#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 445 of 407
If it's too easily we'll overthink it
I have the best easy group theory problem
Prove that if G has a unique maximal subgroup then G is cyclic
Hmm
Hmm
Oh I guess
Take a maximal subgroup containing a given element
And take a maximal subgroup not containing it?
That's my instinct
Actually that sounds wrong
Proves that the center is a subgroup
Proves that and also proves that the elements all commute as well
Ah, so that's what a normal subgroup is.
We haven't even gotten to that chapter yet
what do you think a normal subgroup is?
I thought a normal subgroup was a subgroup where communitivity (I am a bad speller) holds
Right, so that's almost correct
But you need to be careful about what commutativity means
It does not mean that H is normal in G iff gh = hg for all h in H, g in G
It means that for all g in G and h in H, there is some possibly different h' in H such that gh = h'G
We write this gH = Hg
Ah, I see what you're saying
My book makes a remark about that very early in the chapter
That's like 3.5 chapters ahead of me
I'm glad to see an example of it now.
Thanks
I'll try to not screw it up, but given that it's me, I probably will XD
Yeah, the center is a very special normal subgroup
Subgroups H that satisfy gh = hg for all h in H are called...
subgroups of the center!
Or sometimes central, but it's important to realize that this only happens if H <= Z(G)
Also screwing up is how you learn math
Oh okay, that's how this last question is different. Got it. Little g vs big G
Alright, last problem
What's the last problrm?
Let G be a group, and let g \in G. Define the centralizer, Z(g), of g in G to be the subset Z(g) = {x \in G, xg = gx}. Prove that Z(g) is a subgroup of G.
$\in$
Psychopotence:
So if $xg = gx$ and $xh = hx$, then try to play with the expression $x(gh)$
Dami:
Yeah, going on Wikipedia to make sure that I don't confuse center with centralizer
Thanks @bleak abyss
I got it
I just needed to look up the difference to make sure that I didn't accidentally do a repeat proof
The art of not proving things twice is a subtle one for sure π
Done with all HW due Tuesday. About to do this lab that's due on Wednesday, so that way my next due assignment will be Thursday or later
Not looking forward to taking a midterm this Saturday
Damn you're ahead of me
I'm supposed to be done with chapter 2 of Silverman by Tuesday, also should hand back quizzes
I am still not done (though almost) with chapter 1, and haven't graded quizzes
And I have a pset due Thursday I haven't touched
π’
sanic
I mean, this uni here starts earlier and finishes earlier than all the other unis around here
Most start early September
Or late August
Because of how my schedule is set up, I don't have classes past late November 
Just finals
I hope to God that final for Psych Stats is not 7:30-9:30am
FTS, I will go to the Office of Disability to take it 9:30-11:30 or 9:00-11:00
Going to a calc 3 final to arrive for 8am was brutal
I can't do that
what's a really good textbook for abstract algebra?
what's your background?
I really really like aluffi but it's tough if you've never seen a proof before
I'm in high school trynna learn some higher level math. I've done a lot of math competitions
I've learned thru calc 3, lin alg and diff eq
I read Fraleigh, and it's easy but is a bit lacking from what I've heard
I was in pretty much the same spot when j first read aluffi (was a high school student)
Probably worse at math, no linear algebra or math competitions
I've learned some group theory, like rings, fields, groups, and stuff
And I still got a lot out of it
I guess that's my recommendation
It's pretty abstract though
If you are the genius, you can try Dummit and Foote. You won't miss a single thing, but it's a trek
Alright I'll check those out, thanks guys!
I like Dummit and foote :(
I like it too but it's not a first time read for most people
I'm trynna take Galois Theory soon but my Abstract Algebra is a bit lacking atm
You should focus on other things first
do you guys have pdfs of those books?
You seem to know some theory already so you might actually be comfy with dummit and foote
Go ahead
Google algebra Chapter 0 pdf
You should do problems
I have some algebra problem sets if you want something more structured than random problem sets
yes that'll help a lot, thank you!
Let me know if you have any comments or there are typos or anything
Also rings are currently a wip, but we have two weeks or so that aren't up yet, so let me know if you get to that (groups should take a while though)
Oh wait is it time for commentary on algebra books?
Why did none of you fucks ping me
Aluffi is fine for learning some category theory with the algebra, but that's prob not as high of a selling point as one might expect, and apparently the exercises are just bad
Dummit and Foote is fine, has everything, in a way effortless to read since he spells stuff out a lot but that makes him gigaboring
So I generally don't like it, but there is a sort of appeal so I might say it's fine but not my taste rather than just bad
Jacobson "Basic Algebra I" is what I like
Also Lang's not too bad but he takes more effort to read
Aluffi's problems aren't great
But I really like the exposition
I think the actual category theory is a distraction, it's more of a philosophy about using general definitions/caring about maps/universal properties
Which is helpful for me personally
Then again, it's the only algebra book I've used consistently (I read d&f for ring /field/galois theory but it's not the same jumping in later on)
Yeah D&F may very well be more tolerable for that stuff tbh
For group theory though
He's so
fucking
slow
I liked aluffi more, it just went into more depth than my class had time for
I was reading it on the side
He does everything with modules pretty early on, and introduces like noetherian rings and uses them, which takes extra time but pays off imo
uhhhhhhhhhhhh my brain is hecked atm
i'm stuck writing up another solution for my pset and this one seems like it's either easy and i'm missing it or wrong and reliant on an unstated assumption
let G be a group, A β G, denote by N_G(A) the normalizer of A in G (ie the set of all x s.t. a β A implies xax^-1 β A)
i'm trying to show N_G(A) is closed under inversion but it's not coming together for some reason

maybe i hecked the definition of the normalizer
Take a in A. Then a in xAx^(-1), so a = x b x^(-1) for some b in A. Then x^(-1) a x = b in A
Does that make sense?
Ahoy friends, does anyone happen to have a pdf for Algebra 2e by Artin? I can only find one for the 1st edition and it would be much appreciated to have or know I can't find
Can somebody explain the difference between centralizer and conjugacy class?
What are you confused about?
The definition seem particularly the same
One depends of all g in G, the other only for one g in G
Btw I think you're thinking about the stabilizer of the conjugacy action and not the orbit, isn't it ?
So Cl(a) = {gag^{-1}, for all g in G}
Yes
whereas C_G(a) = {g in G | ga = ag}
But I can rewrite C_G(a) = {g in G | ga = ag} = {g in G | a^{-1}ga = g} = {a^{-1}ga for all g in G}
Oh yep nvm
You can have a^-1ga = h for any h in G
One more thing
Can you explain intuititively what the class terms are supposed to represent in the Class equation
Like my professor just used an intuitive argument as for why |G| = |Z(G)| + sum ....
But I cannot recall what was the explanation for the summed part
Intuitively, the quotients measure how an element in G doesn't commute with other elements
man i really am checking all the "lazy textbook writer" boxes aren't i
wait until you do "Proposition 17. Proof : See exercise 13.b"
this is a pset
"exercsie 13.b : Prove proposition 17"
What's [G,G] ?
commutator subgroup of G
The derivate subgroup ?
le sous-groupe gΓ©nΓ©rΓ© par tous les commutateurs dans G
@fickle brook I did that on an exam once
βthis is not possible as otherwise it would violate the result from exercise (another one on the same exam)β
with a small justification
both were kinda similar, about the existence or nonexistence of biholomorphic maps between certain sets
I quoted my homework once on a test.
I got full credit
(I did the HW problem right of course.)
When I'm trying to factor x3-4x2+x+6 by using the value of a root that makes the entire equation equal to 0, how would it actually work?
for example, the equation above is factored by (x-2) because the equation equals 0 when x=2. but why is this method working?
I understand that x=2 is one of the root values which makes the equation equal 0. but WHAT does that have to do with the fact that it is factored by (x-2)?
(-1) is an obvious root
If $H \trianglelefteq G$ and $G \trianglerighteq A \trianglerighteq H$, then do I know $A/H \trianglelefteq G/H$?
Cabbage:
Yes, this is the lattice isomorphism theorem
@fickle brook oh yeah I meant that. not sure why my superscript didn't work on this chat(it worked on Google Doc). sorry about posting it to the wrong channel. did'nt know what channel it belonged to
maybe it belongs to #prealg-and-algebra
yes
Which step are you unsure about
Well first think about what (gN)^{-1} is
isnt A normal in G?? so that should be it..
why?
I think he meant to ask if N was normal in A
i'm having understanding the accepted answer, how is there a bijection between the vectors in $\mathrm{Ker}(p)$ and the projections of V onto W?
xy:
if you have 2 vectors, $v_1 = w_1 + u$ and $v_2 = w_2 + u$, then $p(v_1) = w_1$ and $p(v_2) = w_2$, but both correspond to vector $u$ in $\mathrm{Ker} (p)$, so how is that bijective?
xy:
i came across this while learning representation theory and thought this would be the most appropriate channel to post in (since theres no rep theory channel)
hmm
:(
I'm still trying to read it
yeah no worries take your time
I worry about myself not sleeping
i can screenshot the relevant pages from serre as well if you want me to
might be helpful
okay
hmm, It seems that a complement is just any subspace W' that has the direct sum W+W'=V
mm hmm
So, for every projection of V onto W, consider the kernel, that would be W', so that is a map from projections to complements
yeah
Obviously, for different projections, we have different complements
so it is injective
?!
okay, maybe we should go a bit slower
Let's say we have different projections
then they cannot have the same kernel, because, that is sufficient to determine the projection
different projections as in p maps V to different W's?
Different projections from V to W
i thought there was only one unique projection from V to W
oh okay
the kernel for the first is (0, y), the kernel for the second is (-y, y)
but then claiming that the kernel is isomorphic to the image of projection seems a little wrong
yeah, that's quite wrong
so wheres the bijective correspondence ? π
from kernels of projections, to complements
It's injective as we shown
and from complements to projection, it's also injective
so it's bijective
how do you get that from complements to projections it is injective?
i think i understand:
Let $p_i$ be i distinct projections. Define an equivalence relation $\sim_i := x \sim_i y \iff p_i(x) = p_i(y)$
Denote $$K:= {[x]{\sim_i} \ \vert \ p_i(x) = 0}$$ i.e. let K be the set of all kernels of the i different projections
Denote $$R := { [x]{\sim_i} \ \vert \ p_i(x) \neq 0 }$$
Thus R is the set of all images of projection.
Thus $R \cong K$
xy:
correct me if im wrong
this seems like the most obvious and intuitive way to interpret what the author is saying
@fading wagon
Are you defining a different K and R for each p_i?
no
K consists of all the kernels
so it has i distinct equivalence classes (kernels of each p_i)
similarly for R
and since both of them have cardinality i they are isomorphic i.e. the set of all projections can be bijected to the set of complements
right?
Well R isn't really the set of images of the projection
Also, in most cases there will be infinitely many projections
Definitely in this case since our vector spaces are over C
why isnt R the set of images of different projections?
and yeah how can i compensate for the infinite case ?
I mean maybe you meant to write p([x]) but
wait, oops, R should be p(x)
yeah
but it still doesnt compensate for infiniteness π€
But this still isn't really what Serre is talking about
The images for every single p_i should be the exact same
The image should always be W in this case
hmmm
Serre is talking about a bijection between the actual projections p_i and complements of W
how ?
In exactly the way he desribes
If you start with a projection p onto W
Then the kernel of p will give you a complement of W
uh huh
Similarly, if you start with a complement of W
You can get a projection onto W by the way he describes
Write every element of V as w + w' and have the function be p(w + w') = w
lets say v1 = w1 + w' and v2 = w2 + w'
then p(v1) = w1 and p(v2) = w2
and these correspond to the same w'
so its not a one to one correspondence π€
wait, oh
i thought he was talking about literally the projected vectors
okay i think i understand it
Quote from my abstract algebra teacher today: "The identity is the identity."
He was saying: "The identity is the identity (map)"
But it was understood clearly that he implied maps because we're talking about functions.
But it was still hilarious to hear this
No that's something you need to say. You've got to point out what your identity is.
Even if the identity is always called the identity lol
am I dumb for not understand in the slightest what this is about
What level is it at?
Abstract algebra 1 and 2 are typical pure math uni courses
Download a pdf for it! Take a look.
@fierce flower high school algebra is at #prealg-and-algebra
hi
if I have a matrix A of size m x n
and I vector x of size n x 1
and the equation Ax = 0
is there a theory to know the number of basis for the nullspace A?
also the size of basis?
This belongs more in #linear-algebra
Okay, thanks.
I'm struggling to find a counterexample to the statement "If a group G is such that every proper subgroup is cyclic, then G is cyclic"
kickpuncher:
try similar things
well, yeah but I was hoping to find some different ones π
Hm, I'm not so sure there are any other nice examples
Okay I lied, I think the symmetric group on 3 elements is an example
Z2ΓZ2 is a beautiful example
klein 4 is Z_2 x Z_2
all I have in my notes is {e a b c} with those properties
but I guess.....
that means it's isomorphic to z2 x z2
right?
It's pretty easy to show by Cayley tables that there are only two groups of order 4. They are Z4 and Z2ΓZ2
Sometimes we call that second one V4 instead
so wait, to clarify, @mild laurel (also lol at your handle) you're saying Klein-4 IS Z2 x Z2 in the sense that it's isomorphic to Z2 x Z2 or that it literally is that group?
I think Z_2x Z_p may work generally
We say two groups are "the same" when they're isomorphic
ok thanks for clarifying
Any difference between two iso groups is not something that algebra cares about
I'm silly
Yeah
We only really ever care about groups up to isomorphism
Those are cyclic
The Fall semester of 2013 just ended and one of the classes I taught was abstract algebra. The course is intended to be an introduction to groups and rings, although, I spent a lot more time discussing group theory than the latter. A few weeks into the semester, the students ...
This is a good example
there is the circle group as well
No, that's not an example
@thorn delta
You have the group of all nth roots of unity inside it
wait what do you mean by that? Its subgroups are the nth roots of unity, which are cyclic.....
oh wow never knew. huh
Given an elementary abelian group of order p^(n-1)
How many ways can you choose a basis
Apparently the answer is
What do you mean elementary?
what do you mean basis lmao
Product of Z/p s
Oh
I mean, isn't this just asking the size of the automorphism group?
And isn't this actually a linear algebra question
It's asking the cardinality of GL_{n-1}(Z/(p))
Oh, so at first there are p^n -1 choices of basis elements
Then you choose the first one, and there are p^n - p
And so on
That's actually pretty easy
is that what you meant @mild laurel ?
Does this actually count the number of elements in GL_n though?
I think so?
All your elements are already in Z/pZ, not sure what else you have to mod out by
Maybe order
Are we considering basis or ordered basis?
I guess this takes order into account actually
Yeah it should be fine
yes size of GL_n(Z/pZ) is product of p^n - p^i
With modules, what is the difference between a generating set and a basis?
I'm not seeing how these two things are different.
Look at the two definitions
lol
hey idiots
Generating set: every element of a module M can be written as a linear combination of the generating set.
Okay but actually, it's really the same as in linear algebra
is $K[x]/(x-a)\cong K$ froall a\in K?
how do you pronounce Ε½iΕΎek?:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Yes
me?
yes
How is that different than a basis?
ok
What's the definition of a basis
MAXIMAL LINEARLY INDEPENDENT SET
Isn't it the same?
That's the linear algebra definition, doesn't work too well for modules
oh there's no difference basis and genset
for rings and modules
atleast most of the time
This is a case where there's a difference
sorry i wasn't paying attention ill leave u 2 alone
Oh right
@chilly ocean you're quotienting by a maximal ideal
But a generating set need not be linearly independent?
Just like in linear algebra
Just add 0 to your set of generators or something, now it's not linearly independent, but it's still a generating set
But you can make an explicit isomorphism
i mean elements of a field are clearly not killed yeah
and everything of deg \geq 1 is killed
so whatever
it's clearly K
All the elements look like b + (x-a)
mhm
i need to know $F[x]/(a_1)\oplus F[x]/(a_2) \oplus F[x]/(a_3)\cong F^3$ if they are all degree 1
how do you pronounce Ε½iΕΎek?:
Yes
whihc is obvious
This is the case
@mild laurel Okay, I think I understand now. Thanks for the clarification!
what if its like $F[x]/(a_1)$ and its degree 3
how do you pronounce Ε½iΕΎek?:
both of these questions were just #linear-algebra lmao
that's what all algebra is
Haha
i want to say that all these in the last thing i posted are the same for all a_1 of degree 3
which I believe is true
I never covered modules in linear. Sorry for asking in the wrong channel π
since they all are F^3
and finally all things like $F[x]/(a_1)\oplus F[x]/(a_2)$ are iso if a_1 degree 1 and a_2 degree 2
how do you pronounce Ε½iΕΎek?:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Nah I mean you definitely don't learn modules in linear, but what you asked, you can just think of vector spaces and the difference becomes clear
Which happens quite a bit in module theory
Can't you factor F[x]/(p) in terms of the irreducible parts of p?
uhm
So over an Algebraically closed field there's a nice answer
so you mean over alg closed they are all like F^n
Otherwise there's still a nice answer, but it doesn't factor as cleanly
No, it's always F^n
So a basis is a generating set, but not necessarily vice-versa?
yes new nivk
But it splits cleaner over Algebraically closed
with rings a lot of people don't distinguish
basis vs genset
ya it's not alg closed tho
But yeah, generally if you quotient by a degree k you get a k dimensional vector space
Why don't they distinguish between them? My prof said the difference was important.
it is for vector spaces
For modules basis are pretty rare
yeah basis of a module means its a free module
Right
But finitely generated modules are very important
So we care more about generating sets
I think I'm going to have to find some examples.
degree k you get a k dimensional vector space
these are quotients as rings tho
i need to know what the rings are
π
are minimal polynomials of matrices always irreducible
You know what they are
this makes it work
As rings
So that's why the story for Algebraically closed is nice
Cause it splits as rings
So it's literally F^k as a ring
But you can think of polynomial multiplication
And that gives you the ring structure
but the poly isn't irreducible and F isn't closed
ya
so they arent all iso
if u change a_1 in F[x]/a_1
like u can have differnet deg 3 polys and the quotients are not iso
Yeah
i think you would just get F^n \otimes F^m etc
And the number of integral domains is determined by number of irreducible components
Yeah
so even better than int domain
But as rings you just have to consider F[x]/(p) for p irreducible
or something idk
And you understand the whole story
what i want to show is that matrices with the same characteristic and minimal polys are similar
when they are 3x3
Oh lol
You should have come out and said that
Instead of have me go on a shitty inane rant
π
im sure u can just write out some normal form
Yeah, Jordan normal form
smith normal form
Oh you're right
idk how to show this if the deg of min poly is 2
it is probably obvious
gonna make some coffee i guess
if deg is 2 u have 2 parts to the rcf, you only know what one is
i'm sure there's some divisibility conditions with the char poly to make the other polynomial in the module structure work
This may be a bit of a silly question, but what does it mean to "take the character of the representation you are being offered and contract it against the character of the representation r"? This pops up in the book Group Theory in a Nutshell & it looks like that means summation over equivalence classes of the quantity: (number of members in an equivalence class c)(conjugate of character of equivalence class c in representation r)(character of the representation you're being offered). Only thing I can think of is Tensor Contraction, but that has nothing to do with this, it seems.
Oh, hmm, it could be Tensor Contraction, actually. (conjugate of character of equivalence class c in representation r) would have a downstairs index and (character of the representation you're being offered) would have an upstairs index, allowing for a contraction of those two that's then summed over equivalence classes c with factor (number of members in an equivalence class c). That's still super unclear in context because they use the upstairs & downstairs index notation very inconsistently & don't use it in this particular case where it'd make sense, haha.
They also never introduce tensor contraction before that point in the book, lol, so there's a tendency to pull stuff out of a hat there. Sorry for the wall of text.
could they possibly be talking about the inner product of two representations ?
R^n isomorphic R^m if and only if n = m
R^n is an R-module
Can anyone assist with this?
R is commutative with identity
ooh
Going the backwards direction seems obvious
I'm thinking you could take a maximal ideal of R and tensor with R/m? Maybe that's stupid though
I was thinking of the maximal ideal thing
That should reduce to vector spaces
Is there a way without tensors?
prove directly that if R^n β R^m as R modules then (R/I)^n β (R/I)^m as R/I-modules for any ideal I of R?
I'm just tensoring to get that
Yeah you don't need to know them
I'm just using them to prove that if R^n β R^m as R modules then (R/I)^n β (R/I)^m as R/I-modules for any ideal I of R
I'm not sure I see how to prove that though.
You have projection maps R^n -> R^n/(IΓβ¦ΓI) which reduce mod I on each factor, and similarly for m
And R^n/(IΓ...ΓI) β (R/I)^n
So you get maps R^n -> (R/I)^n and R^m -> (R/I)^m
I think it can put these together to get what you want
/shrug
So I had an English exam today, no need to know about math, but it had this article which I found fascinating, posted it earlier to general chat: http://users.jyu.fi/~tojusaar/What Does Less Than or Equal Really Mean.pdf
Don't know if it's really algebra, but fascinating how such simple thing as < or <= can have had mathematics scratching their heads for over 50 years.... I learned a little from it, perhaps someone else will too?
The English exam was meant for math students, the idea was to be able to reference mathematical paper, and understand stuff in it. Not all students of course have same paper to analyze.
What English class is this?
I'm not sure what exactly you mean by "like"
The book is very approachable and builds up group, ring, and field theory step-by-step
Is there something like that for modules?
I mean every book aims to do that
Except for bourbaki
except for rudin
Are there any interesting examples of canonical/basis-independent operations on tensors besides the trace & determinant of a matrix?
@onyx lance Quite crowded there, maybe go #βhow-to-get-help
I think abstract Algebra is fine for this
Nah, I'm saying I think #groups-rings-fields is fine for marivas question
Let X and Y be subgroups of a group G. Let f be a function from X x Y to G such that f((x,y))=xy. Is there a bijection between any two fibers of the map??
This sounds like the Zappa szep product lmao
The image that is
Also saying let it be a function with that property is weird
There is exactly one function with that property
The answer is trivially no because the map is not surjective
Hmm
If your group is commutative this is true
But that's not saying much
(well assuming you disregard the trivial counterexample of empty fiber)
Cause if it's commutative the map on XxY is a homomorphism
Hey @mild laurel
Any thoughts?
I'm not so sure it is a well defined action
Cause of the way multiplication works in XxY
It is. (x, y)z = xzy^(-1)
Oh ok
You can use this action + orbit stabilizer to prove |XY| = |X|*|Y|/|X\cap Y|
This is now looking a whole lot like Zappa szep lmao
By which I mean I did that on my homework thus week lol
Oh ok
If the fibers are all in bijection, they have to have the same size as the fiber of e, which is |X \cap Y|
The fiber of z in XY is the same as the set of (x, y) such that (x, y) β’ 1 = z
I think this implies it
Let G act transitively on S. For elements s, t of S, define G(s, t) = { g in G : g β’ s = t }. We show all G(s, t) are in bijection. Since the action is transitive, for each s, t we have an element Ο_{s, t} of G(s, t). Note that taking inverses gives a bijection between G(s, t) and G(t, s). Thus it suffices to show G(s, t) and G(s, s) = Stab(s) are in bijection. Define f : Stab(s) -> G(s, t) by f(g) = Ο_{s, t} g
Really what's going on is that a transitive action gives us a groupoid where all objects are isomorphic
Anyways this should prove that the nonempty fibers of that function are all in bijection
@meager flint i made a couple reductions but it should work
@latent anvil thank you, for real
Np
Where did this come up?
Oh here's a much simpler proof
Suppose a in X and b in Y. Then
f^(-1)(ab) =
{ (x, y) in XΓY : xy = ab } =
{ (x, y) in XΓY : a^(-1)x = by^(-1) } =
{ (x, y) in XΓY : exists s in X\cap Y. s = a^(-1)x and s = by^(-1) }
{ (as, bs^(-1)) : s in X\cap Y }
This last set has the same size as X\cap Y
Algebra class, studying for an exam
Asked to prove that |XY|=|X||Y|/X\capY|
I had assumed that bit and proved the claim, but I was stuck on how to do this part
Do you know the orbit stabilizer theorem?
There's a much nicer proof in terms of group actions
Ah, they're pretty great
One of the most important things about groups, possibly the most important
You have an action of XΓY on XY by (x, y)β’z = x z y^(-1). The orbit of 1 under this action is all of XY, since you can get from 1 to any z = ab by (a, b^(-1))β’1 = z, and so the orbit stabilizer theorem says |XY| = |XΓY|/|Stab(1)|. But Stab(1) = { (x, y) : xy^(-1) = 1 } is the set { (a, a) : a in X\cap Y }, and so it has the same size as X\cap Y. Thus |XY| = |XΓY|/|Stab(1)| = |X||Y|/|X\cap Y|
I'm relatively new to the concept of abstract algebra.. and I have a question about whether or not the law of annihilation (a*0=0) holds for all rings, or only holds in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?
I understand the proof for the law of annihilation using additive cancellation law, but that's not a ring law, so I don't see how it can hold for all rings...? But also don't understand why it would only hold in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?
Yes, but that's just using the additive cancellation law, right?
" But also don't understand why it would only hold in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law"
it doesn't have to satisfy multiplicative cancellation law
additive cancellation is one of the axioms, yes
for every a there is a -a such that a+ (-a)=0
My main question is... does the law of annihilation hold in all rings or only those that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?
all rings
Why's that? The additive cancellation law isn't a ring law, is it?
those which satisfy multiplicative cancellation law are called integral domains
it follows from the ring laws
oh ok
So you can prove the additive cancellation law using ring laws?
I thought you proved the annihilation law
Right, that seems very obvious, thank you haha
I see now
So you can say that you prove the additive cancellation law using ring laws... and therefore you can prove the law of annihilation using ring laws (via the additive cancellation law) and thus the law of annihilation holds for all rings?
yes
Thank you so much! Sorry if it seemed so trivial!
I just have one other question... I'm aware of the proof of the statement "if ab=0 then either a=0 or b=0" using multiplicative inverses, but can you prove this just using the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication?
sorry I edited my question
rings which satisfy it are called integral domains
rings which satisfy cancellation law for multiplication the same as those which satisfy your property
they're called integral domains
it's a good exercise to prove their equivalence
So you can't prove "if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0" using the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication?
no
for example Z/6Z doesn't satisfy this
2*3=0
but neither 2 nor 3 is 0
but it's still a ring
satisfies all the ring axioms
I see
I am being asked to prove it using just these laws though... which is why I am very confused.. because I understand how to do it if they asked for field laws but not ring laws..
Because it's saying to use the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication to derive "if a*b=0 then a=0 or b=0"
oh you can do that
you have an additional axiom
law of cancellation implies this for rings
in fact, as I said before, they're equivalent conditions
one proves another and vice versa
What are equivalent conditions, sorry? I didn't 100% understand before
A and B are equivalent if A implies B and B implies A
they're logically the same thing
How does the law of cancellation imply this for rings?
(multiplicative cancellation)
If ac=bc and c != 0 then a=b
ok
But that's not a real derivation, is it?
if a != 0 then b = 0
how does that follow?
this is what you want to prove
now prove it
I know how to prove it using multiplicative inverses, but you can't use them, as I'm just allowed to use ring laws and multiplicative cancellation law, no?
If I were to prove it using multiplicative inverses, you could say a has a multiplicative inverse a^-1 where a*a^-1 = 1
and a^-1 * ab = a^-1 * 0
using associativity of multiplication you can say (a^-1*a) * b = a^-1 * 0
so 1 * b = a^-1 * 0
b = a^-1 * 0
b = 0
Using the law of annihilation at the end
you don't have multiplicative inverses
Exactly, which is why I don't know what to do :L
use ab=ac and a!=0 => b=c
you need to get it into this form
put in the correct letters and numbers
what's b
b=c
I don't understand me either
yes
hint: ab=a*0
correct
just mention that this is because a!=0
one of the conditions for multiplicative cancellation
Right, ok.
π΅
So if I were to write this out as an explicit proof... "Prove that if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0 using ring laws & multiplicative cancellation law":
- if a=0 then by law of annihilation we are done as a * b = 0 * b = 0
- if a!=0 - this is the condition for multiplicative cancellation law - then if ab=0, ab=a*0, so b=0 (by multiplicative cancellation)
you don't need to consider the case a=0
because then it's already proved
there's nothing more to say
you want to prove that either a=0 or b=0
you see what I mean?
when a=0 and when a!=0
you can, but just say if a=0 the theorem is proved
ok
or you could leave it implicit
gotcha
don't mention it at all
Thanks so much for the help π
π
donate to my patreon
Where?
that was a joke
π
Hey, 1 last thing
You gave this example:
"for example Z/6Z doesn't satisfy this
2*3=0
but neither 2 nor 3 is 0
but it's still a ring
satisfies all the ring axioms"
If this is true, how can I have just proven the statement if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0?
Is it because I used the multiplicative cancellation law also?
yes
And that is not a ring law?
π Thanks π
multiplicative cancellation and ab=0 => a or b=0 are equivalent
I see
rings which satisfy the condition are called integral domains
Z/6Z is not an integral domain
Why say "use the ring laws" as well then?
Z is
because you're working with rings
you can't prove the equivalence without using ring laws
Which equivalence?
Sorry if that's stupid I know you've said it a lot
but I don't understand exactly what equivalence you are referencing to
(if a!=0 and ab=ac, then b=c) <=> (if ab=0, then a=0 or b=0)
the conditions in parentheses are equivalent
for any given ring
one implies the other and vice versa
ok
what ring laws do you use to show this equivalence?
Is it the annihilation law?
because you can say ab=a*0=0
Because I understand the annihilation law is essentially a derived ring law from additive inverse
yes
that's one direction of the equivalence
"Because I understand the annihilation law is essentially a derived ring law from additive inverse
"
no
Why not?
I thought you said (-a) + a + c = (-a) + a + b so b=c
that's proving additive cancellation law
you're right
disregard what i said
thought you said multiplicative inverses
nono dw
ikr same
I should look at this in the morning. Thanks so much for the help again. I'll review it all in the morning when it'll hopefully make a lot more sense
I've only been studying abstract algebra for a couple of days :l
Suppose N_G(P) = N_G(Q) for all sylows P, Q. Can there be more than one sylow subgroup?
Yeah
Cool, ty
This gives a proof of "sylows normal" from "Z(G/Z(G)) = G/Z(G)" without using the big nilpotent group equivalence
Since G/Z(G) abelian implies Inn(G) abelian implies that for any sylows P, Q = gPg^(-1), and x in N_G(P), xQx^(-1) = x(gPg^(-1))x^(-1) = g(xPx^(-1))g^(-1) = gPg^(-1) = Q, so N_G(P) <= N_G(Q), and since this holds for all sylows P, Q there's only one normalizer
It is
It says you're a product of p-groups P satisfying P' <= Z(P) (not for the same p)
My friend is working through a paper on the probability that two randomly chosen elements of a finite group commute, and this came up
It is. The 5/8 bound is easy enough that it's on a homework set for the algebra class I run, but apparently you can establish a lot more
No I don't think so, just a lot of finite group theory
Project Euclid - mathematics and statistics online
"the main insight is: (probability of two elements commuting) = (number of conjugacy classes)/|G| = (number of irreducible characters)/|G|
and the sum of the squares of the degrees of the irreducible characters is |G|
and the number of degree 1 characters is the size of the abelianization G/[G,G]
if you combine that all together (page number 244), you get a relation between the probability and the size of the derived group [G,G]"
And there's cool stuff like this
Somehow it's just impossible to get between 7/16ths and 1/2
Ikr
Can I check a commutative algebra thing?
Suppose f is a polynomial in x1,...,xn,y over a field k. Further suppose f is monic in y, so monic if you think of it as an element of k[x1,...,xn][y]. Then for any polynomial g in k[x1,...,xn,y], there are polynomials q, r in k[x1,...,xn,y] such that g = qf + r and deg_y r < deg_y f. You can prove this by doing division with remainder in k(x1,...,xn)[y] to get q, r which are rational functions in x1,...,xn, do induction on deg_y q to prove it is a polynomial, and then write r = g - qf to conclude it is also a polynomial
Does that sounds plausible?
I wrote it out on a whiteboard but feel uncomfortable with it
This is part of the proof of the noether normalization lemma but my book just says "by polynomial long division"
forget about polynomial
in a ring A
a polynomial f in A[y]
you can do euclidean division by f if f is monic
you can proove like the proof you wrote
and it's less weird since you consider only elements of a ring A
since k[x1,...,xn] is a ring, it works
Oh cool
Does A need to be an integral domain (so you can take the field of fractions)?
More commutative algebra that I'm not seeing
Suppose A is a finitely generated k-module and also an algebra over k. Then there are finitely many maximal ideals of A
Anybody have any insight here?
for k a field (algebraically closed if it matters)
I think I see how to prove it
how did you prove it? @latent anvil
Okay well keep in mind I said I think I see how to prove it
Not that I did prove it for sure
I need to write it out more clearly, every time I think about it I get twisted around. It's equivalent to say that for any ideal I of k[x1,...,xn], if the subset Z(I) of affine n-space is infinite then k[x1,...,xn]/I is infinite dimensional over k. Then(?) for some j there are infinitely many a in k such that (xj - a) intersects I nontrivially. Then(?) the map k[t] -> k[x1,...,xn]/I sending t to xj has a big image
Obviously this isn't rigorous
I might need to handle I = 0 separately
sorry if this is totally wrong lol
I can prove that for any I as above, there is some j such that either Z(xj - a) \cap Z(I) is infinite for some a in k, or that Z(xj - a) \cap Z(I) is nonempty for infinitely many a in k
In the first case, I think I can do induction on n (the dimension of the ambient space)?
π π π π π
my idea was basically right
@stone forum sorry it took 3 hours to actually put into words
way simpler proof:
oops, that should say Gamma(X) -> Gamma(X)/\bigcap_{n=0}^N I_n
I don't see why A needs to be an integral domain here but I remember a condition like this on a @latent anvil
I'm not sure how you could pass to the field of fractions otherwise
I don't understand localization in non-integral domains super well
Oh, I think it still works
since A is a f.g. k-algebra, you have A = k[x1, ..., xn]/I. Given a monic f in A[y], you can lift it to a monic f' in k[x1, ..., xn][y], and then given g in A[y] lift it similarly and do long division in k[x1,...,xn][y]
wait no this only works for an A which is a finitely generated algebra over a field. I forgot other kinds of rings exist lmao
I think you can drop the finitely generated assumption, since you can write A as a quotient of some really big polynomial ring, and when you want to divide g by f, there can only be finitely many variables mentioned in f and g, so you can do the long division in the subring generated by those variables
so this works for all A which contain a field as a subring
I think this will work for any quotient of an integral domain actually
is every ring a quotient of an integral domain?
Given $G \trianglerighteq K \trianglerighteq H$, how would I show $(G/H)/(K/H) \cong G/K$
Cabbage:
I think this is one of the isomorphism theorems, but I don't know which one
Second isomorphism theorem I think it's usually called @brisk granite
@brisk granite just write the diagram down and check that the only morphism you can define works
uh, the diagram? Edit: got it, thx
@wind steeple by induction on what?
Oh the degree of the polynomial, just like how you prove F[x] is a Euclidean domain
I was trying to reduce to the case of a field
I forgot you can just prove things lmao
If Ik a group is solvable, do I know it has a composition series that is a solvable series?
only for finite groups
oh, could you explain why?
because some infinite abelian groups don't have a finite composition series
and iirc composition series have to be finite
why does it hold for the finite case tho?
because every finite abelian group has a finite composition series
is finitely generated sufficient?
Hello, I am trying to prove that this integral defines an inner product in the space of second degree polynomials
I am having issues with one of the axioms, <x,x> >=0 for all x belonging to P2
I tried the following
try substituting in f, f?
i did
I must have done something wrong somewhere
(my prof told me that when i have integrals from -1 to 1 i can just get rid of the odd degree polynomial expressions)
(Im pretty sure id get the same results if i didnt do that so dw about it)
Can I just say that's always greater or equal to zero? i'm legitimately not sure which is why i developed it
sorry if its obvious π
Oooh, I realize now that is true when i look it up
For real valued functions
Ok, yeah, that's fair lol
Wait, so if the integrand https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/496784958430380033/630754099553370122/193026762026778624.png
is non negative, is the defined integral from -1 to 1 also necessarily non negative?
Yes this is because of the monotonicity property of the integral, i.e. for functions $f\leq g$ you have $\int_{-1}^{1} f(x)dx\leq \int_{-1}^{1}g(x)dx$
leoli1:
How did they get that f(x) = 0 for all x in F if the kernel is everything?
π
leoli1:
I thought the kernel is the set of r(x) in F(x)/(f(x)) such that r(alpha) = 0..
Is this statement even true? If $|G/H|$ is of a prime power order, then don't I know that there is only one sylow p-subgroup S and, hence, that H is not a maximal normal subgroup?
Cabbage:
nvm, the sylow p subgroup would be G/H. but wouldn't Z(G/H) also be normal in G/H?
Yes, center is always normal subgroup
Let $M$ be a flat module, and let $ 0 \rightarrow X \rightarrow Y \rightarrow M \rightarrow 0$ be an exact sequence. The for every module $N$ we have that $0 -> N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y \rightarrow N \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is an exact sequence
emme:
Do you have any hints?
Ok so there exists a module $N$ s.t. $0 \rightarrow N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y \rightarrow N \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is not exact, this means that $N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y$ isn't injective. Right?
emme:
how much homological algebra have you seen? I am assuming you are familiar with the left derived functors of the tensor product
the point is you have a long exact sequence including the Tor groups
and the first term on the left is gonna be Tor(M,N)
No, I've seen no derived functors so far. I just know basic commutative algebra, like first 2 chapters of atiyah
ah
that's the problem
you might wanna read it from dummit & foote
10.5 and 17.1
I'll take a read thank you. Do you think it's impossible to answer without derived functors? The question is of the first week of the course and we covered just the first two chapters of atiyah
no, it's not impossible, surely you don't need all the machinery
but even the exercises on A&M ch 2 assume familiarity with tor
and it's good for you to learn tor and ext soon rather than later
what you would have to do is chase the connecting homomorphism Tor_1(M,N) -> NxX -> NxY -> NxM -> 0
and prove that Tor_1(M,N) = 0
derived functor is a scary name but it's just knowing what Tor is
Ah, ok
Let $ A = \mathbb{C}[x,y]$. I want to find an $A$ module which is torsion free, finitely generated but is not flat. I think $M = A/(xy-1)$ should be fine, it's torsion free since if $pq \in (xy-1)$ then $xy-1$ is a factor of $p$ or $q$, it is generated by $1, x, y$ and it's not flat bc if you consider $0 \rightarrow (xy-1) \rightarrow A \rightarrow M \rightarrow 0$ then $0 \rightarrow (xy-1) \otimes M \rightarrow A \otimes M \rightarrow M \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is not exact since $(xy-1) \otimes M = 0$. Do you agree?
emme:
I don't agree. (xy-1) (Γ) M -> A (Γ) M -> M (Γ) M -> 0 is exact by right exactness of tensor product, so 0 -> A (Γ) M -> M (Γ) M -> 0 is exact. You can stick a zero to the left and it stays exact
I might be wrong
Is A/(y^2 - x^3) flat?
I don't actually know the geometrical interpretation of flatness
I know it's important
yeah the problem is that your sequence is exact anyway because (xy-1)xM is 0
so Tor(M,M) never comes into play
i think A/(y^2 - x^3) is flat
so finitely generated projective = finitely presented flat
but I believe A/(xy - 1) is flat too
Anyway @Flopp, for the previous question: let $N$ be a module, then is the quotient of a free module $L$, say $N = L/K$, so let's consider the short exact sequence $0 \to K \to L \to N \to 0$ and let $0 \to X \to Y \to M \to 0$ be an exact sequence, where $M$ is flat. Now we tensorize this sequence with every factor of the first one.
emme:
So you get something like this
\begin{tikzcd}
& & & & & 0 & & \
& & & & & \downarrow & & \
& K \otimes X & \rightarrow & K \otimes Y & \rightarrow & K \otimes M & \rightarrow & 0 \
& \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \
\rightarrow & L \otimes X & \rightarrow & L\otimes Y & \rightarrow & L \otimes M & \rightarrow & \
& \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \
& N \otimes X & \rightarrow & N \otimes Y & \rightarrow & N \otimes M & & \
& & & & & \downarrow & & \
& & & & & 0 & &
\end{tikzcd}
emme:
First two rows satisfy snake lemma and from that we have the thesis
As for as the torsion free f.g. module which is not flat, how about $M = \mathbb{C}[x,y]/(x,y)$, if we take $ p = (x)$ we got $M_p = 0$ and so it's not flat for the result on MO
emme:
Wha do you say?

