#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ยท Page 459 of 407
Wait that is the structure?
If it's easy
๐ฎ
Like it follows from the free abelian group
What does this mean
There's a homomorphism from the free abelian group over n generators to any abelian group with a minimal generating set of cardinality n.
(I could write this out more formally but I'm walking to dinner right now)
I think that works though. I'm pretty sure it's proven in section 1.11 of Jacobson
I mean literally that's what a generating set is
So sure
This is not a novel statement
But go on
So each element of the group is a_1^k_1 a_2^k_2 ...
Then that's literally just a direct sum
What am I missing
So prove it later

But actually the proof is a bit hard
So I doubt you'll be able to do it
Oh then I think I never saw the proof
But I didn't need it for this problem anyways right?
Or is my proof wrong
I mean I thought I had proven it
So that was my mistake
I'll try to prove it later though
And probably fail
I'm not sure what your proof idea even is tbh
I don't have one
I thought something was a proof when it only proved existence and not uniqueness
So you're saying there is a map from G to the product of some cyclic groups
So why is that map well defined
Thats where uniqueness comes in
I'm saying there's a map from the product of some cyclic groups to G
Well it is right? I just didn't prove it
Well it's true that there is an isomorphism between any finitely genrated abelian group and a direct product of cyclic groups right? The proof is just much higher level that I thought I was
Right that makes sense
Let f be a monic integer polynomial, let g be another integer polynomial. If f divides g in Q[x], then f divides g in Z[x]
I don't understand this proof
"since f is monic we can do division with remainder in Z[x]: g = fq+r, and this equation remains true in the ring Q[x] and gives the same result. In Q[x] f divides q. Therefore r=0 and f divides g in Z[x]
What exactly do you not understand?
why does the fact that f divides q in Q[x] imply that f divides g in Z[x]
and why is monic important
monic is important because otherwise division won't work correctly, i.e., dividing x^2 by 2x would be x^2 = (x/2)(2x) + 0 but that doesn't work in Z[x]
sorry why wouldn't that work in Z[x]>
That's a typo, it should say "In Q[x] f divides g"
whats a typo?
"In Q[x] f divides q."
uh isnt that what I wrote
And I'm saying that's a typo
why, aren't cyclic groups 'easier' because of their structure?
well they r easier but i dont uderstand well enough to solve problem ๐
If you don't understand cyclic groups I'm not sure you understand any groups
๐
xddd same curiosity zero
cyclic groups are... what do you mean you dont understand them??
if I have a field K, and f,g non-zero are in K[X] and h = gcd(f,g) isn't this question just bezout's identity? it seems trivial lol
Yes it's just bezouts
my lecturer listed this under the intermediate questions
had me questioning myself
thanks
But that doesn't mean it's easy
I mean the proof of bezouts for integers isn't all too easy, you have to invoke the well ordering principle
we wouldn't be expected to prove that in this class lol
I mean sure
But I'm just saying that proving bezouts for polynomials might not be too easy
Since proving bezouts for integers is not easy
isnt bezouts like one line proof? f = g(X-a) + c and its clear that f(a) = 0 iff c =0 which proves that for a in K f(a) = 0 iff (x-a) | f .
assuming K field
@upper pivot idk im.trash
I guess bezouts also said that number of roots of f is <= deg f but it follows with induction iirc
thats not bezouts no
what is bezouts then?
wow I didnt know THATS called bezouts identity. Sorry, I didn't know that has a bezout name, the only big bezout theorem I ever heard was the polynomial one
I've never heard that called bezout's
LOL really?
nope
What I meant by Bezouts theorem is known as polynomial remainder theorem
and that bezouts identity I always identified with euclidean algorithm, never heard the actual name
Why does bezout for integers require well ordering theorem?
That doesn't seem right
Bezout is gcd(a, b) = na+mb for some n, m right?
So you can prove that for integers easily
couldn't you just like do the euclidean algorithm and go back?
Wlog assume gcd(a, b)=1, then use euler's theorem
Which is just Lagrange's theorem for finite cyclic groups
That definitely doesn't require well ordering theorem
Also Euclidean algorithm works
@mild laurel what do you mean?
Can you prove that euclidean algorithm or more precisely, that Z is euclidean without well-ordering?
do the euclidean algorithm
and go backwards
do you mean prove that it works?
that's what being an euclidean domain means
you can't show that Z is euclidean without well-ordering I think?
The only proof I found uses the fact that integers form an ordered integral domain
@mild laurel you can use eulers theorem
Like I said
And that's just Lagrange's theorem for finite cyclic groups
So no well ordering problems
Sure but you said Euclidean algorithm also works and I was disputing that claim
But I also don't see how to use Euler's theorem here
So you assume wlog that a and b are coprime
Otherwise divide the gcd out
Then by eulers theorem you know a^phi(b) cong 1 mod b
So a(a^(phi(b)-1)) cong 1 mod b
So there exists some n so that a(a^(phi(b)-1))+nb =1
And you're done
all you need for euclidean algorithm is the fact that you can divide
Yes and I think division with remainder only works because of well-ordering
Anyway zoph do you see now?
there's a finite amount of naturals x such that ax <= b for fixed a,b
you don't need well ordering
unless you mean the fact that it terminates
I mean there's an order going on
and "well ordering" is equivalent to elementary properties of natural numbers
I don't know what you mean by proving well ordering
it's like saying proving induction
Yeah for the naturals this is a weird hill to die on
Yeah liquid that works
for polynomials k[x] it's even easier
degree goes down in each step
so it terminates
I'm not sure where I talked about proving well-ordering
I'm not sure how I misled him, he was trying to prove something that was not Bezout's, which he admitted, even if it does immediately lead to Bezout's
Also this is probably a dumb question, but how do you show that there are a finite number of naturals such that ax <= b, because the only way I can think of uses well-ordering
I don't understand why the use of well-ordering is particularly relevant
ab > b
Liquid claimed that you don't need it to prove bezouts
Scissors: to be fair you'd probably induct at that point, again uses well-ordering
what do you mean
I mean induction and well-ordering are the exact same thing
And you'd say something like
ab > b, and if x > b then ax > b. How? By induction
@woven delta even using Z/bZ implicitly assumes that division works I think, which I'm arguing that requires well ordering
I'm guessing that's what you're trying to do
I mean I was just saying ab>b and there's finitely many numbers less than b
but if you wanna prove arithmetic of naturals then you need its properties
sure
"I mean the proof of bezouts for integers isn't all too easy, you have to invoke the well ordering principle" seems to be the first instance of well ordering being mentioned in this convo
And like
Yeah, and I was just bringing that up to show that proving bezouts might not be super easy, not anything about well ordering in particular
I mean well-ordering isn't really not easy tho
I was thinking that the idea of trying to use well ordering to prove bezouts isn't obvious
But the actual proofs of bezouts are very easy
I mean practically anything you wanna prove about integers that isn't like
Oh this follows from the fact that addition is exists
Will use either induction or well-ordering
Or I mean successor functions
and it's led to such a weird conversation
Yeah anyway this sort of foundational thing is just not worth thinking about
And let's all forget we had this discussion
Yeah okay true, I guess the only proof I knew used well ordering so that's why I thought bezout for integers might be hard to prove
yeah i'll drink some bleach
Yeah someone teach me algebraic geometry now pls
affine schemes just means opposite category of rings
In the beginning you have solutions to polynomials
you glue them to make schemes
And that's mspec
But you remember that if you wanna think about non-algebraically closed fields, which you do because of number theory, then mspec doesn't cut it
Lo and behold there's Spec
and you pick other scary words to rename things that are easy
like "quasicoherent sheaf" just means module
And now let's manifold some Specs together because idk may as well copy differential topology
And you have a scheme
qed
Wait I have an actual question though
If you take the sheaf O_X(1), it seems like this is supposed to be an O_X module but I'm not sure how this works out
Oh so it's just O_X being an O_X module locally?
yes
just do 4/cosx2
could someone explain to me the difference between an automorphism and a permutation?
I've got that an automorphism is an isomorphism from G -> G, and a permutation is a bijection from a set to itself.
it seems to me that the only difference is that a permutation is when it's a set, but an automorphism is when it's a group?
vaguely
automorphisms must still be group homomorphisms
You could still consider permutations of a group, like how right multiplication is a permutation on a group but not an automorphism
I'm trying to wrap my head around that
if it's a permutation, it's a bijection. and doesn't right multiplication define a homomorphism?
(I could be wrong about that)
taken.
Consider the function f: G \to G, f(h) = hg
This is what I mean by right multiplication
This isn't a homomorphism
yeah, I can see how it wouldn't be.
all right, that helps make things a lot clearer
But it is a bijection(permutation)
and this is what D&F means when they say that Aut(G) โค S_G
it's a subgroup for sure, but not necessarily the same as the whole group
because there (may) exist permutations that don't represent homomorphisms
that really helps clear things up for me. in particular, I was trying to get what the book's saying about a group acting by conjugation on a normal subgroup, and how it's "structure preserving"
Yes that's true
I wasn't really clear on why that's true. but given your explanation, it's a lot better now, thanks
I'm not sure what they mean by that last bit either but maybe context would help
Usually structure preserving just means its a homomorphism
well like, elements of order n map to other elements of order n, and so forth
true for an automorphism, not necessarily true for a permutation
Sure
But isn't the determinant of a strictly triangular matrix 0?
I think they want the subgroup with 1's on diagonal but yes you're right
ah that makes sense cool thx
@solemn hollow It's just that all the entries on the diagonal are nonzero
it's not just the subgroup with just 1s
can i get help pls
What have you tried
hmm... so i looked at the examples lmao
to see how being a subset of nil(A) matters
didnt really get how it works
what would a unit of the quotient ring be in this case?
1+I
obviously
i looked at Z/8Z and mod it by {0,4}
which is a subset of {0,2,4,6}
works as said
dunno what else to do
Haven't tried it, but you might be able to do this one directly
checked that if a maps to a unit in A/I then there exists a b s.t. ab=1 mod I
i.e., if a + I is a unit in R/I, then there exists some b such that ab - 1 \in I
And then show that a times b to some power maybe is just 1
where did we use the nilpotent thing here
idk I should probably check this actually works
Yeah
Use the fact that ab - 1 is nilpotent
Not a question but I'd like to thank everyone in this server that helped me during this last semester. With your help (and a lots of youtube lel)I was able to not only pass the class but more importantly feel like I reasonably understand the basics of Group theory!`
Again, many thanks!
๐
How do I calculate the cokernal of an mxn matrix?
What exactly are you confused about?
Just the general algorithm @mild laurel
Well do you know how to calculate the image of a matrix
Row reduction?
I don't think so
It works, but you have to be careful
isn't the image of a matrix just the span of the columns?
The idea is that you row reduce and see which columns have pivots
Sure, but that doesn't give you a basis
But reduced it gives kernel as well
No reason to think it'll work the same for the image
Idk, you should just google how to find the image of a matrix
Yooooo, so I'm taking the first of two classes in abstract algebra at my college. My professor is total garbo and I've gotten to the point where I have to basically read the textbook to teach myself all of the content but the first test is on tuesday on all of group theory (or at least everything we have done so far). This test includes the basics such as the Euclidian algorithm as well as more complex stuff like dihedral groups, cyclic groups, and so many proofs I want to cry. I hear from other students that if you can understand the basics you can start to understand everything else soooo,
my question for <@&286206848099549185> is do you have any tips of understanding these basics so I can do well and ace this test? Much thanks and many love to anybody who can answer my question
*tips for understanding the basics
Okay first read #โhow-to-get-help
I mean of course you want to understand the basics before you move on to more complicated things
But its pretty hard to give advice on this general of a question, the advice is going to be the basic advice
of reading the textbook and other sources, doing exercises, etc
Ok, then to get more specific, i also have a quiz on disjointed cycle decompositions tomorrow.
lets say, for example, a=(1 4 5) and b=(2 5 1)
if i wanted to find ab:
then my current understanding of it is i start with the first element of the second cycle, see what that maps to, (in this case 2->5) then i would look to the first cycle and see if that will map to anything in that cycle (which it would, to 1). and I repeat this process until i get
ab=(2514)
is this correct?
(also sorry for pinging helpers when i shouldnt have)
The example you wrote out is correct, but the rest of the numbers aren't correct
You have to repeat that same process with every number
So 5 -> 1 under b, then 1->4 under a
i figured that the process would be repeated until completion no matter the size of the given cycles
I'm not sure what you mean
wait, i see what you mean
i thought the process was, if a=(a1 a2 a3 ...) and b=(b1 b2 b3 ...)
b1->b2 then if b2 is in a, b2 to what b2 maps to in a
now jump back to b
b2->b3 then if b3 is in a, b3 to what b3 maps to in a
Instead what I'm getting from you is
b1->b2 then if b2 is in a, b2 to what b2 maps to in a (say an)
an->an+1 then if an+1 is in b, an+1 to whatever an+1 maps to in b.
eventually,
ab=(b1 b2 an an+1 bn bn+1 ...)
or, in the case that b2 is not in a, then...
ab=(b1 b2 b3 [check if b3 maps to anything in a and continue from there] ...)
does that make sense? its hard to do not on paper
Uh no, I'm trying to say the first one
Maybe check your work, what happens if you apply the first idea starting with 5
Really, you should be thinking of a and b as functions from {1,2,3,4,5} to {1,2,3,4,5}
And ab is just the composition of these two functions
yeah idk, those lines of code are complicating it
my prof complicated it with arrows all over the freaking board, man
Is that where its derived from?
so... a(b(2))=a(5)=1 so 2->5->1
and a(b(5))=a(1)=4 so 5->1->4
Both the calculations you wrote down are correct yes
But what about those question marks
Go read the definition of cycle notation again
in this case im saying that from the information given we dont know what things like a(5) maps to, assuming that all that is given are the two cycles a and b
if we were given an actual permutation then i know it would be a different case
But you are given an actual permutation
Like I said, go review the definition of cycle notation
i did, this is just a random example i made with random numbers
unless you are indicating that since they arent indicated in the cycle notation that they map to themselves?
so a(5) = 5?
which, in hindsight, would make sense
sorry, wait, bad example
a(2) = 2
i misread the picture
That is how cycle notation is defined yes
BIG BRAIN
Thank you so much omg
Last question to bother you with. for the quiz, the prof sent an email saying what we would be tested on and in addition to this, he said, "Also compute the order of an element in the integers modulo n with addition and the order of an element in a symmetric group." and im not sure what he means by that
What exactly don't you understand
i know that the order of, say, 9-bar under integers mod 20. its 20/gcd(9, 20) or, in general:
the order of m-bar under integers mod n is "n/gcd(m,n)"
im not sure how to compute the order of an element in a symmetric group
and flipping through my notes i cant find an example of it
2? since 1->2 and 2->1?
Yep
What about (1 2 3)
Idk, you should go play around with it
see if you can come up with an answer
it must be the number of elements factorial, so for (1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9) its 9! ?
What's your reasoning?
each element has to relate to each other element so its a permutation
i also did sets with 2-4 elements to find the pattern
Is this what the definition of the order of an element in a group is?
no... the order of x in a group, G, is the smallest positive, non-zero integer, n, such that x^n=e is the definition
so think again
always check that you actually know what the words mean before you try to do something with them
if this is the case, then im not sure how (1 2)(1 2) results in the identity
since we already established that (1 2) ^2 = e
you've already established that (1 2)^2 = e but aren't sure how (1 2)^2 = e?
He's saying that I confirmed that it was the case, but now he's not seeing why it is the case
lol, yes, because rather than composing theme together we counted the number of relations in the element
that too
(1 2) is the permutation that swaps points 1 and 2
what happens when you swap them and then swap them again
OH, DUH
that's right you go back to where you started
so in the case of (1 2)^2, 1->2 (from a) and 2-> 1 (from b)
so that implies that (1 2) is the identity?
or am i just being more stupid
you are being more stupid
NO! ๐ญ
bit (1 2)^2 = (1 2), right?
*but
so rather than looking to make a cycle turn into an identity, the identity should be the starting cycle?
this is probably easier done with a cycle of size 3: (1 2 3)^6 =(1 2 3)^0
once you have made a complete cycle
then you have reached the identity
shit, its 4 am
i gtg, but thanks for the help up to this point, youve done more than my prof has done in 3 weeks, lol
did you think about what I said at all
you can
You need to use the notion of ideals and the theorem that says they are closed under operation modulo
You can derive a contradiction with the set aZ + bZ
this is the proof of the fundamental theorem for finite cyclic groups
I'm unsure why the last row implies m_i | n
I understand that by definition $a^n = a^k$ where m_i | k
AoiKunie:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
okay so since a^n = a^k, is there some relationship between n and k?
Well k is a multiple of n
n is the order of G btw, it was stated in the beginning of the thm
But in this case k=0 works since everything divides 0. I'm not sure how that gives me information about dividing n
I mean
All the elements of H_1 are a^(k m_1) for some integer k, and only those elements
What I have a problem with is different representations of an element
b is in H_1 if b=a^(k m_1) for some k. But does that imply that if b = a^q, then m_1 | q
In the proof we know e is in H_1 because a^(0 m_1) = e. But I'm unsure how that implies m_1 | n just because a^n=e
Yes, if b = a^q, then m_1 | q
Because an element is in H_1 if and only if it's of the form a^(k m_1)
By the definition of the subgroup generated by an element
By the definition doesn't it suffice that it can be written as a^(k m_1) for some k
Not that every representation of it as a power of a is of that form
Yeah no you're right
So any idea how they drew that conclusion? :/
What should I take after AP abstract algebra?
I know it is crazily hard but I can stand something further.
what's available?
Why does linear independence imply a^2=-1 here?
Suppose there's more than one way for x+y(-2)^(1/4)+z(-2)^(1/2)=-1
then subtract the 2 ways from each other and you have a rational coefficient relation between 1, (-2)^(1/4), (-2)^(1/2), contradiction because they are linearly independent
@chilly ocean
Your two relations are the one by a^2+2ab..., and -1+0+0
oh wait ok yeah of course
I get it
bruh thx I dont know why Im so slow
probably the weed
@solemn rain yes.
can u send any resources for it?just curious
Have you even done AP linear algebra? @solemn rain
Look through requirements. It requires linear algebra which requires calc 3 which requires calc 2 which requires precalc which requires algebra 2.
Yw.
linear algebra doesn't really require calculus IMO
lol what calc
IKR.
you can get around requirements usually by just asking permission anyways
or just sign up for it and no one will check if it's online and the system doesn't deny you
@prime jackal what does ap abstract algebra cover?
Topics include:
logical reasoning
set theory
properties of functions
binary operations and relations
properties of the Integers
countable and uncountable sets
real and complex numbers
unique factorization of polynomials
lol
did you just click on the first channel under "advanced mathematics"? I don't think this belongs here.
Idk exactly where to put it
๐ฎ @oblique river
u here
anyway, guys i need help
what is this theorem really saying
like the stuffs on the left is a 0 endomorphism?
I^i doesn't make sense to me tho
I is an ideal, and there's a notion of ideal multiplication
Yes, the thing on the left is an endomorphism, and it is equal to the 0 endomorphism
This is a very, very, very, very important theorem lmao
You've heard of Cayley Hamilton? For matrices and linear algebra?
yes
This is a generalization of cayley hamilton to modules
yea, i read the proof to see if it'll help me understand what the statement is about
helps you prove a ton of important theorems
but sth doesnt fit in my head
It's really just Cayley hamilton, matrices are endomorphisms of vector spaces
i think ill just have to read this like 10 more times and ill get it
This is not abstract algebra
where should i post it then?
danke
I have a question regarding first order logic. I have a language L which is true in a structure M iff the domain has exactly 5 elements. I have to create a sentence which is satisfied in this condition.
My attempt is that, "there exist 5 distinct elements such that every element is equal to one of these 5 distinct elements."
Is this attempt correct and is there an easier statement I could come up with?
so you have a language L and you have to build a sentence which is true in a structure M if and only if M has exactly 5 elements ?
Yea
then yeah your sentence sounds good
I am wondering if a simpler inference can be made
Lol, that's why I was looking for a more straight forward one. Still thanks
Got a follow up question
If the problem statement changes from exactly 5 elements to at least 5 elements, how would my solution change?
actually this is more #foundations than #groups-rings-fields
then you would remove the second part
that's all I have to do?
think about it
It makes sense, I am just trying to think counterexample
in response to some of the "this is not abstract algebra" comments , sometimes abstract algebra and number theory overlap (regarding the module question, not the logic question).
Liquids comment wasn't referring to the module question
It was some now-deleted #elementary-number-theory question
Elementary number theory would not talk about modules lmao
can some1 show me that the 2 definitions
of group actions are equivalent
1st definition :
a group action is a map GxX ---> X : (g,x)--->g*x
such that (gh) *x = g(h *x)
and (e,x) ---> x for all x in X
where e is the identitiy
now the second definition
a group action is a group homomorphism G ---> Aut(G)
if im sure
basically some1 define for me group actions pelase lmao
we say a group acts on X if there exists a homomorphism G--->Sym(X)
where Sym(X) is the set of all bijections on X
Given a group homomorphism h:G\to Sym(X), define a map (g, x)\mapsto h(g)(x)
Given such a map f:GxX \to X and an element g of G define h(g)(x)=f(g, x)
h(g) is a permutation of X
So h(g)(x) is h(g) evaluated at x
Now you have to show that these maps I just defined are homomorphisms with the desired properties
if i show h(g)(x)=f(g, x)
is a map with the properties i hav e
im done right?
and the otheer way around
show that the map with such properties
is a homomorph
?
Yeah
Is there a good way to solve this problem that doesn't just involve guessing random values?
euclidean algorithm ?
you can also look for k(1),k(2) and k'(2) and see what you can make of it
this is a classic euclidean algorithm type problem
Hm, okay, thanks! I'll look into that algorithm then.
you can check that degree only goes down in the euclidean algorithm at each step
I moreso just encountered this problem when solving a different problem in linear algebra. Wondered if there was a better way to solve it than guessing.
so you may assume the k_i are degree just enough to make both sides the same
then k1 is a constant and k2 = aT + b
Yeah, and from there you can plug in values for T like 1 and 2 to easily find the coefficients
Great! Thanks.
I guess first step if you were to do euclidean algo is $(T-2)^2 = (T-1 -1)^2 = (T-1)^2 -2 (T-1) + 1 = (T-1)(T-3)+1$
Merosity:
and hey, that's also the last step, just subtract now
$1 = 1*(T-2)^2 -(T-3)(T-1)$
Merosity:
done
Hi, can I ask a question? Or is the channel busy?
think we're done, so go ahead
Thank you.
So I have a group G, of order |G| = 15, with subgroups A, B of order |A| = 5, |B| = 3.
I need to show that the intersection AโฉB = {1} and that the smallest subgroup containing both A and B is G itself.
I thought of approaching it with Lagrange's Theorem
since |A| and |B| are primes, then elements in A can only have orders of 1 or 5, and similarly for B, they can have orders of 1 or 3.
since no element can have two different orders
can I just follow on to say that AโฉB = {1}?
try to generlize
(I am denoting the group identity to be 1)
You have to be a bit more specific here, basically, you have to A intersect B can only have elements of order 1
yes
Then you should say that thats only the identity
and the only element of order 1 must be the identity
right
ok
it seems awfully wordy
maybe I should get used to that
@solemn rain that's a nice approach too, I like that
why
Yeah I mean when you're just starting out, its good to write every detail
Ahah this is my 2nd course in abstract algebra, did my first course over a year and half ago so I'm super rusty at basic problems
uhh sure lemme see if I can just send my lecture notes lol
here
It starts off assuming that people haven't done the intro course
so they go over the basics real quick (Ch1 and 2)
ty
thats like really similar to ictp
what's that sorry?
yeah this is only a 2nd year course in the UK
Oh
So my polynomial question is like solving a linear diophantine equation but using polynomials instead of integers
Extended Euclidean Algorithm to solve the coefficients
Interesting. I vaguely remember doing this during a math summer camp in high school.
You really should stop posting these here and post them in #elementary-number-theory
this is abstract algebra btw
It fits #elementary-number-theory better
Just click on #elementary-number-theory
Hey I need some help. I have to prove that the groups
$$ \mathbb{Z}_p \times \mathbb{Z}p $$ and $$ \mathbb{Z}{p^2} $$
Timo:
Are not isomorphic
Where p is a prime number
Iโve not done a proof where I have to prove groups are NOT isomorphic
I think isomorphism should preserve some nice properties of a group such as being abelian, or cyclic
@subtle granite if you could show that one of your groups has some property which isomorphism doesn't change, but the other group doesn't have it, then they can't be isomorphic
the order of an element under a isomorphism has to remain the sme
subgroups under isomorphisms are subgroups too
@golden pasture @south coral thank you!! I showed that one of the groups can have an element of order p^2 but the other cannot, and since isomorphisms preserve order, I arrive at the contradiction that they cannot be isomorphic
Nice! At this point I'm just thinking aloud and you probably already realized this, but one way you could think of doing this is: you know that $\bZ_{p^2}$ is cyclic, and all cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic, so if you want to prove that it's not the same as $\bZ_p\times\bZ_p$, the latter can't be cyclic too, and proving this boils down to what you said
Astianthus:
Ugh texit doesn't work nicely with discord markdown of course
I want to show that given an abelian group G, of order p^2, where p is prime, that G is isomorphic to either Z_p^2 or Z_p X Z_p.
I have already shown that if G is cyclic then it must be isomorphic to Z_p^2. I am not sure how to to show that if G is not cyclic then it must be isomorphic to Z_p X Z_p.
sorry for so many Qs
- find an element x of order p, so (x) = Z/p
- show that G/(x) = Z/p
- conclude that G = Z/p x Z/p
no that doesnt work.
oh
3 follows from abstract nonsense, basically you have shown
0 -> Z/p -> G -> Z/p -> 0
maybe you aren't familiar with this notation
but the idea is, you can show that G is generated by two elements, (x) and a representative of a generator of G/(x)
call it y
Uh, the cyclic group of order p^2 has elements of order p, and their quotient is Z/p
Idk why you're using short exact sequences to try to justify your claim
JohnDoeSmith:
I am still very confused. I thought about applying this theorem given to us, but I still cannot make the connection of how to bring in the direct product
the trik here is to notice something
what can you say about Z?p^2 and Z/p x Z/p
i'm trying not to use this language because he's obviously not familiar with it
what property do they both share
over Z/p
@upper pivot I'm not sure what you're looking for sorry :((
and not the last
well just think about properties of both of those groups
this is probably more confusing for the poor guy
Then you need to use some property about Z/pZ x Z/pZ in the third step that isn't true about Z/p^2
the property is that it's a Z/p module
if you don't understand a solution from someone helping you should just ask for clarification or back off
instead of confusing the person
oof 
Why do you think bringing up short exact sequences to someone just starting to learn algebra is even helpful at all
he is obv intro to group theory
I wasn't, you forced me to bring it up this way when you claimed the solution was wrong
you can do this in an elementary way
using module argument is not gonna help him lmao
this is such a clusterfuck
anyway as I was saying, to do part 3, take x and y a coset representative of a generator of G/(x). note that y in G must have order p, and then show that G = (x)*(y)
The link I'm not able to make is that final step
okay so what you have is
two elements x, y of order p
i.e. (x) = Z/p and (y) = Z/p
which are disjoint in G
define a map
(x) * (y) -> G
and show the kernel is 0
yes
ok
I got it
thank you
thanks all of you who helped, got a bit mixed up in between but thanks for taking the time :)
Does someone mind checking one of my homework problems? Sorry for the potato quality
(that's a } ., not a 3.)
hmm this isnt quite right
are all the residue classes you described distinct?
whats the residue class of 4 for example @cerulean siren
not sure what you mean by residue class, do you mean coset?
yeah
4 would be in the 4 + I coset
yeah, because the ones before it will have + i by the time it gets to 4
ohhh I always forget about subtraction
let me revisit this haha
I know i have to prove transitive, reflexive, and anti-symmetric properties, but i canโt figure out how to prove it
Hi, I have a simple Q about normal subgroups. If H is a normal subgroup of G, it means that for any g in G, gH = Hg. Is it then true that g^-1 Hg = H?
cheers
let H = {(1),(12)}
is H normal in S_3
is the only way i can do this is just
write out S_3
and like bruteforceE?
ty
I feel like I'm missing something here, I is an ideal right
just a subset of A
oh damn wait
i mean
let me make it more sensible
$\sum{a_i\omega_i}=0\implies a_i\in \mathfrak{m}$ for all $i$
nnutannep:
is this obvious?
adding sets of A would be all sums, i believe
the book i used didnt say anything beforehand but just used this fact
so the \omega's are in M?
Oh right
In that case, you should remember everything not in the maximal ideal m is a unit
If one of the coefficients is a unit, you can rewrite the equation and have like \omega_1 = stuff
which would violate the minimal basis
its kinda your typical linear algebra proof
indeed
like how you show that if your coefficients aren't all 0, you can rewrite one in terms of the rest
I was thinking about Nakayama's lemma for a while cause this vaguely looked like that
yea im trying to read an application of NAK
Let $(A,\mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring ; then a projective $A$-module is free.
nnutannep:
the author proves for the finite case first. but then there are these horrible lemmas that allows for proof in general case
What are you reading?
matsumura
lmao nice
Hello, for this question am I allowed to divide this into cases where I assume 1) x = 0, 2) y = 0?
no
oof
Oh wait
I can just multiplicative inverse on xy = 0
and show that either of them can equal 0
nope
now that's allowed right?
what is F
use that
just assume the opposite
say x not 0
then u can multiply by inverse of x
qed
Okey dokey, thanks ๐
but is 4+I different than the other cosets before it?
hint, 4=(2+2i)(1-i)
Wait no I'm still confused
what does multiplication have to do with cosets?
I though cosets were formed by the addition group operation
what do ideals have to do with cosets?
right
so the cosets of a ring are r + I for r in the ring
using the addition operation I thought
and where I is an ideal
yes ... but aren't the cosets themselves are formed by adding to elements of R?
You can think about it like that sure
Going back to what john said
4=(2+2i)(1-i)
(2 + 2i) is in your ideal I
I'm going to do some easier problems first I think
the problem is what the "..." means in your list
you are only thinking about adding elements of the form k(2+2i)
for k an integer
but elements of I are of the form r(2+2i)
for r = a+bi
I isn't the group generated by 2+2i under addition
ohh I see, I didn't have every element in I
this is a very large ideal
(or I'm missing some pattern)
so far I have { 0, 2+2i, 4+4i, -2-2i, ..., (2+2i)^2 = 8i, 2+8i, -2+6i, ..., (2+2i)(8i) = -16+16i, -14 + 18i, ... } and I'm sure there's a lot more
hmm they're all even
how did you get 2 + 8i?
noooooo
Maybe as hint
4 + 4i = 2(2 + 2i)
-2 - 2i = -1(2 + 2i)
Also wait, you've calculated (2 + 2i)^2 wrong
I hate complex numbers
they're so hard to reason about
I got 2+10i by adding 8i to 2+2i
you always get 2y + (8+2z)i for y, z integers?
or am I missing a multiplication again
Does -2 - 2i follow that?
yes, 2*-1 + (8+(-5*2))i
yeah you're right
You're right that they are all of that form, but you don't get everything of that form. Like you haven't gotten 2 yet
Maybe let me write out a couple more for you
-2 + 6i = (1 + 2i)(2+2i)
-14 + 18i = (1 + 8i)(2 + 2i)
2 + 10i = (3 + 2i)(2 + 2i)
how did you get 1+2i in I?
It's not
oh right it's an ideal
Look at the second factor in all the examples I've given
it's always 2+2i, because this is the principle ideal of 2+2i
the real and complex coefficient are always a multiple of 8 apart?
That's what I was trying to get at
(for 2+2i, that multiple is 0)
Every element you have written down is a multiple of 2 + 2i
And all multiples of 2 + 2i are in the ideal, by the ideal properties
ok, so maybe coefficients that are a multiple of 7 apart won't be in the ideal
I don't know how to show that though
I might do some other homework for a while, I appreciate you being so patient though
I don't see what you're getting at? We've completely described the elements in the ideal
well but how do we know that's everything? maybe we're missing something
like I was missing 8i before
I'm just going to say the answer is 8 lol
Yeah, I mean I only showed examples
But you have to prove that there are only the multiples of 2 + 2i
that's how we defined the ideal though
there's nothing to prove
the original definition is the ideal generated by 2+2i
Ah you defined the ideal like that okay, in that case yeah
That's how we know that the multiples of 2 + 2i are exactly the elements in the ideal
But yeah, you have to go back and think about why 4 = (1 - i)(2 + 2i) matters now
I still don't know why you're thinking about those coefficients
We've described the ideal in a very nice way completely
the original question is what is the size of Z[i] / <2+2i>
and I'm trying to find some element that's not in <2+2i> so I can get an intuition
but every one I find ends up being in the ideal haha
just see <2+2i> has elements of form p + (4q+p)i for every p and q in Z
(Z[i] being the gaussian integers, { a + bi | a, b integers })
1 is not in your ideal
@bitter mauve same question, how do you know 2 isn't in there?
since it is not a multiple of (2 + 2i)
yeah, so I know there's at least 2 cosets, but I don't know if there's more
When are two cosets equal?
scratch that I meant even p
One way to think about that is that a + I = b + I if and only if a - b is in I
yes
but my question is how do I know if that's in the same coset as 1 + (2+2i) = 3 + 2i or not?
or better phrased, how do I know if 2 is in I?
(wolfram alpha is failing me btw https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=(2%2B2i)*x+%3D+2)
yea the quotient u got is not a gaussian integer tho
yeah, so it's not conclusive
wut
isn't division a multifunction on the complex numbers?
anyway <2+2i> has elements of form 2p+(4q+2p)i for every integer p and q
2/(2+2i) could have many possible answers
Division algorithm might help here
is my argument correct
I'm just going to go with I, 1+I, 2+I, and 3+I, I don't have any more time to spend on this
i + I is a coset
and if there's any others I'll just be wrongn
number of elements in Z[i]/I?
hmm.... i was wrong
I could understand the proof here but the claim that the author makes about the diagram being commutative is new to me. I know that he tells me to read appendix B but its huge. So if anyone could help me understand why that'd be great
i know that a:L_1 --> N exists and phi*a=f because L1 is free and hence projective. but i dont get why the left arrow makes the diagram commutative.
Suppose ฯ : R โ S is a Ring homomorphism. If ฯ is onto and R has a unity element 1_R, then S has a unity element ฯ(1_R). If, additionally, ฯ is an isomorphism and S has a unity element 1_S, then ฯ(1_R)=1_S```
Hey, I'm a bit confused by this proposition. I don't really understand the difference in the "additionally" part. if ฯ(1_R) is a unity element in S, won't it already be equal to 1_S? how could 1_s not exist if ฯ(1_R) is a unity element?
also I should disclaim that I am translating the prop to English too, so any awkward wording could be attributed to that
Yeah you're right, the first bit+uniqueness of 1 gives you the second immediately
Unless I'm also missing something
If x and y are both multiplicative identities in S, then x = xy = y
I thought of that, but wouldn't ฯ(1_R)=1_S still hold even without that assumption?
Which assumption? That ฯ is an iso?
I was responding to someone that deleted their message
ฯ(1_R) can fail to be 1_S if ฯ is not surjective
derp
Oh sorry
Np, good luck with ring theory!
thanks!
but yeah, i think it's actually saying that the pre-image of 1_S is unique
if under a ring iso
I think that's the only thing it would make sense for it to say, but as it's written, it doesn't seem to be saying that
Reposting because it got buried:
Let G = GL(n, C) and let H be the subgroup generated by matrices in rational canonical form. Is G = H? Same question for H generated by Jordan canonical form matrices and C = k a field (algebraically closed if we're thinking about Jordan canonical form)
what's rational canonical form ?
Every matrix is similar to a block matrix of the form indicated here
Someone on reddit pointed out that Jordan canonical form matrices are upper triangular, so they don't generate everything
Is there an elementary way to show everything in C is similar to a matrix in upper triangular form? I.e. without invoking Jordan canonical form
This is Schur's decomposition
Cool
And it's very explicit in the 2ร2 case
My algebra students have a hw problem this week to show that if G is a finite group and H a proper subgroup of G, then G is not the union of conjugates of H
Then to show this for possibly infinite G but finite index H
Then to find a counterexample in general
They wouldn't let me take the algebra course last year
So I started a study group, which got accredited as an independent study and a senior undergrad helped out with it
It went so well that I'm running it again this year as a mentor
lmao wtf
It's pretty great
Anyways, G = GL(2, C) and H = upper triangular is a counterexample
H is a proper subgroup of G, but everything in G is conjugate to something in H
The example I came up was G = mobius transforms acting on the riemann sphere. Then every element of G has a fixed point, so the union of stabilizers is all of G, and they're all conjugate, but any given stabilizer is a proper subgroup
But the students won't do complex analysis until spring so I can't use it
Those are both nice
Yeah. I thought brouwer fixed point gave an example but the action of homomorphisms of the disk on the disk isn't transitive because of invariance of boundary
Right
I think they might secretly be the same?
A 2ร2 matrix is upper triangular iff it has (1, 0) as an eigenvalue
Equivalently, it fixes span (1,0) under the action of GL(C, 2) on the space of lines in C^2
Which means we're really looking at stabilizers of an action of GL(C, 2) on P^1
But P^1 is the Riemann sphere!
Holy shit it is!
The action of a matrix M = [[a b] [c d]] on [z : 1] (considered as a line in C^2) is [az+b : cz + d]
And the action of M on z/1 as a mobius transform is (az+b)/(cz+d)
And M [1 : 0] = [a : c] is the mobius transform f(z) = (az + b)/(cz + d) on the point at infinity
Oh yeah shit, that works
That's really cool
I came to the same answer in two completely different ways
Trying to find a "geometrical" transitive group action where everything has a fixed point vs thinking about matrix canonical forms
math is pretty interconnected
math is pretty cool
Math is pretty cool
cool is pretty math
Math is very nice.
Is math related to science?
