#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 457 of 407
I had an REU summer after first year which did some stuff in LA, and we had a linear algebra book, Hoffman-Kunze, in my analysis class
Oh cool
Each week were given a bunch of problems and told to read the relevant material in the chapter
What are your thoughts on REUs
Because I'm thinking of applying to one
This was first quarter second year. And then second quarter patched up certain things which weren't covered first quarter (though in the REU we did them differently)
So depends on the nature of the REU
Research Experience for Undergrads
UChicago REU is good
Though I'd wager it's more of a "research" experience
Because I don't think undergrads really should be worrying too much about research
The UChicago REU is like
Gather a bunch of kids
Pair them with grad students
Have them learn a math topic and write an expository paper about it
Yeah that sounds perfect for me
So rather than like, go out of your way to solve some obscure graph theory problem that's technically "open" and get a publication
That's actually kinda what I'm doing over the school year too
You pick a topic you wanna learn, learn about it, get some practice writing. Pretty much a summer reading course with a (small) stipend
I did it twice. Summer after my first year I did the apprentice program
You have a 5 week class which used to be linear algebra and basic graph theory (now someone else teaches and it's more geometry)
What do you usually need to apply?
Like a cover letter, recommendations, and a resume?
And like it's a class with graded psets. And then you work with your grad student on something, in my case group actions and Sylow theory
Probably not a cover letter
I applied to like, 2 at one point aside from my home school and that's it
The application of Chicago students to Chicago was much simpler lol
Oh and you got in? I heard they were quite competitive
Makes sense
I got turned down from one of the two that was outside of Chicago, the other one didn't respond in time so I pulled back my app
I like the idea of independently learning about some topic and then writing an expository paper on it
(Chicago's deadline for us to confirm whether we were gonna attend or not was super super early)
Because it does resemble research in some way
Yeah for undergrads this is far more productive than trying to do original stuff
I got a part time job like that
Because you need a lot of background in math to actually hit research level
Working for a professor in the cs department in my school
The idea is that I will help present his research in more accessible fashion
Which I really like because it'll let me get involved in actual research in a (hopefully) productive way
Even though I won't be doing any
Simple Temporal Networks
Basically a system of linear constraints on a bunch of variables
Like $x-y \leq a$
0.5772156649:
And if you think of the variables as events and the value they're assigned as when that event happens, it allows you to represent a scheduling problem
And then if you add more structure on top of that you can account for things like uncertainty
The end goals is to automate scheduling problems
I don't really understand this highlighted conclusion
I understand (I think) everything up until this point
Like.. it is my understanding a faithful group action can have some fixed points, however g*x can't equal x, for EVERY x in X unless g is the identity element
however.. here it feels like it's concluding any single fixed point contradicts the faithful property
Looking into their references, it's following Wagon's text
and here the proposition talks about "without nontrivial fixed points"
which is a stronger assumption than being faithful - am I correct?
<@&286206848099549185>
even then .w. I feel like h⁻¹g could totally be the identity element...
they assumed that g \neq h so that can't be the case?
pretty sure assuming g & h are distinct, is to show g(M) and h(M) are disjoint
I'mma put brackets to emphasize this isn't necessarily a coset
yeah spotted that just now
Yep, that was exactly her point.
Yeah, pretty sure the first screen shot has the statement wrong.. which was what was causing confusion
They are both there, she asked about an apparent flaw she found in the other source and she is correct.
I did, after being dazzled by the undergrad project's flaw, start losing faith in myself... and asking questions I know the answer to ¬w¬
but thank you kitties! 
It's not a bad thing to ask yourself dumb questions.
your profile picture is a cat
In fact it is one of the best and most productive things.
now.. do I ponder about finding a counter example to this undergrad's statement.. or do I correct the statement and move on

Same cardinality seems like it would follow easily from the first part
That's the one I'm stuck on
That is g1kk'g2
Obviously those sets of pairs are all in the fiber
But the issue is proving they are the only ones
If I have ab = g1g2
Well my first thought was that for any k, g = ka for some a
Since k is in G so you can multiply by its inverse
But that doesn't really do anything
Next thought was showing some kind of normality
And using that to define a congruence
Wait is this trivial?
Hold on
Well I can turn ab into $g_{1}'k_1 k_2 g_{2}'$
Well for any k we can write a=g_1' k
For any a
For some g_1'
Not neccesarily g_1
I'll write out a formal proof
Wait that does nothing
Really I think the answer is to define a congruence
Ok I'm still stuck
Right
g1^-1 a?
I mean that works
Right
Is it?
I don't really follow
Actually I guess that works if g2b^-1 and a^-1 g1 are both in K
Because you get ab = g1 (g2b') (a'g1) g2
And if the middle two factors are in K we're done
Yeah but we don't need to explicitly show that because they have to be inverses
Since the whole thing also equals g1g2
Actually wait
g2b' is in G2
And a'g1 is in G1
And they're inverses
Does that mean they're both in K?
It does
Because g2b' is the inverse of something in G1 so it's in G1
But it's also the product of things in G2 so it's in G2
Hold on let me write out this proof
Ok cardinality
Well it's trivial if they're the same group
Is it trivial if they're disjoint?
Wait the whole thing might be trivial hold on
Because G1G2 is the set of all products g1g2
Which we just showed had cardinality equal the cardinality of all ordered pairs (g1, g2) divided by the cardinality of K
So the cardinality thing is just a restatement of what we just proved
Yeah
Basically I'm wondering what the "normal" amount of struggling and confusion is when learning new math. Obviously if you never struggle, you're not moving through the material fast enough (which is why I'm pushing myself to take advanced classes) but also if you are struggling too much, it's a sign that you're moving too fast
What is that url
Wait and why should I check it out?
I already have a good source for learning group theory
That sounds cool
But it doesn't answer my original question
I think the sign you look for is whether you actually understand the question or not
I think if you understand the question and all the moving parts that come with the question, as well as understanding how to use all the tools that you'd need to do the question, then the pace you're moving at is fine
Even if the question itself is rather tricky
That makes sense
This is in my opinion at least, but it feels like when I'm getting ahead of myself, I can't really even begin to think about the question
I don't understand the material well enough to even grasp at what the question is really asking
But you can confirm that getting confused as a normal part of learning math. Like the way I've always seen it is that you're always confused, the difference is how advanced the thing that's confusing you is
Does that sound right?
Actually I shouldn't say always confused. Frequently confused would probably be a better statement
Maybe it's about how confused you are
Also @chilly ocean is the napkin project good for undergrads as well? Because I'd like to move away from the "I'm a highschool student trying to get a taste of things" mentality to "I'm an undergrad trying to properly learn things all the way through"
Now that I'm actually in college
I mean I like getting a taste of things before actually learning them
Also
I feel extremely validated
After that conversation last night
a few general milestones that vary from theorem to theorem is: Can I use the theorem? Can I prove the theorem? Do I have examples of the theorem? breaking it down into these parts can help to not overwhelm yourself
Ok so Jackbson keeps mentioning the group of ordered pairs of real numbers (a,b) with a not equal to 0 and multiplication defined as (a,b)(c,d) = (ac, ad+b). Does this group have any significance whatsoever or is it just a convinent example
Is it supposed to be ad + bc?
this is matrix multiplication of some particular matrices
(a,b) is the first row and (0,1) is the second row
Yeah okay maybe that's better, I was going to note that this is close to the complex numbers too
you could relate it to mobius transformations
specifically if you have f(x) = ax+b and g(x)=cx+d then the group operation f*g gives you f(g(x))
is that clear @ivory dust ? you could attempt to try to find a group that corresponds to composition of functions of the form Ax^2+Bx+C or (Ax+B)/(Cx+D) or other ideas you might have to see how far this idea extends
don't worry about it, ignore that single line, everything after that stands purely on it's own
it's just composition of linear functions that I describe
compute f(g(x)) to see if you don't see it
oh right
that makes sense
f(g(x)) = a(cx+d) + b = acx + ad + b
which is isomorphic to the ordered pair (ac, ad+b)
so if you do the same thing except with quadratics to make a binary operation, will it form a group?
I mean I don't see why not
composition of functions is associative
actually will there be an inverse?
too lazy to check that now
think about plugging in stuff to quadratics
in what sense
well the fact that f(x)=x^2 gives f(-2)=f(2)=4 is a bad sign
oh right
so you could extend it to just polynomials
and then to rational functions so there are inverses?
or are there no inverses either way
you tell me
well, on the flip side, I gave the other example of (Ax+B)/(Cx+D)
these are called linear fractional transformations, and this does form a group
which when C=0 and D=1 we recover the original group you started with
have you learned about normal subgroups and the center of a group yet?
center of a group commutes with every element of the group
normal subgroup satisfies $x^{-1}kx \in K$
0.5772156649:
Antidisestablishmentarianism
so in our lectures last term we mentioned briefly that the group of m"obius transformations
\begin{equation*}
\mathcal{M} \cong PSL_2(\mathbb{C}) \cong \frac{SL_2(\mathbb{C})}{{I_2, -I_2}}
\end{equation*}
Denial:
presumably we have in general $PSL_n(\mathbb{C}) \cong \frac{SL_n(\mathbb{C})}{{I_n, -I_n}}$
Denial:
Negative identity isn't always in SL_n
oh right, has to be n even
hmm ok
so in general it's just quotient out whatever multiples of the identity are in the group?
I think we did some example of PGL_2/PSL_2 of Z_5
oh wait nah we just did PSL_2(Z_5)
I guess one question I had was like
is say, PSL_4(C) interesting in the same way?
..... aren't you supposed t oquotient by all multiples of In ?
oh wait, determinant 1
nevermind
This is SL yeah
like some sort of transformational thing, but it seems like it would be super unwieldy to actually get anything out of it tbh
idk
But yeah so PGL and PSL are related to projective geometry
I guess I should look into that sort of stuff then
I've been meaning to for a while for other reasons but never got around to it
thanks! :)
G and H are groups
|G| = n , |H| = k
show that |G intersects K| = lcm(n,k)
please help lmao
oh yea G and H are subgroups of a cyclic group
sorry ^ thats importnat dk why
Oh ok
yea XD
I was gonna say lol
yea okay
any hints?
ik by fundameental theorem
g intersects k order must dividie both
but why the lowest multiple?
divide*
G is cyclic
yea
well ik G is isomorphic to Z/nZ but okay
My point is that the lcm thing, the order of the group, and the intersection
Should best be thought of in this concrete context
Play around w some examples
okay umm
i am going to think out loud here esorry
so let me rephrase this shit
G is a cyclic group
H_1 , H_2 are subgroups
|H_1| = n , |H_2| = k
so maybe
H_1 = Z_4 , H_2 = Z_3 ?
is that a good example?
H_1 = {1,2,3} , H_2 = {1,2}

can you restate your problem again
okay
let G be a cyclic group
H_1 and H_2 be subgroups of order n and k respect
show that |H_1 intersects H_2| = lcm(n,k)
no
G = Z/16, H_1 = <8> (order 2), H_2 = <4> (order 4). H_1 intersect H_2 = H_1, and lcm(2,4) is not 2
besides lcm(n,k) ≥ max(n,k) always
while |H_1 \cap H_2| ≤ min(|H_1|, |H_2|)
H_3897498edysh9ojvhkcjgu\p0as9oqAZX8V|ZUA|ZXU2|IUM
not sure how you're expecting a subgroup of H1 to have a bigger size than H1
its a joke bro
How do you use coset enumeration to find the subgroups of a finite group with a presentation?
I guess take H = {e} derp
Hello there, I am searching for someone who wants to study a book with me (do a lot of exercises together etc.). If we are several people on the same book it is better but even if we are only two people I think it can be cool.
I was thinking about a book about category and/or a book about algebraic geometry.
If anyone is interested you can send me a message, or just tell me here 🙂
xd
What does it mean for a group to be normal? Like I know the definition but how should I think of it
Based on the definition and a little that I was reading online it seems to resemble change of basis from linear algebra
Like if you do the transformation in a new basis it's still the same kind of transformation
for cosets of a subgroup to form a quotient group, it has to be a normal subgroup, so you can think of it like a quotient space
Yeah I know that
besides something that you can evenly split up, i don't know how else you'd think of it
but i don't know much so maybe there's some better way
the way you're describing it sounds more like an inner automorphism than a normal subgroup @ivory dust
sorry for being unhelpful, i realized i don't really have much intuition for it either, though there was this visual group theory book that had a good diagram for it
what you said earlier was fine, normal subgroups are what allow you to define multiplication between equivalence classes of cosets
a kernel of a homomorphism is a normal subgroup
normal subgroups are kernels of some homomorphism
y e s
Normality is a weaker version of abelian
uh what
I think they may be referring to the difference between a group's centralizer and normalizer?
All subgroups of an Abelian group are normal, so we can always quotient an Abelian group by any subgroup. Similarly we can quotient a vector space by any of its subspaces
Question for Zopherus only: Is the converse of that statement true? If every subgroup of a group is normal, must the group be Abelian?
oops
oooh oooh I know the answer to this!
I think
(yep, I was right, @ me if I'm allowed to answer)
I know the answer to this is no
But I'm not sure I've ever heard anyone call the condition that all subgroups of a group being normal as normality
I need a good algorithm to find all subgroups of a finite group
Is there a relationship between orbits and subgroups that makes this possible
how is the group given to you
Finite list of generators in a matrix space
if G is given by generators g1,..,gn
then you can get the different subgroups by looking at the groups generated by g_i1,...,g_ir
That won't get me all of the subgroups.
Hmm, it says that it's a hard problem here:
https://mail.gap-system.org/pipermail/forum/2008/002252.html
but if the order is about 10^5 or less it should be fine
@chilly ocean
@mild laurel I didn't call it normality. I don't think even @chilly ocean meant that (what I said later) by "normality", but I agree that would be a sensible reading of that statement, given that normality [actually a property of a subgroup qua subgroup] is being compared with Abelianness [a property of the whole group].
Right now I'm looking for a good pen and paper method for iterating subgroups....
@mild laurel So if at all that property needs a name, I guess "Dedekindness" can be used
@willow garden What's the answer?
@chilly ocean Well, you can use Lagrange to say what sort of sizes of subgroups you can get, and then you can try to figure out what sort of groups are of that size, you can do that for pretty small groups of order <= 200 I guess
These are all trial and error
if your group is cyclic its easy
ig
u use fundamental theorem
just find a generator
choose an element and branch on that, if it is part of the subgroup?
sorry, wasn't clear, consider 2 cases, that element being part of the subgroup and that element not being part of the subgroup
then you can repeat this recurively
yea lmao
that would be cool
pick an element
assume its in a subgroup
then it must be closed ( multiply by itself) and must have inverse and so on
and identity
cool lmao
You can begin [this procedure ↑] with the atoms of the subgroup lattice — the minimal subgroups — by computing the cyclic subgroups generated by elements of prime orders
[And then recursively add to these, the elements of the group that are left out]
@chilly ocean Here's another idea, which may work better for some groups (and is useless for some others [e.g., simple groups]):
- Find a non-trivial normal subgroup
NofG(the smaller the better). Recursively find all subgroups ofG/N, and the correspondence theorem gives you all subgroups ofGthat containN. - Now all that's left are subgroups of
Gthat do not containN. Somehow find these (lol) (well, you can hunt for other normal subgroups and do Step 1, but even if you do it with all minimal normal subgroups, there may still subgroups that contain none of them)
What are groups of lie type?
I don't know
ping me if someone finds a good introduction for that ^
lie groups?
just groups that have smooth manifold structure also (iirc)
so e.g. Euclidean space as an additive group (vector addition) is clearly a smooth manifold (R^n is for all n in N)
(guessing theres a smooth manifold structure for S^2 then you could define a group addition)
You’ve probably heard of GL_2(R); that’s a Lie group
Why is S2 not a lie group
Easiest way to see it is hairy ball theorem
Oh
You can prove that there's an isomorphism of smooth vector bundles TG \cong G\times T_1G
S1 is tho right?
But then obv you can find non-vanishing vector fields. S^1 is a Lie group yeah, unit complex numbers
Also S^3, unit quaternions
whats a lie algebra
A Lie algebra is a vector space with a bilinear map [-,-]:V\times V->V that basically behaves like a commutator
@jade sky the answer is no. A counter example is Q_8 which has only normal subgroups, but is not itself abelian. In fact it's the smallest such group, called Hamiltonian groups.
@willow garden Correct. It's the smallest Hamiltonian group not only in terms of size, but also in the terms of inclusion.
Every Hamiltonian group must contain Q₈ as a subgroup (up to isomorphism)
Better yet: as a direct summand
🥳
@clear obsidian No, "groups of Lie type" are not the same as "Lie groups"
iirc there's not really a single agreed-upon definition for groups of Lie type
I'm not there yet, I just stumbled on that tidbit of information when I discovered on wikipedia something called the Tits group
and concluded that the existence of the Tits group is the sufficient condition for not teaching abstract algebra to high schoolers
bonus points: it's actually pronounced "teats"
Which isn't a lot better
But definitely don't teach high schoolers about the intersection numbers of sections of elliptic surfaces
why, what are they called?
Cox actually told me that him and Zucker actually planned to write a paper together for the joke
That's right
which is hilarious that professional mathematicians can still be pretty immature
Sometimes I feel you can't be a mathematician unless you're still a high schooler at heart
When I was in high school I used to try to prove all the big conjectures (Goldbach, Collatz, Riemann…), and believe that it was quite likely I would be able to — and that's the case with many others who later end up working in math. But after learning more math, these attempts got replaced by attempts at answering open questions that were a bit less famous. And now it's reduced to trying to solve only open questions in latest research papers (in a much narrower area)
that second paper there is missing appendix A
@willow garden What did you mean in complex analysis?
no, the mailing list one
edit: oh
cox-zucker talks about elliptic surfaces over the field of complex numbers
Hello. I am having troubles with the following general problem. I have a system of congruences and usually if the left hand side of the equations is a lone x (e.g. x = 1 mod 2) one can solve it using the chinese remainder theorem.
However, say I have a system that is as follows:
x^3 + x + 1 ≡ 4 (mod 5)
2x^2 ≡ 7 (mod 11)
x ≡ 1 (mod 3)
From what I understand it should be possible to 'reduce' these equation so that you
end up with only x'es on the left hand side. What I don't understand is how to
perform the reduction so you can apply the chinese remainder theorem on the system. If any kind soul could explain it or point me to relevant resources it would be much appreciated :).
x^3 + x = 3 mod 5
2x^2 = 7 mod 11
x = 1 mod 3
Addition and subtraction work as typical.
And we know these have solutions by CRT
Since these are all coprime moduli.
So with 2x^2=7 mod 11, we have x = 11k + 3 with n any integer
Now, take x^3 + x = 3 mod 5.
Substitute and we get k=5n+1
So x = 11(5n+1) + 3
x=55n+14
Sub into x=1 mod 3
55n+14 = 1 mod 3
55n+13=0 mod 3
n+1=0 mod 3
n=-1 mod 3
Or n=2 mod 3
3c+2 = n
x=55(3c+2)+14
x=165c+124
Thats what I got hm.
,w x^3 + x + 1 = 4 mod 5, 2x^2 = 7 mod 11, x = 1 mod 3
Yes, well, that’s misfortunate
Cheers
@vale coral the answer is that since your primes are small here, you can just substitute numbers to find all the possible solutions to your equations
For the mod 5 one, there are only 5 different possibilities to check
If the primes were larger, it turns out that things like the quadratic and cubic formula still work mod p (as long as you avoid the primes 2 and 3)
So with 2x^2=7 mod 11, we have x = 11k + 3 with n any integer
no actually +-3
yes :/ @fading wagon
Thats why I said “that’s misfortunate”
I forgot to account for the negative portion
Hi! I need help with the red underlined bit. I've tried considering that I know $H≤C_G(H)$. Also tried some $G$ acting on $H$ by conjugation stuff
EpicGuy4227:
I think use the fact that H is normal and look at G/H
If an element commutes with all of H, and since G/H is abelian, it should be true that it must commute with everything in G which is a contradiction
Hm I'm having a hard time showing that this element must commute with everything in G. We are assuming that this element isn't in H right?
@mild laurel
Let \varphi : G \to G/H be the natural surjection
and let g be the element, not in H, that we're assuming commutes with everything in H
for any other element f of the group, we have that \varphi(g)\varphi(f) = \varphi(f)\varphi(g) since G/H is abelian
Hm
this actually might not work
I was thinking that since gfg^{-1}f^{-1} is in the kernel, so is in H
and I was thinking that we could use the fact that g commutes with everything in H to show that g and f commute, but I don't think this works out
So
The point is that if you're not in H, you commute with everything in H but also in the subgroup you generate
So your own centralizer ends up being the whole group because of counting
@mild laurel and @solemn hollow
Ah right
ooh ok I got it thanks guys
do p-groups in general have a characteristic subgroup of every possible order? i couldn't find anything helpful in google. i have an idea for a proof that this is the case, but there's still a hole in it.
Lemma 1: if $H \mathrel{char} G$, $K \mathrel{char} G/H$, then the preimage of $K$ in the natural projection is characteristic in G. \newline
Proof: Ommited. \newline
Lemma 2: every (non-trivial) $p$-group has a characteristic subgroup of index $p$ \newline
Proof: \newline
let $P$ be of order $p^a$ and proceed by complete induction on $a$. when $a = 1$ the result is (quite literally) trivial. suppose the result holds for all groups of order $p^b$ for every $b < a$, then consider the quotient of $P$ by its center, it's of order $p^b$ for some $b < a$ because the center of a $p$-group is always nontrivial. then the quotient has a characteristic subgroup $K$ of index $p$. Observe that $Z(P) \mathrel{char} P$ and $K \mathrel{char} P/Z(P)$ allowing us to use Lemma 1 to conclude K corresponds to a characteristic subgroup of $P$ of index $p$. Q.E.D. \newline
Theorem: every p-group has a characteristic subgroup of every size dividing its order. \newline
Proof: \newline
let $|P| = p^a$ and let $H_a = P$. We define $H_{i-1}$ recursively with respect to $H_i$ as some characteristic subgroup of $H_i$ of index $p$, the existence of which is given by Lemma 2. That is until we reach $H_0 = 1$. This creates a chain of subgroups $H_0 \mathrel{char} \dots \mathrel{char} H_a$ with each subgroup characteristic in the next and of index $p$ in it. Then let $x$ be any positive integer divisor of $|P| = p^a$, we observe that $x = p^b$ with $0 \leq b \leq a$. We then see that $H_b$ is characteristic in $P$ (because char is transitive) and of order $x$, as desired. Q.E.D.
I still don't have a solid proof for Lemma 1, but it seems true intuitively.
At first I thought that a more general version of it would be a part of the third isomorphism theorem, but then rethinking it, I'm not that sure about it.
I do have an idea for a potential proof for Lemma 1, but I don't think the resulting theorem is likely to be true because I haven't seen it mentioned anymore.
Is there perhaps a mistake in the proof of Lemma 2 or the theorem?
Intel:
Nevermind, I figured it out. There's a mistake in the proof of Lemma 2.
It's because the result is not true when a=0, and taking a quotient by the center doesn't guarentee a ≥ 1
Well, the Klein 4-group is a simple counterexample
Let p be a prime number. Find all units of the ring $$\mathbb Q_p = { \frac{a}{b} : p \nmid b }$$
Godel:
How do I justify that those would be all numbers b/a such that p doesnt divide a
Why does it render the {? : S
I see. Thanks
Don't you mean: All the numbers a/b ∈ ℚₚ such that p doesn't divide a?
(So that its reciprocal b/a would also be an element of ℚₚ)
I mean its kinda just a follow your nose result
Its obvious why those are units
And to show they are the only ones
Just write down what unit means in Q
yeah why is that even a question its fucking obvious
I mean the answer is clearly what one thinks it is, I guess what you said with showig those are the only ones needs justification
thx
i mean i guess you could say that it's a unit precisely when 1/x is also in the ring
which just reverses teh fraction
idk if that makes sense im drunk
why is $\mathbb R \left[i \sqrt 3\right] = \mathbb R \left[i \right]$
Godel:
what function gives isomorphism
when I tried a+bi maps to a +b/sqrt3 i it wasnt multiplicative I think
@chilly ocean not even isomorphic, they're just equal as sets
Like if you consider both to be subsets of C
sqrt(3) is in R
Obviously R[i] = C, and (a+bi) = (a + (b/sqrt(3))i\sqrt(3))
And b/sqrt(3) is a real number
OK YEAH THX THATS WHAT IO TOLD MY FRIEND AND HE SAID ITS WRONG
because said that maybe it behaves differently
Lol
are those two isomorphic?
is gonna be Q[i] and Q[i sqrt3]
and dont know if those are iso
nope they aren't
if there were, R would have a square root of -1 and -3, hence a square root of 3, but clearly, sqrt(3) isn't in R
the field you defined
Q(x)/(x²+1)
If R were isomorphic to S
fields!:
How to prove this? I don't quite understand the proofs I found online
What did you try?
I read the proof of this in a class I sat-in but it uses corollaries not discussed in my class
I read online that it's easier to prove by contradiction
but it doesn't make sense to consider an n<m such that a^n=e if the order of a is infinite
so I'd rather not prove it using inequalities
You can just handle that case separately
If the order of a is infinite, it's not too hard to see that the subgroup it generates must also be infinite
otherwise, it contradicts a corollary not used in my class lol
and that corollary was never mentioned in my class
so if possible i'd not consider separate cases if i'd have to recall theorems not used in my class
Or is it not possible to not consider separate cases?
@warped bay let a be of order r, and then consider an element a^m in <a>
try using the division algorithm for integers and let m = rq + p
and see where this takes u
order of a in G
The order of the group genrated by a?
the smallest n such that a^n = e
But then that's just the definition
I mean I guess it isn't quite
basically he just needs to show that the cyclic group <a> where a is of order r
is {1, a, ..., a^(r-1)}
I mean that still kinda feels too trivial to prove
Honestly I hate those kind of proofs
u just need to show that every a^m is in the that range
and that they're all distinct
Again though that's just definition
so just let a^m, m = rq + p, and then a^m = a^(rq + p) = (a^r)^q * a^p = 1^q * a^p = a^p
Like all a^n are in the group
How is it not definitional? Every element in <a> is a power of a. That's how generated groups work
its not 100% trivial that every a^n is in the range of 1, a, a^(r-1)
where a is of order r
Right that isn't
which is the goal of the proof
But it still just follows by divison
i mean yeah its not hard lol
Honestly I hate proofs like that
Like I don't want to prove facts that are obvious to me
Honestly it feels like a lot of proofs at the foundational level are like that though
Like the first isomorphim theorem
I saw a joke on reddit about this
That algebra is just
"definition: let a be the set of elements with this nice property
theorem: the elements in a have that property"
Wait what does it say again?
You gotta be careful with “this is obvious” stuff though, c.f. Weierstrass function being not nicely differentiable
if u have a homomorphism from G to G' theres a bijection between set of subgroups of G containing the kernel and set of all subgroups of G'
First iso proof is rather mechanical tho, even if it’s long
to put it simply if H is normal
gH -> phi(g) phi(H)
is an iso of G/H with G'/phi(H)
Right
the full statement is lorger slightly
its an intuitive result
Like that might have been a bad example
ok is sleepy tiem for me
Let $S \subset R$ be a multiplicative system, $1 \in S$ and $I \leq R $ ideal such that $I \cap S = \emptyset$. Show there exists a prime ideal $J$ such that $I \subset J, J \cap S = \emptyset$
Godel:
So I showed there exists a maximal J in the set of ideals with that empty S intersection property, but how would I show its prime?
I saw a definition that J is prime iff its set theoretic complement is multiplicatively clsoed, so I think showing S is the complement would work, but don't know how to do it (if that even is true)
you can see that if y is in R/J, then there exist s in S sush that s is in y(R/J)
y neq 0
btw your property shows that the intersection of all prime ideals is the set of all nilpotent x)
like ideal generated by y in R/J right?
yeah
ok so if y is some y + J and s in S then why is s in (y+J)
bc J is maximal
if not, you could find an ideal K in R s.t. J subset of K and p(K) = (y+J)
J not maximal as an ideal in R
by maximal you mean maximal that has empty intersection with S?
J is maximal is the set you defined before
???
Is Q, defined that way, a set? or multiset?
set
but isn't 3/2 and 6/4 the same element?
You're right, you have to mod out by an equivalence relation
I just got a little confused 😅
I mean, is {6/4, 3/2}= {3/2}?
It's definitely false that {(6,4), (3,2)} = {(3,2)}
Since (6,4) isn't (3,2) but
How do I find all maximal ideals in $\mathbb Z \left[i\right] / \left(7+i\right)$
Godel:
Maybe not the right way, but think of the correspondence of ideals in quotients
I thought and it didnt help me
actually wait I have an idea
I have similiar thing in my notes but I don't understand it - (7+i) is (1-i)(3+4i) and I claim that ((1-i) + I ) R/I and ((3+4i) + I ) R/I are maximal but I dont know why
I do get that (1-i) and (3+4i) cointain (7+i) in Z[i]
Well, the first ideal is maximal
you mean (1-i)?
yeah I was just typing that
then I GUESS ((1-i) + I ) R/I and ((2+i) + I ) R/I are the maximal ideals in R/I, but im not sure if I understand the correspondece thing
and since those 2 elements are irreducible then they are the only maximal ideals containing (7-i)
you should understand the correspondence thing
its basically the most important theorem in ring theory
I mean I believe it, but like what Im not sure that why if (1-i) is a maximal ideal containing (7-i) then it has to correspond to ((1-i) + I )R/I and not some other element that isn't maximal in R. I'm probably not making any sense but whatever, if you did not understand what I tried to say just ignore it
prove it
prove that if J is an ideal containing I, then J is maximal in R iff (J + I)R/I is maximal in R/I
Ok I think I got it, thank you for telling me to do that
(tried to show that if R/J is field then other quotent also is and vice versa)
the same thing holds for prime ideals as well
Here's a fun problem: Let $G$ be a group with order Graham's Number. Prove that if $H\triangleleft G$ and $|H|=3,$ then $H≤Z(G).$
EpicGuy4227:
EpicGuy4227:
It's possible they just don't consider S_2 as a symmetric group
Lots of people don't really, since its pretty different from the rest of them
But you're right here
Ooh, discrimination :(
I'm trying to find their definition of S_n hm
can't tell much from their section on symmetric groups .-.
thanks Zoph, I'll keep it in mind
fields!:
$(F[x])[y]$ and $(F[y])[x]$ are naturally isomorphic to $F[x,y]$ to the point where attempting to make a distinction between the three will in most contexts be too hair-splitting to be worth it, so yes.
Ann:
If it is non-commutative, I believe a different notation is used for the extensions.
I just threw away my notes on that last week 😅
So I can't check.
ty, got curious
I have zero intuition when multiplying cycles
Like I know how to do it, I just have no idea what the answer will look like until I multiply them
that's normal
It is?
idk, can you imagine (1 4 8 2 3 6 14) ?
Basically my question is whether there's an easy well to tell what the partition of the product of permutations will be without computing it
Even one that only works under certain circumstances
partition of the product ?
idk what to say, when you have a product of permutations, you need to compute it, one can't get the result only by looking at the product itself
@ivory dust I think the usual permutation notation with the first row skipped is called one-line notation, and is commonly written without enclosing parentheses (presumably to distinguish it from cycle notation)
I don't know how to approach 4
Like I have that it's equivalent to showing there exists a normal K contained in H such that [H:K]|(n-1)!
I don't think it does
Oh the index
Since n is the index of H not the order
Mb I don't know to read
So yeah what do I do from here
Yeah that has order n
It's the data of a morphism G -> S(G/H)
Hm?
And now you can only do one thing to exvibit a normal subgroup of G
Data or a morphism?
That's the definition of an action
of
If you have an action of G on X, then g->(x->gx) is a morphism from G to S(X)
Is a morphism just a function?
S(X) is the group of bijections of X
Or do you mean homomorphism
What kind of general normal subgroup do you know ?
I'm not sure what you mean
Given a morphism of group A->B, how can you construct a normal subgroup of A ?
Oh just the kernel
Yep
Yes
Nop
Let G,G, H,H, and KK be finitely generated abelian groups. Show that if G×H≅G×K,G×H≅G×K, then H≅K.H≅K. Give a counterexample to show that this cannot be true in general.
I am stuck and need a hint.
I feel like you're missing somethings here
But the classification of finite abelian groups should probably do the trick here
which part are you stuck on ?
Youre Just seeing double mate
what is the deal with the outer automorphism of S_6
like why does is it the only symmetry group that has one
you could look at a proof
I should
Consider any automorphism applied to (1 2) and (1 2 3 ... n). Since these 2 generate S_n, it determines the automorphism fully. Any inner automorphism consists of relabelling the elements of the set {1...n}.
(1 2 3 ... n) can only be mapped to one of (n-1)! elements. Upon picking that, consider picking any pair of elements to swap for (1 2).
I'm guessing if they are not adjacent in the cycle structure of (1 2 3 ... n) try to force a contradiction, and then you proven that |Aut(S_n)|<=n!. Since |Inn(S_n)|=n!, we have |Out(S_n)|=1
what's an example of a group that has elements of both infinite and finite order?
Multiplication of nonzero real numbers
@potent birch
any infinite group honestly
because the identity has finite order
that makes sense but what about something that has more elements than that? like something geometric?
i guess i found some stuff now that i used google, but thanks anyways
yeah that's a good picture, i guess i was just thinking if there's an example of something like a cylinder with infinite length, where the torsion is looping around the cylinder and infinite order going lengthwise
yeah you can do that
Symmetry group of that cylinder, preserved on translations along the cylinder and rotations around the cylinder
i dont understand why
the condition of normal subgroups would imply that the set of cosets is a group
can some1 verify that for me
sorry basic question
So the set gHg^-1 is a subset of H
okay
left multiplying by g^-1 and right multiplying by g, we have
H is subset of g^-1Hg which is subset of H
so the 2 sets are equal
g^-1Hg = gHg^-1?
okayy
Okay now let's show that $g_1Hg_2H=g_1g_2H$
the definition we defined on the quotient set
Element118:
Well, $g_1Hg_2H=g_1Hg_1^{-1}g_1g_2H$
Element118:
$g_1Hg_2H=g_1g_2Hg_2^{-1}g_2H=g_1g_2HH=g_1g_2H$
Element118:
g'Hg is a subgroup of H, even
got it
tysm element
so we showed
the operation is well defined
and i can verify myself that its closed under inverses too
so G/H where H is normal
is a group
correct?
yeah
tysm
another problem sorry
i showed that the canonical projection is a homomorphism
what im stuck with is showing that its kernel is N
f:G---> G/N where N is a normal subgroup to G
f(g) = gN
so that means the kernel contains N
if gN=N=eN
yea yea
if g is not in N then gn cant be in N
right?
so the equality cant hold ig
Well an easy example is showing e isn’t in gN
okay
So N < ker < N
if gN = N then g must be in N
Ye
so N is a subset of ker(f)
N is in ker because N gets sent to e obviously
ker is in N since any non N element can’t go to the identity
ergo
Ker = N
Aight
so i am doing this so i can do homomorphism theorem
can you help me prove that?
so its stated like this for me
let phi : G--->H be a surjective homomorphism
then G/ker(phi) is isomorphic to H
with isomorphism phi bar
where phi=phi(bar) o f
f is natural homomorphism
So
start from the top
what top XD
Phi is surjective
what
So you know it hits everything
you mean phi is surjective?
thats new language
for me
okay so assume phi is a surjective homormoprhism
And ye too tired
so yea every element in H is equal to phi(a) for some a in G
so i tried to just unfold the definition
and to show phi bar is an isomorphism
okay can we call phi bar like gamma
okay
so im given that phi = gamma o f
f is the natural projection
so phi(a) = gamma(f(a))
f(a) = aK where K is ker(f) right
so phi(a) = gamma(aK)
i want to show gamma is isomoprhism
okay so
phi(a) = phi'(aK)
i want to show phi' : G/K ---> H is isomoprhism
i should show its well defined first
right?
So what you need to do is show that each element a in H has exactly 1 preimage in G/k
oh thats
But that parts easy so let’s get to the iso part
No
if aK=bK the phi(a)=phi(b) basically
Take k in K
Phi(ak)=phi(a)
Which is easy
For each ak in aK, there is bk’ in bK so bk’=ak
So phi(a)=phi(b)
done
Moving on to the isomorphism
okay
It’s sufficient to show injectivity
we want to show phi'(aK) = phi(a) is an isomoprhism
where phi(a) is a homomorphism
okay
so suppose phi'(aK) = phi'(bK) for a and b in G
wait
i proved something b4
phi' is injective --> ker(phi') = {1}
iff
maybe i can use this lma
Wrong
phi(a)=phi(b) so phi(a)phi(-b)=e
so phi(a(-b))=e -> a(-b) in K
phi injective => ker(phi) = {0}
That’s the same under different notation
Multiplicative stuff can often use 1 as unit
Ah carry on then
they are equal
Yep
woo
thats cool
i m like mega confused but i think i got it
im still like in a brain fog now
but i understand
It’s obv surjective as given, so you showed objective, therefore bijective
And a bijective group homomorphism is iso
Which is quite a nice property
okay so
what i showed is
if G and H are homomorphic with a homomorphism f
G/ker(f) is isomorphic to H
right?
okay
yea yea so in general
if G and H are homomorphic with a homomorphism f
G/ker(f) is isomorphic to im(H)
Yes
$f:G\to H$ factors as $G\to im(f)\to H$
Darkrifts:
And ye
if phi is surjective then im(H) = H
yea yea cool
okay so there are like
alot of fucking
diagrams
and like arrows
wtf is this
The basic ideas are useful for dealing with algebraic structures
And categories sometimes are built on those
But dwai
Yeah, but you’re trying
Also here’s a cool tidbit
$ker(f)\to G\to im(f)$ obviously gives you a trivial map at the end right?
Darkrifts:


