0, otherwise we'd just get back R wouldn't we?
but that wouldn't be the splitting field
which is what you asked for
I mean
x^7 + 11 also has a real root
right, just wanted to clarify...
yeah
oh yeah. but that one real root doesn't generate the other 6 imaginary roots
Okay what I've gathered is I should sleep
That's where I get confused actually, I know x^7 + 11 isn't irreducible over R since its degree higher than 2, but idk what conclusions to draw from that
if a poly is irreducible then adjoining any root will giev isomorphic fields
like if f is irred. over a field K and if a and b are roots of f
the K(a) is iso. to K(b)
Okay, so in this case, it isn't irreducible since if we adjoin the real root we just have R which isn't isomorphic to C
x^4 + 1 has no real roots, correct
But is reducible in R
Yeah I read about cyclotomic fields and didn't understand a thing
correct
Okay cool
that's a good example of a non-irreducible poly that doesnt have any roots
Okay that's exactly what I thought too, but there is this theorem in my book that seems to contradict it.. I will find it very quickly.
This: "Theorem. Any polynomial of positive degree with real coefficients can be
factored into a product of linear and quadratic terms with real coefficients."
mhm
How would we apply that to x^4 +1 or any cyclotomic type
that poly can be factored as a product of two quadratics
okay what about x^7 -1 = (x-1)(1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4 +x^5 + x^6)
how can we factor the second term in that product?
the statement of that theorem doesn't tell you how to do it
it just says that it's possible
but in this case it will factor into a product of 3 quadratics
if you're looking at things like x^n - 1
it'll be 2 linears + the rest quadratics if n is even
and 1 linear + the rest quadratics if n is odd
Oh I see.. and those quadratics will be the terms "containing" all the nonreal roots?
interesting, I think I accidentally proved that once while failing to try to prove the Eisenstein irreducibility criteria
Right because complex also have their conjugate as a root
yep
Is there an efficient way to find this factorization given an arbitrary polynomial?
like, to actually find the factors? or just to figure out if they're linear or quadratic
To find the factors themselves... but I guess that would really just amount to solving the polynomial wouldnt it
Okay interesting. Thank you for clearing that up. That splitting field over R was getting to me
in general you should expect questions "over R" to be easy
which is just to say that the only options are R or C
So I'm working with finding splitting fields over Q for given polynomials, and what I'm not sure how to do is find the degree of that field over Q, denoted $[E:\mathbb{Q}]$
Sonicollin:
the degree [E:Q] is usually defined as the dimension of E as a Q-vector space
so I need a set of vectors that spans E where the coefficients are elements of Q?
yes having a basis of E would be nice
ok that's where I get stuck with nth roots of unity (e.g. zeta_6)
I know that for Q(i), a basis over Q would be {1, i}
so for Q(zeta_6), would {1, zeta_6} be a basis over Q?
zeta6 squared is zeta3 right?
hm yes
a sqrt(3) ??
right?
no
what about the zeta_n = cos(2pi/n) + i*sin(2pi/n) definition?
then wouldn't zeta3 = (-1/2) + i*(sqrt(3)/2)?
yes ?
so that's where I'm getting the sqrt(3)
that doesn't mean sqrt(3) will be in Q(zeta3) or in Q(zeta6)
well that's confusing
do you have computed the real parts and imaginary parts of zeta6 too ?
yeah
so do you think it's possible to write zeta3 as a linear combination of 1 and zeta6 with rational coefficients ?
if it is then it shows that the Q-span of 1 and zeta6 is a field, Q(zeta6)
and since zeta6 is not rational then you know that 1 and zeta6 are independant so it's a basis
well you could
also I do happen to have the minimal polynomial of zeta6, and I know that it's degree is 2 which means [E:Q] is also 2
but I don't actually know the reasoning behind it very well
well say x = zeta6
if x² wasn't in the Q-span
you would add it to your vector space and then try to write x³ as a linear combination of 1,x,x²
etc
ok
and when you can write x^n as a combination of 1,x,x²,...,x^(n-1)
well it means you have found a polynomial f of degree n with rational coefficients such that f(x) = 0
hmm yeah you're right
so back there I made you find the minimal polynomial of zeta6 again
linear algebra theory right?
well yeah if you haven't done linear algebra, field theory is going to be nigh impossible
so once you have a vector space E = span(1,x,...,x^(n-1)) and you know that x^n is in E
then you know that multiplication by x is a map from E to E
because the image of each basis vector is in E
and multiplication by x is a linear map
so you don't need to check the higher powers any more
ok or in other words you can write x^n as a linear combination of the other vectors
and in order to be a field you need not only stability with multiplication but also existence of inverses
and that's where the minimality of the polynomial comes in
hmm
if y is some nonzero element of E
you can define a multiplication by y map
E -> E
and y has an inverse <=> 1 is in the image of it
<=> the image is E
<=> the map is injective (linear algebra !)
<=> the kernel is trivial
but now you ponder
what does it mean to have a nontrivial kernel
uh huh
and it should imply somehow that your polynomial f(x) was reducible
I feel I'm missing a bit of the proof
say y = g(x) and you have found z = h(x) such that z*y = 0, you get g(x) * h(x) = 0 modulo f(x) (as polynomials in Q [x]) but that's not exactly what we want
ok
anyway, g and h would have smaller degree, and one of g(x) and h(x) would need to evaluate to 0
which means you get a smaller polynomial than f that annihilates x
annihilates x?
if x is in C, a polynomial f annihilates x if f(x)=0
ah
and then you compute the gcd of f with (g or h) to get a factor of f which shows that f wasn't irreducible
i guess
so if you miss the fact that zeta3+1 = zeta6
I found that
and go and find the polynomial f(x) = x^3+1 instead
well that polynomial isn't irreducible
so that's how you would know you have missed something
oh in order to get a field I mean
yeah
Hey @everyone, I'm trying to get into higher math and I like algebra because of its relationship to type theory and computer science. I have a couple of algebra books such as Arten (used in the Harvard online course), but I find it easier to learn things by making projects that utilize the concepts I want to learn (and I guess a lot of programmers are the same way). Are there any project-based abstract algebra courses online or elsewhere that any of you are aware of or have experience with?
oh btw thanks a ton @hot lake . You were a big help!
Hi anyone on here?
I am trying to define a congruence relation for the Hurwitz integers: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hurwitz_quaternion
In mathematics, a Hurwitz quaternion (or Hurwitz integer) is a quaternion whose components are either all integers or all half-integers (halves of an odd integer; a mixture of integers and half-integers is excluded). The set of all Hurwitz quaternions is
...
Such that if you have Hurwitz integers like A, B and N,
A is congruent to B (mod N)
i'm not sure how that would look like, or how to define something like that and prove it
In any reasonable definition of this, A being congruent to B mod N should be equivalent to (A-B) being divisible by N
that seems like a fine condition
thanks!
Sorry, my maths isn't that strong, and I have a difficult(for me) research task
so how would this work with other operations
like if i want to compute B = A^2 mod N?
what do you mean? that's not a computation
that's a statement
which (according to our previous definition) means that B - A^2 is divisible by N
If B is unknown?
I'm not sure what you mean then
So you're trying to calculate A^2 modulo N, when you are actually given A?
oh, that's a different thing then
yes, and N is known
why not just reduce all of the coefficients modulo N
err N is anytthing
which is ok if N is odd at least
N is always odd in my case
coefficients of the quaternion correct?
yeah
N is also a quaternion
the norm(N) is odd
I see
if you know about rings and ideals
then you're just looking to describe the quotient ring H/(N)
(here I think we want (N) to be the two-sided ideal but I'm not totally sure since I don't deal with noncommutative rings all that much)
so primes form an ideal in Z correct?
no
no
I think yes, since H is an euclidean domain
the sum of two odd norms need not be an odd norm
I think a similar argument can be made for H
the problem is that H isn't commutative which kinda screws things up
you're right that all left ideals are principal
as are all right ideals
but when you want to talk about "mod N" you need to determine if you mean left ideals or right ideals or two-sided ideals
my grasp on all of this is tenuous as it is 😦
if you want to actually get a quotient ring though then you need a 2-sided ideal
yeah I don't know much noncommutative ring theory
sorry
np and gl
Did you read the hint
Yes
Am I reading this question correctly
From what I understand
The question is asking me for some power of (2+i) that equals an integer then it must be some multiple of 5
First I need to show that some power of (2+i) is 5
I have no clue how to do this
no power of (2+i) is 5
<r> is all members of the form ar
So there's some number a ∈ Z[i] such that a(2 + i) = 5
It does haha
But that's what it generates
Note that all powers of r is not usually an ideal
quick question
let G be a group , H be an abelian group , and f:G--->H is a group homomorphism. Show that [G,G] is contained in ker(f)
proof: let x be in [G,G]
x = [x_1,y_1][x_2,y_2] ..... for x_i,y_i in G for all i
f(x) = f([x_1,y_1][x_2,y_2]......) = f([x_1,y_1])f([x_2,y_2]).... = [f(x_1),f(y_1)][f(x_2),f(y_2)]......
= 1
hence x in ker(f)
you dont need to do this nonsense with so many x and y, just do it for one
yea it should be
x = [x'^a,y^b]
for some x and y generators
?
or is it
x = [x,y]^t
for some int t
i think its this 1 ^
just show it for arbritary x,y
[G,G] is generated by [x,y] for arbriatary x,y
so showing that is enough
yeah
first GT problem ever woo
The picture's pretty hard to read
Yeah, that's the right idea
you need to show that 5 is in <2 + i> since that's one inclusion
That shows that 5Z is a subset of <2 + i> intersect Z
The work afterwards shows the other direction
that 5Z is a subset of <2 + i> intersect Z
But that's what showing 5 is in <2 + i> shows
was the 2ndd part pointless?
No, again, the second part shows that <2 + i> intersect Z is a subset of 5Z
This is how you show two sets A,B are equal. You show that A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A
ok
so
what about part a and b shows c
Z[i]/<2+i>
the elements of it have the form a + bi + <2+i> correct?
yeah
so part (a) shows that every element of Z[i] can be represented by an integer
and part (b) shows which integers are enough
yeah, that's the right idea
Can anybody tell why g being a class function implies that it becomes 0 when the identity is satisfied
@oblique river
are the chis the characters of irreps
Yes
that sum is the inner product of g and chi
Yes
or maybe |G| times that
Yes yes |G| times
the chis form an orthonormal basis with respect to that pairing
so if you pair to 0 with every basis element
you are 0
it's just linear algebra really
Yes but we aren't summing over the chis
The chis form an orthonormal basis, yes, I agree but over here the sum is being evaluated over the group elements
yes lol
that is the inner product
the inner product is not "sum over chi"
that wouldn't make sense
But in this case then the basis should be X1(s_i) right for all i ?
what?
chi(s_i) is a complex number
the set of class functions of G has the structure of a complex vector space
the characters of irreps form a basis
which is orthonormal with respect to that pairing
YES Okay so the characters form a basis right of the class function space
yes
OHhh I think I got you. What you are saying is the fact that the sum is 0 implies that the inner product between g and X1 is 0. Correct?
I mean like we agreed earlier, that sum is the inner product (up to a factor of |G|)
so if the sum is 0
Yes yes
And why does inner product being 0 implies g is 0 ?
because the inner product is 0 for all chi
this is now just linear algebra
<g, chi> = 0 for all chi
and the chi form a basis
therefore g = 0
I mean they only evaluated for chi1?
it literally says "for all chi"
Ahhhh Right right thanks! Sorry for the silly questions
Cam someone explain me the steps in the follow division? - concrete abstract algebra example 5.3.3? It is primarily the concept of dividying by both f1 and f2 at the same time that confuses me.
im trying to show that $1/p$ has decimal expansion with period that divides $p-1$. To do this I let $1/p = 0.\overline{a_1\cdots a_n}$ and so we must have that $p(\underline{a_1\cdots a_n}) = 10^n - 1$ i.e. $10^n = 1\pmod{p}$. Can we just use Lagrange's Theorem here or do we need to show something more?
Kraft Macaroni:
From Fermat's little theorem you know that $10^p = 1 \pmod p$, and $p$ is the first time this occurs. You have $10^n = 1 \pmod p$ so you can use that to show that $n$ is a multiple of $p$. And you can also get some conditions about $p$ not being a multiple of $2$ or $5$.
skymoo:
How do you find the conjucacy classes of a sigma in S10?
have you seen disjoint cycle decomposition?
I figured it out! thank you though
ah, no problem
if you haven't seen it before and have some spare time, you should think about what conjugacy classes look like in A_n
Does there exists a finite set S and a partial order ≤ such that there is NO integer n such that S(n) has that type of partial order?
Can someone help me?
its a function
does all partial orders of finite sets appear as the partial order in the divisor of some integer? is basically what its asking
oh I see
well one thing is that there is exactly one maximal element
you can have lots of maximal elements in arbitrary partial orders on finite sets
assuming you are saying what I think you're saying
also I guess 1 is minimal?
i didn't really understand the question which is what i was asking about
so given a number n, you can make a factor tree of n
this tree is a partial order if you say j < k if j|k
factor tree here means all the elements m with m|n
so 1 is minimal and n is maximal
so there is exactly one minimal and exactly one maximal element
and the remaining elements are the factors of n, right?
all the elements are the factors of n
its pretty easy to construct other invariants of the factor tree
for example the number of elements a, b, c where a<c, b<c, but a and b are not comparable
if you look at prime powers it is easy to get a lower bound
ok thankyou
but yeah the maximal and minimal elements are the easiest invariants
cyclic subgroups can be infinite right?
only if they're Z
yes ntky
dont mean the intrustion, just looking for a definition clarification
yepyep that's what I meant
some <a> in Z
thanks !
oh okay so
the group mod maximal is not just simple
it has no subgroups
at all
?
right?
yes
this is immediate
yea yea fuck this shit i am just going to write like umm
fourth isomoprhism theorem
lol
qed
t
y
assuming the maximal subgroup is normal obviously
yes
didnt mention that mb
Let G be a finite group, let H be a normal subgroup ofG and let P be a Sylow p-subgroup of H. Then G = HN_G(P)
do i prove this using G ~ HxK
if H and K are normal and intersect at 1?
it's wrong
what
whats wrong
Let G be a finite group, let H be a normal subgroup ofG and let P be a Sylow p-subgroup of H. Then G = HN_G(P)
?>
you need more conditions
oh ok
isn't the trivial subgroup normal though?
I deleted
why
cause I didn't want to see it
what
this is my msgn ot yours
but okay
can i prove this
using G ~ HxK
?
where H and K are normal
and intersect at 1
I don't see why that's relevant
G ~ HK* sorry
N_G(P) is not normal
normalizer is the largest subgroup of G st P is normal in it
lol what
i gotg the proof
did you read the proof online?
yes
smh
I mean to confirm that the problem was correct
okay now
1 more problem im sorry
this is the big one
i am shit with nilpotent groups
i cant even remember their definition lmaoa
now how can i prove
that A finite group is nilpotent if and only if every maximal subgroup is normal
so ig a nilpotent gruop G is a any group such that
Z_c(G) = G for some c
now i really dk what Z_i(G) mean
i think Z_i(G) = Z_i-1(G/Z_i) something like thjat
Z(G/G_i)
Z_i(G) = Z(G/G_i)
and G_i is the group of index i in the
umm
composition
series right?
and G_{i+1}/G_i subgroup of Z(G/G_i)
I am reading this off wiki lol
yea nilpotent groups suck right?
yea okay any hints?
we'll see once I do it
okay
probably maximal subgroup is normal implies nilpotent is trivial
We know G_n/G_{n-1} is contained inside Z(G_n/G_{n-1}). Obviously this tells us G_n/G_{n-1} is abelian, so every subgroup is normal.
this gives us the nilpotent implies maximal subgroup is normal direction
okay
do you see why?
yea cuz G is nilpotent
it's cause 4th isomorphism theorem
yes
yea yea
i thought We know Gn/G{n-1} is contained inside Z(Gn/G{n-1}).
was cuz of nilpotent
lmao
no
is this statemtn for all n
oh
n is the class irght
nilpotency class?
or no no wait wtf
ugh sorry i dont get it now
i am really not that good with the definitions
u assumed G is nilpotent
so there exists c such that Z_c(G) = G
Z(G/G_c) = G
I'm using the wikipedia definitions lol
bro im not that good to just
go from def to results
so please slow on me
okay so Z(G/G_c) = G
okay so we are looking at G_n/G_{n-1}, where G_n is G
for some c
okay now lets considier G_n/G_(n-1)
now whats n
okay well we have this
it's the n st G_n=G
this isn't a composition series
yeah
this is nilpotent
so G_n/G_n-1 is abelian?
isnt this for solvable?
lmao
sorry
wait
G_n/G_n-1
is in Z(G/G_c)
okay so we have $G_n/G_{n-1}$ is contained in $Z(G_n/G_{n-1})$
Liquid:
so it is abelian
okay
which gives us a correspondence
between normal subgroups in $G_n$ that contain $G_{n-1}$
Liquid:
thatshio fourthi so
and subgroups in $G_n$ that contain $G_{n-1}$
okay now i get why G_n/G_n-1 is abelian
Liquid:
how do u say all subgroups are normal then
not sure, only seeing at least one is normal so far.
maybe you can do some third isomorphism theorem stuff
hmm
okay let's try the other direction instead. if every maximal subgroup is normal then the quotient by a maximal subgroup is in fact a group of order p
yea
tahts by some theorem actually
lmao how did u know this xd
some bigass theorem
sylow
no not sylow
it's immediate from sylow
oh yeah nvm
mi mxied with
with the theorme on p groups
that all maximla subgroups are of index p
so by choosing a maximal subgroup N consider 0 < N < G
and normal
I think that works
thats for p groups tho
so maximal implies only subgroups of quotient is 0 and G/N
apply sylow to get existence of a subgroup of order p for any prime factor p
and you're done
okay i get the first line
i dont get how im done
okay so the first terms in the sequence should be N < G
I think you have to use all the maximal subgroups
okay so I am building the sequence backwards from how you are
wait
can you post your definition?
lol
this seems unrelated
why would that be true?
okaay so
suppose P_i is normal in G for all i
like suppose all sylow p subgroups are normal
okay but why would all sylow p subgroups be normal
cuz its nilpotent
that seems much stronger than nilpotent
that implies you are a product of your sylow p subgroups
okay so we start with N < G
now take a different normal subgroup N' which intersects N nontrivially.
contradiction
suppose P is not normal in G
N_G(P) is in M
cuz P is a subgroup of N_G(P)
and M is maximal
M is normal by assumption
boom
farttini go brr
now what
XD
G= MN_G(P)
now what
sorry what?
nope
you seem to be claiming that N_G(P) is inside M
which would give us a contradiction
but it's not necessarily
nope
😢
lol
bro listen
tbh idk if the statement you made is true
lol
i'm not sure what you're saying
let G be anilpotent group
and H be a subgroup of G
then H is a subgroup of N_G(H)
good?
okay
so now if M is maximal
then M contains N_G(H) by default
as H is a subgroup of M
isnt that why u said my argument is wrong
apparently the statement you made is true btw (the nilpotent implies sylow p subgroups are normal)
why does M contain N_G(H)
cuz H is in M
so?
dont they all do
any subgroup is contained in a maximal subgroup no?
how wouldnt a maximal subgroup not contian
another smaller subgroup
what
not contain*
ur implying that there can exist am aximal
subgroup that cant contain N_G(H) right?
how tho i dont understand sorry
im slow
are you saying that every maximal subgroup contains any group?
okay, your proof is actually almost good
yeah
whats wrong
cause you may need to switch up the maximal subgroup you're looking at
you have to say "let M be a maximal subgroup that contains P and N_G(P)"
not just "let M be a maximal subgroup that contains P"
N_G(P) by definitio
this is why you need all maximal subgroups to be normal
u remember G = MN_G(P)
not just one
yeah
so that gives us a contradiction
what contradiction lmfao
it contradicts frattini
or you could say "suppose P not normal"
yea i did that
ye ayea i rememebr now
okay did we do the other part?
the other direction?
well you're not done
you have to use the sylow p subgroups to construct the series
okay cool
of syulows
then you're done
then its ni;lpotent
okay
did we do
the other direction
and ifits nilpotent its also a direct product of ..
aswell
no
man this group shit is getting confusing as fuck
too many things
lmao
its like cuphead
eh it's not too bad
we showed there's at least one normal maximal guy
but you have to show every maximal subgroup is normal
or every sylow p subgroup is normal
wait
i said
did is ay that
P is as ubgroup of N_G(P)
cant we do that on M
and then do a contradiction
how would that work?
idk D
let G be a nilpotent group
now by all these theorems i am reading about
if H is a subgroup then H is a proper subgroup of normaliser of H
let M be am ximal that is not normal
obviously
boom M is not maximal no more
why do you keep stating that like its a big fact
cuz N_G is not M
what are you proving
how did you use nilpotent
bro
i swear bro
are u sure
its notab ig fact?
that H is a subgroup]
of N_G(H)
that
that uses nilpotent
no
N_G(H) = {h | ghg^-1 is in G}
right?
the set of elements of H that satisify normalityh
in G
you kept invoking that as a big fact
this shit is confusing as fuck
I was like wtf
yea mb
but ey
hey
i am really confsued with Normalizer right now but ik this
if H is normal in G
then N_G(H) = H
right?
now
no
N_G(H)=G
yeah
now how is H a subgroup of that
XD
wtf are you saying
how is H < N_G(H)
because every element of N_G(H) normalizes H
by definition
and every element of H normalizes H
okay
my brain got fried
okaay
i goti t
now
back to this
suppose G is nilpotent
we want to show M a maximal subgroup is normal
arbitrary
so let M be a maximal subgroup that is not normal
okay?"
u with me
?
okay so
by the easy fact that im too bad
to know
M is a subgroup of N_G(M)
now
N_G(M) is not G bro
cuz M is not normal
contradiction
fuck nilpotency idfc
whats wrong with this
lol if what you said was true
then every sylow p subgroup is normal
looks like you fucked group theory
thats what im saying bro
that H is as ubgropu of normaliseri n G
cuz of nilpotency
somehow u proved me wrong
and im super sad
lol
listen bro
listen
im sure
i have htis math sense
that nobody else has
wait
if G is nilpotent
this implies ( if H < G then H < N_G(H) )
this implies P_i <| G for all i
( P_i is sylow )
that's always true though
this implies G is a direct prodcut of all sylows
the first implication
yea
i meant
the implication
that this implies all sylows subgroups are normal
is true
wtf
wtf are you saying anymore?
u know these umm
statements in textbooks
that say
all these conditions are equivalent
tahts what ims aying
I FIXEDD IT BRO
listen
listen
if H < G then H < N_G(H)
this is true
for all groups
yes
but not proper tho
no
yes
oh
oh ok
makes
yeah
that does it