#groups-rings-fields

406252 messages Β· Page 445 of 407

latent anvil
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Fam find a harder problem so we can help

bleak abyss
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If it's too easily we'll overthink it

latent anvil
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I have the best easy group theory problem

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Prove that if G has a unique maximal subgroup then G is cyclic

bleak abyss
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Hmm

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Hmm

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Oh I guess

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Take a maximal subgroup containing a given element

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And take a maximal subgroup not containing it?

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That's my instinct

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Actually that sounds wrong

chilly ocean
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Proves that the center is a subgroup

Proves that and also proves that the elements all commute as well

Ah, so that's what a normal subgroup is.

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We haven't even gotten to that chapter yet

latent anvil
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what do you think a normal subgroup is?

chilly ocean
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I thought a normal subgroup was a subgroup where communitivity (I am a bad speller) holds

latent anvil
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Right, so that's almost correct

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But you need to be careful about what commutativity means

chilly ocean
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commutativity

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Okay, saving this

latent anvil
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It does not mean that H is normal in G iff gh = hg for all h in H, g in G

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It means that for all g in G and h in H, there is some possibly different h' in H such that gh = h'G

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We write this gH = Hg

chilly ocean
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Ah, I see what you're saying

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My book makes a remark about that very early in the chapter

latent anvil
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Normal subgroups are very difficult for students

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You need to be careful

chilly ocean
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That's like 3.5 chapters ahead of me

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I'm glad to see an example of it now.

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Thanks

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I'll try to not screw it up, but given that it's me, I probably will XD

latent anvil
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Yeah, the center is a very special normal subgroup

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Subgroups H that satisfy gh = hg for all h in H are called...

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subgroups of the center!

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Or sometimes central, but it's important to realize that this only happens if H <= Z(G)

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Also screwing up is how you learn math

chilly ocean
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Oh okay, that's how this last question is different. Got it. Little g vs big G

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Alright, last problem

latent anvil
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What's the last problrm?

chilly ocean
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Let G be a group, and let g \in G. Define the centralizer, Z(g), of g in G to be the subset Z(g) = {x \in G, xg = gx}. Prove that Z(g) is a subgroup of G.

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$\in$

cloud walrusBOT
bleak abyss
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So if $xg = gx$ and $xh = hx$, then try to play with the expression $x(gh)$

cloud walrusBOT
chilly ocean
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Yeah, going on Wikipedia to make sure that I don't confuse center with centralizer

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Thanks @bleak abyss

bleak abyss
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πŸ‘

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Let me know if you still need more hints

chilly ocean
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I got it

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I just needed to look up the difference to make sure that I didn't accidentally do a repeat proof

bleak abyss
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The art of not proving things twice is a subtle one for sure πŸ˜›

chilly ocean
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Done with all HW due Tuesday. About to do this lab that's due on Wednesday, so that way my next due assignment will be Thursday or later

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Not looking forward to taking a midterm this Saturday

bleak abyss
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Damn you're ahead of me

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I'm supposed to be done with chapter 2 of Silverman by Tuesday, also should hand back quizzes

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I am still not done (though almost) with chapter 1, and haven't graded quizzes

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And I have a pset due Thursday I haven't touched

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😒

chilly ocean
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We started in the middle of August

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I better be ahead of you lol

bleak abyss
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sanic

chilly ocean
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I mean, this uni here starts earlier and finishes earlier than all the other unis around here

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Most start early September

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Or late August

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Because of how my schedule is set up, I don't have classes past late November hype

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Just finals

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I hope to God that final for Psych Stats is not 7:30-9:30am

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FTS, I will go to the Office of Disability to take it 9:30-11:30 or 9:00-11:00

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Going to a calc 3 final to arrive for 8am was brutal

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I can't do that

bleak abyss
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Ouch

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Yeah I had an 8AM or 8:30AM final once and it was disgusting

chilly ocean
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Maybe I should try for academia...

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If only for the flexibility in hours

old lava
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what's a really good textbook for abstract algebra?

latent anvil
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what's your background?

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I really really like aluffi but it's tough if you've never seen a proof before

old lava
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I'm in high school trynna learn some higher level math. I've done a lot of math competitions

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I've learned thru calc 3, lin alg and diff eq

stone fulcrum
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I read Fraleigh, and it's easy but is a bit lacking from what I've heard

latent anvil
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I was in pretty much the same spot when j first read aluffi (was a high school student)

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Probably worse at math, no linear algebra or math competitions

old lava
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I've learned some group theory, like rings, fields, groups, and stuff

latent anvil
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And I still got a lot out of it

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I guess that's my recommendation

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It's pretty abstract though

stone fulcrum
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If you are the genius, you can try Dummit and Foote. You won't miss a single thing, but it's a trek

old lava
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Alright I'll check those out, thanks guys!

latent anvil
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I like Dummit and foote :(

stone fulcrum
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I like it too but it's not a first time read for most people

old lava
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I'm trynna take Galois Theory soon but my Abstract Algebra is a bit lacking atm

latent anvil
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You should focus on other things first

old lava
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do you guys have pdfs of those books?

latent anvil
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Yee

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Idk if it's okay to post here

stone fulcrum
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You seem to know some theory already so you might actually be comfy with dummit and foote

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Go ahead

old lava
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ight

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yea I know like definitions, but I'm still kinda loosey goosey with using them

latent anvil
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Google algebra Chapter 0 pdf

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You should do problems

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I have some algebra problem sets if you want something more structured than random problem sets

old lava
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yes that'll help a lot, thank you!

latent anvil
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Let me know if you have any comments or there are typos or anything

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Also rings are currently a wip, but we have two weeks or so that aren't up yet, so let me know if you get to that (groups should take a while though)

bleak abyss
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Oh wait is it time for commentary on algebra books?

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Why did none of you fucks ping me

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Aluffi is fine for learning some category theory with the algebra, but that's prob not as high of a selling point as one might expect, and apparently the exercises are just bad

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Dummit and Foote is fine, has everything, in a way effortless to read since he spells stuff out a lot but that makes him gigaboring

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So I generally don't like it, but there is a sort of appeal so I might say it's fine but not my taste rather than just bad

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Jacobson "Basic Algebra I" is what I like

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Also Lang's not too bad but he takes more effort to read

latent anvil
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Aluffi's problems aren't great

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But I really like the exposition

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I think the actual category theory is a distraction, it's more of a philosophy about using general definitions/caring about maps/universal properties

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Which is helpful for me personally

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Then again, it's the only algebra book I've used consistently (I read d&f for ring /field/galois theory but it's not the same jumping in later on)

bleak abyss
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Yeah D&F may very well be more tolerable for that stuff tbh

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For group theory though

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He's so

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fucking

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slow

latent anvil
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I liked aluffi more, it just went into more depth than my class had time for

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I was reading it on the side

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He does everything with modules pretty early on, and introduces like noetherian rings and uses them, which takes extra time but pays off imo

fickle brook
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uhhhhhhhhhhhh my brain is hecked atm

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i'm stuck writing up another solution for my pset and this one seems like it's either easy and i'm missing it or wrong and reliant on an unstated assumption

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let G be a group, A βŠ† G, denote by N_G(A) the normalizer of A in G (ie the set of all x s.t. a ∈ A implies xax^-1 ∈ A)

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i'm trying to show N_G(A) is closed under inversion but it's not coming together for some reason

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maybe i hecked the definition of the normalizer

latent anvil
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Take a in A. Then a in xAx^(-1), so a = x b x^(-1) for some b in A. Then x^(-1) a x = b in A

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Does that make sense?

warped flicker
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Ahoy friends, does anyone happen to have a pdf for Algebra 2e by Artin? I can only find one for the 1st edition and it would be much appreciated to have or know I can't find

tribal pasture
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Can somebody explain the difference between centralizer and conjugacy class?

mild laurel
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What are you confused about?

tribal pasture
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The definition seem particularly the same

wind steeple
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One depends of all g in G, the other only for one g in G

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Btw I think you're thinking about the stabilizer of the conjugacy action and not the orbit, isn't it ?

tribal pasture
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So Cl(a) = {gag^{-1}, for all g in G}

wind steeple
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Yes

tribal pasture
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whereas C_G(a) = {g in G | ga = ag}

wind steeple
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Oh mb

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Ok

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One is in X wheras the other is in G

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X = G here

tribal pasture
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But I can rewrite C_G(a) = {g in G | ga = ag} = {g in G | a^{-1}ga = g} = {a^{-1}ga for all g in G}

wind steeple
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Non

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The last equality is false

tribal pasture
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Oh yep nvm

wind steeple
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You can have a^-1ga = h for any h in G

tribal pasture
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One more thing

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Can you explain intuititively what the class terms are supposed to represent in the Class equation

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Like my professor just used an intuitive argument as for why |G| = |Z(G)| + sum ....

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But I cannot recall what was the explanation for the summed part

wind steeple
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Intuitively, the quotients measure how an element in G doesn't commute with other elements

fickle brook
hot lake
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wait until you do "Proposition 17. Proof : See exercise 13.b"

fickle brook
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this is a pset

hot lake
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"exercsie 13.b : Prove proposition 17"

fickle brook
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sdghjsdfkghsldfg

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HDGLSDFJK

wind steeple
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What's [G,G] ?

fickle brook
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commutator subgroup of G

wind steeple
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The derivate subgroup ?

fickle brook
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le sous-groupe gΓ©nΓ©rΓ© par tous les commutateurs dans G

wind steeple
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Y

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Ok

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That's a direct property

somber bramble
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@fickle brook I did that on an exam once

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β€œthis is not possible as otherwise it would violate the result from exercise (another one on the same exam)”

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with a small justification

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both were kinda similar, about the existence or nonexistence of biholomorphic maps between certain sets

chilly ocean
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I quoted my homework once on a test.

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I got full credit

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(I did the HW problem right of course.)

solemn quartz
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When I'm trying to factor x3-4x2+x+6 by using the value of a root that makes the entire equation equal to 0, how would it actually work?

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for example, the equation above is factored by (x-2) because the equation equals 0 when x=2. but why is this method working?

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I understand that x=2 is one of the root values which makes the equation equal 0. but WHAT does that have to do with the fact that it is factored by (x-2)?

fickle brook
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do you mean x**^3 - 4x^**2 + x + 6?

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also, pretty sure this doesn't belong here

wind steeple
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(-1) is an obvious root

brisk granite
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If $H \trianglelefteq G$ and $G \trianglerighteq A \trianglerighteq H$, then do I know $A/H \trianglelefteq G/H$?

cloud walrusBOT
latent anvil
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Yes, this is the lattice isomorphism theorem

solemn quartz
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@fickle brook oh yeah I meant that. not sure why my superscript didn't work on this chat(it worked on Google Doc). sorry about posting it to the wrong channel. did'nt know what channel it belonged to

fickle brook
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yes

brisk granite
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(g⁒N)⁒(A/N)⁒(g⁒N)-1=(g⁒A⁒g-1)/N=A/N

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Why is this true?

mild laurel
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Which step are you unsure about

brisk granite
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(g⁒N)⁒(A/N)⁒(g⁒N)-1=(g⁒A⁒g-1)/N

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That one

mild laurel
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Well first think about what (gN)^{-1} is

brisk granite
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(g^-1)N

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um, could you elaborate on what I should think about please?

whole bridge
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isnt A normal in G?? so that should be it..

brisk granite
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why?

mild laurel
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I think he meant to ask if N was normal in A

brisk granite
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Ok, I think I see it now

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Thank you

sullen island
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i'm having understanding the accepted answer, how is there a bijection between the vectors in $\mathrm{Ker}(p)$ and the projections of V onto W?

cloud walrusBOT
sullen island
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if you have 2 vectors, $v_1 = w_1 + u$ and $v_2 = w_2 + u$, then $p(v_1) = w_1$ and $p(v_2) = w_2$, but both correspond to vector $u$ in $\mathrm{Ker} (p)$, so how is that bijective?

cloud walrusBOT
sullen island
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i came across this while learning representation theory and thought this would be the most appropriate channel to post in (since theres no rep theory channel)

fading wagon
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hmm

sullen island
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:(

fading wagon
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I'm still trying to read it

sullen island
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yeah no worries take your time

fading wagon
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I worry about myself not sleeping

sullen island
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i can screenshot the relevant pages from serre as well if you want me to

fading wagon
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might be helpful

sullen island
fading wagon
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I'm just lost on what a complement is

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hold on

sullen island
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okay

fading wagon
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hmm, It seems that a complement is just any subspace W' that has the direct sum W+W'=V

sullen island
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mm hmm

fading wagon
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So, for every projection of V onto W, consider the kernel, that would be W', so that is a map from projections to complements

sullen island
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yeah

fading wagon
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Obviously, for different projections, we have different complements

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so it is injective

sullen island
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?!

fading wagon
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okay, maybe we should go a bit slower

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Let's say we have different projections

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then they cannot have the same kernel, because, that is sufficient to determine the projection

sullen island
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different projections as in p maps V to different W's?

fading wagon
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Different projections from V to W

sullen island
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i thought there was only one unique projection from V to W

fading wagon
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there are multiple

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consider f(x, y)=(x, 0) and f(x, y)=(x+y, 0)

sullen island
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oh okay

fading wagon
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the kernel for the first is (0, y), the kernel for the second is (-y, y)

sullen island
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mm hmm

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so they have different kernels

fading wagon
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yeah

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that's the main idea

sullen island
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but then claiming that the kernel is isomorphic to the image of projection seems a little wrong

fading wagon
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yeah, that's quite wrong

sullen island
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so wheres the bijective correspondence ? πŸ˜…

fading wagon
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from kernels of projections, to complements

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It's injective as we shown

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and from complements to projection, it's also injective

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so it's bijective

sullen island
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how do you get that from complements to projections it is injective?

sullen island
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i think i understand:
Let $p_i$ be i distinct projections. Define an equivalence relation $\sim_i := x \sim_i y \iff p_i(x) = p_i(y)$
Denote $$K:= {[x]{\sim_i} \ \vert \ p_i(x) = 0}$$ i.e. let K be the set of all kernels of the i different projections
Denote $$R := { [x]
{\sim_i} \ \vert \ p_i(x) \neq 0 }$$
Thus R is the set of all images of projection.
Thus $R \cong K$

cloud walrusBOT
sullen island
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correct me if im wrong

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this seems like the most obvious and intuitive way to interpret what the author is saying

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@fading wagon

mild laurel
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Are you defining a different K and R for each p_i?

sullen island
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no

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K consists of all the kernels

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so it has i distinct equivalence classes (kernels of each p_i)

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similarly for R

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and since both of them have cardinality i they are isomorphic i.e. the set of all projections can be bijected to the set of complements

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right?

mild laurel
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Well R isn't really the set of images of the projection

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Also, in most cases there will be infinitely many projections

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Definitely in this case since our vector spaces are over C

sullen island
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why isnt R the set of images of different projections?

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and yeah how can i compensate for the infinite case ?

mild laurel
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I mean maybe you meant to write p([x]) but

sullen island
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wait, oops, R should be p(x)

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yeah

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but it still doesnt compensate for infiniteness πŸ€”

mild laurel
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But this still isn't really what Serre is talking about

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The images for every single p_i should be the exact same

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The image should always be W in this case

sullen island
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hmmm

mild laurel
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Serre is talking about a bijection between the actual projections p_i and complements of W

sullen island
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how ?

mild laurel
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In exactly the way he desribes

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If you start with a projection p onto W

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Then the kernel of p will give you a complement of W

sullen island
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uh huh

mild laurel
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Similarly, if you start with a complement of W

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You can get a projection onto W by the way he describes

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Write every element of V as w + w' and have the function be p(w + w') = w

sullen island
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lets say v1 = w1 + w' and v2 = w2 + w'

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then p(v1) = w1 and p(v2) = w2

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and these correspond to the same w'

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so its not a one to one correspondence πŸ€”

mild laurel
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So?

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How is that a function from the complements of W and the projections onto W?

sullen island
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wait, oh

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i thought he was talking about literally the projected vectors

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okay i think i understand it

chilly ocean
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Quote from my abstract algebra teacher today: "The identity is the identity."

stone fulcrum
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And God forgive us if it isn't

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The identity is unique, that's a good quote

potent lynx
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your still at the beginning right?

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or is that just a random quote

chilly ocean
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He was saying: "The identity is the identity (map)"

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But it was understood clearly that he implied maps because we're talking about functions.

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But it was still hilarious to hear this

stone fulcrum
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No that's something you need to say. You've got to point out what your identity is.

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Even if the identity is always called the identity lol

fierce flower
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am I dumb for not understand in the slightest what this is about

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What level is it at?

stone fulcrum
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Abstract algebra 1 and 2 are typical pure math uni courses

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Download a pdf for it! Take a look.

latent anvil
rain burrow
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hi

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if I have a matrix A of size m x n

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and I vector x of size n x 1

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and the equation Ax = 0

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is there a theory to know the number of basis for the nullspace A?

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also the size of basis?

bleak abyss
rain burrow
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Okay, thanks.

barren delta
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I'm struggling to find a counterexample to the statement "If a group G is such that every proper subgroup is cyclic, then G is cyclic"

cloud walrusBOT
barren delta
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as a counterexample

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but I can't find any others

mild laurel
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try similar things

barren delta
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well, yeah but I was hoping to find some different ones πŸ˜„

mild laurel
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Hm, I'm not so sure there are any other nice examples

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Okay I lied, I think the symmetric group on 3 elements is an example

barren delta
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ohhhh wait

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Klein-4 works as a counter example, yes?

stone fulcrum
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Z2Γ—Z2 is a beautiful example

mild laurel
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klein 4 is Z_2 x Z_2

barren delta
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u wot

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LOL

mild laurel
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In mathematics, the Klein four-group is a group with four elements, in which each element is self-inverse (composing it with itself produces the identity)
and in which composing any two of the three non-identity elements produces the third one.
It can be described as the symm...

barren delta
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all I have in my notes is {e a b c} with those properties

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but I guess.....

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that means it's isomorphic to z2 x z2

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right?

stone fulcrum
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It's pretty easy to show by Cayley tables that there are only two groups of order 4. They are Z4 and Z2Γ—Z2

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Sometimes we call that second one V4 instead

barren delta
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so wait, to clarify, @mild laurel (also lol at your handle) you're saying Klein-4 IS Z2 x Z2 in the sense that it's isomorphic to Z2 x Z2 or that it literally is that group?

woven delta
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I think Z_2x Z_p may work generally

stone fulcrum
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We say two groups are "the same" when they're isomorphic

barren delta
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ok thanks for clarifying

woven delta
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Oh lmao

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No

stone fulcrum
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Any difference between two iso groups is not something that algebra cares about

woven delta
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I'm silly

mild laurel
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Yeah

barren delta
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which... I mean, I guess yeah now that I think about it

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right Kay, yes

mild laurel
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We only really ever care about groups up to isomorphism

woven delta
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Those are cyclic

woven delta
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This is a good example

thorn delta
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there is the circle group as well

woven delta
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No, that's not an example

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@thorn delta

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You have the group of all nth roots of unity inside it

thorn delta
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wait what do you mean by that? Its subgroups are the nth roots of unity, which are cyclic.....

woven delta
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No

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You have the prufer p groups for example

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Lots of other stuff

thorn delta
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oh wow never knew. huh

uncut girder
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Given an elementary abelian group of order p^(n-1)

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How many ways can you choose a basis

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Apparently the answer is

woven delta
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What do you mean elementary?

mild laurel
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what do you mean basis lmao

uncut girder
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Product of Z/p s

woven delta
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Oh

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I mean, isn't this just asking the size of the automorphism group?

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And isn't this actually a linear algebra question

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It's asking the cardinality of GL_{n-1}(Z/(p))

mild laurel
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That's an interesting question tho

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think about choosing each column one at a time

woven delta
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Oh, so at first there are p^n -1 choices of basis elements

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Then you choose the first one, and there are p^n - p

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And so on

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That's actually pretty easy

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is that what you meant @mild laurel ?

mild laurel
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Yea

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Still pretty cool I think

woven delta
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Does this actually count the number of elements in GL_n though?

mild laurel
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I think so?

woven delta
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Or do you have to mod out by something

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Hmm

mild laurel
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All your elements are already in Z/pZ, not sure what else you have to mod out by

woven delta
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Maybe order

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Are we considering basis or ordered basis?

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I guess this takes order into account actually

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Yeah it should be fine

whole bridge
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yes size of GL_n(Z/pZ) is product of p^n - p^i

upbeat burrow
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With modules, what is the difference between a generating set and a basis?

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I'm not seeing how these two things are different.

mild laurel
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Look at the two definitions

upbeat burrow
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lol

chilly ocean
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hey idiots

upbeat burrow
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Generating set: every element of a module M can be written as a linear combination of the generating set.

mild laurel
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Okay but actually, it's really the same as in linear algebra

chilly ocean
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is $K[x]/(x-a)\cong K$ froall a\in K?

cloud walrusBOT
mild laurel
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Yes

chilly ocean
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me?

mild laurel
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yes

upbeat burrow
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How is that different than a basis?

chilly ocean
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ok

mild laurel
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What's the definition of a basis

chilly ocean
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MAXIMAL LINEARLY INDEPENDENT SET

upbeat burrow
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Isn't it the same?

mild laurel
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That's the linear algebra definition, doesn't work too well for modules

chilly ocean
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oh there's no difference basis and genset

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for rings and modules

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atleast most of the time

mild laurel
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This is a case where there's a difference

chilly ocean
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sorry i wasn't paying attention ill leave u 2 alone

mild laurel
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Just like in linear algebra

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A basis has to be linearly independent

upbeat burrow
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Oh right

woven delta
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@chilly ocean you're quotienting by a maximal ideal

upbeat burrow
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But a generating set need not be linearly independent?

mild laurel
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Just like in linear algebra

chilly ocean
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ah yes good point @smoky cypress

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i meant to @ horse

mild laurel
#

Just add 0 to your set of generators or something, now it's not linearly independent, but it's still a generating set

woven delta
#

But you can make an explicit isomorphism

chilly ocean
#

yeah but that's hard

#

er

woven delta
#

Nah

#

It's pretty easy actually

chilly ocean
#

i mean elements of a field are clearly not killed yeah

#

and everything of deg \geq 1 is killed

#

so whatever

#

it's clearly K

woven delta
#

All the elements look like b + (x-a)

chilly ocean
#

mhm

woven delta
#

So the isomorphism is mapping b to b + (x-a)

#

Yeah

chilly ocean
#

i need to know $F[x]/(a_1)\oplus F[x]/(a_2) \oplus F[x]/(a_3)\cong F^3$ if they are all degree 1

cloud walrusBOT
woven delta
#

Yes

chilly ocean
#

whihc is obvious

woven delta
#

This is the case

upbeat burrow
#

@mild laurel Okay, I think I understand now. Thanks for the clarification!

woven delta
#

This is just linear algebra lol

chilly ocean
#

what if its like $F[x]/(a_1)$ and its degree 3

cloud walrusBOT
woven delta
#

Think about it

#

You get basis elements as 1, x, x^2

#

So F^3

mild laurel
chilly ocean
#

that's what all algebra is

woven delta
#

Haha

chilly ocean
#

i want to say that all these in the last thing i posted are the same for all a_1 of degree 3

#

which I believe is true

upbeat burrow
#

I never covered modules in linear. Sorry for asking in the wrong channel πŸ˜…

chilly ocean
#

since they all are F^3

#

and finally all things like $F[x]/(a_1)\oplus F[x]/(a_2)$ are iso if a_1 degree 1 and a_2 degree 2

cloud walrusBOT
mild laurel
#

Nah I mean you definitely don't learn modules in linear, but what you asked, you can just think of vector spaces and the difference becomes clear

#

Which happens quite a bit in module theory

woven delta
#

Can't you factor F[x]/(p) in terms of the irreducible parts of p?

chilly ocean
#

uhm

woven delta
#

So over an Algebraically closed field there's a nice answer

chilly ocean
#

so you mean over alg closed they are all like F^n

woven delta
#

Otherwise there's still a nice answer, but it doesn't factor as cleanly

#

No, it's always F^n

upbeat burrow
#

So a basis is a generating set, but not necessarily vice-versa?

chilly ocean
#

yes new nivk

woven delta
#

But it splits cleaner over Algebraically closed

chilly ocean
#

with rings a lot of people don't distinguish

#

basis vs genset

#

ya it's not alg closed tho

woven delta
#

But yeah, generally if you quotient by a degree k you get a k dimensional vector space

upbeat burrow
#

Why don't they distinguish between them? My prof said the difference was important.

chilly ocean
#

it is for vector spaces

woven delta
#

For modules basis are pretty rare

chilly ocean
#

yeah basis of a module means its a free module

upbeat burrow
#

Right

woven delta
#

But finitely generated modules are very important

#

So we care more about generating sets

upbeat burrow
#

I think I'm going to have to find some examples.

chilly ocean
#

degree k you get a k dimensional vector space

#

these are quotients as rings tho

#

i need to know what the rings are

woven delta
#

πŸ‘€

chilly ocean
#

are minimal polynomials of matrices always irreducible

woven delta
#

You know what they are

chilly ocean
#

this makes it work

woven delta
#

As rings

#

So that's why the story for Algebraically closed is nice

#

Cause it splits as rings

#

So it's literally F^k as a ring

#

But you can think of polynomial multiplication

#

And that gives you the ring structure

chilly ocean
#

but the poly isn't irreducible and F isn't closed

woven delta
#

It's not too hard to figure out

#

So you split the poly into irreducible components

chilly ocean
#

ya

#

so they arent all iso

#

if u change a_1 in F[x]/a_1

#

like u can have differnet deg 3 polys and the quotients are not iso

woven delta
#

Yeah

chilly ocean
#

dang

#

this isn't what i want

woven delta
#

Depending on shit with reducibility

#

You basically get products of integral domains

chilly ocean
#

i think you would just get F^n \otimes F^m etc

woven delta
#

And the number of integral domains is determined by number of irreducible components

chilly ocean
#

yeah

#

they are all free modules ?

woven delta
#

Yeah

chilly ocean
#

so even better than int domain

woven delta
#

But as rings you just have to consider F[x]/(p) for p irreducible

chilly ocean
#

or something idk

woven delta
#

And you understand the whole story

chilly ocean
#

what i want to show is that matrices with the same characteristic and minimal polys are similar

#

when they are 3x3

woven delta
#

Oh lol

#

You should have come out and said that

#

Instead of have me go on a shitty inane rant

chilly ocean
#

lol

#

it is obvious if degree of minimal is 1

woven delta
#

This is shit @bleak abyss likes lmao

#

So maybe he'll want to explain

bleak abyss
#

Did someone say "explain"?

woven delta
#

πŸ‘€

chilly ocean
#

im sure u can just write out some normal form

woven delta
#

Yeah, Jordan normal form

mild laurel
#

smith normal form

woven delta
#

We're doing square

#

So Jordan is enough

chilly ocean
#

ok well no

#

it's rational canonical form since you don't know it's alg closed

woven delta
#

Oh you're right

chilly ocean
#

idk how to show this if the deg of min poly is 2

#

it is probably obvious

#

gonna make some coffee i guess

#

if deg is 2 u have 2 parts to the rcf, you only know what one is

#

i'm sure there's some divisibility conditions with the char poly to make the other polynomial in the module structure work

left scroll
#

This may be a bit of a silly question, but what does it mean to "take the character of the representation you are being offered and contract it against the character of the representation r"? This pops up in the book Group Theory in a Nutshell & it looks like that means summation over equivalence classes of the quantity: (number of members in an equivalence class c)(conjugate of character of equivalence class c in representation r)(character of the representation you're being offered). Only thing I can think of is Tensor Contraction, but that has nothing to do with this, it seems.

#

Oh, hmm, it could be Tensor Contraction, actually. (conjugate of character of equivalence class c in representation r) would have a downstairs index and (character of the representation you're being offered) would have an upstairs index, allowing for a contraction of those two that's then summed over equivalence classes c with factor (number of members in an equivalence class c). That's still super unclear in context because they use the upstairs & downstairs index notation very inconsistently & don't use it in this particular case where it'd make sense, haha.

#

They also never introduce tensor contraction before that point in the book, lol, so there's a tendency to pull stuff out of a hat there. Sorry for the wall of text.

hot lake
#

could they possibly be talking about the inner product of two representations ?

upbeat burrow
#

R^n isomorphic R^m if and only if n = m

#

R^n is an R-module

#

Can anyone assist with this?

latent anvil
#

What are the assumptions on R?

#

I know a proof if it's an integral domain

upbeat burrow
#

R is commutative with identity

latent anvil
#

ooh

upbeat burrow
#

Going the backwards direction seems obvious

latent anvil
#

I'm thinking you could take a maximal ideal of R and tensor with R/m? Maybe that's stupid though

upbeat burrow
#

I was thinking of the maximal ideal thing

latent anvil
#

That should reduce to vector spaces

upbeat burrow
#

Is there a way without tensors?

latent anvil
#

prove directly that if R^n β‰ˆ R^m as R modules then (R/I)^n β‰ˆ (R/I)^m as R/I-modules for any ideal I of R?

#

I'm just tensoring to get that

upbeat burrow
#

I'm not really familiar with tensors

#

I don't understand them that well.

latent anvil
#

Yeah you don't need to know them

#

I'm just using them to prove that if R^n β‰ˆ R^m as R modules then (R/I)^n β‰ˆ (R/I)^m as R/I-modules for any ideal I of R

upbeat burrow
#

I'm not sure I see how to prove that though.

latent anvil
#

You have projection maps R^n -> R^n/(I×…×I) which reduce mod I on each factor, and similarly for m

#

And R^n/(IΓ—...Γ—I) β‰ˆ (R/I)^n

#

So you get maps R^n -> (R/I)^n and R^m -> (R/I)^m

#

I think it can put these together to get what you want

#

/shrug

wind cypress
#

So I had an English exam today, no need to know about math, but it had this article which I found fascinating, posted it earlier to general chat: http://users.jyu.fi/~tojusaar/What Does Less Than or Equal Really Mean.pdf

Don't know if it's really algebra, but fascinating how such simple thing as < or <= can have had mathematics scratching their heads for over 50 years.... I learned a little from it, perhaps someone else will too?

uncut girder
#

Your English exam had a math paper?

#

That's cool

wind cypress
#

The English exam was meant for math students, the idea was to be able to reference mathematical paper, and understand stuff in it. Not all students of course have same paper to analyze.

chilly ocean
#

What English class is this?

bleak finch
#

You know this book?

#

Is there something like it for modules?

mild laurel
#

I'm not sure what exactly you mean by "like"

bleak finch
#

The book is very approachable and builds up group, ring, and field theory step-by-step

#

Is there something like that for modules?

mild laurel
#

I mean every book aims to do that

woven delta
#

Except for bourbaki

potent lynx
#

except for rudin

onyx lance
#

Are there any interesting examples of canonical/basis-independent operations on tensors besides the trace & determinant of a matrix?

golden pasture
fading wagon
woven delta
#

I think abstract Algebra is fine for this

fading wagon
#

any question?

#

@woven delta

woven delta
meager flint
#

Let X and Y be subgroups of a group G. Let f be a function from X x Y to G such that f((x,y))=xy. Is there a bijection between any two fibers of the map??

woven delta
#

This sounds like the Zappa szep product lmao

#

The image that is

#

Also saying let it be a function with that property is weird

#

There is exactly one function with that property

#

The answer is trivially no because the map is not surjective

#

Hmm

#

If your group is commutative this is true

#

But that's not saying much

#

(well assuming you disregard the trivial counterexample of empty fiber)

#

Cause if it's commutative the map on XxY is a homomorphism

#

Hey @mild laurel

#

Any thoughts?

latent anvil
#

What if we consider the action of XΓ—Y on im f = XY?

#

It's transitive

woven delta
#

I'm not so sure it is a well defined action

#

Cause of the way multiplication works in XxY

latent anvil
#

It is. (x, y)z = xzy^(-1)

woven delta
#

Oh ok

latent anvil
#

You can use this action + orbit stabilizer to prove |XY| = |X|*|Y|/|X\cap Y|

woven delta
#

This is now looking a whole lot like Zappa szep lmao

latent anvil
#

By which I mean I did that on my homework thus week lol

woven delta
#

Oh ok

latent anvil
#

If the fibers are all in bijection, they have to have the same size as the fiber of e, which is |X \cap Y|

#

The fiber of z in XY is the same as the set of (x, y) such that (x, y) β€’ 1 = z

#

I think this implies it

#

Let G act transitively on S. For elements s, t of S, define G(s, t) = { g in G : g β€’ s = t }. We show all G(s, t) are in bijection. Since the action is transitive, for each s, t we have an element Ο„_{s, t} of G(s, t). Note that taking inverses gives a bijection between G(s, t) and G(t, s). Thus it suffices to show G(s, t) and G(s, s) = Stab(s) are in bijection. Define f : Stab(s) -> G(s, t) by f(g) = Ο„_{s, t} g

#

Really what's going on is that a transitive action gives us a groupoid where all objects are isomorphic

#

Anyways this should prove that the nonempty fibers of that function are all in bijection

#

@meager flint i made a couple reductions but it should work

meager flint
#

@latent anvil thank you, for real

latent anvil
#

Np

#

Where did this come up?

#

Oh here's a much simpler proof

#

Suppose a in X and b in Y. Then

f^(-1)(ab) =
{ (x, y) in XΓ—Y : xy = ab } =
{ (x, y) in XΓ—Y : a^(-1)x = by^(-1) } =
{ (x, y) in XΓ—Y : exists s in X\cap Y. s = a^(-1)x and s = by^(-1) }
{ (as, bs^(-1)) : s in X\cap Y }
#

This last set has the same size as X\cap Y

meager flint
#

Algebra class, studying for an exam

#

Asked to prove that |XY|=|X||Y|/X\capY|

#

I had assumed that bit and proved the claim, but I was stuck on how to do this part

latent anvil
#

Do you know the orbit stabilizer theorem?

#

There's a much nicer proof in terms of group actions

meager flint
#

After googling it yes lol

#

Didn't know about group actions

latent anvil
#

Ah, they're pretty great

#

One of the most important things about groups, possibly the most important

#

You have an action of XΓ—Y on XY by (x, y)β€’z = x z y^(-1). The orbit of 1 under this action is all of XY, since you can get from 1 to any z = ab by (a, b^(-1))β€’1 = z, and so the orbit stabilizer theorem says |XY| = |XΓ—Y|/|Stab(1)|. But Stab(1) = { (x, y) : xy^(-1) = 1 } is the set { (a, a) : a in X\cap Y }, and so it has the same size as X\cap Y. Thus |XY| = |XΓ—Y|/|Stab(1)| = |X||Y|/|X\cap Y|

gentle ibex
#

I'm relatively new to the concept of abstract algebra.. and I have a question about whether or not the law of annihilation (a*0=0) holds for all rings, or only holds in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?

#

I understand the proof for the law of annihilation using additive cancellation law, but that's not a ring law, so I don't see how it can hold for all rings...? But also don't understand why it would only hold in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?

stone forum
#

a= a*1=a*(1+0)=a*1 + a*0=a+ a*0

#

subtract a from both sides, you get a*0 = 0

gentle ibex
#

Yes, but that's just using the additive cancellation law, right?

stone forum
#

" But also don't understand why it would only hold in rings that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law"

#

it doesn't have to satisfy multiplicative cancellation law

#

additive cancellation is one of the axioms, yes

#

for every a there is a -a such that a+ (-a)=0

gentle ibex
#

My main question is... does the law of annihilation hold in all rings or only those that satisfy the multiplicative cancellation law?

stone forum
#

all rings

gentle ibex
#

Why's that? The additive cancellation law isn't a ring law, is it?

stone forum
#

those which satisfy multiplicative cancellation law are called integral domains

#

it follows from the ring laws

gentle ibex
#

oh ok

#

So you can prove the additive cancellation law using ring laws?

#

I thought you proved the annihilation law

stone forum
#

a+b=a+c

#

(-a)+ a+b = (-a) + a + c

#

b=c

gentle ibex
#

Right, that seems very obvious, thank you haha

#

I see now

#

So you can say that you prove the additive cancellation law using ring laws... and therefore you can prove the law of annihilation using ring laws (via the additive cancellation law) and thus the law of annihilation holds for all rings?

stone forum
#

yes

gentle ibex
#

Thank you so much! Sorry if it seemed so trivial!

#

I just have one other question... I'm aware of the proof of the statement "if ab=0 then either a=0 or b=0" using multiplicative inverses, but can you prove this just using the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication?

stone forum
#

no

#

that's independent of ring axioms

gentle ibex
#

sorry I edited my question

stone forum
#

rings which satisfy it are called integral domains

#

rings which satisfy cancellation law for multiplication the same as those which satisfy your property

#

they're called integral domains

#

it's a good exercise to prove their equivalence

gentle ibex
#

So you can't prove "if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0" using the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication?

stone forum
#

no

#

for example Z/6Z doesn't satisfy this

#

2*3=0

#

but neither 2 nor 3 is 0

#

but it's still a ring

#

satisfies all the ring axioms

gentle ibex
#

I see

#

I am being asked to prove it using just these laws though... which is why I am very confused.. because I understand how to do it if they asked for field laws but not ring laws..

stone forum
#

perhaps you misunderstood the question?

#

because you can't prove it

gentle ibex
#

Is derive different to prove?

#

In this context?

stone forum
#

means the same thing

#

prove= derive= demonstrate=convince etc etc

gentle ibex
#

Because it's saying to use the ring laws and the cancellation law for multiplication to derive "if a*b=0 then a=0 or b=0"

stone forum
#

oh you can do that

#

you have an additional axiom

#

law of cancellation implies this for rings

#

in fact, as I said before, they're equivalent conditions

#

one proves another and vice versa

gentle ibex
#

What are equivalent conditions, sorry? I didn't 100% understand before

stone forum
#

A and B are equivalent if A implies B and B implies A

#

they're logically the same thing

gentle ibex
#

How does the law of cancellation imply this for rings?

#

(multiplicative cancellation)

stone forum
#

what does law of cancellation say

#

write it out explicitly

gentle ibex
#

If ac=bc and c != 0 then a=b

stone forum
#

ok

#

now use this to prove that if ab=0 then a or b=0

#

it's not that hard

gentle ibex
#

I don't know how to word it

#

if a = 0 then ab=0

#

if a != 0 then b = 0

stone forum
#

ok

gentle ibex
#

But that's not a real derivation, is it?

stone forum
#

if a != 0 then b = 0

#

how does that follow?

#

this is what you want to prove

#

now prove it

gentle ibex
#

I know how to prove it using multiplicative inverses, but you can't use them, as I'm just allowed to use ring laws and multiplicative cancellation law, no?

#

If I were to prove it using multiplicative inverses, you could say a has a multiplicative inverse a^-1 where a*a^-1 = 1

#

and a^-1 * ab = a^-1 * 0

#

using associativity of multiplication you can say (a^-1*a) * b = a^-1 * 0

#

so 1 * b = a^-1 * 0

#

b = a^-1 * 0

#

b = 0

#

Using the law of annihilation at the end

stone forum
#

you don't have multiplicative inverses

gentle ibex
#

Exactly, which is why I don't know what to do :L

stone forum
#

use ab=ac and a!=0 => b=c

#

you need to get it into this form

#

put in the correct letters and numbers

gentle ibex
#

0 = ac and a!=0

#

so c must be 0?

#

therefore b=0 since b=c?

stone forum
#

what's b

gentle ibex
#

b=c

stone forum
#

ok

#

i dont understand you

gentle ibex
#

I don't understand me either

stone forum
#

Assume ab=0 and a!=0

#

you want to prove that b=0

gentle ibex
#

yes

stone forum
#

hint: ab=a*0

gentle ibex
#

and using multiplicative cancellation, b=0?

#

is that sufficient to say?

stone forum
#

correct

#

just mention that this is because a!=0

#

one of the conditions for multiplicative cancellation

gentle ibex
#

Right, ok.

stone forum
#

🐡

gentle ibex
#

So if I were to write this out as an explicit proof... "Prove that if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0 using ring laws & multiplicative cancellation law":

  • if a=0 then by law of annihilation we are done as a * b = 0 * b = 0
  • if a!=0 - this is the condition for multiplicative cancellation law - then if ab=0, ab=a*0, so b=0 (by multiplicative cancellation)
stone forum
#

you don't need to consider the case a=0

#

because then it's already proved

#

there's nothing more to say

#

you want to prove that either a=0 or b=0

#

you see what I mean?

gentle ibex
#

ok

#

Is it not good practice to distinguish the two though?

stone forum
#

distinguish what

gentle ibex
#

when a=0 and when a!=0

stone forum
#

you can, but just say if a=0 the theorem is proved

gentle ibex
#

ok

stone forum
#

or you could leave it implicit

gentle ibex
#

gotcha

stone forum
#

don't mention it at all

gentle ibex
#

Thanks so much for the help πŸ™‚

stone forum
#

but better mention it if you're a beginner

#

no problem

gentle ibex
#

πŸ‘

stone forum
#

donate to my patreon

gentle ibex
#

Where?

stone forum
#

that was a joke

gentle ibex
#

πŸ˜†

#

Hey, 1 last thing

#

You gave this example:

#

"for example Z/6Z doesn't satisfy this
2*3=0
but neither 2 nor 3 is 0
but it's still a ring
satisfies all the ring axioms"

#

If this is true, how can I have just proven the statement if ab=0 then a=0 or b=0?

#

Is it because I used the multiplicative cancellation law also?

stone forum
#

yes

gentle ibex
#

And that is not a ring law?

stone forum
#

Z/6Z doesn't satisfy multiplicative cancellation

#

so no

#

it's not a ring low

gentle ibex
#

πŸ‘Œ Thanks πŸ™‚

stone forum
#

multiplicative cancellation and ab=0 => a or b=0 are equivalent

gentle ibex
#

I see

stone forum
#

rings which satisfy the condition are called integral domains

#

Z/6Z is not an integral domain

gentle ibex
#

Why say "use the ring laws" as well then?

stone forum
#

Z is

#

because you're working with rings

#

you can't prove the equivalence without using ring laws

gentle ibex
#

Which equivalence?

#

Sorry if that's stupid I know you've said it a lot

#

but I don't understand exactly what equivalence you are referencing to

stone forum
#

(if a!=0 and ab=ac, then b=c) <=> (if ab=0, then a=0 or b=0)

#

the conditions in parentheses are equivalent

#

for any given ring

#

one implies the other and vice versa

gentle ibex
#

ok

#

what ring laws do you use to show this equivalence?

#

Is it the annihilation law?

#

because you can say ab=a*0=0

#

Because I understand the annihilation law is essentially a derived ring law from additive inverse

stone forum
#

yes

#

that's one direction of the equivalence

#

"Because I understand the annihilation law is essentially a derived ring law from additive inverse
"

#

no

gentle ibex
#

Why not?

stone forum
#

consider Z[X]

#

polynomial ring

#

it doesn't have inverses

#

yet it's a domain

gentle ibex
#

I thought you said (-a) + a + c = (-a) + a + b so b=c

stone forum
#

ohhh

#

sorry

#

misread you

#

yeah yeah

gentle ibex
#

that's proving additive cancellation law

stone forum
#

you're right

gentle ibex
#

then use that to prove annihilation law

#

ok

stone forum
#

disregard what i said

gentle ibex
#

phew haha

#

I thought I had lost it o-o

stone forum
#

thought you said multiplicative inverses

gentle ibex
#

nono dw

stone forum
#

it's late

#

im getting tired

gentle ibex
#

ikr same

#

I should look at this in the morning. Thanks so much for the help again. I'll review it all in the morning when it'll hopefully make a lot more sense

#

I've only been studying abstract algebra for a couple of days :l

latent anvil
#

Suppose N_G(P) = N_G(Q) for all sylows P, Q. Can there be more than one sylow subgroup?

woven delta
#

No

#

@latent anvil there is exactly one p sylow subgroup iff the subgroup is normal

latent anvil
#

Yee

#

Oh look at the sylows of the normalizer

woven delta
#

Yeah

latent anvil
#

Cool, ty

#

This gives a proof of "sylows normal" from "Z(G/Z(G)) = G/Z(G)" without using the big nilpotent group equivalence

#

Since G/Z(G) abelian implies Inn(G) abelian implies that for any sylows P, Q = gPg^(-1), and x in N_G(P), xQx^(-1) = x(gPg^(-1))x^(-1) = g(xPx^(-1))g^(-1) = gPg^(-1) = Q, so N_G(P) <= N_G(Q), and since this holds for all sylows P, Q there's only one normalizer

woven delta
#

Hmm

#

I agree

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But I think Inn(G) abelian is a pretty strong condition anyway

latent anvil
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It is

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It says you're a product of p-groups P satisfying P' <= Z(P) (not for the same p)

woven delta
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Oh lmao

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You're right

latent anvil
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My friend is working through a paper on the probability that two randomly chosen elements of a finite group commute, and this came up

woven delta
#

That seems like a pretty hard problem

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Is it a ggt paper?

latent anvil
#

It is. The 5/8 bound is easy enough that it's on a homework set for the algebra class I run, but apparently you can establish a lot more

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No I don't think so, just a lot of finite group theory

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"the main insight is: (probability of two elements commuting) = (number of conjugacy classes)/|G| = (number of irreducible characters)/|G|
and the sum of the squares of the degrees of the irreducible characters is |G|
and the number of degree 1 characters is the size of the abelianization G/[G,G]
if you combine that all together (page number 244), you get a relation between the probability and the size of the derived group [G,G]"

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Somehow it's just impossible to get between 7/16ths and 1/2

woven delta
#

Wow

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That's pretty fucking weird

latent anvil
#

Ikr

latent anvil
#

Can I check a commutative algebra thing?

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Suppose f is a polynomial in x1,...,xn,y over a field k. Further suppose f is monic in y, so monic if you think of it as an element of k[x1,...,xn][y]. Then for any polynomial g in k[x1,...,xn,y], there are polynomials q, r in k[x1,...,xn,y] such that g = qf + r and deg_y r < deg_y f. You can prove this by doing division with remainder in k(x1,...,xn)[y] to get q, r which are rational functions in x1,...,xn, do induction on deg_y q to prove it is a polynomial, and then write r = g - qf to conclude it is also a polynomial

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Does that sounds plausible?

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I wrote it out on a whiteboard but feel uncomfortable with it

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This is part of the proof of the noether normalization lemma but my book just says "by polynomial long division"

wind steeple
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forget about polynomial

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in a ring A

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a polynomial f in A[y]

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you can do euclidean division by f if f is monic

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you can proove like the proof you wrote

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and it's less weird since you consider only elements of a ring A

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since k[x1,...,xn] is a ring, it works

latent anvil
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Oh cool

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Does A need to be an integral domain (so you can take the field of fractions)?

latent anvil
#

More commutative algebra that I'm not seeing

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Suppose A is a finitely generated k-module and also an algebra over k. Then there are finitely many maximal ideals of A

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Anybody have any insight here?

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for k a field (algebraically closed if it matters)

latent anvil
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I think I see how to prove it

stone forum
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how did you prove it? @latent anvil

latent anvil
#

Okay well keep in mind I said I think I see how to prove it

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Not that I did prove it for sure

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I need to write it out more clearly, every time I think about it I get twisted around. It's equivalent to say that for any ideal I of k[x1,...,xn], if the subset Z(I) of affine n-space is infinite then k[x1,...,xn]/I is infinite dimensional over k. Then(?) for some j there are infinitely many a in k such that (xj - a) intersects I nontrivially. Then(?) the map k[t] -> k[x1,...,xn]/I sending t to xj has a big image

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Obviously this isn't rigorous

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I might need to handle I = 0 separately

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sorry if this is totally wrong lol

latent anvil
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I can prove that for any I as above, there is some j such that either Z(xj - a) \cap Z(I) is infinite for some a in k, or that Z(xj - a) \cap Z(I) is nonempty for infinitely many a in k

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In the first case, I think I can do induction on n (the dimension of the ambient space)?

latent anvil
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🎊 🎊 🎊 🎊 🎊

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my idea was basically right

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@stone forum sorry it took 3 hours to actually put into words

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way simpler proof:

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oops, that should say Gamma(X) -> Gamma(X)/\bigcap_{n=0}^N I_n

wind steeple
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I don't see why A needs to be an integral domain here but I remember a condition like this on a @latent anvil

latent anvil
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I'm not sure how you could pass to the field of fractions otherwise

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I don't understand localization in non-integral domains super well

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Oh, I think it still works

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since A is a f.g. k-algebra, you have A = k[x1, ..., xn]/I. Given a monic f in A[y], you can lift it to a monic f' in k[x1, ..., xn][y], and then given g in A[y] lift it similarly and do long division in k[x1,...,xn][y]

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wait no this only works for an A which is a finitely generated algebra over a field. I forgot other kinds of rings exist lmao

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I think you can drop the finitely generated assumption, since you can write A as a quotient of some really big polynomial ring, and when you want to divide g by f, there can only be finitely many variables mentioned in f and g, so you can do the long division in the subring generated by those variables

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so this works for all A which contain a field as a subring

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I think this will work for any quotient of an integral domain actually

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is every ring a quotient of an integral domain?

brisk granite
#

Given $G \trianglerighteq K \trianglerighteq H$, how would I show $(G/H)/(K/H) \cong G/K$

cloud walrusBOT
brisk granite
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I think this is one of the isomorphism theorems, but I don't know which one

wind steeple
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@latent anvil no it works for arbitrary unitary ring A

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Just by induction

mild laurel
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Second isomorphism theorem I think it's usually called @brisk granite

wind steeple
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@brisk granite just write the diagram down and check that the only morphism you can define works

brisk granite
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uh, the diagram? Edit: got it, thx

latent anvil
#

@wind steeple by induction on what?

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Oh the degree of the polynomial, just like how you prove F[x] is a Euclidean domain

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I was trying to reduce to the case of a field

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I forgot you can just prove things lmao

wind steeple
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On the degree

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Yes

brisk granite
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If Ik a group is solvable, do I know it has a composition series that is a solvable series?

hot lake
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only for finite groups

brisk granite
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oh, could you explain why?

hot lake
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because some infinite abelian groups don't have a finite composition series

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and iirc composition series have to be finite

brisk granite
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why does it hold for the finite case tho?

hot lake
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because every finite abelian group has a finite composition series

fading wagon
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is finitely generated sufficient?

hot lake
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hmm probably

#

yeah it should work with finitely generated groups

chilly ocean
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Hello, I am trying to prove that this integral defines an inner product in the space of second degree polynomials

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I am having issues with one of the axioms, <x,x> >=0 for all x belonging to P2

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I tried the following

fading wagon
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try substituting in f, f?

chilly ocean
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i did

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I must have done something wrong somewhere

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(my prof told me that when i have integrals from -1 to 1 i can just get rid of the odd degree polynomial expressions)

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(Im pretty sure id get the same results if i didnt do that so dw about it)

cloud walrusBOT
chilly ocean
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Can I just say that's always greater or equal to zero? i'm legitimately not sure which is why i developed it

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sorry if its obvious πŸ˜›

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Oooh, I realize now that is true when i look it up

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For real valued functions

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Ok, yeah, that's fair lol

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is non negative, is the defined integral from -1 to 1 also necessarily non negative?

queen vine
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Yes this is because of the monotonicity property of the integral, i.e. for functions $f\leq g$ you have $\int_{-1}^{1} f(x)dx\leq \int_{-1}^{1}g(x)dx$

cloud walrusBOT
kindred compass
chilly ocean
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Thank you @queen vine

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I'm so rusty on calculus

queen vine
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πŸ™‚

cloud walrusBOT
kindred compass
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I thought the kernel is the set of r(x) in F(x)/(f(x)) such that r(alpha) = 0..

brisk granite
cloud walrusBOT
brisk granite
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nvm, the sylow p subgroup would be G/H. but wouldn't Z(G/H) also be normal in G/H?

faint elm
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Yes, center is always normal subgroup

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Let $M$ be a flat module, and let $ 0 \rightarrow X \rightarrow Y \rightarrow M \rightarrow 0$ be an exact sequence. The for every module $N$ we have that $0 -> N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y \rightarrow N \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is an exact sequence

cloud walrusBOT
faint elm
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Do you have any hints?

little folio
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imagine it's not exact. what's the first term on the left?

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@faint elm

faint elm
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Ok so there exists a module $N$ s.t. $0 \rightarrow N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y \rightarrow N \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is not exact, this means that $N \otimes X \rightarrow N \otimes Y$ isn't injective. Right?

cloud walrusBOT
little folio
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how much homological algebra have you seen? I am assuming you are familiar with the left derived functors of the tensor product

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the point is you have a long exact sequence including the Tor groups

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and the first term on the left is gonna be Tor(M,N)

faint elm
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No, I've seen no derived functors so far. I just know basic commutative algebra, like first 2 chapters of atiyah

little folio
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ah

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that's the problem

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you might wanna read it from dummit & foote

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10.5 and 17.1

faint elm
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I'll take a read thank you. Do you think it's impossible to answer without derived functors? The question is of the first week of the course and we covered just the first two chapters of atiyah

little folio
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no, it's not impossible, surely you don't need all the machinery

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but even the exercises on A&M ch 2 assume familiarity with tor

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and it's good for you to learn tor and ext soon rather than later

#

what you would have to do is chase the connecting homomorphism Tor_1(M,N) -> NxX -> NxY -> NxM -> 0

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and prove that Tor_1(M,N) = 0

faint elm
#

I know Tor functor btw

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Ok thank you

little folio
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derived functor is a scary name but it's just knowing what Tor is

faint elm
#

Ah, ok

faint elm
#

Let $ A = \mathbb{C}[x,y]$. I want to find an $A$ module which is torsion free, finitely generated but is not flat. I think $M = A/(xy-1)$ should be fine, it's torsion free since if $pq \in (xy-1)$ then $xy-1$ is a factor of $p$ or $q$, it is generated by $1, x, y$ and it's not flat bc if you consider $0 \rightarrow (xy-1) \rightarrow A \rightarrow M \rightarrow 0$ then $0 \rightarrow (xy-1) \otimes M \rightarrow A \otimes M \rightarrow M \otimes M \rightarrow 0$ is not exact since $(xy-1) \otimes M = 0$. Do you agree?

cloud walrusBOT
latent anvil
#

I don't agree. (xy-1) (Γ—) M -> A (Γ—) M -> M (Γ—) M -> 0 is exact by right exactness of tensor product, so 0 -> A (Γ—) M -> M (Γ—) M -> 0 is exact. You can stick a zero to the left and it stays exact

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I might be wrong

faint elm
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Maybe you are right

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Let's see if I can fix it

latent anvil
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Is A/(y^2 - x^3) flat?

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I don't actually know the geometrical interpretation of flatness

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I know it's important

little folio
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yeah the problem is that your sequence is exact anyway because (xy-1)xM is 0

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so Tor(M,M) never comes into play

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i think A/(y^2 - x^3) is flat

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so finitely generated projective = finitely presented flat

little folio
#

but I believe A/(xy - 1) is flat too

faint elm
#

Yeah you're right guys

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Maybe there is something more simple

faint elm
#

Anyway @Flopp, for the previous question: let $N$ be a module, then is the quotient of a free module $L$, say $N = L/K$, so let's consider the short exact sequence $0 \to K \to L \to N \to 0$ and let $0 \to X \to Y \to M \to 0$ be an exact sequence, where $M$ is flat. Now we tensorize this sequence with every factor of the first one.

cloud walrusBOT
faint elm
#

So you get something like this

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\begin{tikzcd}
& & & & & 0 & & \
& & & & & \downarrow & & \
& K \otimes X & \rightarrow & K \otimes Y & \rightarrow & K \otimes M & \rightarrow & 0 \
& \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \
\rightarrow & L \otimes X & \rightarrow & L\otimes Y & \rightarrow & L \otimes M & \rightarrow & \
& \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \downarrow & & \
& N \otimes X & \rightarrow & N \otimes Y & \rightarrow & N \otimes M & & \
& & & & & \downarrow & & \
& & & & & 0 & &
\end{tikzcd}

cloud walrusBOT
faint elm
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First two rows satisfy snake lemma and from that we have the thesis

faint elm
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As for as the torsion free f.g. module which is not flat, how about $M = \mathbb{C}[x,y]/(x,y)$, if we take $ p = (x)$ we got $M_p = 0$ and so it's not flat for the result on MO

cloud walrusBOT
faint elm
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Wha do you say?