#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 477 of 407
u2
i have a question, how do i get an intuition for groups? i recall in algebra class, there are a bunch of proofs where they seem to pull the argument out of thin air
eg, sylow theorem: oh! just take a normalizer here, oh! just take an index there, oh! then consider multiplying the group by this other group!
well
for the big boy theormes
things are just more polished
like they are made like this just to be mor ebeautiful
and like
more short
That's the beauty of group actions lol. A lot of them really are from thin air. The correct action + the correct thing to look at = HUGE theorems
and yea group actions are like
weird like
'just look at this group action'
then u get aph d
thatws it
Can someone help me with this problem?
For the set {a,b,c,d}, find all possible binary relationships that make this into a partially ordered set. (You must find 19).
i think this should basically just be all length>1 strings consisting of abcd
ah no, there are more than that
@outer meadow doesn't binary relationships mean that it is only between two elements? In that case I can only find 16, can you help me find the other 3?
i would ask you to list the 16, but that is probably a pain in the ass. but now actually, i think you can formulaically list them all by considering trees/"forests"
i got a<a, b<b, c<c, d<d<, a<b, a<c, a<d, b<c, b<d, c<d, b<a, c<a, d<a, c<b, d<b, d<c
er, x<x shouldn't count
isnt it the relfectivity rule?
i really dont get the problem, can you help me find the 19 subsets
The reflexivity rule requires that x < x for all x in your set
i was given the conditions
Let S be any nonempty set. A partial order in the set S is a binary relationship ≤ such that it satisfies:
• a ≤ a (reflexivity)
• if a ≤ b and b ≤ a, then a = b (antisymmetry)
• if a ≤ b and b ≤ c, then a ≤ c (transitivity).
For the set {a,b,c,d}, find all possible binary relationships that make this into a partially ordered set. (You must find 19).
I mean, idk what to help with, you should go review what relations even are
yeah, and those three conditions must be true for all a,b,c
in particular, you must have that a ≤ a for all a
yeah my teacher gave them to me and never reviewed them, hasn't responded to me and i feel stuck
i think this should be all isomorphism classes of posets of size 4. mm, oh, i'm missing the one where there's a square with nothing inside
in some sense, you could list all relations, and check which ones form posets, but i don't think anyone wants to do that (RxR is size 4x4=16, then there are 2^16 many subsets)
All i need to do now is find the 3 nonisomorphic elements in (a,b,c,d), the only problem is I can't find them
i'm not sure i understand
here's one i can suggestion, you wrote down some inequalities above, what are the corresponding relations, in precise terms?
in the set the 16 elements that i found were all the isomorphic elements that are shown in your picture, there remain 3 more orders thataren't in those pictures i need to find those 3
i'm still not sure i follow. in the picture i drew, i intended eg the top left box as the poset where eg {a<b}, and nothing else holds, similarly, the posets {a<c}, {a<d}, etc.
you wrote down a<a, what is the relation that corresponds to this?
i guess i'm using "<" in the strict sense, whereas you're using it in the non-strict sense
but a≤a trivially, so in some sense there is no point to stating this
i meant ≤, my keyboard doesn't have thatoption and i wasn't going to copy and paste in 16 times so i wrote >
Does anyone know a simple proof that the signature homomorphism S_n -> {-1, +1} is well-defined?
okay so its f(phi) = product(x_phi(i)-x_phi(j)) on i<j<=n
the action of this phi is either the discriminant or negative discriminant
if discriminat = 1
if negative discrminant = -1
f(phi) = 1 if phi is even
f(phi) = -1 if phi is odd
try this
@chilly ocean
@solemn rain I think you forgot to divide by something
rly?
are u sure
i dont think so
okayy forget about what i said
f(phi) = 1 if phi is even
f(phi) = -1 if phi is odd
try diff cases
f(phi1)f(phi2) if both are even
how do you show that transposing the x's multiplies it by -1
f(phi1)f(tao1) if one is even one is odd
it looks like it's going to be an ugly proof, which I want to avoid
because the proposition itself is very simple and fundamental
ok then can you explain the full proof
lmao just show that f(phi1)f(phi2) = f(phi1phi2)
wiht this definition
f(phi) = 1 if phi is even
f(phi) = -1 if phi is odd
isnt this the sgn function?
defined correctly?
i think so
just show that f(phi1)f(phi2) = f(phi1phi2)
how do you show it
also you need to prove that f(phi) = -1 for all transpositions phi
okay
this is your definition
nah forgeta bout that
ok so what's your proof
define sgn:S_n ---> {-1,1}
sgn(phi) = 1 if phi is even
sgn(phi) = -1 if phi is odd
now try this
phi is even if phi(discriminant) = discrimnant
ok but my definition of even is that if it's a product of even number of transpositions
I want to prove that if it's a product of even number of transpositions, it's not a product of odd number of transpositions
isnt this trivial?
I want to prove that if it's a product of even number of transpositions, it's not a product of odd number of transpositions
??
then prove it
wikipedia gives a proof using polynomials, if you like that
i've seen it and I don't like it
what's ur issue with it?
why not? It's not obvious that you can't write a permutation as the product of even transpositions and also as the product of odd transpositions
oops lag but, the point stands
- Because it's a magic hat solution. Not really a natural way to prove it.
- The proof that the sign of a transposition is -1 requires some casework. Not natural and ugly.
why not? It's not obvious that you can't write a permutation as the product of even transpositions and also as the product of odd transpositions
oh really mb
The proposition itself is very simple and the proof seems like an overkill.
i think it works
if u use determinants then.
the sign of a permutation is the determinant of the matrice when its written in array form
I came up with the question when I wanted to find the simplest way to define a determinant
maybe thats easier lmao?
to prove it's well-defined
it depends on the fact that sign is well-defined
they're equivalent facts
i've already thought about it
Imagine if you had to explain why sign is well-defined to a fifth grader
if there isn't a nice proof, maybe someone has an explanation why not
its technical ig
like sign stuff works for alot of stuff maybe
its ot just made for defining even and odd permutrations
the deriv of abs(x) is sgn(x)
for example
thats a shit explanation but just that
thats my guess
idk tbh
the deriv of abs(x) is sgn(x)
I think that's a different kind of sign lol
That's why I'm interested it: the sign homomorphism is fundamental to linear algebra and pretty much all of differential geometry
as well as every other area that deals with antisymmetric stuff
I can't believe there isn't a simple proof of such a simple fact
I came up with the question when I wanted to find the simplest way to define a determinant
what do you mean by "simplest"
i'd consider the "pure mathsy" way to be "simple", but not computationally useful by itself
i.e. define it as the unique alternating multilinear map satisfying det(I) = 1
with the motivation for this definition being the multiplicative rule; ie translating the multiplicative structure of matrices into the multiplicative structure of real numbers by using det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
i.e. define it as the unique alternating multilinear map satisfying det(I) = 1
that's what I had in mind too
and to prove it's well-defined you need to show that sign is well-defined
do you?
explain what you mean
it probably implicitly used the fact that sign is well-defined
oh wait different type of well defined
not well defined wrt a basis, but in general
alright sure
in any case, this proof https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1988084/uniqueness-of-factorising-permutations-into-cycles doesnt seem that nasty to me
i guess you need to prove that factoring permutations into cycles is possible in the first place but
that should be intuitive
this is not the proof
ok maybe im misunderstanding then
and the cycle proof I consider ugly
there is a proof using cycles by considering how multiplying by a transposition changes the cycle decomposition
it always adds or subtracts one cycle
hence +1 mod 2
but that also seems like an overkill
although it's the simplest proof I know
im afraid im not familiar with anything nicer
if there was a really nice proof here, i'd expect determinants in general to be easier to compute tbh
how so?
in the sense that
a "nicer" proof would most likely arise from making some observation on the properties of the constituent cycles in the cycle transposition
but if we can make some nice observation there
i'd expect that observation to be usable in simplifying det calculations
but there isnt really a way to simplify determinant calculations, like, ever
unless you have zeroes in your matrix entries or already know an inverse
thats just a heuristic thing though
not a formal argument
I would like a proof that doesn't consider the cycle decomposition at all
Essentially I would like to be able to explain to a 5 year old why if you have n boxes labeled 1 through n, and whenever you switch two boxes you press a button (on/off), why it's true that whenever you return to the same arrangement of the boxes the button will be in the same state
yeah i figured that much out
when i actually thought about what you were asking
[sorry it's like 3 am]
fun problem I'll think about it, I agree there should be an easy intuitive way to see it past like ordering numbers or whatever
can someone show me an example of a nonisomorphic partial order?
like can't i always have a function f(s) = s and the relation will not change
integers under normal ordering and integers where no 2 integers can be compared
or 1<2<3 and 1<2
OH OK
so isomorphism is between two sets, thats wierd since i have a question asking me for all nonisomorphic sets for (a,b,c,d)
nonisomorphic sets for (a,b,c,d)
That means sets that are not isomorphic to (a,b,c,d)
@chilly ocean construct a polynomial in n variables that always negates under a transposition of 2 elements
I assume you mean the polynomial Prod_{i<j} (x_i - x_j)
Is that not proof of the fact you wanted?
not really
how would you prove it negates when you switch 2 elements?
@shrewd halo
@chilly ocean
In this example, we switch a and b and look at all relevant terms which contained an a or a b
jus checking if $A=\frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}\times\frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}$ and $\mathfrak p=\frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}\times{0}$, then $A_{\mathfrak p}$ should contain $2$ elements, $0,1$ right cuz like $\frac{(1,0)}x=0$ since $(1,0)\cdot(0,1)=0$ and $\frac1{(0,1)}=1$ since $\left(1-(0,1)\right)(0,1)=0$
Ariana:
localizing non integral domains is weird
but actually don't you get the zero ring? like consider the element (0,1)/(0,1). On the one hand, that's clearly equal to the identity. But on the other hand, it's equal to 0/1 since (0,1)*(1,0) = 0
So since 1 = 0 you get the trivial ring
@golden pasture
yea nonintegral domains areotmvimjcmjoce
for the (0,1)*(1,0) where does the (1,0) come from cuz like A-p={(0,1),(1,1)}
i need sage to check the localizations for me 
so the definition of localization is
equivalence classes of things of the form a/s where a in A and s in A\p
and the equivalence relation is
a/s = b/t if there exists some u in A such that at-bs = 0
so take a = s = (0,1), b = 0 and t = (1,1)
oohhhh wait I see
the u has to be in A\p as well
ahhhhhh
okay yeah in that case I think you might be correct
@golden pasture
sorry!
yea idk things that aren't domains are 
ill have faith it's correct 
time to implement product rings and localization in sage 
Was working on this with a friend and we're not sure about the solution.
We got $p_n(t)=tp_{n-1}(t)-p_{n-2}(t)$
nix:
But we weren't sure if there was a more specific answer
I think p_n is a Chebyshev's polynomial
Guys, I have quite a few questions trying to understand a proof for the Fundamental Theorem for Finite Abelian Groups. Can I ask them here?
go ahead
Isn’t it finitely generated abelian groups?
For number 12 so far I’ve tried constructing inverse homomorphisms to the monomorphisms, applying commutativity of the diagram & exactness, am I correct that I can’t just add arrows to & from zero on both ends of both sequences? (I can post a picture if it’s not clear what I mean)
iirc the way you prove these problems is to just bash definitions
i guess i usually just forget about "constructing homomorphisms" and whatnot and just think of these as a puzzle
but my algebra is shit so maybe this is not how you're "supposed" to think of it
The lemma is as follows: Let $G$ be an abelian $p$-group of order $p^\alpha$ where $p$ is prime. Then $G$ is a product of cyclic groups.
Notation:
Let $\phi:G \xrightarrow{}G$ such that $\phi(g) = g^p$.
Let $G^p = \operatorname{im}\phi = {x^p : x \in G}$.
Let $G_p = \ker \phi = {g : g^p = 1}$
Let $\overline{G} = G / G^p$
The proof is structured by using induction on $\vert G \vert$. If $\vert G \vert = p$, then it is true that $ G = \langle x\rangle$. It then states that $G^p = \langle x_1 \rangle \times \langle x_2 \rangle \times \cdots \times \langle x_t\rangle$. How is this true? Is it some sort of induction argument?
Stephen James:
Thank you Stephen!
ack I thought you were posting a lemma to my lemma nvm I might be able to answer yours give me a minute
presumably the argument goes that G^p is a product of cyclic groups by the inductive hypothesis (G^p has order less than G) and G_p is written as a product of cyclic groups each of order p, then G_p and G^p have trivial intersection, and orders multiply to that of G, so by abelian-ness the product equals G
There is only one group of order n iff (n,phi(n)) = 1
is this hard to prove
( phi(n) = |(Z/nZ)^x| , euler totient )
I swear I saw a proof for the five lemma on wikiproof sometime ago
oh yeah i encountered this in AT, was just some quick diagram chasing iirc
(well the one i did actually had injectives and surjectives so might not be the same)
hey i am self learning group theory and i have a basic question , is it possible to ask it here?
yes
so i have a symetric group S7 and there's two elements alpha and beta in it written in the form of 2x7 matrices , how to i calculate the product between the two elements ? is it simply matrix multiplication?
since it wasn't indicated what the group operation is , just a symetric group S7
ohhhhh
and group operation is just composition
i never saw that notation before so i got confused , sorry 😅
do you see how they are telling you what the permutation is?
so if i have 1 over a 3 it means it's a permutation between 1 and 3?
it means the eprmutation sends 1 to 3
ah okay i see i see
i was used to writting them vertically with arrows
xD
and so to compute the product ( if non-abelian ) of alphabeta and betaalpha i have to take the composition for each element?
yeah
and also yeah, not abelian
usually these two things will give u distinct things
aha i see , thank you for your help !
np
I looked at the one on proofwiki, I think its not exactly the same but I think I can adapt it
In this, do we assume that H is a normal subgroup or just a subgroup?
it must be normal for the quotient to be well defined
I am guessing over here G/H doesnt mean the quotient, but rather the set of cosets because the author doesn't mention the word normal at all
you are correct
@tribal pasture
H need nto be normal
and for any subgroup H of G, G/H is a well-defined set
Thanks
Lmaooo
That was kinda funny becayse it sounded like you said "you're right, all the functions are continuous"
Why is it funny that banana just merely stated a fact?
Which book did you use for Abstract Algebra?
And has anyone used Serge Lang's? What do you think of it?
I'm thinking of this or Artin
@sharp sonnet Why?
its hard
not suited for a first course imo, especially for self-study
artin is a nice book
it covers same stuff as artin and others but i see your point
i will try get through artin then
thanks @sharp sonnet
lang is like nice if you know the topic roughly and want to poke more for like group stuff imo
it's homological alg part is also pretty nice learnt like half of what i know from there lol
lang as first book is def suicide use like a more normal book, jacobson, dummit&foote, herstein, artin maybe etc.
exercise: take an arbitrary book on homological algebra and solve all the exercises without looking at the text
ye the older editions lol
exercise: prove open questions in algebra without knowing algebra
just develop all the theory yourself, its easy
If you don't die in a duel, are you even cool?
is dueling myself considered cool
i would be happy if i could do either
Only if you lose
@smoky cypress because it wasn't intentional lmao


@golden pasture i dont see why he would make a introductory books for undergrads who don't have knowledge in it, only to end up requiring knowledge in the subject prior anyway 
I mean
It's literally published under Graduate Texts in Mathematics
That's not to say it's unapproachable for undergrads, but it's not meant to be an introduction per se
More a reference and deeper dive into the concepts
@scarlet estuary What, no
it's published under undergraduate texts in mathematics
This book, together with Linear Algebra, constitutes a curriculum for an algebra program addressed to undergraduates. The separation of the linear algebra from the other basic algebraic structures fits all existing tendencies affecting undergraduate teaching, and I agree with ...
Oh I thought you were talking about Lang's Algebra
Ill admit I forgot Undergraduate Algebra exists
Since no one uses it afaik
Ariana was definitely talking about the graduate texts in mathematics one though
Oh seems like people forgot about Lang's book
Yeah sorry my bad
I don't really have an opinion on his other book, have never seen it used
It basically starts with number theory and then groups, rings, etc
unlike artin which starts with matrices
i have never seen this book in my life, lol
Can someone help me fix some confusion with some noncommutative ring stuff? I'm trying to show that for a left module M over a ring R and for an abelian group G, Hom_Z(M, G) ≈ Hom_R(M, Hom_Z(R, G))
Where the R module structure on Hom_Z(R, G) is (rf)(s) = f(rs)
I tried to define h : Hom_Z(M, G) -> Hom_R(M, Hom_Z(R, G)) by h(f)(x)(r) = f(rx), but it seems like h(f) isn't necessarily linear
Since h(f)(rx)(s) = f(s(rx)) = f((sr)x) while (r h(f)(x))(s) = h(f)(x)(rs) = f((rs) x)
oops mb i also thought it was Lang - (GTM) Algebra :p
Figured it out, the R module structure on Hom_Z(R, G) is wrong
Does anyone know if there is a ring homomorphism from C to R?
Or any ring homomorphisms from C to any set that isn't an automorphism?
Just take some extension of C and take the embedding map
can you elaborate?
There's a map from C to C[x] for example
Do you mean like there is a map between C and (C, 0)
I'm trying to find something more interesting i guess
It's a polynomial ring
yeah, sorry I'm not too good at algebra
I'm specifically looking for a homomorphism that shrinks C if that makes sense?
like mapping to a lower cardinality set
like the group homomorphism of the group (C / 0, *) f(x) = magnitude(x) would be an example
Ahh I didn't know this, thanks!
Let $f(x)$ be an irreducible polynomial over a field $F$, and let $L$ be its splitting field. Suppose that $K$ is an intermediate field between $F$ and $L$, and that over $K$, $f$ factors as $f(x) = g_1(x)\dots g_n(x)$, where each $g_i$ is irreducible over $K$. Show that all the $g_i(x)$’s have the same degree.
PolyBeanDip:
This is wrong when K isn't normal right?
For example, let $L$ be the splitting field of $x^4 - 7$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. Then, an intermediate field would be $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{7})$. In this field, $x^4 - 7 = (x+\sqrt[4]{7})(x-\sqrt[4]{7})(x^2 + \sqrt{7})$.
PolyBeanDip:
Yeah, that seems right
the question or the counterexample?
the counterexample
ok
also, assuming K/F was normal, then I'm trying to show that I can send any g_i to any g_j using the elements of Gal(L/F)
is this the right approach?
Also, I say that f(g_i) = f(g_j) iff f sends the roots of g_i to those g_j.
Let α, β be roots of f in L. I claim there is an automorphism α of L/F sending α to β. Let σ : F(α) -> F(β) be the isomorphism sending α to β and fixing zf. Then we have g in F(α)[x], h in F(β)[x] such that f(x) = (x-α)g(x) = (x-β)h(x). Extend σ to an isomorphism τ : F(α)[x] -> F(β)[x] by applying σ coefficientwise. Then (x-β)h(x) = f(x) = τ(f(x)) = τ((x-α)g(x)) = (x-β) τ(g(x)), so τ(g(x)) = h(x). Since L is a splitting field of g(x) over F(α) and h(x) over F(β), and τ(g(x)) = h(x), we can extend σ to an automorphism σ : L -> L fixing F and sending α to β.
Now I claim any automorphism σ : L -> L fixing F satisfies σ(K) = K. Let θ in K be arbitrary, and let m the minimal polynomial of θ over F. Then 0 = σ(0) = σ(m(θ)) = m(σ(θ)). Since m has a root in K, it splits over K (this is where we use normality), and thus σ(θ) in K. Thus σ(K) <= K, and by the same logic applied to σ^(-1), σ(K) = K.
Now finally suppose g is the minimal polynomial of α. Let h be the polynomial obtained by applying σ to the coefficients of g. Then h(β) = h(σ(a)) = σ(g(α)) = σ(0) = 0. Note that g' is in K[x], and h is still irreducible (if it factored we could apply σ^(-1) to the factorization to get one for g), so h is the minimal polynomial of β. By how h was defined, deg h = deg g.
If you start with g_i and g_j you can choose α to be a root of g_i and β a root of g_j, and then g_i = cg for a nonzero constant c and g_j = c'h, which means deg g_i = deg g = deg g = deg g_j
@brisk granite way too in depth solution here
Tl;dr is to choose roots of the polynomials in L, get an automorphism of L/F swapping them since L/F is a splitting field, deduce that that automorphism sends K into itself by normality, and then conclude that applying the automorphism to the coefficients of g_i gives g_j, so they have the same degree
"Since L is a splitting field of g(x) over F(α) and h(x) over F(β), and τ(g(x)) = h(x), we can extend σ to an automorphism σ : L -> L fixing F and sending α to β. "
what theorem are you using here
Since I'm not rly sure what you're invoking, I used a different proof. Consider the polynomial g(x) = \prod_{sigma in Gal(L/F)}(x - sigma(α)). This polynomial is invariant under the elements of Gal(L/F) and hence belongs in F[X]. Then, f | g, and, hence, beta must be a root of g. Which means there exists sigma such that sigma(alpha) = beta
If you have a field isomorphism σ : F -> F' and polynomials f(x) in F[x], f'(x) in F'[x] such that when you apply σ to the coefficients of f you get f', then for any splitting fields K/F for f and K'/F' and f' you can extend σ to an isomorphism K/F -> K'/F'
This is an important result
The proof is to inductively build up K and K' by adjoining one root at a time and use the fact that if f, g are irreducible and α, β are roots of them in some extension, you can extend σ to an isomorphism F(α) -> F'(β) sending α to β
@brisk granite I don't believe your proof since it assumes L/F is Galois, but L/F might not be separable. Take F = F2(t) and L to be the splitting field of x^2 - t. Then Gal(L/F) is trivial since x^2 - t has at most one root in any extension.
At least, it assumes Galoisness if I read it right
Here's the proof of the lemma I used.
Suppose you have a field isomorphism σ : F -> F' and polynomials f(x) in F[x], f'(x) in F'[x] such that when you apply σ to the coefficients of f you get f', then for any splitting fields K/F for f and K'/F' and f' you can extend σ to an isomorphism K/F -> K'/F'.
We proceed by induction on [K : F]. If it's 1, then K = F, so f is a product of linear polynomials in F[x]. Applying σ to that gives the same sort of thing, so K' = F as well. Then σ works as its own extension.
Suppose instead that [K : F] > 1. Then then f has a root α in K that's not in F. Factor f(x) = (x-α) g(x) for g(x) in F(α)[x]. The minimal polynomial m of α over F divides f, so σ(m) divides f'. Choose a root β of σ(m) (so β is also a root of f'). Then we can factor f'(x) = (x-β) g'(x) for g' in F'(β)[x] . It's easy to see that K is a splitting field of g over F(α) and K' is a splitting field for g' over F'(β). Further we can extend σ to an isomorphism τ : F(α) -> F'(β) sending α to β. Then (x-β)g'(x) = f'(x) = τ(f(x)) = τ((x-α) g(x)) = (x-β) τ(g(x)). Thus τ(g(x)) = g'(x). Since α isn't in F, [K : F(α)] < [K : F]. Thus by induction we can extend τ to an isomorphism K -> K'
could someone please recommend a good introductory group theory textbook, which is available online
you mean for free?
(legally)
I only have looked at $$ books like Lang, but you could try this http://abstract.ups.edu/aata/aata.html @chilly ocean
can't vouch for it in any way
(just download from libgen)
@mild laurel what you said about homorphisms from fields being injective isn't strictly true
there is a trivial counterexample actually
It's true if you require ring homomorphisms to send 1 to 1 right?
Oh yeah right
the joke was the word trivial
someone tried to tell me that once
They said Aff doesn't have an initial object
And were adamant that 0 isn't a ring
You're adamant too?
You saw nothing
Anyways this person is like in year >= 5 of an AG PhD and knows more math than i will for many years
Which makes it even more bizarre
I mean these things are philosophical
Like in principle you can prove your theorems and be like, nah these considerations pale against the a e s t h e t i c of having/not having 0
Yeah conventions always seem way more important than they actually are
People don't actually reason at the level of definitions
The correct answer is what I do
Namely have conflicting conventions based on what's more convenient at that very second
Mood
Does \mathbb{N} contain 0 or not? Depends on what I'm doing with it
Ambiguity is power
yeah i let it stay ambiguous and even change up my preference mid-argument
this turns out to be convenient in many proofs
example:
We have that 0 is a natural number. However, 0 is not a natural number. So we have a contradiction, and thus by explosion, RH. 
just say $\omega$ like a chad logician
Liquid:
obligatory $\cup \omega \cup$
weast:
just identify them lol
There's an obvious bijection between the positive and the nonnegative integers
so you can say they're equal without any trouble
Yeah, I probs just go with Lang’s Undergraduate Algebra, seems accessible
@latent anvil https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B1pXoUPGwCetajA1Sk50cmNOaDA/edit well at least its called that and terms of content it seems accessible for the undergrad
I'm trying to decipher a proof but I'm missing something:\
If $K$ is Galois over $F$ and $G = Gal(K/F) = G_1 \times G_2$ iss the direct product of two subgroups $G_1$ and $G_2$, then $K$ is the composite of two Galois extensions $K_1$ and $K_2$ of $F$ with $K_1 \cap K_2 = F$.
Let $K_1$ be the fixed field of $G_1\subset G$ and $K_2$ for $G_2 \subset G$. Then $K_1 \cap K_2$ is the field corresponding to the subgroup $G_1G_2$.
datorangeguy:
I get that much... but the next claim is that $G_1G_2 =G$ which I don't understand
datorangeguy:
Do you understand what the notation G_1G_2 means?
Yes it's ${g_1g_2 : g_1 \in G_1, g_2 \in G_2}$ but how is that all of $G = G_1 \times G_2$?
datorangeguy:
And what do elements of G_1 x G_2 look like
Well they should be ordered pairs, but that doesn't really make sense if each entry in the pair is itself an element of the group of ordered pairs?
the text is dummit and foote and this is the converse to the proposition that I understand the proof for, that $Gal(K_1K_2 / F) \simeq Gal(K_1 / F) \times Gal(K_2 / F)$
datorangeguy:
Uh sure
The point is that the elements of G_1 x G_2 are ordered pairs (g_1, g_2)
so every element g of G can be written as some ordered pair (g_1,g_2), but we have that (g_1, g_2) = (g_1, e)(e, g_2) where e is the identity element of G
aaah I was way overthinking it. Thank you!
could you deduce important and unique properties of finite groups by looking at their graph representation?
the lecture series Visual Group Theory had an alternative definition of a normal subgroup based on graphs
commutativity is another example
@latent anvil yeah and its free on springer
Should the following corrections be present
"Case 2: Let us consider x = 0"
"Case 3: Let us consider v = 0"
@chilly ocean are you talking about the Cayley graph
@mild laurel I guess so, I’ve just started doing group theory, so I am unaware of most of the things, but for the exercise I was basically writing out Cayley tables and generating sets for 8 first orders and I was trying to draw some sort of graph for each group to see in more visual way how elements connect with each other, and I was thinking maybe you can assign to the group an unique graph, which will in visual way give you all the important structure of the group
Is that basically a Cayley graph?
I mean, you haven't given any details on how you're actually making this graph so idk
Hey guys! If a position vector (considering x and y direction) is given in terms of time r(t), and another vector is given in terms of x and y direction such as w(x, y), can I substitute the position vector components to the w vector?
Another basic question here. I am to show that if $I=(x,2)$ and $J=(x,3)$ then $IJ=(x,6)$. I've tried to go strait to the definitions of generated ideals and product between ideals. So elements in $IJ$ should be on the form $(ax+2b)(cx+3d)$ where $a,b,c,d \in Z[x]$, but this gives me terms with 2 and 3 in them and I can't see how I could get the same in $(x,6)$.
Xiphias:
you should show inclusion both ways
show that x \in IJ and show that 6 \in IJ
that will show that (x,6) \subseteq IJ
and do the reverse
Well, what I did was starting on the reverse first it seems and that's where I got stuck
I can't find an element in (x,6) that matches the one I made in IJ
multiply it out, what do you get
Well, I can merge some elements from Z[x] since they are general, but I get something in the ballpark of ax^2+x(3a+2b)+6d
@mild laurel it’s like that, they are similar to Cayley graphs, mine are just more messy
ax^2 is in (x,6) just fine, but I'm struggeling a bit more with x(3a+2b)
well, 3a + 2b is just some element of Z[x]
so set f = 3a + 2b or something, then your term is just fx
so could you study which groups are possible by looking at the isomorphisms of graphs that are representing certain groups? For example, can you justify that there is only one group of order 5 ( ie cyclic group z5) by looking at the graphs of order 5 and finding isomorphisms between them?
or is it at some point much harder analysing graphs of high order, rather than using algebraic tools of group theory alone?
It's just not a very useful way to look at things I think
One reason for this is that the graph isomorphism problem is NP complete and so the question of whether or not graphs are isomorphism isn't an easy one
Cayley graphs in general though are important, and you can use talk about group actions on graphs to say a lot of things about groups
maybe one example is proving that subgroups of free groups are free
The usual proof requires some algebraic topology, but you can also do it by looking at group actions on graphs
cool, thnks for answering
One reason for this is that the graph isomorphism problem is NP complete and so the question of whether or not graphs are isomorphism isn't an easy one
@mild laurel that is not true
it is not known whether GI is NP-complete
and as a side note: there is currently research done into solving graph isomorphism for cayley graphs by studying the underlying groups
which is kinda the opposite idea, you study the graph by studying the group for which it is a cayleygraph
but its fruitful sometimes and somewhat recently lead to the solving of GI for cayleygraphs of cyclic groups
by solving i mean there is an algorithm that can decide whether 2 cayleygraphs generated by cyclic groups are isomorphic in polynomial time
I'm a bit off and on today, busy day. 3a+2b is indeed just an element of Z[x] but if a=b=1 then it's 5x and that's not in (x,6) ?
oh, I'm learning about products of generators making the generators for the product ideal now. I'll probably just use that instead
Do no periodic functions have range R?
this is not abstract algebra, but in any case, the example is "no"
in fact, a continuous periodic function cannot have range R
since periodic functions are bounded, i.e. can't be surjective onto R
Which one?
Ok thanks
All functions are continuous:
Hey i have a question, how can i find the order (phi(n)) of the ring Z/nZ
@mild laurel yea, it made more sense after I saw the proof for product of ideals of generators becoming the ideal generated by the product of the generators (that was hard to type...)
Thanks for the help today!
Yeah, that's an important fact too
@chilly ocean what do you meam
The order of the multiplicative group of units?
Yep
Sorry, you mean the multiplicative group of units right
That's right
Since that's the intuition i had
But i can't prove it
Is it because the coprimes are the generator of the whole group?
Necause it's cyclic
It's because if m is coprime to n, then m is invertible mod n
Ohhhhh
Right i forgot about invertibility, my bad haha
Thank you!
Also are the only elements 1 mod n the coprimes to the power of the order
Or is the converse of euler's theorem not true
that's not exactly the converse
the converse would be if you have some a to the power phi(n)=1 (mod n) would that mean that a and n are coprimes , and the answer is yes they would be , thus the converse is true
Hey, does anyone know how to show that the ring of algebraic integers in Q[sqrt(-11)] forms a UFD?
First, it'd be helpful to figure out what the ring of integers of that field is
@mild laurel Hey, I did another similar problem just to get the hang of it. Let me know if you have time to proof check what I did. So I made $I=(x,3)$ and $J=(x,5)$. Then $IJ=(x^2,3x,5x,15)$ before potentially removing redundant terms. I see that $5x-3x=2x$ so I can replace $5x$ with $2x$ but it seems that $3x$ needs to stay. I did a test with the inclusion proof. So an element in $IJ$ is on the form $sum (ax+3b)(cx+5d)$ which terms multiplies to $acx^2+3cbx+5bdx+15bd$. This is quite obviously in $(x^2,2x,3x,15)$ as $2x+3x=5x$ and the converse is just as obvious. Sounds about right?
Xiphias:
Yes of course. Man I'm blind. Now that I have 3x and 2x it's just (x,15)
it seems that if (x,a) (x,b) where a,b don't have any common factors I can always go (x,ab) for the product
should not be too hard to prove I suppose
Trying to make 1 with numbers without common factors can be fun. Here's 25 and 9: (25-9)-9-(9-((25-9)-9))-(9-((25-9)-9))-(9-((25-9)-9))
Guys is $\alpha = \sqrt{2 + \sqrt{3}}$ constructible. I say it isn't. My reasoning is its minimal polynomial is $x^4 - 4x^2 + 1$ which is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$. Therefore $\alpha$ is not the result of finitely many quadratic extensions of $\mathbb{Q}$ and so it isn' constructible. Is this the correct reasoning?
Kraft Macaroni:
Update: I realized $\alpha$ is actually construcible and quite easily so. But how come what I've written above is wrong?
Kraft Macaroni:
@latent anvil I have not, but I expected something like that existed based on what I've worked on today. Thanks!
it is not because your polynomial is irreductible that your extension hasn't subextensions @woeful flint
Oh whats the criterion for it then
Like visually it makes sense how you can construct alpha
yeah it's obviously constructible because there is only square roots of integers
you're searching a criterion on a polynomial to have its extension without subextension ?
it is not easy I guess
like ill give an example
you have sufficient conditions btw, like if your polynomial is irreductible and has a prime degree
$\sqrt[3]{2}$ is not constructible as its minimal polynomial is $x^3 - 2$ and so $[\mathbb{Q}{\sqrt[3]{2}}: \mathbb{Q}] = 3$
Kraft Macaroni:
i can see some sort of difference in argument by a corollary now that it think of it
yeah but this isn't really a matter of subextension, you have another necessary condition on constructible numbers which states that every constructible number has a power of 2 degree
btw you can find number of degree 4 not constructible
So im just guessing it might be hard to explicitly find field extensions which work
like something with cube roots
i get you
just trying to wrap my head around
one final question
is there a method to say compute $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt[3]{3},\sqrt[3]{5}) : \mathbb{Q}]$?
Kraft Macaroni:
the square brackets means degree
do it in steps
calculate $[\bQ(\sqrt[3]{2}): \bQ]$ and $[\bQ(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt[3]{3}) : \bQ(\sqrt[3]{2})]$
Zopherus:
and the last one, and then multiply them
is the converse of the first isomorphism theorem for rings true? that is if u have a homomorphism between the additive group of two rings f: R -> S, and ker(f) is an ideal in R, is f always also a ring homomorphism? and ofc why/why not?
No. Pick an arbitrary function R\{0} -> S\{0} and extend it by sending 0 to 0
oh sorry i mightve forgot to say but one of the requirements is that f is a hom. between the additive groups
Ah sorry I misread what you said
You're thing would imply that an injective group hom between any two groups is a ring hom
Do you require ring homomorphisms to preserve 1?
yes
Then look at cyclic groups
There's a lot of automorphisms Z/nZ -> Z/nZ but only one will preserve 1
The rest will probably screw up multiplication as well
yeah i thought it might have something to do with automorphisms but i couldnt quite put my finger on it
thx
Well this isn't because they're automorphisms
The thing you're saying is false in most cases
This was just the easiest example for me to write down
can someone help me with this question about hyperplanes.
How can I prove that a subset H = {(x1,....xn) in F^n | a1x1+a2x2...+anxn=0} of F^n is a hyperplane IFF ai = 0?
what's your definition of a hyperplane? I would call { (x, y, z) in R^3 : x = 0 } a hyperplane but it doesn't seem to satisfy your condition
@latent anvil it is definied in my textbook as: a subspace of V of dimension n-1 (when V is a vector space of dimension n)
the hint i got is that it has osmething to do with linear dependence to show that dim(H) = n-1 >?
the problem is that what you've written is false
shamrock gave you a counterexample
so try to fix your statement first
lol that's not what you wrote
try again now that you've reread it
yeah
@oblique river Since H = ker(a1,...,an). We know that through rank nullity, n=rank(a1,..,an) + dim(ker(a1,...,an)
oh ok
also you're missing an =
you say "IFF rank(a1, ..., an) IFF"
but that's not a statement
IFF dim(H) = n - 1 =>rank(a_1, ..., a_n) = 1 => (a_1, ..., a_n) is not the 0 vector.
there
I thought the first way was better lol
but yeah that's the logic
see look you didnt need help after all
probably
How could I show that all hyperplanes in F^n have that form?
@oblique river
I mean it depends on what facts you already know
the vector (a1, ..., an) is the orthogonal complement to the hyperplane
did not know that, but also dont see what to do with that
"take the orthogonal complement and look at that vector"
of what
of the hyperplane
but how can we just 'know' that the vector (a1, ..., an) is the orthogonal complement to the hyperplane
do you know the definition of orthogonal complement
wdu mean
alright let's practice some problem solving techniques. i've told you that the hyperplane and the vector (a1,...,an) are orthogonal complements. and you are asking how to show that. so look at the definition fo the hyperplane in part a and look at the definition of orthogonal complement
and match up the terms
Can somebody tell me how is the action xW defined here? I know that it is an application of some representation p, but I cant figure out if its supposed to be p^s or some other representation
Ok i see, a1*x1 .... = 0
tbh "problem solving" is more important than just knowing definitions
These are the implicit definitions
i understand how theyre related, but i still dont see what this has to do with showing that all hyperplanes have the same form in Fn
wdym
start with a hyperplane H
take its orthogonal complement
that's 1-dimensional so take a nonzero vector
that's your (a1,...,an)
that was the whole point of this
@oblique river If you can take a look once you're finished with dame, it would be very helpful
sorry not interested in sorting through representation theory atm
i'm gonna head off in a minute anyway
maybe later
Hint: One can find a1, . . . , an as a solution of a homogeneous system of n − 1 equations in n variables
i think im supposed to do it that way
did u solve the other question
what did you change to get the correct answer
nothing was changed, what we had at the enx was the right answer
i figured it out, no worries
a homomorphism maps the identity to the identity
yes
idk
x composed with itself m times?
yes
Group G of order 8 with 2 generators x and y such that x^4=y^2=e and xy=yx - is that dihedral group?
also, you can have abelian subgroups in non-abelian groups, right?
I'll use ' for inverse
Every dihedral group satisfies xy = yx'. But that's not what is here.
Also yes you can have an abelian subgroup of a non-abelian group.
direct product of Z2 and Z4 then? 🤔
more products?)
Z4xZ2 is (a,b st 4a=2b=0) so it seems like it is exactly that
i mean it doestn look like cyclic
what else is left?
it says there is some group E8
but i dont know what it is exactly
Nah it's not cyclic, since the only cyclic group of 8 elements is Z8, and Z2×Z4 ≠ Z8
I have no idea what E8 is either haha
I found it on groupprops.wiki that it is a group of order 8 and google says that it is a Lie group and it looks scary😯
E8 is apperantly some hard core lie group of order 248
yeah, do you see why
because there is a cyclic subgroup of order 2 and what seems like subgroup of order 4 like klein group🤔
i mean i guess i can just write out direct product and simply compare with what i have to verify
i mean i'd try to use intuition too
so you have $\langle x,y: x^4=y^2=1 , xy=yx\rangle$
JohnDoeSmith:
Is Z2×Z2×Z2 generated by two elements? I'm thinking no
show that the subgroup generated by 2 elements have at most 4 elements
@golden pasture 4 elements - e,x,y and xy, right?
yea
i am wondering - could you define group using ternary operation? would it be much different from binary operation on set, or could you always breakdown that ternary operation into binary relations?
i was just thinking how would like 3d cayley table look like and whether it would make sense at all😐
but how do you reproduce identity and inverses
you could create a 3d cayley table for a group, just you wont get any new information i guess
so would groups where operation is ternary be isomorphic to just normal groups with binary operation?
i am not sure how you would define sth like an identity or inverses for a ternary operation
my point was, if you already have a group you can define a ternary operation that is just group operation twice
ofc this does not yield new information, so why would you
yeah i see what you mean
This channel ok for alg geo?
Prove that a morphism $\phi: X \mapsto Y$ between two affine varieties is an isomorphism of $X$ with
a subvariety $\phi(X) \subseteq Y$ if and only if the induced map $\Phi: k[Y ] \mapsto k[X]$ is surjective.
Azu:
My attempt in the forward direction so far:
Since $\phi$ is a morphism, it is regular in every point $X$
Azu:
$X$ is open and dense in its own Zariski (subspace) topology
Azu:
Therefore, $\phi$ is a polynomial map by a theorem
Azu:
Similarly, $\phi^{-1}$ (which exists because $\phi$ is an isomorphism) must be a polynomial map
Azu:
I don't know how to proceed from here
@mild laurel hey man... can I please ask for your assistance? I know you're really good at this
sorry for the ping
Did you get this resolved Azu?
Hi I need help with an exercise on minimal polynomials:
θ ∈ C root of x^3 + 3x^2 −3 and α = θ^2 + θ. Determine:
-the minimal polynomial of α in Q.
I have no idea what how to start this
<@&286206848099549185>
try to find a relationship between 1, alpha and alpha^2
reduce theta^3 using the x polynomial
thats the min poly
yes
oh very nice thx
let H=<x> and suppose |H|=6. Then how does x^5 generate H? from my understanding H={x^{-5},...,x^{5}} or something like that
I think I'm conceptually missing something here
H is a cyclic group of 6 elements, H is Z6
In a cyclic group, any element that is coprime to |H| generates H
I mean, given that 5 generates Z6
we haven't covered what Z6 means yet
Basically the integers mod 6
It's the group
0,1,2,3,4,5
with modulo 6 addition
Any element coprime to 6 generates it.
we haven't covered modular arithmetic either yet 
Oof haha, then let me think of how to convey this
ty
Basically xⁿ generates the cyclic group of m elements, given that n and m are coprime
That's a proof I found online haha
I wish I had a simpler explanation sry. It's not an obvious fact I'm just very used to it
do you think it’d be helpful to do a bit of number theory before this?
ra = 1 (mod n)
Means
ra - 1 is a multiple of n
And yes lol. I'm suprised your course didn't start with the basics
ya interesting all right ty
\begin{align*}
(x^5)^0&=1\
(x^5)^1&=x^5\
(x^5)^2&=x^{10}=x^6x^4=x^4\
(x^5)^3&=x^{15}=(x^6)^2x^3=x^3\
(x^5)^4&=x^{20}=(x^6)^3x^2=x^2\
(x^5)^5&=x^{25}=(x^6)^4x=x\
(x^5)^6&=x^{30}=(x^6)^5=1\
\end{align*}
Whoever:
All elements of H can be written as power of x^5, therefore x^5 generates H
@chilly ocean
But
Just a note
This process can be generalized to what Kaynex said above
If you have a cyclic group H of order n with generator x, then for any integer m with gcd(m,n)=1, we have that x^m is also a generator of n
Oh yeah fuq should have just showed the computation haha
ok thanks both of you
Hello

is G a group
yea
you shouldn't use e for an arbitrary element kek
how do I prove that the same e is in H
standard notation for identity
e is identity
so you want to show that the identity in subgroups is the same
so take your e_G and e_H
If your subgroup is closed under multiplication and inverses
Then it's immediate that the identity for the whole group is inside H
And assuming you've already proved that there can only be 1 identity in a group
Then you are done
why is it immediate? Like how to show that
"immediate that the identity for the whole group is inside H"
Suppose g is in H. Then g^{-1} is in H and so gg^{-1}= e is in H
A nicer fact that you might want to know is that the only element which fixes any other element is the identity
ic
Can i prove it like this
so e_h is identity in H
so returning to G I have e_h*e_h = e_h, which I presume is true because G inherits operation of H
then there exist inv(e_h) in G also
so I can get e_h = e_g
Yeah sure
This is not a very hard fact to show
In fact I don't even consider it to be something you have to show tbh
the part I want to explain better is why e_h*e_h = e_h is true in G, like a concise explanation
Well what is your definition of a subgroup?
I mean its a subset that satisfies the same axioms 1)associative 2)identity exist 3)inverse for all element and 4)the binary operation is closed
Okay so the group multiplication HxH \to H is just the restriction of the multiplication GxG \to G
That's why
ic, thanks
So if ab=c is true in H, it is true in G also
Also if an operation of a group is inherited, no matter if the new subset is subgroup or not, its associative right?
Yes
So being a subgroup is analagous to
- the subset being nonempty
- the image of the restriction to HxH of the multiplication function is contained inside H
- same with the inverse function
what do you mean by 3)?
So the inverse is a function G\to G
let G,H be cyclic groups, generated by elements x,y. Determine the condition on orders m,n of x and y so that the map x^i \mapsto y^i is a group homomorphism.
can anyone give me a hint? not sure how to go about this problem
At first glance (I just woke up) maybe you should have a think abt the fact that a homomorphism has to send the identity to the identity
and if $\phi$ is such a homomorphism then $\phi(x^m)=\phi(x)^m=y^m$
euclid:
so maybe if ord(G)>ord(H) or something like that?
wait no the other way around
@teal perch
oh actually first you should make sure it’s well-defined
ie if x^i=x^j then y^i = y^j
which will give u some restrictions on what divides what
idk how to check that though 
it’s ok! let’s say x^10=1
ok
then x^11=x, so under our map we want y^11=y
this is only possible if y^10=1, i.e. ord(y) divides 10
wait let me think
if x^10=x how does x^11=x?
wait sorry
if x^10=1 how does x^11=x?
multiply by x on both sides
no worries!
Iirc the condition is ||m divides n|| or something like that
thats where we r going yeah
ya I saw the answer but didn't really understand how they came up with it
so that concrete example for ord(x)=10 up there
shows you that ord(y) has to divide ord(x)
wait one sec how is y^10=1 the same as thing ord(y) divides 10
Note that y^(k ord(y)) = 1 for all integer k
And also that the order is defined to be the smallest positive power
I can see how y^(k ord(y)) = 1 is true
If ord(y) didn't divide 10 we could find a smaller positive power
wait sorry why is that?
By taking k ord(y) < 10 < (k+1) ord(y)
yeah im right i checked
we have y^10 = y^(k ord(y)) = 1 so taking inverses, y^(10 - k ord(y)) = 1 also
But 0 < 10 - k ord(y) < ord(y)
ok I have to digest this ty everyone
equivalently, if ord(y)=m then y^10=1 means 10 is 0 mod m
which means either ord(y) = 10 or 10 is a multiple of ord(y)
Let G be a finite group, a theorem says if H is a subgroup of G then |H| divides |G|
my question is it necessary that for all divisors k of |G|, there always exist a subgroup H with k elements? Furthermore, is H unique?
(i.e. whether the converse of the theorem is true)
no and no
for the first, the smallest counterexample is A_4, which is a group of order 12 but has no subgroup of order 6
for the second consider Z_4 x Z_2 or something
where Z_n is the cyclic group of order n
it has subgroups Z_4 and Z_2 x Z_2 which are both of order 4 but non-isomorphic
@chilly ocean
Oh ok, thanks
Also if a has order(a) = k, I went with a proof by contradiction to show that all elements in <a> is distinct, is there a direct way?
or something im missing
i'm trying to prove some easy theorems in the best ways possible
They're never distinct. For example, a^(k+1) = a
I'm thinking you mean something else?
Oh yea
what I mean is {a, a^2, ..., a^k}
I mean technically is <a> = {a, a^2, ..., a^k} if its a set rather than a multiset
So what im trying to prove is actually
if ord(a) = k, then |<a>|=k
What's your definition of order?
Suppose there was a repeat such that
a^n = a^m
For n,m < ord(a)
yea thats how i did it
i guess this is a good way?
Also I'm confused about what happens if n is negative, like lets say ord(a) is n, but then there is m<0 where |m|<|n|
such that a^m = e
why is it that we don't consider m as the order, or is that case even possible?
oh yea
which contradicts the definition of order
Is it true that only when the order doesn't exist that negative powers might become relevant
No your idea is right, I got the proof
are you saying an element has infinite order
Yea, but in the case when the order doesn't exist
this only works for finite order, ye
e.g. (Z,+) i noticed in this case negative is necessary
we just started isomorphism so I'm not good at it, but what are structures that are isomorphic to (Z,+)?
any infinite cyclic group
You can try proving it
yea i probably will encounter it soon
Ok
How about iii), you know what it's trying to ask?
up to isomorphism, find all groups of order p

It's asking you how many groups are there that are not isomorphic to each other
Of order p
Do you know how to do (i)?
yea i did i) ii)
well, let G and G' be two groups of order p and let a and a' be their generators
what's the first non-trivial homomorphism G -> G' that you can think of
does a maps to a', a^2 maps to (a')^2 work?
its my first q ive done about homomorphism so dik
yeah that's a homomorphism
idk
well, do you think it's an isomorphism
yea
its bijective
great
so how many groups of order p are there
1 but i don't know why there can't be 2
little confused
like you could map a to (a')^2
etc.
that doesn't matter though
there only needs to be one isomorphism for them to be isomorphic
Oh