#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ยท Page 444 of 407
how many elements has F_2^3?
I think it is better to count subspaces of F_p^n directly, take any non-zero element (p^n -1) and then you have to remove all (non-zero) F_p mutiples of that
in F_3^2, you have the space given by (1,0). But it also contains (2,0)
so every vector subspace contains 2 elements (ignore for a second the 0)
Since all subspaces contain the same ammount of elements
just divide the number of non-zero elements in the field by that number
i.e. (9-1) / 2
so in my case its (0,0,0) , (1,0,0) and so on
ah yes so 7
yup
yup
the entire space is the only space of dimention 3
you are missing 2-dimentional subspaces yet
so the ones in xy xz and yz
you can convince yourself that there are 7
it is because to determine a plane you need an equation ax + by + cz = 0, and you count possible a,b,c
oh ye its any plane that could be made
not just yz xz and xy
so this means there are 16 possible subspaces
thank you my friend for the help
Follow up question from my inquiry yesterday. Say that I have have two ideals of a commutative ring A with identity. Let's call them I and J. Assume that J does not contain I. I know that if J DID contain I, then f(J) would be an ideal in A/I, where f: A to A/I is a ring homomorphism. Now, since J does not contain I, can we say that f(J) is not an ideal in A/I or do we not know enough? If it's not an ideal in A/I, how would one prove that (preferably from the definitions if possible as this is towards the beginning of the course for me)?
Be careful of saying that f is just a ring homomorphism
There are usually many ring homomorphisms from A to A/I
The one you care about when you say these types of things is the natural surjection from A to A/I
Yes, that's what I ment. f(a)=a+I where a in A
If J is contained in I, f(J)={0} so this is an ideal
If J is arbitrary ideal, f(J) is an ideal bc f is surjective
Hmmm. If A = Z and I = 3Z and J=5Z. Then I is not in J but 5Z is not an ideal in Z/3Z, right?
Well, I guess most ideals just becomes the whole of A/I
which is technically an ideal
It is an ideal
5 gets mapped to 2, 10 gets mapped to 1, 15 gets mapped to 0
So it's all of Z/3Z
Thanks. I've been thinking about this a bit wrong.
to prove that $\varphi$ is a homomorphism do I just test all possible pairs? or is there a better way
EpicGuy4227:
Do it in terms of the generators
All right, so max plus algebra is a real party
Just did some reading on it because a friend is taking a class in it. Anyone have some additional resources on further study?
Are you talking about abstract algebra?
I would argue that of the threads available, then max plus algebra, or as its sometimes called max tropical semiring, would fit into this subject best.
Honeabear:
i'm trying to learn the Pythagoras's table of a set E and i'm confused on how i can deduce the properties of my Binary operation
i can only tell if it's commutative or not
for example this is a commutative binary operation.
OOHH I didn't know we can check that from the table
what about invertible elements ?
I mean we can't really
Or at least
We can by just check a * (b * c) = (a * b) * c for all triples a,b,c
i guess that can be easily done if the elements give as a result the identity
But that's super hard
You can check for associativity
Both in the way I just described
And in the link I posted
Commutivity is just much more straight forward to check for
Inverses can be done in the way you describe
But you have to actually confirm that you have an identity element first
yeah ofc
no other sneaky way ?
i just liked how commutative is so easy to check for
gonna check for associativity if i can get my head around it
Thanks !!!
Yeah, it's mostly because the table is binary
So checking a binary property like commutivity, or identity element is pretty straightforward
If you had a 3D table that gave you a * (b * c) and (a * b) * c for all elements a,b,c , then associativity would be easy to check for too
Associativity is hard
See elliptic curves
You usually prove associativity because of function composition tbh
Thanks !!!! will check
yeeeh that method is hard :((((
i haven't even fully grasped it yet
i have f being this :
and i have a group G
i need to prove that f is a morphism iff G is an abelian group (commutative)
now i've done the morphism part, and i think that f is also an endomorphism
but i'm stuck in the commutative part
can i say that xยฒ=e
?
scratch that, new idea can i say this : $xy=f(f(x)f(y))=((x^{-1}y^{-1})^{-1}=(y^{-1})^{-1}(x^{-1})^{-1}=yx$ ?
life > Random:
what are you actually trying to show? an endomorphism is by definition a homomorphism f: G -> G, and you already know that your function is a homomorphism?
no i need to show that f is a morphism if and only if G is commutative
but you said you have done that?
no i said i've done the morphism part
aka i still need to show that if f is a morphism then G is commutative
i'm pretty sure my proof is right
i just need confirmation
Eyyy thanks !!
Who knew Bernie Sanders was that good at Abstract Algebra!?
What you mean ? @cobalt pilot
who's bernie
Might have sent him to gulag
never know
shh
i have this problem : let G be a finite set with * an associative binary operation. we suppose that every element is regular in G show that G is a group
can i use two different function to solve this ?
or do they have to be the same
regular means that $xa=xb \implies a=b$ and $ax=bx \implies a=b$
life > Random:
is there anyone here who is proficient with GAP?
@static robin To show it's a group the best bet is to show it satisfies the group axioms. That's it contains an identity, inverse for all elements and the operation is associative (which is given).
Not really sure what you mean by functions tho here.
And ofcourse, closure.
is there a galois theory study group going on rn?
this channel always has some of those stuffs
@idle horizon i can use the following function to prove it :
@bitter mauve yeah there is
$f:\bbN \to \bbR$ with $f(n)=x^{n}$
Iosif Stalin:
@fading wagon there is?
What?
"Algebraic Number Theory Reading Group" I guess
That's not really galois theory
I guess
I need to prove that the product of every nonzero element in the field $\bbZ / p \bbZ$ is -1. Its clear that $p-1$ and $1$ are their own inverses, but how do you know that there aren't other elements with order 2 as well?
kxrider:
Why is it a problem if there are other elements with order 2?
Oh that's clever actually
zopherus, if a and b are two more elements with order two on top of p-1 and 1, then the product of every element would be -ab. The only way that could be -1 is if a and b are inverses of each other.
Either x+1 or x-1 is zero?
hm how so?
You can show a cyclic group has at most one element of order 2
Because Z_n is an integral domain iff it's a field
(well, finite commutative rings are integral domains iff fields)
Yeah idk, using the fact that x^2 = 1 implies that (x + 1)(x-1) = 0 is a lot more than you need to use here I think
That's true, it's just nice
You don't need the entire ring structure of Z/pZ, you only really need the multiplicative group structure
I guess the standard stuff is you pair up 1 and p-1 and 2 and p-2 and so on
p-1 is even so that's good
Hm? You pair up every element with its inverse
its says to solve the problem by pairing up elements with their inverses, but I still have the confusion that i mentioned earlier
@thorn delta There's really no problem
kx, the hint that Element gave was really good
Who cares if you have more than one element of order two
Okay this is a lie maybe you do care
i know i understand elements proof. im just curious what y'all are thinking about.
Lmao I shouldn't be thinking about math right after I wake up
Yeah, I think you actually have to state that Z/pZ^* is cyclic
I make dumb mistakes
So it can have at most one element of order 2
it has two elements of order two tho 
You don't
err would you say 1 has order 2?
I think I had to prove a more general version of this fact
No
The order is minimal
The usage of order is pretty bad tbh
People use it either way pretty often
But yeah, I mean strict order 2
im trying to think why cyclic groups have at most one element of order 2. I feel like I've proven that before but uhhmm can't quite remember.
if a is a generator, and b^m = 1 for some b = a^n, then we have that the order of a divides mn...
nah i don't think that would help 
if a is a generator and b^2=1 with b!=1, we have b=a^k for some 0<k<n, so a^(2k)=1. But then 2k has to be a multiple of n and since 0<k<n we have that 2k=n, so there is exactly one element of order 2 (b=a^(n/2)) if n is even and none if n is odd. In general there are phi(d) elements of order d if d|n.
Giving out answers isn't how you help people learn
How could I find the number of roots of a permutation of a given cycle signature. For example, if I have 3 5cycles in S15?
So for example if a^2=(12345)(678910)(1112131415) what would be examples of a? Or how would I go about finding the number of aโs?
a^2 is a composed with a
I know that if you have 1 15cycle you can find a root by jumping over elements so for example the root of (12345) in S5 is just (15234)
Well for your first example
What happens if you find the root of each cycle separately and then combine them?
Hmm, well maybe I should try the simple example of just S5 and then try disjoin in S15, so how many roots in S5 for an arbitrary permutation
Just 1 right?
Depends on how long the cycle is
Tfw your first day of graduate algebra doesn't cover category theory ๐
Disgusting
Lol my AG prof last class was like yeah you guys seem to like categories and universal properties a little bit too much
Apparently my first AG lecture had the prof talk about how great universal properties are
I had a one time TA obligation and am sad I missed it :(
Algebra was just: groups exist, as do homomorphisms, automorphisms, the cyclic groups, etc...
Nothing interesting yet
Manifolds was pretty cool just because Jack Lee seems fun. Mostly high level stuff about why we would care about manifolds and not embedding them
Wanted to share something I thought was neat
In my ring theory class, in the first week of polynomial rings, we had the problem to show K[x, y]/(xy) and K[x] ร K[y] are not isomorphic
My solution at the time was something nasty involving looking at the zero divisors and computing some products or powers of polynomials
But now after a summer of AG, I can see a really geometrical proof
Spec is a functor, so it sends isomorphic rings to homeomorphic spaces. Thus it suffices to show that Spec (K[x, y]/(xy)) and Spec (K[x] ร K[y]) are distinct
By a problem in Hartshorne I did, the spectrum of a product is disconnected (this part is easy on its own), so it suffices to show that Spec (K[x, y]/(xy)) isn't disconnected
This should be intuitive, since it's the coordinate axes
Suppose we had a disconnection of Spec(K[x, y]/(xy)), say by disjoint nonempty closed sets C = V(I), D = V(J). Then wlog (x) is in C, and this implies (y) is in D, since if (x) and (y) were in C, then for any P in the spectrum, since x*y = 0 is in P, either x or y is, so I <= (x) <= P or I <= (y) <= P. This would imply C was the whole space, so it's not disjoint from D.
Thus (x) is in C and (y) in D. But then I <= (x) <= (x, y) and J <= (y) <= (x, y). Then (x, y) is prime as its maximal, and so C and D share a point, a contradiction
Let G be a set with an associative binary operation with :
Show that G is a group
so i need to show that there is an identity
and prove it's uniqueness
and then show that every element is invertible.
i got this so fat
far*
$a=ax=ya$ and $b=bx'=by'$ so existence is automatic ?
Iosif Stalin:
$ab=abxx'=yy'ab$
Iosif Stalin:
idk how to show the uniqness and the invertible elements :((
K[x,y]/(xy) isn't an integral domain while K[x]xK[y] is, isn't it ? @latent anvil
@wind steeple nope, (0,1)*(1,0) = (0,0)
Ups
Wait, you're taking manifolds with Jack Lee? @latent anvil
I forgot he was at UW
I thought you just meant using his book
Oh wow he's a lot older than I thought
To show that for $n \ge 5$, $A_n$ is the only subgroup of N such that $|S_n/G| \le n$, why can we conclude that from the kernel being $A_n$?
Victoria:
@fringe nexus I suppose because A_n is a maximal subgroup?
@fringe nexus didn't they consider the case k=n anyway?
not sure if this is more algebra or number theory, but am reading diamond and shurman's first course on modular forms and was wondering if someone else here has been through it
thinking i might just skip chapter 4 or at least very quickly skim it since it seems mostly independent of the later sections and i don't care so much for analytic number theory in general
It's something I'd like to go through in the future
it is super duper cool, the first two chapters are easy but chapter three (which i just finished) is much more dense
i would recommend u be really comfortable with complex analysis and have had a course or two in algebra (not necessarily number theory, but it would help too)
Right now I'm doing a reading group on Silverman's Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves
But yeah hopefully the next thing will be Diamond and Shurman
I am not smart
silverman's books are so hard ๐ค๐๐ค
This was about a flat modules thingy
I got confused because I thought I verified a certain sequence of tensor products was exact
When it isn't in general
I verified it's exact in the middle...which it always is because the tensor product is right exact
I sense a new theorem: If Zopherus studies analytic number theory then anyone else can as well.
Not quite sure how to prove it though
It's a pretty trivial proof honestly
I'm an idiot so anyone else can do it too
Qed
yeah you're the biggest idiot i know
it's a matter of class
yeah i don't really know anything about classes in set theory either

i should register for jmm

what
No place in this discord for math memes?
QuickMaffs:
Think about how ฯ_bar is defined, i.e. about what is ฯ_bar(xN) for each coset.
Then suppose xN=yN, and see why ฯ_bar is independent from the representant
Oh okay, I will try that then
Oh I get the point, that is how it is defined. That is ฯ_bar should sent each fibre to its image that if xN = yN then phi(x) = phi(y)
You'll see that the equivalence relation induced by the kernel of an homomorphism corresponds to the equivalence relation induced by the homomorphism by xRy iff f(x)=f(y)
What shamrock is saying basically, which is an if and only if
@latent anvil I think yeah since $xy^{-1} \in N \implies \phi(xy^{-1}) = \phi(1) \implies \phi(x) = \phi(y)$ since $N$ is the kernal
Yeah, that's exactly it
QuickMaffs:
And that tells you the map is well defined
The point Mat is making is good though
Do you understand how normal subgroups and quotients relate to equivalence relations and quotients of sets?
Yes since the quotient is basically the cosets of a normal subgroup
Yup. The point is that when that normal subgroup is the kernel of ฯ, the equivalence relation it induces on G is exactly the same as ฯ(x) = ฯ(y)
And cosets are basically the partition of a group which is defined by an equivalence relation
OHHHHH
Thanksss!!!!!!!
And thats why the quotient group is also isomorphic to the image of a homomorphism whose kernel is N
You should've seen at some point that every equivalence relation on a set X is of the form x ~ y iff f(x) = f(y) for some f : X -> Y
Right?
Indeed
Well when we try and generalize equivalence relations to groups, we run into problems (the equivalence relation might not respect the group structure)
So the right kind of equivalence relations to consider are the ones of that form for f : G -> H a group homomorphism
And what we were just discussing is that this perspective is the same as the one with normal subgroups
So basically relations that are equivalent relations and also respect the composition law?
Yeah, pretty much
And if you have such a relation ~ on G, the set { g in G : g ~ 1 } is a subgroup of G
(and it's normal!)
Algebra: Chapter 0 has a good discussion of this imo
So are all normal groups of this form?
Yup
Given N, take ~ to be the relation x ~ y iff xy^(-1) in N
Or equivalently (by normality) x^(-1)y in N
So what can I say about K and N, if they are both normal, according to this? K=N? K isomorphic to N?
The interesting thing is that this sort of explains the definition of a normal subgroup. If you take an equivalence relation and impose that it is compatible with the group structure, you get for the equivalence class [e] the defining properties of a normal subgroup
TRUEE TRUE!
The same thing works for equiv relations compatible with ring structure and ideals
So in this sense, normal is just a group theory word for equivalence relations on groups
Exactly
So what can I say about K and N, if they are both normal, according to this? K=N? K isomorphic to N? What about this though?
Well try to see why left/right cosets being equal is necessary/sufficient for defining a normal subgroup
You can't say anything if you don't assume more about K and N
A group can have multiple normal subgroups
But they both are of the form {g in G: g ~ 1}?
For different relations ~
Oh okay perfect!
Also, you should work this out on paper
Is there some sort of bound for the number of normal subgroups
The stuff I'm saying
@steep hull you can get info for specific groups by sylow theory but I'm not sure how much you can say without more information
There's at most 2^(|G|-1)
Wait p-sylow groups are conjugate and hence only normal if there is one
You can get better estimates for sure but they'll all be super high
Yes, but by looking at the sylows you can deduce info about the group
Like for example if there is only one sylow, and thus a normal subgroup
Which can be checked by just looking at the prime factors and divisibility (sometimes)
Yeah. Can anything else be deduced
@latent anvil But if as you say, that if N,K are normal only if we have different relations, then when I say that NK is isomorphic to G only if N and K are normal, what I actually mean is that there are equivalence relations R_1, R_2 which are compatible with group structure, such that under R_1 N is [1] and under R_2 K is [1]?
Via sylow
@tribal pasture If N is normal, then there exists a group H=G/N s.t. N*G/N=G, meaning that each element in g=hn uniquely
If u dont mind me asking, was my interpretation in terms of equivalence relations correct?
Yeah essentially the group G/N is what you get by killing all of N (setting it to e). You only get group structure if youโre able to flip cosets around.
However note that the above only works if N and G/N are both normal
To prove the normality implies well-defined quotient group result, show that if hN=nhN then hN=Nh
The other direction is easy
h being the element in a normal group H?
h is a coset representative for now
Bad notation
Then show that hN=Nh implies that the coset representatives form a group
do u understand the idea of a coset?
Yeah!
ok so when u construct the set of cosets, say G/H, this does not necessarily have to form a group
in fact, it usually doesnt
however, the quotient is a group if and only if H is a normal subgroup. this is the whole point
Yeah I was thoroughly explained above. I was merely confused about the notation used.
Iโm outlining the proof though
ah, i see. sorry i didnt read any of it
Thanks for the explanation!
@tribal pasture do you understand how to prove it now
from dummit and foote
@steep hull Yes thank you!
@whole bridge whoops I did this on my own
Do you recommend the book given that I understand the main ideas pretty well
i think dummit and foote is good if u like a lot of exposition
it can be dry and the linear algebra part sucks, but it talks a lot and goes through lots of calculation
i recommend cross referencing with lang's book if u want to go through it since lang has slicker proofs sometimes
Thanks for the advice!
Iโm skimming through it and Iโm pretty comfortable until the cohomology/AG/rep theory parts
well, that is what the book is for 
Ugh Dummit and Foote
Dammit my foot
Can somebody tell me how they concluded the thus part? I understand the implications before that (as in how a=d, c=f) but not sure how were they able to infer that b=0 in h
The form of K is as given above thats matrices with 1 on diagonals, and an arbitrary number on the right upper corner and all others 0
Take an arbitrary matrix
It's equivalent to one of that form
Because hK = h'K iff their 12 and 23 slots are equal
I am just concerned about how they took b = 0 in h. All the previous implications are clear to me.
Start with b nonzero
Look at the matrix which has that entry deleted
Call these h and h'
I claim that hK = h'K
Do you see why?
indeed.
The point is that none of the matrices of this form are equivalent
For different a, b
We've found a canonical representative of each equivalence class
And this gives you a really concrete way to multiply the cosets together
Yeah I understand from the part that the equivalence between differents b's are accounted by the definition of K. I am just not sure in the method they provided, how did the "thus" allowed them to assume b=0
Try and prove that those two sets are contained in one another
Clearly the one on the right is contained in the set of all cosets
So suppose you have an arbitrary element of H/K
What does it look like?
{{1,a,b},{0,1,c},{0,0,1}} K
Right?
Sorry
I meant to include the possibly nonzero b there
Let h = {{1,a,b},{0,1,c},{0,0,1}}. We want to show hK is in the set on the right
Do you follow so far?
@tribal pasture
I haven't proven the equality yet
Yeah but why are you assuming b=0?
I'm not
Oh sorry I made a typo
I edited it but it didn't go through
Sorry!
Does that look getter?
Yep
Let h' = {{1,a,0},{0,1,c},{0,0,1}}
Oh yes I am aware in this case
The computation in the screenshot says hK = h'K
And clearly h'K is in the set on the right
So b can be anything right?
So basically different a,c defines the different coset, whereas the variation in b defines the coset itself
I can also consider hK = Kh correct?
Yeah I can
Thanks for help!
I'm not sure if that's true
I don't think it's false
I just don't want to check it
The thing about variation in b versus a, c is right though
I mean because hK = Kh is equivalent to K being normal although this appraoch will become messy
Yeah, I meant I wasn't sure if it was normal
Yeah for matrices the left/right coset interpretation is definitely the most reasonable for calculations
If $G$ is solvable and $H \leq G$, then does that mean $H$ is solvable?
Cabbage:
Given a group G, we define the commutator subgroup [G, G] of G to be the subgroup generated by { ghg^(-1)h^(-1) : g, h in G }
We also use the notation G' for [G, G]
Then G' is contained in G, and G'' is contained in G', and so on
So we get a chain G >= G' >= G'' >= ... >= G^(n) >= ...
Where each prime means "take the commutator subgroup"
G is solvable if and only if this series is eventually the identity
Oh you're right
Sorry, I just gave the generators
it is 3:30 am right now and I am liable to slip up after doing AG for hours
@brisk granite does that definition make sense?
Lemme try and remember why this is equivalent to solvability
How do you define it? Cyclic composition factors?
Oh so this implies solvability
yeah
Because G' is normal in G and G/G' is abelian
why are the quotients abelian tho?
that's part of the definition
We've gotten rid of the commutators
@brisk granite do you mean why are the quotients in this series abelian?
wait, you can prove that? Hold my keyboard
@latent anvil yes
Let [g, h] = g h g^(-1) h^(-1). Then gh = [g, h] hg
Yeah?
And each [g, h] goes to the identity in the quotient
Does that make sense @brisk granite ?
yep
So that shows "finite derived series" implies "solvable"
I see
Also, just to check, what's your definition of solvable?
A group is solvable when when it has a solvable series โ a normal series where G_i+1/G_i is abelian
Now suppose G is solvable, so you have G = G_0 >= G_1 >= G_2 >= ... >= G_(n-1) >= G_n = 1 a normal series where the factors are abelian
yeah, checks out that the quotient groups are abelian
I think our indices are flipped but w/e
Ah okay
So check this out
suppose H <= G is normal with G/H abelian. Then G' <= H
The idea/proof is that if G/H is abelian, you have to kill off all the commutators [g, h]
Then you inductively prove that the ith derived subgroup G^(i) is contained in the ith term of the abelian series G_i
If we assume G^(i) <= G_i, then G^(i+1) = (G^(i))' <= G_i', and since G_i/G_(i+1) is abelian, G_i' <= G_(i+1)
Thus the nth derived subgroup is contained in G_n, which is trivial
@brisk granite how's that?
If you know this definition of solvable, the original claim is immediate, since at each step the ith derived subgroup of H is contained in the ith derived subgroup of G
So if G is solvable, it's derived subgroup terminates, and so H's must as well
Does e have no solution
I ended up getting x=30 if assuming 3 does divide 5
I got it. Itโs not a solution
I want to make sure I have the right concept. If the GCD does divide the number I am given then I will have to find x? If the GCD is 1 it will always have an x
I will have to find x using Bรจzoutโs identity
Okay
How do you guys think of Abstract Vector Spaces? I'm at the point of transitioning from thinking about vectors as arrows or number lists to this more abstract (and proper) definition with the axioms.
I just feel all over the place with it
what about them?
You might want #linear-algebra btw
I'm happy to help here though
General vector spaces are useful when studying geometry, in more ways than your might expect. First off, suppose you have a linear transformation from R^n -> R^m. The kernel of that map is a vector space, but it doesn't have a natural choice of basis, i.e. there's no canonical way to look at it as l-dimensional Euclidean space
Similarly, if you have a plane in three dimensions at an angle, we can think of that as R^2, but once again we have to choose a basis, and there's no obviously correct way to do that
But they're also useful when doing fancier geometry. If you have a surface, like the sphere, at any point of your surface there's a "tangent space", which is vector space that we think of as all the tangent vectors at that point. For a sphere, this can be thought of as the plane tangent to that sphere at that point
This was supposed to be examples of vector spaces in more general contexts but I guess they're still just arrows here
They're just harder to represent as tuples of numbers
I think it's a mistake to try to force it as turning vectors into just an array of numbers, because there's the entire associated structure to go with it, it's just once you've gotten comfy with the pointy arrows in space you begin to understand how it can be decoupled for solving different kinds of problems than it might originally seem
like for instance, you can look at adding polynomials as a vector space and get a handful of nice results to play with this way, the easiest entry point would be vandermonde matrices imo, although there's a lot to talk about there
you can consider balancing chemical equations as molecules representing vectors with the components different atoms
there's this kind of game with lights that you turn off and on and you can only turn on a + shape of lights uhh
you can consider these as vector spaces over F_2
trying to give some non geometric examples, there are many more once you start to think that way you can turn many things into a vector space
@wild sapphire
Vectors were taught to you as arrows that you can add, and scalar multiply.
You can generalize this nicely, by forgetting about the "arrow" bit. ANYTHING that you can add together and scalar multiply can be considered "vector like" and has the same properties.
Great example is polynomials. You can add any two polynomials together, and you can multiply them by a constant. Polynomials form a vector space. They have a "basis" (1,x,xยฒ...) and a "dimension" (degree of highest polynomial you're including)
However they don't have a length. Note you don't need lengths for the general vector space
Oh that's a great example I didn't think about earlier. Vector spaces, and linear transformations between them @potent lynx
ye
thats what i was refering to
i have a bad question
why is the study of vector spaces called 'linear algebra'
why not just regular algebra lol
like 'vector space theory' xd
whats so special
lol
and whats up with mattrices
why is there no like 'matrices' to help up with groups or other structures
Matrices are the linear transformations!
As well, there is a way to encode groups into matrices. We call it representation theory
Flammablemaths just did a video where he creates a matrix alternative to the complex numbers
It's pretty good but very lengthy if you know linear algebra already
i will try lol
Skip to the end imo
They're not stupid! Grats for trying to understand the things that most people just assume
lol ty
It's not a matrix alternative lol
The material form of the complex numbers is literally re^i\theta
Ooh, wonder if he's going to find e^it for his matrix i?
The reason that we have matrices for vector spaces is that we have bases for vector spaces
You can choose to send the basis vectors anywhere you want, and that uniquely defines a linear map
So we can use a matrix to just write down where those basis vectors go
For more general algebraic structures, there's not going to be an analogue. All vector spaces are "free", which is very weird
AoC reaccs onli
y'all i'm actually kinda fucked
i'm stuck on a problem from my own pset
i guess i'm gonna reclassify its difficulty later ๐
the problem is as follows:
let G be a nontrivial group with Aut(G) = {id_G}. Show Aut(G^n) iso to S_n.
i know that Aut(G^n) is at least as big as S_n as the previous part of the same problem involved showing the former contains an isomorphic copy of the latter (S_n can be embedded into Aut(G^n) as coordinate-shuffling autos)
but i'm drawing a blank on how to prove there are no other autos
or even if there actually aren't any

So my instinct here would be to take some generic automorphism and compose with one of the coordinate permuting ones to sorta "undo it modulo an automorphism of G"
Yeah I'm thinking about how to execute this correctly
Okay so, if Aut(G) is trivial, then G is abelian
Since otherwise conjugation would be non-trivial
And since G is abelian, x->x^{-1} is an automorphism, so every element in the group has order 2
Not sure if this is relevant or not
That's clever
It lets us do linear algebra
G is a vector space over F2, so pick a basis
Now we're working with an infinite direct sum of Z/2Z
And then fuck with the basis if it's high dim yeah
Wait does that mean that groups with trivial automorphism group are either trivial or Z/2?
Sounds kinda strong
Lmao so in this case G = Z/2 since we assume non-trivial
I love arguments where you accidentally classify all such cases
Okay this is funny
Anyways, the automorphism group of G^n is GL(F2, n), right?
These will all be permutation matrices
I wonder if there's a nicer way...
Yeah I think my original idea is probably what was intended
Sorry for interrupting lol
You basically just say okay if \sigma isn't a shuffle automorphism
Dami:
Oh wait a second here's a question
Dami:
Yeah it definitely is
Yes
Okay this is convenient, since the idea is that if an automorphism isn't a shuffle automorphism, then this behavior will manifest on the generators
It could shuffle some stuff and not others though
Yeah but that gives me at most two coordinates to worry about
if anyone comes up with a solution please DM me with it so i can include it in my pset's solution key
@fickle brook we did kinda nuke this problem earlier, turns out the only non-trivial group with trivial automorphism group is Z/2
I'm assuming there's another way to do it since it's consistent with ZF that there are other groups with trivial automorphism groups
Okay so
My thing required taking a basis
So in principle it invokes choice
And achristensen feels this fact shouldn't require choice
Yeah I could be wrong of course, but it just doesn't feel terribly choicey
Dami:
These should both be homomorphisms
oh and uh
a quickie
i need an example of three groups G, H, K such that G normal in H and H normal in K but G not normal in K
i'm having trouble coming up with a c/e
C2 in K4 in S4
K4?
Oh Klein
I think V4 is standard
I had to come up with this for my problem sets, it's a problem on week 3
Dami:
Feel free to steal any content from https://math.berkeley.edu/~tb65536/algebra_materials/index.html, I worked on them and think they're pretty good
You still need to check that sigma takes one factor and sends it entirely inside another, or I don't see how this works
oh and another quickie
I mean yeah no claim of being nearly done yet, still trying to formalize this in my mind
I feel this should be super easy but it's evading me
i remember doing it but forgot how to do it
G is a group, H and K are finite subgroups, show |HK| |H cap K| = |H| |K|
See week 5
You let HรK act on HK by (h, k) * x = h x k^(-1)
Iirc
The stabilizer of the identity are all pairs (h, k) where h = k
Which is the same size as H \cap K
That works too, I was gonna do something fairly direct, like yeah enumerate with possible duplicates and find out how badly you overcounted
That's better if they don't know group actions yet
totally unrelated but the trivial k-algebra has no maximal ideals but does admit a homomorphism into k, and that's fucking me up
The trivial k-algebra is what?
Uh, depending on who you ask, homomorphisms have to preserve multiplicative identities
Yeah, sorry
Just realized. Okay, this is good. I'm glad I posted something stupid
thanks lol
np
Anyway yeah I should prob get back to my own Silverman stuff but good problem Ann!
Lmk if you have any other stuff about designing group theory homeworks Ann, I spent a ton of time on mine this summer
oh all i have is a homebrewed 30-problem pset
about a year old
i'm cleaning it up rn
Is using orbit stabilizer okay for the HK problem?
idk probably is
any hints for this problem:
if G is a group and H and K are subgroups
prove that |H.K ... something like that
= |H| * |K|
?
we just did this lol
H, K finite subgroups
do you know the orbit stabilizer theorem @potent lynx?
no you're good, don't worry about it
My argument wouldn't work for you then anyways
Let me try and translate it to something without group actions
@fickle brook that problem is false
Aut(C2) is trivial but Aut(C2รC_2) = S3 โ S2
@bleak abyss
fyi
Classifying groups such that Aut(G) is trivial could still be a good problem
Or you can ask them to determine the order of Aut(G^n)
Oh yeah
Which is like (2^n-1)(2^n-2)...(2^n-2^{n-1}) if you think about it in terms of choosing n linearly independent bitvectors
I posed it to my friend who's good at group theory, and he immediately said "If Aut(G)=1 then G=1 or G=C_2" with no justification
i'm just gonna remove that problem from the pset lmfao
whats Aut(G) XD
I can help with that
What do they know?
"Classify all finite simple groups up to isomorphism"
Look at the tricky problems on https://math.berkeley.edu/~tb65536/algebra_materials/index.html
They're pretty hard
Let G be a group of order 57. Assume that G is not a cyclic group.
Then determine the number of elements in G of order 3.
But yeah I think knowing which groups have trivial automorphism group is probably something that makes sense for many group theorists to just know off the top of their head
any help with this?>
Instinct is Sylow
^
ok thats something i dont know yet
If there's a normal subgroup of order 3, then I think that just requires it to be cyclic
Right?
So then
What do you mean? All groups of order 3 are cyclic
it = group of order 57
Because then the semidirect product is trivial
i think i'm gonna replace this Aut(G^n) problem with "find a c/e to this statement"
and keep it as the lone five-star in the pset
Yeah I think so sloth
Oh! For five stars
Fixed point free automorphisms are great
Yeah if you have a normal subgroup of order 3, obv there's a normal subgroup of order 19
Then yeah HK is the direct product
So that's done
Call an automorphism ฯ : G -> G a fixed point free automorphism if ฯ(x) = x implies x = 1. Classify all pairs (G, ฯ) where |G| = 12 and |ฯ| = 6
Now otherwise
@ann if you need a harder problem
ฯ(x) = 1 implies x = 1.
isn't that just triviality of kernel aka injectivity
The number of subgroups of order 3 has to be 1 mod 3 and has to divide 19... So it has to be 19
Oh yeah lol, should be ฯ(x) = x
But each subgroup of order 3 gives two elements of order 3
and what's |phi|
So there should be 38 elements of order 3 @potent lynx
Order in the group of automorphisms
There might be something easier
Okay so there's an element of order 19
Oh oh
Yeah that's way easier
There can't be two subgroups of order 19
You'd blow up the group
So there's a single subgroup of order 19
57-19 = 38
The remaining elements have to all have order 3
gg
You're saying there's only 1 nineteen sylow bc otherwise there's >19 of them?
And that's too big
Makes sense to me
Not even Sylow
Or I mean secretly it's Sylow but really it's just that you can't have a group of order 57 with two order 19 subgroups because of the whole |HK| business
Intersection is trivial because shit's cyclic
sylow is grad stuff right?
Not necessarily. Just is included in some group theory courses if they go deep enough
My first algebra course covered sylow, and still did ring and field stuff
I feel like sylow and group actions should be in a first course in group theory
well of course I feel that way, that's why I include them in my first course in group theory
I mean I'd say that covering rings and fields are more important
Oh right UW is on quarters, yeah so it'd be hard to cover rings and fields in the first quarter then I guess
Yee
We do five weeks of basic group theory (subgroups, quotients, lagrange), which is the content of the normal undergrad group theory course, then five weeks of group actions/sylow/Jordan Holder/classification of finite abelian groups. Then in the next quarter 6 weeks of rings and 5 weeks of fields/galois
Chicago's undergrad was groups first quarter, rings and basic modules second quarter, fields/Galois third quarter
I'm trying to include modules by putting them on the problem sets
Because the ta did it last year and I learned stuff from those problems
But I don't think anybody going to actually do them
The normal undergrad algebra course at the uw does rings first, then groups, then fields
Wait really?
Yeah, as of last year
It's weird
@sloth this special course only runs winter/spring
Is the special one honors undergrad? Grad?
So people coming in have already done a quarter of honors analysis and know how to do hard math
It's a special undergrad seminar type thingy
Pretty informal, I organized it and manages to have them offer it for credit last year
students give lectures and instead of graded homework you present problem solutions to peers
I see
Let A, B be finitely generated k-algebras
And ฯ : A -> B a homomorphism of k-algebras
Is ฯ^(-1)(m) maximal in A for all m maximal in B?
This feels like it should be false
It's true, wtf. ฮจ' : A/ฯ^(-1)(m) -> B/m โ k is surjective
And I think only B needs to be finitely generated, since that's how I know B/m โ k
Uh
So k here I'm guessing is algebraically closed
So that's why you're able to cite Zariski
Sorry, I unswapped A and B
I think you want both to be finitely generated
What do you mean cite zariski? That finitely generated k-algebras which are fields are k?
Yee
Okay so
I think you actually need psi to be surjective here
And then at this point it has nothing to do with being k-algebras
Since otherwise how do you know that the last map is surjective?
I don't think you need ฯ to be surjective. That past map is surjective because any map from a k-algebra into k is surjective
r = r * 1 = r * ฯ(1) = ฯ(r * 1)
Does that make sense?
It's a general fact that the preimage of a maximal ideal under a surjective map is maximal, but this is better than that
This is why working with finitely generated algebras over an algebraically closed field is so nice
Maximal spectrum is a functor from fg-k-alg -> locally ringed spaces
you don't need to deal with spec or generic point weirdness
Yeah for sure
I guess I'll do some Silverman ranting here
Gotta actually stay focused lmao
This is elliptic curve stuff?
Yeah, though chapters 1-2 are basically a crash course in the needed AG
Dami:
So in particular, rational maps a priori aren't defined everywhere
k bar (V1) being the field of fractions of the homogenous coordinate ring of V1?
Yeah
The specific description here is somewhat odd. One is just, define it as the function field of an affine part (and on affine varieties it's the field of fractions of the coordinate ring)
The other is to take the quotient of homogeneous functions of the same degree where the denominator isn't identically 0 on V, and identify f/g with h/k if fk = gh
Denominators can vanish
It's like thinking of rational functions on C, they're defined where the denominator is non-zero
We don't allow the denominator to vanish everywhere but somewhere is fine
well for every point on V1 there should be an tuple of functions defined on a neighbourhood on P
but it may be the case that no tuple works globally
and you go from one tuple to the other by multiplying everything by the same rational fraction
Yeah I think Silverman might get to that later
For now he's just allowing functions that are defined not everywhere ๐คท
maybe he expected it to be read as [f1...fn] defining the map and not f1...fn themselves, and then he didn't include the "forall f1...fn such that the map is [f1...fn] and for any point P where everything is defined, f(P) = ...
afterall [f1...fn] is an equivalence class
oh wait lol
So, he said in a remark right afterwards that we may be able to fix points where shit's not defined
remark 3.1
yeah
well okay then
so yes rational maps may not be well defined everywhere
only morphisms ๐
no rational maps, only morphisms
this doesn't mean anything it just popped into my head
Okay now I'm back, my aunt called
So no I'm stupid
When you multiply everything though by the lcm, "part of the lcm" goes toward killing denominators, and the degree just checks out
Dami:
No need to play some k_i/k_i game
I guess one more thing to be sure of
Oh okay actually it's easy
But just to write it out
Dami:
Nvm, I answered my own question
Okay, another quick question
If I show that this particular group is closed under inverses, do I also have to show that the inverses are in the set itself? The proof I did shows that implicitly, but should I explicitly state that?
"Closed under inverses" usually means the inverses are in the same set
How you'd specifically go about phrasing that is a bit context dependent
Ah
Alright, ty
A subgroup can be trivial, as in only one element, correct?
(Assuming the element is the identity element of course.)
Like let's say Z/3Z, modular addition. Would 0 in that group be a subgroup? It's not empty, has the identity, is binary and associative, and has its inverse
yes
Wait... I answered my own question again

This is why I shouldn't be trusted with a math degree
Any other questions?
Quick, ask about whether there are any nontrivial zeroes of the Reimann zeta function off the critical line
(If there are, wouldn't the hypothesis be disproven?)
XD
Well, time to find out. If you see a black person win the Abel Medal soon, that's me.
Future doxx
Does this version of the nullstelensatz hold? The maximal ideals of k[x1,..,xn] whose quotient is k are of the form (x1 - a1, ..., xn - an) for (a1,...,an) in k^n, even if k is not algebraically closed
Yes and it's easy to prove. Look at the map f : k[x1,...,xn] -> k which mods out and then goes through an isomorphism to k. Then for each xi, let ai = f(xi), so that f(xi - ai) = 0. Then (x1 - a1, ..., xn - an) is contained in the kernel of f, but it is also maximal, so it equals the kernel of f.
I'm an idiot
They wanted me to find all the elements that commute with everything in a particular set
But I was given that the group was abelian...
And I did it by hand

I hope it was a finite group
@delicate bloom I would still be doing it if it wasn't. I can't supertask.
you'll never make it in math then
D:
At least I'll make it in statistics
I heard that in the last quals exam at my school, students had to sum the harmonic series by hand
tough
I guess you could rearrange it so that it gives a finite value, but you'd still be stuck summing infinitely many terms
yeah the trick is to use sacred geometry
An easy proof is to compare it to a smaller series that diverges
fam I am kidding
I think shamrock is being ironic here
Oh XD
Imitating the typical calc student
I appreciate the intent though
p-adically though..
still diverges
no I am not
Psychopotence is actually jacobian and is trying to cover it up by being hypervigilent about jacobian alts
(Everyone without a pfp that mainly hangs out in the advanced mathematics I think is jacobian, no matter how improbable)
(sloth does not suspect I am a psychopotence alt, good)

@delicate bloom presumably you're gunning for how multiples of p aren't units?
Or oh
Also the norm blows up
1/n is large p-adically
I was making a super naive statement lmao
for large powers of p
kinda oscillates
1/p^n I should say is what's large
1/(1+p^n) is a unit very nearly 1
Basically just being like "tfw a_n -> 0 => \sum a_n converges"
I do the dumbest overthinking in this class
ahh cauchy sequences |a_{n+1}-a_n| -> 0
I now have a profile picture
Shamrock you should also be a sloth
hmm
Some of the greatest mathematicians were sloths
Mikhail Slowmov
Lasloth Lovasz and Babai
Grothensloth
Alexander Slothendieck
Lol
So, closed under products, has the identity...how to prove it's closed under inverses...
The list goes on