#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 458 of 407
So this gives you a way to describe quotients/extensions
Don’t worry about this shit atm, just thought it relevant
i dont understand this notation
ker(f) ---> G ?
you mean there is a function between them
?
yes
im slow wXD
dwai, it’ll make sense more later
okay
can you like give me any exercises or anyshit
so ic an see if i understand?
so i did this one on my own
which like cool af
G is a cyclic group with generator a
G is isomorphic to Z/kZ
Have you shown image is a subgroup?
Also try R/Z with R as reals, Z as integers
Good
It’s fairly obvious, just making sure you’ve done it
oh okay
i thoguht it was important
yea its easy a bit idk
Also try R/Z with R as reals, Z as integers
$\mathbb R/\mathbb Z$
Z is normal to R?
Darkrifts:
it’s abelian so yes
I want you to look at it
Better exercise: Show what (G x H)/H is
Yes, just gave R/Z as a basic thing to look at
product of groups is Cartesian product
yea
0 x H = { (0,h) | h is in H }?
Ye
(g,h)(g’, h’)=(gg’, hh’)
Also note: there are canonical maps from G x H to G and to H
Where you throw away one of the terms
Use this knowledge to your advantage
cant i just say
phi : 0 x H ---> H
phi(0,h) = h
why cant i just say that
xd im so stupid
I'm a little bit confused about the argument used here to prove this lemma:
is N(P) the normalizer of P
Sloth:
Sloth:
i dont see how this implies that k must = 0
HP is a subgroup of N(P) which is a subgroup of G
right
so
um, p^k divides |G| i guess?
hm
HP is a subgroup of G
right
its order divides G
u got this
hm
lemme think abt it more for a bit
oh my goddddd
@mild laurel how did i not get it
im so dumb
lmao thanks
tru
well you got it faster than i'm figuring out this question
and im pretty sure this should be obvious but

its probably an actually hard question tho
jesus i cant believe i took so long to get that
i havent done any math in like 2 weeks b/c of school and ive already reverted to absolute brainlet 
it happens
Not to me
Sorry, I should have said that it happens to those of us that aren't geniuses like you
lmfao
Is that the real Thomas Bayes :OOOOOOOOO
I think not, Thomas Bayes has died in 1761
why am i being so god damn dumb agh
say we have the dihedral group of order 2n
generated by the relations $\langle x, y \mid x^n, y^2, (xy)^2 \rangle$
Sloth:
how do we show that x and y are conjugate in D_2n?
xyxy=e
holy shit im fucking stupid
galaxy brain
fucking expanidng
of the absolute largest size
crazy idea
reeeeeeee
why is this tied to odd n tho
im trying to show that if u have two involutions u and v in G and the product uv is of odd order
then u is conjugate to v
so my strategy was liek, consider <x, y>
but i dont see how this argument is limited to odd

maybe im just smoothbrained to the highest degree
oh wow im going to kill my self
i had a basically complete argument
and then i fucked up because i couldnt complete the obvious last step
gdi
ugh wow
happens
blegh
I wrote that \binom{n-d}{n} = \binom{d}{n} earlier today
what algebra is that @mild laurel
Oh ok
aw man
i just wanna finish these last 2 problems
so that i can understand the characterization of S_5 he gives
not even midnight yet
true 
u got it
thanks 
I have like 4 more problems left to do on this assignment lmao
yeah
Gotta hit that grind my dude
its not really a grind cause idk how to do these problems lmao
Grind that reading to answer them
darkrifts remembeer that group you told me to look at
i gave up , googled it
turns out its isomorphic to the unit circle
i g
can some1 tell me how to 'look' at R/Z
It's the unit circle
yea, how did you get this
Think of an isomorphism
i dont even know how R/Z looks like
like
R/Z = {a+Z | a is in R}
does this describe the set of cosets of Z in R?
should i try to find a surjective homomorphism easier?
where the kernel is Z?
or would that be too specific and hard to find?
They're equivalent
Mo2
Take R
Start with [0,1] what happens here
Well, we identify 0~1
And that’s obviously a circle
Then what happens on [0,2]?
Well we glue 1~0
And then we glue like, 1+\epsilon to \epsilon
And we keep doing that
Wrapping around again and again
For all of R
@solemn rain
Does that make sense
Formally, use the exponential map to get that [0,1] with endpoints identified is the circle
formally you can just take the quotient but formalism wasn’t the point
I mean showing the quotient is topologically S^1
I don't believe in Hatcher-style topology, I want my proofs lol
Hey guys! my exam is coming up soon and my teacher mentioned something about problems that combine both arithmetic and geometric sequences and series. However I don't understand what he meant by that as I have never encountered a question like this. have any of you encountered questions like this, and if you have can you please @ me or private message me as I do have a few questions. Thanks 🙂
That topic is not suitable for this channel, look at #prealg-and-algebra
Hey there! recently I'm reading GTM150 to give my first try to commutative algebra, but the book seems somewhat difficult to me (the first chapter), anyone could give me some advice pls?
That's the eisenbud one right?
yap
Do you have any idea why you're finding it difficult?
Have you seen these topics before?
No, it's my first time attach this area
I can read the proof
but sometimes I just don't know the purpose
Can you give an example of that?
And yeah, usually commutative algebra textbooks assume you've seen the basic rings stuff before and so they go very quickly through that
Commutative algebra is definitely something you study after a first algebra course, which contains some stuff on rings
what do you mean by invariant theory/
So the point of invariant theory geometrically is that you have groups acting on varieties, and you're wondering whether the quotient is a variety or not
maybe that sort of thing will become clear when I go further😂
That's the entirety of my knowledge about it tbh
But like for instance Z/2 acts on S^n by the antipodal map, right?
The quotient is RP^n, which is a manifold
Yeah, sometimes things in commutative algebra aren't fully motivated until you learn more alg geo, which is what Eisenbud tries to do but
Yeah, I'm not familiar with Eisenbud in particular really
But yeah I mean, sometimes you're just gonna have to hold tight and take things at face value a bit. Or you can try to see if you can ask around in case there's a nice elevator pitch out there
I've read bits and pieces of it but
Oh you're talking about the first chapter
Yeah I wouldn't too much about realizing why everything in that first chapter is important
It's supposed to be more of a motivation chapter, in that it tells you why commutative algebra is important for all these other things
If you've read all of Hungerford, you're definitely ready for commutative algebra
@mild laurel @bleak abyss thanks so much! I will keeping going on!
good luck
can I ask for homework help?
I'm learning rings and I'm having trouble with one of the proofs
The book says: define Z[i] to be { r = a + bi | a, b are integers }. Then, norm(r) = a^2 + b^2. Show that r is a unit in Z[i] <=> norm(r) = 1
I got as far as I want rs = 1, which means (a+bi)(c+di) = 1, but I'm not sure where to go from there
I tried expanding the multiplication to ac -bd + bci + adi = 1
but I don't see a way to get only a and b on one side
when a=c and b=d
Use that here
like set r = s?
Hm there are nicer proofs
Have you shown that the norm is multiplicative?
norm(rs) =norm(r)norm(s)?
yes, I have N(rs) = N(r)N(s)
hmm I could apply norm to both sides
and so I have norm(rs) = norm(1) = 1!
hold on I think I might have it from here 🙂
good luck!
ooh and it works out because we're working with Z[i], not C
so (a^2 + b^2) only has a multiplicative inverse if it's 1, right?
I know Z only has 1 and -1 as units
yeah and a^2 + b^2 is in Z, not in Z[i]!
and since it's squared it can't be -1 🙂
I am not, we're using Abstract Algebra by Saracino
So I'm stuck with computing quotient thing. The answer should be in a form a+bX + cX^2 (X=theta) right?
the closest I got was (x^3-2)/(2x+4)
Find the inverse of the denominator
ohh ok yeah that solves it, thx. Too much calculations for that tho
i hope this is the right channel lol
for the proof of lagrange's theorem im finding it difficult to understand one part
The bit where u show each coset has the same amount of elements in it
i dont get
the coset $aH = {ah\vert h\in H}$
Darkrifts:
if ah=bh, what can you say about a and b @primal mantle
a = b @topaz solar
Think about how this means $\vert aH\vert = \vert H\vert$
Darkrifts:
a=b implies H -> aH is a unique mapping (sorry if im being wack with terminology lol)
1 to 1 mapping sorry
@topaz solar
oh of course lol
wait hmm
ah ok yh i get it
how do we know it'll be an integer amount of cosets in the group?
I personally like to show that "belonging to the same coset" is an equivalence relation, thus forming a partition on the group. Then show that every coset is the same size as the subgroup. @primal mantle
please help with 3.1.2
what did you try
well, i looked at examples
yea i was thinking of showing that a chain with non finitely generated I1 won't stabilise but how'd I even show that. is the trick being like infinite sets could go on and on? like <G> is a subset of <G - blah> and on and on?
$$\langle G\rangle \subseteq \langle G - F_1 \rangle \subseteq \ldots \ldots$$ for $F_i\subseteq F_{i+1} \subset G, |F_i|<\infty$
??
idk if im correct with the math notation tho
nnutannep:
"non finitely generated I1"?
i mean order of G being infinite
sorry if wrong words
infinitely generated ideal I_1
oh wait
feels like this proves it
in my head at least
Is the concept of index in rings analagous to the one in groups?
I don't see how this proves anything
😦
finite subsets of an infinite set G
@outer estuary are you talking about index of subgroups?
i thought like process of subtracting finite sets from an infinite would never stop
@bitter mauve Are you sure that <G> is contained in <G - F_1>?
@outer estuary I'm still not quite sure what you're asking but no, people don't really talk about the index of an ideal in a ring
why not?
Well let's say that f is in F_1
then since f is also in G, then f is in <G>
but is f in <G - F_1>?
Seems like this channel is busy, so disregard this question until it is free
Im trying to find all ring homomorphisms from Z to Z/30Z.
I got {0,1,6,10,15,16,21,25}
Are those right?
This isn't super clear
0 is not a ring homomorphism
You probably mean sending 1 to 0
Are the ring homomorphisms supposed to be integers?
Uh no?
maps
$\langle F_1\rangle \subseteq \langle F_2 \rangle \subseteq \ldots \ldots$ for $F_i\subseteq F_{i+1} \subset G, |F_i|<\infty$
hmm.... bot?
I can read it its fine
yea actually i was supposed to say it the other direction
So what are the F_i here
Ok thanks
they are finite subset of the infinite set G that generates some ideal (infnitely many generators) in the non noetherian ring. feels like this is the contrapositive version
i know that <F1> is contained in <F2> lol
And why doesn't this chain stabilize?
cuz there doesnt exist a number i_0 else we'd have order of G finite
thanks for your help man, my shift ended gotta run
Not sure what you mean by that
Technically the way you have it written
We can have F_1 = F_2 = F_3 = ...
yes but you need to give a better argument for why the chain won't stabilze
oh, thanks. ill try
@marble bolt Do you understand what we were saying?
what about each F being disjoint and I talk about <F1>, <F1>+<F2>, <F1>+<F2>+<F3>
etc
it'll work, you just have to be careful
i.e., elements in G don't need to be linearly independent
idk how you use group action
group actions to prove cayley's theorem
can some1 help
D&F chapter 4 (pp 119-120) has what you're looking for
okay i understand the details , its just unfolding definitions
but whati odnt understand is the motivation behind defining some certain maps
or like using a certain lemma
so
Theorem: Every finite group G is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
where n = |G|
so now this from nowwhere lemma
let G act on an enmtpy set X
define m : G---> S(X) as g--> m_g
where m_g is a map : X--->X as x-->gx
i have shown m_g is in S(X)
now the claim of the lemma is that m is a homomorphism
how would you come up with this
if i were asked to prove this for the first time
how would i think
of this
now i think the proof was then
showing the kernel of this homomorphism is e_g
hence injective hence isomorphism
Idk I mean the further you read into math, its going to be hard to ask for that sort of motivation on every single proof you read
well ik im not getting any further but
proofs are getting hard af
is it normal to not be able to do this on your own
for the first time?
i may understand the technicality of the proof
but wtf
Generally the proofs are not the original proofs. These are clever remanufactured proofs made to quickly attain the result
You aren't expected to come up with these yourself, but are expected to understand why they work
i dont think i do that tbh
like i dont think i know the 'why'
like really the 'why'
how can i improved
improve*
I don't mean "why they used the proof" but "why the proof they used works"
Because I agree with you, this stuff can be very out of nowhere
wait
really
i thought it was just me im stupid
im like mega confused
like 70% of the time
the 30% is where i read the defintions and or examples lmao
Especially group actions, this shit is magic. They're like "this complicated result is now obvious if you use the correct action lol"
I mean get why the proof works
If you're really stuck with actions, review actions
this is my first time with actions for me
Because they have some very nice properties that generalize a lot of group stuff
yea i haveeent gotten into the cool stuff
havent defined orbits or stabilizers
yet ig
would it be stupid to be asked to prove such a theorem
for the first time
in like a test?
as cayleys theorem
or like lagranges theorem even
like i wouldnt have ever thought of
like defining a relation --> classes are cosets ---> cosets partition G etc
is this normal lmao
even fucking using the theorems in some problems can be a bit hard
Is there a good example of a simply defined field where 2 + 2 would equal 5?
I always love the 2 + 2 = 1 mod 3 joke
if by "good" you mean "finite" then the answer is no
I don't think there's a way to magically do this, but what do I know
Hmm
to rule out finite fields just look at F_p, after p>=5 it's clear you can't make it
then check by brute force for less than that
I mean there's a weird one with
{2, 5} is isomorphic to Z_2, and 5 is identity element
IDK the exact syntax for that but it could be a dumb t shirt idea
2 + 2 through the isomorphism is just 1+1 in Z_2
what's the isomorphism, you're saying f(2)=1 and f(5)=0?
Yes
0 is additive identity, and so is five
Of course someone already asked this on r/math lol
that's a group, not a field
F_2 is a fine field
but it's not a field where 2+2=5
i mean, first you must be clear what you mean by 2 and 5
"Is there a good example of a simply defined field where 2 + 2 would equal 5?"
is it just symbols you give to random elements
or is it actually 2 = 1+1 and 5 = 1+1+1+1+1
where 1 is the multiplicative identity
yeah, we could just redefine 2 and 5 to be whatever but that'd be cheating imo
just localize Z at the multiplicative set {0,1}
there is no multiplication defined on it
Can't you define
1 * 1 = 1
0 * 1 = 0
1 * 0 = 0
yes
write your addition and multiplication tables with 2 and 5
to show how you get 2+2=5
and then you get the field GF(2) or F_2 or wtv you want to denote it
I mean basically that's what you're doing with the {2, 5} onto Z_2 thing but with a bit of abstraction
As in just rewriting multiplication
show me
Hmm?
the answer is that every field has prime or 0 characteristic
power of a prime*
If you map 2 -> 1 and 5 -> 0
Then do addition in Z_2, you're basically just doing a fancy way of redefining the numbers (at the added bonus of murdering every number other than 2 and 5)
oh my bad
any field of prime power order has prime characteristic
so, unless you randomly denote an element that is not (1+1+1+1+1) with the symbol "5"
or an element that is not (1+1) with the symbol 2
then you will not get this result
if you are willing to call random elements "2" or "5", this result is trivial
How would you write that in LaTeX? (Not specifically just this, I didn't ever learn most of the notation for it)
Ah
this is just looking at an isomorphism of F_2, where you renamed the identities for no apparent reason
i mean, using 0 and 1 for the identities is pretty standard, so don't change that
I was showing that f(5)=0 and f(2)=1 is not a field isomorphism because you can use it to prove 0=1
I mean the idea is not to use this rigorously
I'm trying to find good examples of how abstraction can break notions about math
2+2=5 is a particularly notable one
It's used in 1984 and the like a ton as a metaphor
you can't really make 2+2=5 unless you just make the symbols meaningless
ofc you can define a field isomorphism as f(0) = 5 and f(1)=2
^
that's what I'm saying
That's what I was thinking would be the best option
like sure, you can just write any gibberish and just redefine it to the core
It also illustrates that symbols don't always mean the same thing
it's like defining f(0) = 😸 and f(1) = 
but that's not really what I'd consider an honest misconception like you're trying to achieve here
Well sure but honest misconceptions are usually more advanced
I think the best one of those I have currently is just how * and + get redefined in Boolean algebra
it's like saying "I like your shoes" but then redefining "like" to mean "hate" and "shoes" to mean "hat"
LOL
sure, fine, whatever
If you guys have other good examples that would be more applicable to the thing I'd love some
the rationals inject themselves a handful of places
so it's not really a wise idea to start rewriting the definition of integers for a t-shirt imo lol
I mean, I wouldn't actually put this on a t-shirt lol
All my ideas for those are just bad puns
(a+b)^p = a^p + b^p in characteristic p
"I like the strong inductive type" with the Hindley-Milner rules
Hmmm
How would you recommend dumbing down characteristic?
it's a simple enough concept
also a pretty common joke
i heard it like at least half a dozen times just last year
it has characteristic 2
Yeah
like any finite field has order p^n
and characteristic p
and all infinite field are extensions of the rational numbers
I really don't know who uses GF(2) outside of programming languages
Zopherus:
True but this is a "class" that's much more likely to have programmed (actually a mandatory class for some of the students) than have touched AbstractSingletonProxyFactoryBean algebra
What what
Oh no what have I done...
That's how an autocorrect option for when I capitalize Abstract
Well it isn't anymore
God how old is that, it's like from a HackerNews thread called "Everything wrong with Java in a single class" or something
Anyways, these students are not gonna understand F_2 or GF_2 or anything like that as is
They would get me saying "This is like your bool in C "
God I'm stupid
I just spent the last 2 minutes wondering why GF(6) doesn't have a prime field characteristic
LOL
Seriously though it's like 2:30 am and I should probably get to bed if I'm sitting here potatoing so hard I didn't remember that Z6 is not a field and is in fact the example used to teach that not all quotient rings are fields
Either that or I should just drop out
And it's the freshman's dream problem to boot
can some1 explain to me orbit-stablizier theorem
class equation?
i tried but i cant
at all
all i know is the def of a group action
i liked this blog entry by timothy gowers: https://gowers.wordpress.com/2011/11/09/group-actions-ii-the-orbit-stabilizer-theorem/
this was not how the orbit satblizier thoerem was stated for me
|X| = sum(|G(x)|) over x in R
= sum([G:G_x]) over x in R
what does G(x) or G_x mean
maybe i should redo the whole topic
since im stupid
don't be hard on yourself, it will only make it harder for no reason
just sleep on it and come back to it fresh tomorrow
im being extremely hard now im so frustruate
d
problem is even id ont think im good enough with the formeer sections lmfaaaaop
that's fine, the further you go, the more context you have for what/why things earlier on were important to go back to, it's just how it goes
Can confirm
yea i shouldnt have not payed attention when
i was reading about system of represenatations if i remember correctly
lol orbit stab stuff took me like a few rereads to internalize it just sleep reread and repeat if it doesnt work
Can anyone tell me why this is true? It's a step in the proof of Sylow's Third Theorem so it's supposed to be obvious, but I can't figure it out.
Hm, can you show the whole proof?
Does this help?
Well okay, one containment is clear
You can see why the right set is contained in the left one righ
Yes, P<N(P) by definition, so 1*N(P) is a member of the left set.
Hm, what's lemma 6.3?
Apologies that I didn't provide this earlier, I didn't think it was being used for that particular equation.
I mean yeah, this lemma exactly does what you want
The first thing in the lemma shows why X^P = the set
Then you can also see that X^P = {N_G(P)} since every element of P is trivial in X
I see that the lemma gives the first equation. Can you expand on that last part a bit more?
Hm I think I misunderstood, the action of P on X here is the left multiplication action, not the conjugation action
is there anyone here willing to quench some knowledge thirst i have for near-rings and near-ring modules? I have some basic questions about it
just post your q and whoever's available to help you will help
if it's been at least 15min since you asked a q, feel free to use the Helpers ping
its not exactly a question from a book, its mostly a bunch of possibly bad questions, but i'll give it a try
how would one go about making a non-abelian group be an F_2-module (F_2 meaning Z/Z_2)? obviously if it is non-abelian it can't be an F_2-module, but I've start reading into near-ring modules, and there it seems you can stabilish an R-module over a non-abelian group G, but I don't think I have the mathematical pre-requisites to know much more about it
so where could I go to learn more about modules over non-abelian groups in a way that is accessible to an undergrad?
I need help <@&286206848099549185> idk what topic this is
are you fucking kidding me
you didn't even ask anything
there is so much wrong with what you're doing here
lmao
?
Idfk whay thay is
read #❓how-to-get-help 
jesus fucking christ
I’m in algebra 1 honors in school and this said algebra
chill boys
that was just a ping
i never understood why ppl hate being so pinged
@solemn rain
unperceived rules do not exist
but if you just @ helpers without asking anything and demanding to be helped, then we're going to be angry with you
@solemn rain Agreeing
OH NO
oh my god i cant do anyproblems in group theory
like 0 problems
wtf is wrong with me how can i improve
draw out the operation table
whatt
lmao
Let G be a group with 27 elements. Given that G has exactly 2 elements of order 3, exactly 6 elements of
order 9. Prove that G is an abelian group
help
What have you thought about
nothing , i dont know how to approach this at all
i dont see how having certain orders of elements can help lmao
like keep playing with the elements?
holy fuck i dont know at all
can u give any more hints
Think of anything that could be relevant here
well, if |G| = 27, then yeah, it's a p-group for p=3
there's only so many groups (up to isomorphism) that have 27 elements. using sylow's theorems and the information given in the question, can you figure out which one it is?
Ye thats what I thought but cant remembrr
No sylow required
(I'm also not very good at AA, so better you should listen to zoph than me)
I remember doing Such problems some time ago but I have a feeling I didnt fully understand it
Especially since I cant do it in my head right now
Took me a little bit to see it too
order of element divides order of group
rest of elements must have order divide 27
27 has 1 , 3 , 9 , 27
so there must be an element of order 27??
is that true?
Why is that true
umm
we are given that there are 2 elements of order 3 and 6 of 9
1 elememy of order 1
identity
the rest must divide order tho
so like
exhaustation ? lmfao
the rest must be of ord 27?
correct?
Yes
Yes
lmao thars like rhe first problem i like sorta did ever in gt
tysm for hint
thats*
Congrats
@willow garden @chilly ocean
If you want to see the solution
Also sylows theorem can never tell you anything when your group is of prime power order
Yee got it actually, thx tho
What I didnt realize at first was that cyclic implies abelian
Any books for abstract algebra?
But there’s probably like the best one out of lots
How do you define best
All good books have that
Some good books could be geared towards more advanced people
It's hard to say a book is worse just because it doesn't cater to absolute beginners
A beginner to advance would be good too
Anyways the idea of best book is nonsense
Some algebra books assume knowledge of linear algebra, some don't
Some take a more formal approach to the subject, some take a more intuitive approach
Some are more terse and more faster, some are wordier and move slower
It's hard to say that any one of these things makes a book "better" than another
So which book is best for you will depend on all these things
How much math you know, how comfortable you are with mathematical arguments, why you're learning algebra etc
So I’m gonna have to find the correct book by searching?
Or you can answer these things and I can give my best recommendation
That one
well answer them
"How much math you know, how comfortable you are with mathematical arguments, why you're learning algebra etc"
I know calculus and I’m good at algebra. My linear algebra is basic
And I’m learning this just for hobby
Infinitely Large Napkin is catered to people with experience in mathematics olympiad
artin is nice if you dont have strong background in LA
but it assumes you know about proofs
or are familiar with proofs i should say
jacobson does assume some la but isnt too much
Does cokernal intuitively measure the difference between the image of f and the object f maps to?
Essentially measuring surjectivity of f?
Distance is a bad word
But yeah
If cokernel is trivial then the map is surjective
The way I usually think about coker f where $f:A \to$ B is in terms of the exact sequence
$0\to \ker f \to A \to B \to coker f \to 0$
Liquid:
I think if you think about it
The formal defn of@coker as codomain/im
Gives the intuituition
It measures distance from surjectivity in some@sense
Artin assumes practically nothing but the English language lol
@chilly ocean one single book: Topics in Algebra by Herstein
If you study this book, you will learn it the proper way
or at least have solid base
ngl i didnt rlly like herstein
Dummit foote Best one imo
🅱️est?
aluffi's algebra: chapter 0 😳
you could learn algebra from Bourbaki for the meme
mhmm {0}R seems to be equal to {0}, and not R 🤔
oh right 🤦
how would I show that IJ is closed under addition? assuming I approach it with $x, y \in IJ, x = \sum_i a_ib_i$ and $y = \sum_i a'_ib'_i \implies x + y = \sum_i a_ib_i + a'_ib'_i$ is that good enough? it doesn't feel complete
alex:
There could be more $a_ib_i$'s than $a_i' b_i'$'s, you can' t fuse the sums like than without saying anything
Tuong:
well you could take the smaller one to have the same number of i's but either a_i or b_i = 0 couldn't you?
you could
actually, what if someone wasn't convinced that fusing the sums like this gives the result?
tbh I wanted to prove it by saying that if a_i is in I and b_i in J which is a subset of R then obviously a_ib_i is in I
then do separate cases for zero ring and when 1_R =/= 0_R
but it seemed overkill
rings are commutative btw
I think anyone can see that IJ is stable by +, but a priori, if you want to show an element is in IJ, you have to show the existence of k in N, of a k-tuple of elements of I and of a k-tuple of elements of J such that blablabla
I did take a look at this too
which is why I started to believe what I had written was sufficient
although they distinguish between n and n' for their sums
basically, what they are doing here is "hey look it's obvious"
if you're satisfied with this then it's alright
I don't really care about it too much since I know I could do it better if I needed to but this is only a subsection of a subsection of a question lol
thanks
You're welcome
@simple agate aluffi is worst choice imo you need to first get used to concrete examples then proceed to abstraction
yeah lol I didn't mean it seriously. I'd like to read aluffi in the near future but I don't plan on it until I finish undergrad
same with atiyah-macdonald
bad problems
Yeah problems are bad and it seems like you have to dig through too much chit chat to get to the content
Whether category theory is a merit or not depends on you. If you get fixated on it, it's bad
But if you go in with a mindset of, this is for reorganizing information, but the content is in the actual group theory and ring theory, then it's useful to learn
Tbh category theorys best asset is how much it allows you to compress definitions
Like “groups actions are just set valued functors”
And then you can peel it apart but you always remember the slogan
Presheaves are a better example of this imo
it’s also good because commutative diagrams let you make things nice
are there multiple meanings for the word kernel, or is it the same concept in different fields like harmonic analysis, linear alg
Well for group homomorphisms it's what goes to the identity. For linear maps, it's the same idea (goes to 0). For convolutions, it's something else entirely.
Convolutions/harmonic analysis looks like the same idea
👀 .

Cool, is there an efficient way to find all the subgroups of a finite group?
in my textbook they used cayley tables to find subgroups but i have no idea how they used it
how is the group given to you
I need to find all subgroups of {0,...,7} under addition mod 8
so the sizes of the subgroups have to be 1,2,4 and 8
but idk where to go from there
thats all the info i have
e
0
Hm yh u could do this case by case
but in general is there a way to get every subgroup of a finite group
and be certain u have all of them
not in general I think
Again this depends on how the group is given to you
O dam rip
yeah if a group has some properties its easy to eliminate some possibilites
@chilly ocean There are definitely ways
for example?
you could just try every subset
yeah but not in 'general'
That's a terminating algorithm that will always work
Yeah and most subsets would be eliminated by lagrange's
but thats still a ton probably
in most cases
But yeah i get u it just depends on context
Sure, but he was saying that there's no general algorithm, which is wrong
yh
fairs
cool
So given a group of small order your best bet is to just go through different possibilities?
Ok so whats the algorithm
Without being checking all elements
I mean subgroups generated by them
No information about the G itself
yeah but you asked for a different than that one
lol yh tru
For a group of small order yes
in this case, you could use the fact that subgroups of a cyclic group are always cyclic but
oh yeah i forgot about that
I'm confused
This question is asking me to prove that if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian. But wouldn't that mean that Z(G) = G and thus G/Z(G) is the trivial group?
I mean that still works because the trivial group is trivially cyclic
(Don't give me the proof. I'm still working on it)
You can think of Z(G) as the "largest abelian subgroup" of its parent group
that seems like it could lead you down a bad path though
If you cut that out and everything else is cyclic then that means G is abelian
there are groups that have trivial center but nontrivial abelian subgroups
I mean, a consequence of the proof is that it's impossible for G/Z(G) to be cyclic unless it's trivial
Yeah it seems weird that it wouldn't mention that detail
the question could be rephrased as "prove that if G/Z(G) is cyclic then it must be trivial"
but that's not a great way to phrase it because it might be misleading in terms of the proof
I guess yeah
because you don't actually end up proving that G/Z(G) is trivial directly, you prove that Z(G) = G
of cousre those are equivalent
but the entire proof is doing stuff in the group G, not in the group G/Z(G)
You could say something like "prove G is abelian and thus G/Z(G) is trivial"
That seems like the best phrasing
do you mean trivial in that lsat line?
yeah I agree that it could be phrased that way. I guess it's just about economy of words and stuff
It is weird
But it's just that showing its cyclic is a lot easier than showing its trivial
Yeah it's fine, I mean, so was the last question
oh im not talking about the guy above me
i was just here waiting for them to finish
Am i asking: I'm looking to disprove that A4 (group of even permutations over 4 things) has a subgroup H of order 6 -- and I confess I'm searching for a time-efficient method. It seems to me that the two popular ways to do it are...
🅰️ ..by looking for a contradiction through an isomorphism to S3
This method 👇 seems to depend on inspecting the order of each subgroup in S3.
(from source i lost) says: Find the 3 elements of S3 of order 2, argue they are in H, and shown the contradiction is that these three form a subgroup of order 4, which cannot be in H which is of order 6
🅱️ ...through cosets -- but this depends on finding all the elements of A4. I'm not keen on this one because I'm not sure how to systemically find all the elements
@velvet delta A4 has only 12 elements, the even permutations
e (123) (132) (124) (142) (134) (143) (234) (243) (12)(34) (13)(24) (14)(23)
If G is a finite group of even order, and half the elements of G are of odd order, then G has no subgroup of index 2, right
@fading wagon
ah that hmm...
actually I can't really show that
well, if it's a subgroup of index 2, then it's a normal subgroup
oh hello
ya i tried that already
i wanted to shave off more time avoiding having to calculate
e (123) (132) (124) (142) (134) (143) (234) (243) (12)(34) (13)(24) (14)(23)
Okay, we know that a group of order 6 must have an element of order 3
and the automorphism group of this contains the S4
WLOG we can consider (123) being inside the subgroup.
Hmm, also there's only 6 elements in this subgroups, so one of the (abc) cycle structure is not in the subgroup. Hmm...
Hold on my foot is asleep but usinf the conjuntandy classes seems like a lot of work
So, we consider eH, (123)H and (132)H. Each of these have 4 elements [wait, this is skechy]
I think this sounds nice but I don't think I'm going to be allowed to talk about automorphisms on my exam
😂
and the cosets can only be these cosets combined
so there is no such subgroup
Ah got it
- Elements are e (123) (132) (124) (142) (134) (143) (234) (243) (12)(34) (13)(24) (14)(23), in particular there are 8 elements of order 3.
- At least one element of order 3 is outside the subgroup. WLOG (123) else do a relabelling automorphism changing that to (123)
- Hence, H and (123)H are the 2 cosets. Consider which coset (132) is in. If it's in H, then contradiction, if it's in (123)H, contradiction too.
Hey I fixed it
If g^2 in H, then all elements of order 3 in A_4
Which isnt possible
And we can prove this because H is normal
@fading wagon some guy on SO mentioned the theorem on of odd order, then no subgroup of index 2
But I can’t prove that
If an element has odd order, it's either the identity, or you can pair it with the inverse, which means, in any group, there is an odd number of elements with odd order.
Suppose G is a group with H subgroup of index 2. If |G| is divisible by 4, then there must be at least |G|/2+1 elements with odd order (due to parity), hence let the element with odd order not in H be g, then the two cosets are H and gH. Consider g^-1, it cannot be in H, so it has to be gH, so g^-2 and hence g^2 is in H. However, g has odd order k, so (g^2)^((k+1)/2)=g is in H, contradiction.
@chilly ocean I am only able to show it if |G| is divisible by 4.
Same idea as what I did above.
If G has H subgroup of index 2, then consider the orders of each element in gH. If g has odd order, g^-1 is in there, so g^-2 and hence g^2 is in H. However, g has odd order k, so (g^2)^((k+1)/2)=g is in H, contradiction.
So, it follows that |G| is 2 mod 4
but consider D10
so, the theorem is false
4y(2x + Ay) - 2y(2y + Bx) = 0
A = ?
B = ?
Plz help
can someone please help me with this question?
read #❓how-to-get-help
Unless I'm mistaken, this is the Cayley table for the group of integer addition mod 4. Am I correct in believing that "1" and "3" are indistinguishable here?
If we had any order-4 cyclic group we could identify 0 as the identity and 2 as the only element whose square is the identity, but it seems there would be two options for 1 and 3
Think on this for a moment
is 3 a valid generator for Z/Z4?
Also, they’re not indistinguishable, 1=/=3, 2+3=/= 2+1, but they can be swapped for an isomorphism
And isomorphisms are usually the finest level of “uniqueness” you consider for groups
@south coral
The multiples of 3 become 3, 2, 1, 0, so I think 3 is a generator, as well as 1. Isomorphism seems to be the notion of "indistinguishable" I was looking for, thanks. We haven't covered it yet.
yes, there is an automorphism swapping 1 with 3
Ah ye, automorphism’s the word
So the kernel of an homomorphism is a a normal subgroup. Proving it is pretty easy but what's the intuition behind it? Is there any or is just a thing that's true because we can prove it is and it's useful?
Well, a subgroup is normal if it is invariant by conjugation @waxen iron
That’s as much intuition as you can get, I think
a priori, I'm not sure why it'd be clear that the kernel of a homomorphism is invariant under conjugation
So maybe the better answer is that a subgroup is normal if the natural multiplication is a group structure on the set of cosets
But the natural multiplication exactly corresponds to the multiplication in the image subgroup
So it's clear that the natural multiplication will form a group structure on the set of cosets
This is essentially what the first isomorphism theorem says
"Prove that every finite abelian group G has a subgroup of prime index"
🤔

Um... trivial group?
??????
?????????????????????
Prove that every finite abelian group G has a subgroup of prime index
Is a problem from my book
But it doesn't say non-trivial
Oh I thought you meant the trivial subgroup
Me?
I mean the problem isn't that hard
It just follows from the classification of finitely generated abelian groups
Can u write the proof
Yes
I did
I can paste it here
It's just take the subgroup of G genrated by all the generators of G but with the first one raised to the power k/p
Where k is its order and p is a prime dividing k
Can u like write it out fully
And what you use etc
Cause I dont get it
But I should
Oh ok thx
np
Gamma wtf are you saying
Why are you name dropping theorems to prove things that are proven much earlier in a course
The structure of finitely genrated abelian groups is really simple though
It's not
Wait no
I mean it is if you know smith normal form
I confused two theorems
Lmao
At least I think I did
What theorem did you confuse it with



hello there