#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 475 of 407
1/2x + 1/2
fractions not allowed
oh yeah lol
there are no nontrivial elements right?
there aren't then
that would prove it
good
why do we care about x^2 = x lol
there will be 4 possible homomorphisms since j has to be mapped to something that squares to (1,1)
that also works lol
although would it really be easier
(1,0) doesn't square to (1,1)
(1,0) squares to (1,0)
you want to solve x² = x
count the numbers of solutions to show that they are not isomorphic
x² = x have 2 solutions in Z[j]
wait wtf
I bug
@hazy torrent בוא לווייס יחרא
is this jesus language
still more readable than most maths i see
Maths in Hebrew always stresses me out
Not really @thorn flint. First you want to say something like “Observe that I \in N thus N is nonempty” rather than “Let...”. This is kind of a nitpick, but the language is confusing otherwise. As for a bigger problem, you’ll want to make sure that α is not equal to β where you prove N is closed under products. (you have b as the 1,2 position in both α and β). Also, the line where you take the determinant line is unnecessary. Giving an explicit inverse like you did is enough.
For the proof of normality you need more details. The line where you have \frac{1}{g^{-1}}Ng = N leaves me unconvinced. Since matrices are not commutative, you should write out an arbitrary g\in G and n\in N and explicitly multiply everything out in order to show this. You have the idea of what you need to do correct, you just need to make sure your wording is clear, and you need to make sure there are not missing details
@small aurora Thanks for the feedback!
This was a draft version. I wanted to just get the main ideas right and get some feedback. I'll clean it up now
So for the part where its closed under products, should I just put an explicit integer? x = (10 01) and y = (10 11) and show that it still holds in N?
Or maybe show x=(10 b1) y= (10 c1), then xy = (10 bc1). Since bc is an integer, it is in N
Someone please do it
Do the latter Mac
Okay, thanks @small aurora !
I want to get the logic
hey guys hello, im a bit of a new comer here and wanted to know if you guys could help me with a math problem
Just ask
can someone help me with irreducible plolynomials
typeinlatex
anyway, Im u=Ker v does not imply v is onto, it is the final morphism that implies v is surjective since every element is in the kernel. Cokernel of a map f:A to B is defined as B/f(A)=B/im f, doesn't matter if it is in some exact sewuence.
v is a morphism, cokernel is a ring, v•u=0 is implied by the fact it is exact
its super messy:p
Sequence is exact iff coker u=M''
also i dont quite understand the last part
if want to be explicit, usually we go about proving it by first defining ubar and vbar, then let f is in Im vbar, show it is in Ker ubar, if f is in Ker ubar, show it is in Im vbar
and that vbar is injective
I have been working on it for a few days, my assignment is to give a complete explanation for the two sequence. (An exact sequence of modules induces an exact sequence of homomorphisms)
rip uh are you familiar with module homomorphisms :p
A module homomorphism preserves addition and scalar multiplication i believe
yes so it is similar to a group homomorphism and ring homomorphism
So when we some $A-$modules $M,N,P$, and we have the (homo)morphisms $f:M\to N$, $g:N\to P$, we call the sequence
$$M\overset f\to N\overset g\to P$$
of morphisms exact iff im $f=\ker g$. Image and kernels are defined identically to their linear algebra counterparts
When we write $0\to M$ this implicitly means the map that maps the $0$ module to $M$ by sending $0$ to $0$ in $M$. The image of this morphism should be clear
Similarly $M\to0$ is the map that sends all elements of $M$ to $0$, the kernel of this morphism should be clear.
Now going back to the exact seq above, first define $\bar u$ and $\bar v$. Note that elements Hom$(M'',N)$ are morphisms itself.
Now we simply show that $\bar v$ is injective by showing if $\bar v f=\bar v g$, then $f=g$ and show that im $\bar v=\ker\bar u$ by showing both are the same as sets($f\in$im $\bar v\implies f\in\ker\bar u$ and the converse)
howisimnotdefined
Ariana:
This just seems like we are applying the inverse operations to get from the first line to the second line
that is generally illdefined
and doesn't work
rmb Hom(A,B) is a bunch of homomorphisms from A to B
so it is basically functions
I can't decompose further if elements aren't relative prime, right?
yea Z_nm ~ Z_n x Z_m iff (n,m) = 1
like, I can't break Z_8 down further into Z_2 x Z_2 x Z_2
they wouldnt be isomorphic
I'm just kinda unsure if the process is really that simple
nah it is ig
what is c there
ab
gotcha
Oop yes that should be ab my bad
So note there's multiple ways to break a group down
Consider the abelian group Q/Z. Show that this is a torsion abelian group which is *not* finitely generated.
I'm sort of confused by this. If a group is torsion, doesn't that mean that its elements have finite order? doesn't that mean it is finitely generated? or am I mixing things up here..
also kind of unsure how to go about showing it is torsion in the first place.... I need to show that it's elements are all finite?
You're getting things mixed up
Z itself is not torsion, but is finitely generated
Generated by just 1
You need to show all the elements have finite order
No
Is it ||12|| zoph
20?
any hints 😄
I mean, how are you getting your number
im just thinking of lowest common multiples
so in S_20 i can have a cycle of length 15 and 20
lcm(15,20) = 60
thats what i thought of
Why does the permutation has to have only two cycles?
okay, this is what I've come up with. I'm not super confident in the air-tightness of my argument, however.
it oesnt but like
the more numbers i find the common multiple of the less it gets no?
or like
nvm
deku you need to review the definitions
Z has infinite order but is finitely generated
oh finite order =/= finitely generated
well
in the sense that the words you're using are the words that would be in a correct solution
I guess so
but you just need to be more clear with what you mean
which definitions am I confused about here? finite order and finitely generated?
like "Q/Z is torsion because its elements are finite" doesn't erally make sense
oh, "because it's elements have finite order" I meant
but I suppose I can't say that yet, can I
well once you prove that the elements have finie order you can
To show something is torsion, I need to show that its elements have finite order.
yes
I show that the order of the elements of Q/Z are at most n, which is finite, so the elements of Q/Z have finite order, therefore it's torsion.
yes
but the n will depend on which element
differen elements will have different orders
so I'm just off on wording for that part?
yes
what do you mean the n will depend on which element? does that matter? isn't n always finite?
@solemn rain but that formula only works if your cycles are disjoint, which they can't be if you're taking a cycle of length 15 and a cycle of length 20
mm yea
it's just weird to say "the orders of the elements are at most n"
the order will always be at most n, which is always finite, so the order will always be finite
that makes it sound like you're saying there's some number n
which is a bound on the orders of every element
but in reality, the n is different for each element
so I should be saying something like "the orders of the elements are at most some arbitrary n, which is finite" to be clear that the n is not fixed?
no
just prove that each element has finite order
then say "each element has finite order so the group is torsion"
you don't need the n in that sentence at all
also the n is not arbitrary
it's determined by each element
but how else am I proving that each element has finite order? I'm proving they have finite order because they're each bounded by n, which is finite. they're all finitely bounded. I don't mean to imply they're all bounded by the same n.
yes but you are implying that
"consider an arbitrary m/n + Z. notice that n(m/n + Z) = m + Z = Z so the order of m/n + Z is at most n which is finite. since m/n + Z was arbitrary, we conclude that lal element have finite order and thus teh group is torsion"
you prove taht each element has finite order
full stop
therefore the group is torsion
so should I just say "each element is bounded by some finite element n (not necessarily the same for each element)" or something? like just add that little proviso?
the best way to phrase it that way would be "bounded by some n which depends on the alement
but you shouldnt phrase it that way
prove each element has finite order
period
then forget about the n's
then say "therefore the group is torsion"
that's the clearest way to say it imo
okay, I think I've got it.... let me think through this once more.
yheah your "math" is right I just don't think you're being clear in your explanation
What about the other part? Is my showing that the order of Q/Z is infinite sufficient to say it is not finitely generated? Or was my use there also confused about the definition?
Right. So no. I'm trying to look at my definitions to see how I go about proving a group is not finitely generated and I'm kind of lost here. I'm guessing by some proof by contradiction but I'm not sure what theorem or corollary I can use to reach one.
lol
one sec i'll look
*i'll look in one sec
each order is bounded by some finite n
not each element is bounded
oof, you're right lol
also
say what your generators are
like
"suppose Q/Z is finitely generated by x_1, ..., x_j
or somethign
okay. thanks a lot
who here is good at spanish

from https://proofwiki.org/wiki/UFD_is_GCD_Domain. How did they go from 1st line to 2nd line? I tried assuming, for a contradiction, that all irreducible elements in the factorization of f divides d
nvm I think I found another way to do it
okay, I'm just absolutely lost here. looking for any kind of pointers for a direction of attacking this one.
Do you know what conjugating a cycle does?
Like, if σ = (1a) for a > 3, what is σ^(-1) (123) σ?
More generally if σ(1) = a and σ(2) = b and σ(3) = c, what is σ^(-1) (123) σ^(-1)?
@latent anvil No, I guess I do not. I understand what a conjugate is, but I guess I'm having trouble with what it means to "conjugate a cycle." I know if I'm trying to show that c_1 and c_2 are conjugate in S_n, I need to come up with some g in S_n such that c_1 = g c_2 g^(-1). But I'm confused about the information about c_1(x) = x iff x is not in X, etc. and how to use that information to find g....
If A, B are free modules over a finite ring, is A / B free?
uhhh, we haven't talked about modules or rings at all yet
If A, B are free Z-modules, certainly it's possible that A / B is torsion, but I can't find counterexamples when the ring is finite
so I do not know what that means
It's analogous to the case where A, B are just powers of a fixed cyclic group C_n, then A / B is also (isomorphic to) a power of C_n
a friend gave me this question: let's suppose that R is a commutative unital ring, and that we have an isomorphism $\phi: R[x] \to R[x]$ with the property that $\phi(x) = ax + b$ (where $a$ is a unit). Then prove that $\phi$ is uniquely determined.
4TL:
For this problem, it would suffice to show that the map phi restricted to R is just the identity map, since R and x generate R[x]. But I'm struggling to show that R even maps to itself.
@rapid tinsel it's not just analogous, it's actually true, right? I think if the underlying abelian groups of some Z/nZ modules are iso, they're iso as Z/nZ modules
Doesn't the module structure present some form of obstruction to this?
I'm just worried that, since Z/nZ has zero divisors, some things might be killed by accident
Suppose φ : M -> N is an iso of abelian groups. Take x in M and [k] in Z/nZ
Then [k] x = (Σ [1]) x = Σ [1] x = Σ x
Where the sum is taken k times
Then φ([k] x) = φ(Σ x) = Σ φ(x) = [k] φ(x)
Does that make sense?
Basically since the underlying additive group is cyclic with generator 1, and we now how 1 acts, the entire action is determined
Oh right, yeah, because the action is induced by the natural Z-action
Thanks - do you mind if I give you my full context / the whole problem?
@latent anvil If I replaced "submodules" with "free submodules" or "projective submodules", it's not true in general especially for Z-modules (since 4Z < 2Z are both free, and the corresponding thing 2Z/4Z = Z/2Z is torsion, hence not projective). What if I considered Z/nZ-modules instead? Are the free submodules of a Z/nZ-module M containing a fixed free submodule N in bijection with the free submodules of M / N (which is free)?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1951502/bijection-between-submodules-of-m-that-contain-l-and-the-submodules-of-m-l
Hmm I guess this is the third isomorphism theorem or something
could someone walk me through the second half of this proof
I'm not quite sure what 5.14 is saying
$X^tY-X^tA^tAY=0 \implies X^t(I-A^tA)Y=0$
nix:
idk it seems like a trivial tautology e_i is your ith basis element
Oh okay I think i might be seeing it now. 5.14 is just a statement of fact.
if the right vector has only a 1 in the jth column, then when we left multiply B, we just get the jth column of B.
Since the left row vector has only a 1 in the ith column, the dot product just gives the ith row of the jth column
so since $e_i^tBe_j=b_{ij}$ is in the form $X^tBY$ which we know equals zero, then by extension every entry of B, $b_{ij}$ must be zero. So $I-A^tA=0 \implies A^tA=I$
nix:
is that the idea?
hello is anyone here right now that knows how to do abstract algebra
Can you help me with my exam tomorrow online LOL
please do your exam yourself-.-
I'm sure people here would love to help you study for it.
No
ban?
its in 12 hours
thanks
No one here is going to take your test for you.
kk
ban in 12 hrs
Yeah I’ll report
it isnt about forcing someone
I did not imply force of any kind.
it is about academic misconduct
You're not going to get really far in math with that attitude anyways
lmao you noobs and your arbitrary morality on my case, probably don't even uphold your own code
get off my case
We do actually
lmao im sure
oh boy lol
assumptions of you having not lived according to your morality once huh
seems like a basic fact about humans to me
lmao how arrogant to even make that claim
Only sad thing here is you convincing yourself you havent ever once made a decision your regretted
my worldview consists mostly of 🐱
the world is a hard place, you aren't gonna get far sticking to your morals
Its not about whether you should stick to your morals or not
people being flawed doesn't mean they shouldn't aspire to be better. say, for argument, that people here have cheated before. does that mean that they have to help someone else do it, otherwise they're a hypocrite? what a childish position.
you're... preemptively regretting cheating tomorrow?
but still planning on doing it?
we all make hard decisions, that we regret
Thats not the point im making, im saying that what you believe to be wrong isnt the same for me
I have a class ill never work on again
It doesn't matter to me
It doesn't affect anyone if I pass with a 50
are you a math major?
then it shouldn't matter if you fail it
You're not going anywhere in life with this attitude buddy

Its not about going anywhere in life
regardless of morality or whatever, the point is that you're just fundamentally misunderstanding the point of this server and the kind of people who occupy it if you think people will directly help you during a test.
you've got a long ways to figure that out
wait i'm curious what major you are @tranquil ruin
We're not just forcing our morals on you, it's one of the rules of this server which you should have read
Go elsewhere if you want to cheat
No im not, you don't seem to understand what even happened
I asked if someone wants to help me with my exam
if you don't want to don't reply
if its not allowed
say so
instant ban
it's not allowed
lmao get off my case
lol it is said so, in the rules
Nice let me read the apple terms and agreement before I make my account to
Delusional
the rules say "asking for help /during/ an exam is not ok"
so you're expecting people to help you on-demand, but you're not willing to put in the minimum modicum of effort to understand the rules of the space?
lol
the entitlement
bruh reading like a dozen rules for a discord server is not the same thing as a fucking dicken's apple novel
go join another discord server lol
Why? Unless you'll ban me I wont, and I'm not going to ask for exam help again if its not allowed
lmao
It is not.
This is the first thing I have said here.
nice, productive conversation
the group
I enjoy this conversation
It's funny seeing you incapable you lot are
how*
bruh reading like a dozen rules for a discord server is not the same thing as a fucking dicken's apple novel
i think i read this wrong
I won't ask if its not allowed
what is a "dicken's apple novel"
actually curious
cheating on a test for a class that doesn't mean much to me
Incapable of having a conversation
could have phrased better
i know what a dicken's novel is obviously
apple terms + dicken's novel
i see
verbose and long
ahh
good one
lul

wow im shocked
good job im proud of you
Asked for help on exam
No someone ban himOk if it's not allowed I won't ask again
proceeds to talk about getting far in life like thats even a thing
meme reactions as opposed to a response
yeah getting far in life is actually a capitalist myth
rise up against the bourgeoisie oppressors brother
Its not about capitalism LMAO
the only ones with wealth are those born into it
half true lel
It's about what you are striving for, and what you think the purpose of life is
This guy is trying to get us off topic now
was my actual reaction though

Off topic? I started the conversation
this is my favorite subgroup
There's not much of a topic to discuss, the rules and consequences have been made clear.
workers of the world: unite!
kk
or could just just come back in 12 hrs and give some abstract nonsense answer
what is the most communist ring
F_1
red one
- true F_1 doesnt exist
huh?
it means... nonconstant
ie has a term of degree greater than 0
the zero polynomial is a constant polynomial
but so is, say, the polynomial 4 in Z/5Z[x]
you are not reading the problem @scarlet estuary
x+1 is nonconstant poly
@outer meadow what do you mean
also what do you mean "isnt this the same"
those are different theorems
oh okay i see
i guess i haven't read it either, but these are sort of trivilaities, i figured there is something tricky in the problem
...
i guess i expected the question to be something tricky
eg theorem 4.12 is true for nonconstant, or zero polynomials, except that (3) is messed up
lol yea (3) is screwed
Just say nonzero tho
x^2-1=(x+1)(x-1), neither of which is nonzero constant, may it meant to mean nonzero nonconstant?
x² - 1 isn't irreducible
oh whoops
Yea was v confused
mmmm. I'm having trouble with this one. I'm sure I have to put A in Smith normal form, which would make the det stuff easier, but I can't tell how that connects to Z^n /L being finite.
Also, how would I represent A arbitrarily here? just use an arbitrary smith normal form type matrix?
rational root theorem
but there are errors, eg there is no p/q=8 in it
im confused how they got 4 and 2?
How do I check if an operation is well defined?
An operation + is well defined if given a = b, c = d, then a + c = b + d
My exercises are to show that if J is a subring of a ring, then addition and multiplication are well defined on the set of cosets of J
Then do that
How
Basically the problem here is that addition and multiplication are defined using the coset representative
In other words, (a + J) + (b + J) = (a + b) + J
if this is the notation you use
But (a + J) = (c + J) for some other c's
uh, this is just notation to represent a coset?
There's no addition of J's happening
Oh Im dumb af ya know
I dont think I understand what addition means in terms of cosets
This is how it's defined
(a + J) + (b + J) = (a + b) + J
a + J is some coset, so is b + J
Does this mean if I take any a in one coset, add it to any b in another coset, I will always end up in the coset for (a+b)?
but to make it clear to myself, a isn't fixed but (a+J) is a specific coset and a could be any element in that coset? is that right?
Yeah that's the right idea
Okay I think I understand the addition part then
a + J represents a whole coset, and a + J = c + J whenever a and c are in the coset
So how would I write a proof that addition of cosets is well defined?
I tried and put (a+J) + (b+J) = (c+J) + (d+J) = (a+b) + J = (c+d) + J
but it doesnt seem like much of a proof of anything
I feel like I just assumed it tbh
remember, a +J is a whole set, how do you show that two sets are equal?
subsets of each other
so I need to show that a + J and c+J are subsets of each other if a and c are in the same coset?
you're assuming that a + J = c + J (that a and c in are the same coset) and that b + J = d + J
you're trying to prove that (a + b) + J = (c + d) + J
Ive tried to prove it but I don't know how
This is what I did for trying to show that (a+b) + J is a subset of (c+d) +J:
Let $n\in(a+b)+J$, then $n\in a + (b+J) = c + (b+J) = (c+b)+J$. As R is a ring, addition is commutative and c+b = b+c, so $n \in (b+c)+J = b + (c+J) = d + (c+J) = (d+c)+J = (c+d)+J$ So $(a+b) + J \subset (c+d)+J$
Shipreck:
Im not sure about how okay it is to assume a + (b+J) = c+(b+J)
how do you know that a + (b +J) = c + (b + J)?
a and c are in the same coset
but that just means that a + J = c + J
A couple hints maybe to make this easier
a + J = c + J means that a - c \in J, so that a - c = j for some j \in J
This goes both ways as well, so you can transform what you want to prove
(a + b) + J = (c + d) + J
into a + b - (c + d) \in J
a+J = c+J means a -c \in J?
Think I just in general need to go recap my group theory notes because im obvs very very rusty haha
thanks for the help though pal
its if and only if
can someone help me with this one

I'm super close to getting this problem and yet I don't have it
but I can't get the algebra right!
jynelson:
You can write \sqrt{2}
ah well that's nicer
the closest I've gotten is $2 = (a^2 + 2ab\alpha + 2b^2)^2 / b^4$ which is just to ugly to think about
jynelson:
and it's going to be degree 4 anyway so I'm not sure if it even helps me
what is $\sqrt{2 + \sqrt{2}} \cdot \sqrt{2 - \sqrt{2}}$
Buncho Bananas:
well that's the thing I don't know if $\sqrt{2 - \sqrt{2}}$ is in $Q(\alpha)$
jynelson:
if I did I'd be done already
hmm multiplying them gives me sqrt{2}
yes, it's alpha squared
is sqrt(2) in Q(alpha)?
yeah lol
and this works because Q(alpha) is a field
yes
how did you know $\sqrt{2 + \sqrt{2}}\sqrt{2 - \sqrt{2}}$ was going to be useful?
jynelson:
if something works once, it's a trick, and if it works more than once, it's a technique
this is a technique
which is to say that I've seen it used before several times to prove these kinds of statements
Unsurprisingly, $ab=c$ means $c/a=b$ in fields, nonzero things
Darkrifts:
let K be any field. A common fact that can be very useful is the following: K(sqrt(a)) = K(sqrt(b)) if and only if ab is a square in K
(it's also true if you use "a/b is a square in K")
so in this case let K = Q(sqrt(2))
and a = 2 + sqrt(2), b = 2-sqrt(2)
we want to show that sqrt(b) is in Q(sqrt(a))
ab is a square in K
what do you mean by this?
which is equivalent to saying that Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(a)) = Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(b))
a*b is an element of K
and I want it to be a square
like
c^2
for some c
yeah that's why I was confused lol 😆
so I knew to solve this problem basically we needed to check that (2+sqrt(2))*(2-sqrt(2)) was a square in Q(sqrt(2))
which we could rephrase as
the sqrt of the left hand side was an element of Q(sqrt(2))
do you mean $Q(\sqrt{2 + \sqrt{2}})$?
jynelson:
it's not
I never said it was
but (2+sqrt(2))*(2-sqrt(2)) is
and that's what was important
I'm a little confused where the Q(\sqrt{2}) came from but other than that I think I follow
because
this question is equivalent to asking if the extension K(sqrt(a)) = K(sqrt(b)) where K = Q(sqrt(2))
and a = 2+sqrt(2)
b = 2-sqrt(2)
and I know from experience that working iwth quadratic extensions is easier
what do you mean
I defined K to be Q(sqrt(2))
I don't remember seeing K previously defined
but if so, my bad, call it L then
He meant extending Q rather than Q(sqrt 2)
the problem is about proving that a certain degree-4 extension of Q is normal
I observed that that was equivalent to proving a statement about degree-2 extensions of a different field
namely, K = Q(sqrt(2))
which is easier to do because quadratic extensions are easy
ok I think that's enough math for tonight 😆
anyone wanna tutor me for modern algebra? I am willing to pay you. Pm pleaaseee
@leaden finch
I don't need pay haha but feel free to ping if you ever want to discuss something you don't know
Let G be a simple group, and let f : G → H be a nontrivial group homomorphism. Show that if N is a normal subgroup of H which does not contain f(G), then f(G)∩N = {e}.
i am p sure im wrong but any help?
tahts what i tried
suppose for the sake of contradiction f(G) intersects N is not trivial
and N does not contain f(G)
let x be an arbitarily element in N
there doesnt exist an element g in G such that f(g) = x --> not in f(G) ( if x is arbitarily in N then x is not in f(G) then itnersects in 1 )
then f(G) intersects N is the identity
idk wtf
fuck this shit any help?
idk how would u use G is simple
i cant imagine a waay
all i thought was like
mayube showing f(G) itnerssects N is normal in H
hence H is nonsimple
hence contradiction as G and H are homomorphic
but how the fuck would i do that idk
if N does not contain f(G)
then if x is in f(G) then x is not in N ( x is arbitrary
f(g) = x for some g in G
f(g) is in H tho hence in N tho?
idk im losiong my mind
any help
i did not even use normality of N lmfaaao
jesus pls latex this no one is gonna want to read through that lol
Let G be a simple group, and let f : G → H be a nontrivial group homomorphism. Show that if N is a normal subgroup of H which does not contain f(G), then f(G)∩N = {e}.
suppose for the sake of contradiction f(G) does not intersect N in identity and N does not contain f(G)
let x be an element in f(G)
since x is arbitrary x cant be in N
x = f(g) for some g in G tho
oh okaay
okay can u help me with this
the homomorphism
has kernel 1
yeah
injective
so f is injective.
okay
now f(G) cap N is a subgroup of f(G) right
yes
is it just a subgroup tho? maybe its stronger than that
idk
i wouldnt have thought of this
fuckl
m,y flie
N alone is normal in f(G) right?
orn o?
N is normal in H
f(G) is in H right?
yea
ye
yeah prove that N cap f(G) is normal in f(G)
yes
and N is normal in H
so f(g)N=Nf(g)?
elements in f(G) are of the form f(g) for g in G
right?
am i right? im sorry if i sutpid
right
cool
this isnt proof tho
yea yea
u need to show N cap f(G) is normal in f(G)
let x be in N cap f(G)
x is in f(G) ---> f(g)xf(g)^-1 is in f(G)
x is in N ---> f(g)xf(g)^-1 is in N
so if f(G) cap N is a normal subgroup of f(G), what can you say about it
keeping in mind G is simple
its normal in H
forget H
what do the normal subgroups of f(G) look like
ea nvm
if G is simple
idk
umm
f(G) is a subgroup of H
so they should be tirvial
as G is simple
oh fuck
okayy
okay now i would have never thought of this shiit
i am no problem solver whatsoever
yeah either trivial or the whole thing(latter is impossible as imposed by question)
Could someone please explain the last two sentences of this proof to me, please?
Could someone please explain the last two sentences of this proof to me, please?
@mossy dagger In particular I'm having difficulty understanding how the author is bounding the order of M/aM.
because M is isomorphic to Z^d
and so M/aM = (Z^d)/a(Z^d) = (Z/aZ)^d which has a^d elements
hmm
so i have an exercise in this book to show that
If $I_1, I_2$ are relatively prime ideals and $I = I_1 \cap I_2$ then $R/I \cong R/I_1 \oplus R/I_2$
Sloth:
could i send each $x \in R/I$ to $(\bar{a_1}, \bar{a_2})$ where $\bar{a_i}$ is the conjugacy class of x in $I_i$?
Sloth:
and then show that the kernel of this is $I_1 \cap I_2$?
Sloth:
that doesn't look like point-set topology
:c
:P
yeah you're on the right track -- do you mean to say "equivalence class" instead of "conjugacy class" though?
haha
also just a little trick to make things easier, it's "hard" to define maps out of R/I because your instinct is to define them on elements x of R but then you need to argue that the map doesn't depend on the choice of element in the coset x + I
so the easier thing to do is to define the map out of R
R --> R/I_1 + R/I_2
yea thats wut i was doing
I see the rest of your argument makes more sense now
yeah the kernel is I and therefore by 1st iso theorem
yep
now you just need that the map is surjective
so we have one more thing to prove... and one more hypothesis that we haven't used yet...
oh
hehe
then what is this exercise?
it was "exercise 10 prove the chinese remainder theorem" "exercise 11 show this"
👍
anyone on?

How many elements of order 2 does dihedral group D6 have
just check
@obsidian zealot
Is that the dihedral group on the hexagon?
Imagining the hexagon makes this a bit easier. They are r³, s, sr³
i think there are some more
there are
is Z12 isomorphic to Z2 x Z6
How do i prove it
oh ok i see
hint : think about the order of the supposed generator of Z_nm
gcd is 2
Z, as an additive group, is isomorphic to all of its nontrivial subgroups.
what
That's true, what's your point?
I wasn't sure if it was isomorphic or not
so ur done with the first problem?
i dont know if knowing this would help in proving Z_n x Z_m is iso to Z_nm
yes, I just had to verify
hmm not atm , it was just those 2 questions
col
Anyone have any cool groups problems I might reasonably be able to solve in my head?
Or at least can think about (ie not overly computational)
if G/Z(G) is cyclic, where Z(G) is the center of G, then show that G is abelian
Show that all groups of order p² are abelian
not an answer to the question, but i recall many asshole computational problems in D&F (prove that there are no simple groups of order 168, etc.), man, really a pain, but they were a "good" kind of pain
Let $G$ be a finite group, and $H$ be a subgroup with $[G:H]=p$ where p is the smallest prime divisor of the order of $G$, show $H$ is normal
Zopherus:
I'd have more, depending on what you know about groups
I've done like 10 weeks worth of courses on groups I think
Sylow and second/third isomorphism theorems were proven and used a bit but I don't remember that very well bc not examined on it until next year
You use class number ideas
@mild laurel i have a group theory question, it is an exercise from dummit and foote actually, and i could not solve it: recall \phi(G) as the frattini subgroup of G, ie intersection of all maximal subgroups of G, and \phi(G)=G if G has no maximal subgroups. prove that if N is normal in G, then \phi(N) is a subgroup of \phi(G)
i could prove it for fininte, abelian, maybe other crap
but genreal case was too hard for me
oh, actually i just did a google search, this was posted to mathoverflow about a year ago
(the time that i had attempted this problem was quite a while ago)
For G/Z(G) you just ||write G as r^kZ(G) and use direct product theorem?||
if you are curious https://mathoverflow.net/questions/326867/frattini-subgroup-is-normal-monotone/326873#326873
This reminds me actually of one my supervisor gave me last term I haven't solved
Does there exist G with G/Z(G) isomorphic to Q8
I haven't actually tried ||writing the quotient group explicitly|| tbh so maybe that works
But seems like something to do with paper
Will think about the [G:H] = p, thanks
@raw moth for the G/Z(G) cyclic ---> G abelian ||cosets of Z(G) partition G , G/Z(G) = <aZ(G)> , any element in G is of the form a^it^j for for t in Z(G) and by justg looking we get xy=yx||
whats direct product theorem
for the group G such that G/Z(G) is isomorphic to Q_8
Direct product theorem is likr
||no||
If H,K are subgroups of G whose intersection is e, hk = kh and for all g there exist h,k with hk =g then G isomorphic to HxK
Idk if it's standard named result, just one we named in my course last term
Ah okay
what is K here tho
explain how u wouild use this
to prove G/Z is cyclic ---> abelian
i did the standard way in the spoilers above
if u want to see
Hmm I think maybe I implicitly assumed ||finite cyclic||

I'll say the method I was thinking for that and then think about a fix
cool
Oh wait yeah it's kinda silly to do that way oops
As soon as you write ||G = r^kZ|| it's obvious
can someone check my reasoning on this? I'm trying to find the smallest splitting field of $f(x) = x^3 + 1$. My thought was that $x^3 + 1 = 0$ is the same as $x^3 = -1$, so by squaring both sides we get $x^6 = 1$, and then it must be $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6)$. Is that right or are there solutions to $x^6 - 1 = 0$ that aren't solutions to $x^3 + 1 = 0$?
x=1 for example
jynelson:
From the epsilon I know of splitting fields, yes
Provided zeta_6 is the 6th roots of unity
yes it is
Surely you just find the roots explicitly?
x^3+1 = (x+1)(x^2-x-1), or something, but -1 is already in Q
(x+1)(x^2-x+1)
factoring is hard
but ah, i guess the splitting field is precisely Q(\zeta_6)
oh no I used it for a bunch of other problems 😆
hmm that's because 1^2 is one though
Ye I'm just saying it doesn't necessarily work in general
oh? but x^3-1 and x^3+1 should produce the same spitting field.. right?
nvm
one is complex nvm, they are just different
wow, i am a dumbass
it's ok, i just forgot the quadratic formula existed lol
I have next to no experience with this stuff
well that's reassuring 😆
Okay
I have some good news
I can guarantee that what I said is not 100% correct
But if |a|^(1/n) is rational I think it should be
n here is the power of x?
Ye
x^n = a
If a is negative, the solutions to this are |a|^(1/n) * 2nth root of unity that is not nth root of unity
I think
Ok yes
If |a|^(1/n) is rational then when we extend Q by these we can just ignore this factor
And so we just have some of the 2nth roots of unity
Meaning we generate all of the 2nth roots of unity
So it'll be Q(zeta_2n)
wait so this would work for $x^4 +2$ as well? like $x^4 = -2 \implies x^8 = 4$?
If |a|^(1/n) is irrational maybe sometimes it ends up working too but I"m too tired to think properly
jynelson:
Should do?
I don't think I need to worry about irrational for this assignment lol
You should think about how to solve x^n = c for various c btw
So that you know what's going on with this kinda thing
if I knew how to solve those I wouldn't be doing weird stuff to be able to use cyclomantic polynomials lol
umm ok let me think about it
It's simpler than cyclotomic (?) polynomials
so you know that the n-th root of c is a solution
and you also know that you can multiply by the nth root of 1 and it will still be a solution
shouldn't it work for both?
I guess it still works
so you'll have n roots, which are {root_n(c), root_n(c)*zeta_n, root_n(c)*zeta_n^2, ... }
Yeah
Okay
The general gist is that for c positive, squaring introduces 2nth roots
Whereas for c negative you already had 2nth roots
so for my $c = -4$ example you get ${ \sqrt[4]{-4}, i\sqrt[4]{-4}, -\sqrt[4]{-4}, -i\sqrt[4]{-4} }$
jynelson:
(for n = 4)
and I need to find [Q(all those elements) : Q]
which I'm not sure how to do without knowing the cyclotomic polynomial
how do you know it's Q(sqrt(2)zeta_8)?
Q(sqrt(2)zeta_8)
there's not even a sqrt(2) in that expression 😅
4th root of 4 is sqrt(2)
in the reals, ok
I basically just chose an arbitrary 4th root of -4
how do you know that generates all the other roots?
Uh
I multiplied by zeta_4 above, not by sqrt(2)
I kinda just assumed it when I wrote it - the sqrt(2) has potential to mess things up
Ye
This is why I was saying about |a|^(1/n) being rational
yeah my professor gave a similar example in class and said you needed to adjoin multiple numbers
I think it was i*sqrt(2) or something like that
but anyway my original question was how to find the degree of that over Q
I think since sqrt(2) is algebraic of order 2 you should need to adjoin at most 2 elements
Like you can generate sqrt(2)zeta_8^3 just fine
Just cube sqrt(2) zeta_8 and divide by 2
Similarly sqrt(2) zeta_8^5, sqrt(2) zeta_8^7
hmm ok that makes sense
and then you can do the same starting with zeta_8^2
huh
like $[Q(a, b, c, ...) : Q]$
jynelson:
Presumably not dimension as vector space?
yeah exactly
well just because you have to adjoin two elements isn't the same as having a dimension of 2
You only have to adjoin 1
like $[Q(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) : Q] = 4$
Oh wait
jynelson:
(sqrt(6) is the other one you need)
Lemme think
Hmm
This is too complicated for my brain right now
Linear independence over Q for these feels like something you need theory for
yeah exactly, I have no idea where to start lol
Can generate the space by sums of rational multiples of 1, sqrt(2) zeta_8, zeta_4 and sqrt(2) zeta_8^3 I think
Was n here the number of adjoined elements?
n is the degree of the minimal polynomial
Ah
so if you adjoin all the roots , yes
Okay
but note that 'number of elements adjoined' is pretty flexible, for instance $Q(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) = Q(\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3})$
jynelson:
or even simpler $Q = Q(1) = Q(1, 2, 3, ...)$
jynelson:
no idea, I didn't understand the proof lol
You can only create 2^n different combinations
oh sorry, we had that it divided n!
Wait maybe I'm being dumb
Okay yeah I was
n! Is likely not a useless bound
Hmm
But anyway yes these four elements certainly span the space
Ah
I think it's 2
Sqrt(2) zeta_8 = 1+i
So we can generate the elements I and 1-i even from integer multiples, let alone rational
🤦♂️
Now these two are definitely linearly independent bc they aren't scalar multiples
Sorry to but in, I have a short question\
What is the splitting field, $K,$ of $p(x) = x^7+11$ over $\mathbb{R}?$
I feel like this isn't difficult, but I can't seem to come up with a sound argument. Any help is appreciated.
wstayman:
I'm able to find a splitting field for $p$ over $\mathbb{Q},$ but I get stumped finding it over $\mathbb{R}...$ wouldn't $\mathbb{R}(z),$ where $z \in \mathbb{C}\setminus\mathbb{R}$ be isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}?$
wstayman:
Yeah that's what I thought too. That's where my confusion comes from. Since the roots of $x^7 + 11 = 0$ are all imaginary besides the one real one (and since 7 is prime) wouldn't adjoining any of the nonreal ones to $\mathbb{R}$ just give us an isomorphism to $\mathbb{C}$
Would've thought so
wstayman:
From a linalg perspective I'd expect so
If we take C to be R[i] then we have some linear map between them with non-zero determinant
Determinant in what respect?
Actually hmm maybe this doesn't necessarily give an iso
R(i) is definitely isomorphic to C
Ye
Determinant in the sense of considering R[I] and R[z] As vector spaces over R
Where z is the root we adjoin
And the linear map converts like coefficients in one to the other
I worry a little about multiplication in terms of this being an isomorphism tho
I could well just be saying dumb shit, I don't know much about this and it's 5am
You just define the map $\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x^2+1\rangle \to \mathbb{C}$ by $a+bx \mapsto a+bi$
That gives you a bijective homomorphism between R and C
wstayman:
If we considered the map between R[i] And R[z] As a change of basis on R^2 then of course everything to do with addition and scalar multiplication is preserved
And this will be bijective for determinant reasons
I don't have much knowledge in the crossover between linear alg and abstract.. whenever I'm trying to find an isomorphism I just abide by the first theorem of isomorphisms and hope I can work one out
Ah
Unfortunately my knowledge of abstract algebra beyond groups is essentially nothing :^)
I think you're overthinking this a bit
the splitting field of x^7 + 11 is C
(over R)
yes
It would be different over Q no?
yes
Okay perfect. And its C (over R) because we can just adjoin one of the imaginary roots (any of them since 7 prime) and get C?

