#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 440 of 407
Sascha Baer:
yes
it looks so true tho
I mean like, intuitively, G/H kinda means we group it into bits where the elements in h don’t do anything, and then we track them in the second component instead
it looks like the sorta thing that could be true as long as you don’t think about it too hard
well, there is a whole subject studying exactly when this kind of statement is true
you have some category in which you have a short exact sequence of objects
when can you say that the short exact sequence splits, that is, the middle object is some kind of product or sum of the left and right objects?
in an abelian category there's an answer to that which is the splitting lemma
in the category of groups there's also an answer
but it's not quite identical
because there's the possibility of semidirect products
but generally, to conclude that a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 splits, you need to give a morphism B -> A which is a left inverse to A -> B, or a morphism C -> B which is a right inverse to B -> C
if i recall correctly, in Grp you can conclude that a left inverse B -> A gives you that B is iso to the direct product of A and C, whereas a right inverse C -> B only gives you that B is a semidirect product of A and C
so that means if A is an injective object or C is a projective object, you always get splitting
and if you happen to be in an abelian category where every object is projective, say, like the category of vector spaces over a field, then this kind of statement is indeed true
but it's not true in Grp, or even in AbGrp
@somber bramble a short exact sequence is an exact sequence which only has three consecutive nonzero objects in it
it captures this correspondence between H, G and G/H
you have an injection H -> G
and a surjection G -> G/H
and the composition of these two maps is zero
H maps to the zero coset in G/H
and a short exact sequence 0 -> H -> G -> G/H -> 0 is just a way of writing all of that down nicely
in an exact sequence, the image of the map before is the kernel of the map after
so the image of 0 -> H is the kernel of H -> G, that is, H -> G is injective
the image of G -> G/H is the kernel of G/H -> 0, that is, G -> G/H is surjective
I see
seems like an utterly specific thing to have been given a name ^^
do they come up freqeuently?
oh no, exact sequences are everywhere in algebra
surely you've heard of some big words related to it
like cohomology
or spectral sequence
cohomology I have heard of, aye. gonna take algtopo next semester
yeah, (co)homology is a way of measuring how much a given sequence fails to be exact
if all of your (co)homology groups are zero, the sequence is exact
but sometimes you deal with sequences that aren't exact, so it's useful to have some way of measuring just how much they fail to be exact
in the topological context, there's some sequence called a chain complex associated to a topological space, and failure of it being exact roughly measures the difficulty of filling holes in the space
like, if you can embed a circle into your space, is there some disk which also embeds into it and has that circle as a boundary
but i shouldn't ramble on about topology in the algebra channel
So we know that if $a$, $b$ are coprime, the direct product of cyclic groups $C_a \times C_b = C_{ab}$. Is there a way to construct this isomorphism?
Lochverstärker:
This is just Chinese remainder theorem
You would do it in the same way as you would find the unique solution mod 42 to the system x = 5( mod 6) and x = 2 (mod 7) for example
@chilly ocean I finally understood the joke
Because
The ideals of a field is either {0} or the field itself...
speaking of Ideals, i was struggling with a proof today but finally rederived it today$\$
Let $R$ be a commutative, unital ring, $I$ an ideal$\$
Then $I$ is maximal iff for all $a \not \in I$ there is a $b$ such that $ab - 1 \in I\$
Sigma:
Mm it seems like saying R/I is a field
Assuming $I$ is maximal is the most involved direction$\$
So assume it is, then for any such $a$ form the set $J$ such that$\$
$J = { ar+i, r \in R, i \in I }\$
then $J$ is an ideal, and properly contains $I\$
so $J =R$ and $1 \in J\$
so there is some $b$ and $i$ such that $1 = ab + i\$
$ab - 1 = i \in I$
Sigma:
Very nice proof
Maybe one can also argue that since R/I is a field
a not in I -> a+I has an inverse
So (a+I)(b+I)=ab+I=1+I
So ab-1 in I
this is used to prove R/I is a field in the book im using
y is arbitrary element of X, just like x is
So, J = aR+I
why not write it like this 🤔
Hmm can’t you create a set such that p(x) does not equal p(y) and the function F still exists?
yes
wdym
Well you said that the sufficient and necessary condition would be that equivalence relation. But can’t their be a case that doesn’t follow what you said and the F function would still exist. Doesn’t that mean that that is not the condition?
p(x) = p(y) implies f(x) = f(y) is the condition
do you have any counterexample?
If yes, then sure. People make mistakes sometimes (though I checked this myself)
what if F just maps p(x) and p(y) onto the same output
Yes that is what I was thinking. And f maps to different outputs
oh. Interesting
wut
be more specific
okay :,)) lemme try and word this right
can 0 make a relation when it’s listen in parentheses with another number
yes
🤔
i would not say this is abstract algebra
Oop
An element like (-1, -9) can be thought of as an arrow that takes -1 to -9
I guess it belongs to #proofs-and-logic more or #foundations
though relations are used so much in algebra that 🤷🏿
I would place it in facts-and-logic
Actually, first question - do you know what a domain and range are?
I always hated the word range
why would 0 being the in the ordered pair even be confusing in the first place
@woven glade if you want, you can try to attempt a proof, and I will guide you here (within reason)
I appreciate I am new to algebra so having trouble with it, but I’m thankful for the help. I’ll work something up, when do you sleep haha
oh. I probably should sleep
like rn?
well. whatever
so suppose that f = F*p and try to deduce that p(x) = p(y) implies f(x) = f(y) for any x, y in X
this is the easy direction
and explanation of the condition would be nice
it would be nice if F would always be the same when p(x) = p(y) i. e. the argument is the same
because then F is well defined
that's where the condition comes from
anything?
Well for the first direction if you know that p(x) = p(y) then that must mean they all map to the same element in Q.
From there we know f= F*p so that means F is applied to only one element of of Q thus one element of Y. Then any x and y in f must be mapped to one element in Y and f(x) = f(y)
Well I'd something more like
For any x, y in X, if p(x) = p(y), then f(x) = F(p(x)) = F(p(y)) = f(y)
But it's ok
Other direction, suppose that for any x, y in X, p(x) = p(y) implies f(x) = f(y) and try to construct F
For proving eisenstein's criterion, does this work ? However, I'm not sure how to justify that the final result is irreducible.
what is r₀? for eisenstein’s criterion, p has to divide a₀, but p² doesn’t
iirc the way I proved it was to assume it was reducible, then projecting it into 𝔽p and getting a contradiction
yea it follows pretty much immediately actually if you do that
I’m also not really sure about your conclusion here
would be nice if you could use a few more words
hmm I wonder what’s the hardest question on this algebra exam
I think “let G be of order 3^17 and let H be a subgroup of index 3. Is H normal?”
or, in a very similar vein “does A_17 have a subgroup of index 3?”
(the proofs to both are quite similar)
easy algebra exam in that case
I’m not disagreing per se, but I also have to say that that’s a pretty condescending statement
I don’t think those are easy proofs to come up with if you’ve never seen the ideas before (which we hadn’t)
@somber bramble that's odd
it was a fairly superficial course that kinda breezed through too many topics in too little time
if p is the smallest prime s.t. p | |G| fora finite group G, then any subgroup of index p is normal; A_n is simple for n >= 5; any group with a subgroup of index n has a normal subgroup of index at most n!
all of these are the kinds of things you'd find in the exercises of a group theory textbook
p is the smallest prime s.t. p | |G| fora finite group G, then any subgroup of index p is normal
yes, that statement is not one we did in class
i see
nor the last one, that one I haven’t even heard of
it's straightforward: if H is a subgroup of G of index n, then G acts on the left cosets of H, that gives you a homomorphism G -> S_n whose kernel has index at most n!
and kernels are normal, so
by this proof you can also guarantee that said normal subgroup is contained in the original subgroup, in this case H
yea that’s essentially the proof I do here
either way, coming up with these ideas on your own is nontrivial
I will admit that most exercises on the list are fairly straightforward, and the fact that we have a list in the first place makes it even easier
ended up getting a followup question I couldn't answer on the spot, went well otherwise
(how many primitive elements are there in F_{2^n})
@somber bramble i don't think that question has an easy answer, it's equal to n * (number of irreducible polynomials of degree n in F_2[x]), and the standard way to compute the thing in parantheses is mobius inversion
so you can give an explicit expression in terms of the mobius function but it's not really something that would show up in an algebra exam
he asked me to think about the subextensions and I said some true statements (each corresponding to a subgroup of Z/nZ and so on) but he decided to say stop. we never looked at möbius functions (except the presumably different ones in complex analysis ofc) so that can't be it
eventually he was like "well it wasn't on the question sheet"
and we moved on
lol
guys what is the kernel of a homomorphism? not sure what im supposed to be looking for as ive seen different definitions of it
homomorphism of groups?
If you take a homomorphism f : G -> H, the kernel of f is all elements g in G such that f(g) = e_H
where e_H is the identity of H
Those are rings
The kernel is the exact same though, just all elements such that f(g) = 0_R
wait but
A little difference that it maps to zero instead of identity
yes
so im looking for all elements that map to 0?
yes. Same with vector spaces homomorphism etc
which can be thought of as the addition identity also
What resource is "Group Theory for Dummies?"
more specific?
I need a resource that covers the important topics of group theory (groups, subgroups, normal groups, isomorphism theorems, group actions, automorphisms, and solvability) in a way that's so clear and simple that a patient 14-year-old can understand them.
does this 14-year old have any mathematical maturity or are they just a random high school student who’s interested in the topic but has never done any university-level math?
14-year-old is capable of doing proofs if they're presented in a straightforward and clear way.
🤔
maybe look up the book Visual Group Theory
The proofs in group theory are straightforward, that is if they’re comfortable using symbols and stuff
They often introduce definitions and it isn't obvious what motivates these definitions.
It's pretty hard to always motivate definitions, sometimes the motivation can only come after learning about it some
Like how do you motivate rings, they seem like a pretty weird combination of structure to consider
I think if someone is there to teach the topic very slowly
With 1 definition per class/session
And a lot of examples
Then it might work
Whoever has officially lost his mind
Only someone who had a psychotic breakdown could believe that a professor would go that slowly
let alone a tenured professor
Lol
Did I ever say someone will do this?
Also
I think the ability to read proofs and understand definitions doesn’t come with age
It comes with exposure to higher math
Visual Group Theory is too visual and involves too much tinkering around.
You know what?
I'll just go to ProofWiki and perform a topological sort on the proofs and definitions there and work my way up.
The books suck
They're like using a French textbook to learn French
How many people actually LEARNED french from those textbooks?
My point exactly
it was an analogy about how useless math books are
ProofWiki is the best
I just need to reorganize everything for my own purposes
that's all
Il learnt french from France :kappa:
i learnt Jap from anime
Proofwiki doesn't even have calculus proofs 
Oh when I searched somewhere else then the calculus stuff showed up
best way to learn math is to do math
i always looked for the best book to read, but that kept me from actually reading
just pick one and run with it
proofs in calculus 
Why read books when you can come up with definitions on your own 
ive done that before, is fun
Pick one which transcends you and learn
For me all books with "group" "geometry" "algebra" "category" and "galois" and without "applied" in the title transcend me xd
Also, once you have a decent footing in a language, reading books in that language is one of the best things to do to get better
you can't start there, but you can do that fairly early
say at A2 level or sth (which is, for all intents and purposes, still "beginner")
Learn Russian from Russian books 🤔 good luck with that
as said, not from 0
but once you have a good idea of the grammar, know a lot of the most common words... yea you can learn a lot by reading a book and looking up words you don't know
also, while I don't know if such a thing exists for Russian, one of the best resources for self-studying Latin is a book that's entirely in latin
it starts off by showing most basic sentence structures, explains words with images and little notes in the margins, and then increases the complexity gradually
(it's called Lingua Latina per se Illustrata)
what's a good ring theory book with exercises? (not necessarily commutative or unital)
J.Lambek, Lectures on Rings and Modules - how is this
@smoky cypress you joke but I found a book of applied category theory

Idk whether they existed
But I’ve always thought that abstract algebra and category theory are too abstract to be applied
Loll
Algebra is like the most applied math field
Like it's used so, so much in chemistry and physics
chem uses mostly group theory

But like a lot of group theory
Symetric groups are use in molecule geometry
Oh that’s interesting
I’ve never learned any science other than math (is it science?) 😅
Engineers use stupid maths

κ
Cat theory is used a decent amount in cs
Hello does anyone know how to do graphing quadratics????
Please read #❓how-to-get-help
Maybe read the rules of a server before you say anything
Cs ?
Computer science
Oh yeah
Hmm I might look into category theory, I’ve never seen anything
Cat theory is used is every fields of math
I'm also looking for good category theory references
The earlier I learn cat theory, the more confortable I'll be to understand more abstract mathematics
Yeah I don't really think that's true either
There are definitely plenty fields of math that don't use any category theory for the most part
Also, pretty much everyone suggests first studying at least one subject that motivates cat theory
studying abstract nonsense without motivation is just not that amazing
Lie algebras are used in robotics if I recall
Imagine learning congruence in a general setting 🤔
It's weird why the definition is like this
Imagine learning congruence in a general setting 🤔 
Congruence relation generated by a relation 🤔
Congruence is a special kind of equivalent relationship on a monoid tho 🤔
on semigroups
I've seen $\mathbb{Z}/(-d)\mathbb{Z}$ in a paper once
Zopherus:
It made sense to have that though

why congruences?
Imagine you want to define [a]*[b] or [a]+[b] for some equivalence classes [a] and [b]
with congruences you can
the binary operation just comes from the normal binary operations on a given structure
Blitzkrieg:
being a congruence makes it so the above definitions are correct
Well yeah
Also notation question
Do we usually denote the equivalent class of an element $a$ as $\bar{a}$ or $[a]$
Whoever:
yes
I never seen \bar{a}
could also write it as the coset
\bar{a} comes up a lot when you discuss reducing mod p
And especially when you reduce functions mod p
Hmm ok
Blitzkrieg:
Well I'm reading Jacobson and he's using \bar{a}
Sure
Jacobson's notation is just ehhhh
So weird to me
specifying the relation
what's so funny I don't understand
no one ever does that
Jacobson has done this
because no one ever talks about more than one equivalence relation at a time I guess
This theorem says that a congruence can define a normal subgroup
And a normal subgroup defines a congruence
Right?
yes
I mean
It says there is a 1-1 correspondence of set of congruences upon the set of normal subgroups
Do they give a definition of congruence
Because this isn't true for any equivalence relations
Yes
Blitzkrieg:
or equivalently, if it's a left and right congruence
A equivalent relationship that you can multiply
i. e. congruence is an equivalence relation where you can define [a][b] = [ab]
that theorem is cool because it tells you there's no real distinction between a normal subgroup and a congruence
Given a function f : X -> Y what subsets of X x Y occur as the graph of some function. Wouldn't this be all subsets, except for the empty set? Since a single point can be graphed as a constant function
As well given a graph is there a general way to define the function? Like imagine if you had a line you can find the slope and then create the equation but how would i go about doing this more generally?
hmm is there a more elementary way to say it 😦 I need to study relations
Blitzkrieg:
if you read it, there's nothing non-elementary about this
Whoever:
@chilly ocean
yes
ok then it makes sense
x maps to unique y
idk. There was this argument that for a function you have to specify domain and codomain, and I kind of agree tbh
Yeah
Well
I use surjective and injective
Which is slightly more intuitive in my opinion
more intuitive
1-1 or onto is less memorization 

all you need, is homomorphism and isomorphism
rest is useless
mono and epi> inj and surj > 1-1 and onto
where > means ”more intuitive than”
injective or surjective is more intuitive than 1-1 or upon?

yes
To me
1-1 is more suited to bijection rather an injection
this is the first time ive ever heard upon
and i hate it
just use onto like a normal person
nah
Well at least epi, sur, onto mean the same thing semantically
It's just greek french english lol
into for non necessarily upon
if I used onto, it would be confusing with into
so I use upon
epi, sur, onto
why not just use epic at that point
Lol
talking to blitz
ah
upon is classy

epi classy
it's even used in medicine so it must be
you don't get my style ok
@tame bear normal person uses surjective
teenager hmmmmmm
normal people use one to one and onto
20
😮 that's not teenager smh
ik
Anything from greek and latin is more classy, there's no challenge
i agree
upon is a word that feels you with mystery
it's classy
no one can deny

You don't have to use greek for everything
λολ
Greek looks awful. I only approve greek letters application in math
btw. Algebra is here
από την άλλη πλευρά.
Lol
So to not distract from the topic, I'll include a theorem which relates to congruences and groupoids (or magmas as you people call them)
Theorem is called 'Principle of the Maximal Homomorphic Image of Given Type'
Blitzkrieg:
tbh idk how to interpret this theorem
I guess that intersection of them is exactly what you would think it would be 🤔
Prove that there exist semigroups not being groups such that $a1 = a$ and $a^{-1}a = 1$. I'm thinking about bi-cyclic semigroup i. e. generated by elements $p, q$ such that $pq = 1,\ qp\neq 1$. I won't check rn because 7 am though
Blitzkrieg:

So the only way it’s not a group if there isn’t an element e such that ea=a for all a?
@chilly ocean
Ok I think I know.
@smoky cypress A semigroup $G$ is a group if an only if there is an element $1$ such that $a1 = a$ and exists $a'$ such that $aa' = 1$
Blitzkrieg:

i. e. we have a right identity and ability to take right inverses
But in your question, all the conditions are satisfied?
right identity but left inverses in my question
Oh
Wait I realized I don’t know what a semigroup is 🤔 is that just a set with an associative binary op?
$E = {a, b}$, $a^2 = ab = a$, $b^2 = ba = b$
Blitzkrieg:
ab = a and bb = b -> b is right identity
ba = b and bb = b -> every element has a left inverse
to show it's a semigroup is trivial
it's not a group and it's trivial
why does a polynomial, of degree n, in Z/pZ have at most n roots
cool, thanks
hi
Why the young symmetrizer is defined as $a_Tb_T$ where $a_T = \sum_{g \in P_T} g$ and $b_T = \sum_{g \in Q_T} sgn(g)g$ where $T$ is a young tableaux and $P_T$ is the group that permutes the elements in the rows of $T$ while $Q_T$ is the group that permutes the elements of the columns of the tableaux
emme:
I have a structure (S, 1, /) with equalities $a/1 = a$, $a/a = 1$, $(a/c)/(b/c) = a/b$. Define $ab = a/(1/b)$. How to prove $(ab)c = a(bc)$? Upon expanding it looks horrible
Maybe like
uh huh
Blitzkrieg:
Blitzkrieg:
I want to prove that a binary operation on this Boolean algebra defined as
Blitzkrieg:
I need some help here, frightening things happen when trying to write it out
I'm trying to make this Boolean algebra a ring
but proving associativity is a challenge here
Blitzkrieg:
so this addition resembles a bit https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exclusive_or
so I guess it should have similar properties
Blitzkrieg:
so I need something like distributive property of * and \lor
if i dream of maths is that abstract algebra?
@bleak belfry go troll in hell
mean
righteous
I don't need help anymore.
basically a relation which preserves all the identities of an equational structure
I know this is wildly abstract and I have absolutely nothing but intuition but I was curious: does it bear fruit (in any context) to think of the integers as an infinite-dimensional module where the primes are your base?
There's a group isomorphism between the rational numbers under multiplication and the group of infinite integer sequences with only finitely many non-zero terms under addition
This isomorphism behaves in basically the way you want
(a_1,a_2, \dots ) gets sent to 2^(a_1) 3^(a_2) \dots
what do you mean primes as your base?
the definition of integers has nothing to do with primes
it's more like the set of answers you get when you subtract two natural numbers
Every integer can be written uniquely as $\pm 2^a3^b 5^c \dots$
Zopherus:
every non-zero integer I guess
I guess you can express it like that, but what's the point?
This is like the whole point of number theory lmao
I thought we were tackling this from an abstract algebra perspective
Wow it's almost like mathematical fields are heavily related or something
different fields may have different perspectives on things
And you say the definition of integers like there's one definition
i didn't say there was only one definition
"the definition" usually implies 1
But the point is that a definition based on primes is definitely not useless
And even if the definition of integers that you use has nothing to do with primes, saying that there's no point to writing the integers in terms of primes is ridiculous
damn this nick is annoying
Same
Can I conclude from the fact that |D_4| = 8 and |S_4| = 24 that there are some permutations that are not symmetries?
you mean
there are some permutations of {1, 2, 3, 4} that do not correspond to symmetries of a square
@bleak finch ?
yes
yeah
I can conclude that BASED ON THE MAGNITUDES OF THE CARDINALITIES ONLY?
Imagine swapping two corners of a square
Oh, just based on the order of the groups?
Well, you must make sure that each element in D_4 can act on the set {1, 2, 3, 4} as permutations
Yes, just based on the order of the groups
then, yes, you can conclude that
Like, you are not allowed to swap two adjacent corners of a square
(without changing anything else)
but you are totally allowed to swap {1, 2, 3, 4} into {2, 1, 3, 4}
You'd really have to know the relationship between Sn and Dn
this is actually a question about proving not about groups
I concluded that there are some permutations that are not symmetries because 8 < 24, and I don't know if that is a sound argument.
Was I right by accident?
A proper subgroup at that
Now I think I have the answer
Some permutations are not symmetries because D_4 is a subgroup of S_4 and |S_4| > |D_4| is a valid argument.
True, you've got me there
you wouldn't want to call it that way
"Some permutations do not correspond to symmetries of a square"
you need to be specific as to symmetries of [object]
obvious in context
What are you writing the proof for? What class?
well, but S_4 is isomorphic to the symmetry group of rotations of a cube
Let G be a finite group with an automorphism $\phi$ s.t $\phi(g) = g$ iff $ g = 1$ and $ \phi^{2}$ is the identity map. Show that G is abelian
Victoria:
squared means function composition or group product?
is it true that $\phi(x) = xa$ for some a?
Victoria:
uhh $ \phi(\phi(a)) = 1 \forall a \in G$
Victoria:
I have no idea how to use this hint Im given
What's the hint?
Show that every element of G can be written in the form $ X^{-1}\phi(X)$
Victoria:
🤔
scuffed latex
What you wrote earlier is wrong btw
oof which
oh
yea
oops
ok nvm
i am wrong
yes
what you said is right i think
from the hint we have
Oh hmm
$a = x^{-1}\phi(x) \ \phi(a) = \phi(x^{-1})x = [x^{-1}\phi(x)]^{-1}$
Victoria:
Yeah the reason I thought it was wrong was because of stuff with elements of order 2
then showing that its an automorphism implies abelian seems easy
But that just might not apply here
but how do i get to the hint part?
why isnt it phi(x)^-1x
Then phi(a)^-1=a
And I guess every element can be written as x^-1 phi(x) for some x
Is the hope
ok i got it
i just show that
the function f : G - > G
f(x) = x^(-1)phi(x)
is bijective
oh
i got it
we show its one to one
let a,b $\in G$ where f(a) = f(b). Then, $ a^{-1}\phi(a) = b^{-1}\phi(b)$
just simplify to
Victoria:
$ba^{-1} = \phi(ba^{-1})$
its finite so injectivity suffices
Victoria:
It's not finite
it is finite
Why would it be?
G is finite
finite group
Oof
yowch
then we have that the equality holds iff ba^-1 is identity so b = a
first grad course and hw is so hard
Yeah so you showed it's injective, so you're done
I would be curious to see the infinite counterexample
Maybe GL_2(\mathbb{R})
Is a good counterexample
How does the general proof go that three algebraic objects are not isomorphic?
What does this even mean
Given groups G, H, K, I need to prove that G, H, K are distinct groups.
Do it pairwise
There are (3 choose 2) = 6 pairs.
That's not 3 choose 2
No wait it it's not
But this way of proving doesn't scale
To prove n groups are distinct I need to do (n choose 2) proofs which leads to combinatorial explosion
I doubt you'd ever be asked to show that many groups are distinct from each other
In general, you can look at group properties too
If all your groups have different orders, then you're done obviously
Or if all your groups have different max element orders, or some are abelian and some aren't etc
yea you’ll be able to at least group them into small groups where you have to take a closer look
…those are three different meanings of “group” now
Because I like to press the easy button when it comes to proving theorems.
🤔
lmao
Show that addition and multiplication mod n are well defined operations. That is, show that the operations do not depend on the choice of the representative from the equivalence classes mod n.
How do proofs like these work?
By understanding what it means for something to be well-defined
They even explain it for you
not this book
but I think somewhere on overleaf I had a similar problem for modules whose proof I might be able to adapt.
it's like reusing your piece of code for a new project
Okay this is funny
There's a wiki titled "groupprops" coined from "group properties"
and I searched for "group properties invariant isomorphism"
and no article exists
L-O-L
ive never actually seen a definition for well defined
i just picked it up from context
well defined means our definition doesn't contradict itself
That's not the best explanation lmao
something being well-defined pretty much just means the definition isn’t contradictory.
the particular case where where you have to prove well-definedness is pretty much always the same scenario though:
•you have some set on which you have a function f
•you also have a partition of that set into chunks
•you want to define a function on those chunks by using f
•that is, you want to define F([x]) = f(x), where [x] is the set of all elements in the same “chunk“ as x
•however, for this definition to make sense, you must have that if [x] = [y], then f(x) = f(y), or you’d run into a contradiction
x = y implies f(x) = f(y)
same thing
lol
different name
uh, no?
[x] is some set containing, among other things, x
for example, for modular arithmetic thingies, [3] might be all the numbers that are equal to 3 mod n
a = b implies f(a) = f(b)
yes, that is a true statement
Well defined is basically when a function isn’t multi valued right?
Ye think so
Also the definition of well defined is too subjective
And the definition itself is arguably not well define
well-defined depends on the context, but basically means that everything you wrote is fine and just works
no it's not subjective
technically everything is subjective, actually
but the point is, that's not an argument
well-defined doesn't need a mathematical definition
If you say fine means logical than it’s fine
But it needs a well defined definition XD
👀
that's not a logic or math problem, that's just language
That’s why it was better in the caveman times before language
When there was only math
Lmao that's an opinion for sure
Hello smart people I would appreciate help on very simple homework I’m just very stupid
Nah I meant what you just said was dumb
For sure it was dumb
@grizzled canyon you shouldn't say you are stupid in a futile attempt to someone take pity on you
Smart things are only interspersed in the shitstorm of nonsense that regularly pours from my mouth
just ask and be done
That’s not what I was doing but okay big man
😂😂
I just feel stupid because this is called abstract algebra and I can’t even do simple that is all
But okay
THEN WHY TF U ASKING IN ABSTRACT
Go to the related channel plz
We’re in all the channels
We’re helpers
I'm not
@ me in one
What’s the topic and level
Geometry
lol
I’ll delete my old messages in this channel though sorry for the inconvenience
Nah
np man
Don’t waste time deleting
Blitz why you saying lol
idk
That’s why it was better in the caveman times before language
Language is older than "caveman times"
ok so If someone can confirm what im thinking
because Im reading james munkres pdf on topology (very early in still) and he seemed to imply that Z is a field, but I dont think thats correct since we dont have multiplicative inverses other than for unity and -1 (and we cant have a field without also being a division ring, right?, Im pretty sure the definition of a field is a commutative division ring)
Can you take a picture of the part where he says that?
lemme post the context first because he makes reference to numbered properties
so he says this ^^^ but notice property 4 (the second line particularly)
maybe he means some of but not all of properties 1 through 6 ? but I dont know why he would phrase it that way, thats confusing to me
he’s not saying that the integers are defined by having properties 1-6 (for one, because they don’t, as you pointed out)
he’s saying that you can define them making only reference to those properties
which, presumably, he does in the following paragraphs
he doesent clarify this after though by the way ^^^
I’m downloading the book now just to see
he immediately starts talking about Z^+
the sentence “we now define the integers” is not a definition, but a statement of intent
Yeah Sascha's interpretation is correct
he’s saying that the integers will be defined in the following
like in a proper subset of 1-6 right?
using only these properties, but not strictly all of
is this munkres, second edition?
yes
it should be everything except the second part of property 4 I guess bc we have a commutative ring with unity in the integers
yea, so that sentence there is not part of the definition
what it’s saying is “we now have the tools needed to define the integers”
and then he jumps to the next definition that’s needed, which are inductive sets
yes
and the point is that only properties (1) through (6) are actually used in the definition
right
meaning you could define the things more generally for any structure satisfying those properties
side note I like how he defines ordered pairs
I think it was, (1,2) = { {1}, {1,2} }
okay that’s wacky
I think he did it that way to make the ordering clear
usually the way you define tuples is by treating them as functions
I think that definition is pretty common too
I’ve never seen it before
but yeah I guess his pdf doesnt expect abstract algebra either because he could've just said "ordered field with the supremum property" for R
guess I’ll come across it if I end up tutoring topology next spring semester (definitely gonna apply for it), cause in that case I’ll be reading munkres along the year
its definitely a comprehensive pdf from what I can tell
ive been trying to get farther into it so that I can sound more intelligible in my statements of purpose for phd school
like I know some basic definitions, but im trying to get an intuitive sense in order to at least prove some basic theorems
wait what
is that normal?
as in, you’re applying for a phd
but these things are new to you?
the first chapter of munkres more or less sums up my first three weeks at university
Well I didnt have a topology in undergrad, I had complex ana though at least
no the first chapter is not new to me though
stuff after is a little
and topology is a mandatory 4th semester subject here
where?
ETH Zürich
in undergrad?
I came from a smaller school so even basic top wasent offered there
I took pretty much everything I could that was offered
I’m curious what kinda classes you took
just the actual math classes in case you took additional stuff
other than complex ana, vector ana, numerical math ana, (ODE & linear of course), topics in geometry (axiomatic of course)
over the course of how many years?
also calc 3 ta
those were in 2 years, I had to retake some basic stuff before though
that seems like extremely little
I had basically a philosophy & math dual major
did you not even have a linalg class?
nor any abstract algebra? real analysis? probability/stats?
real analysis, stats I had also
oh I thought that was numerical analysis
nah I had numerical analysis & real analysis (intro theory and logic before that)
I understand that the lack of abstract algebra might cause me problems so I read 300 pages of pinters abstract algebra (need to do more excercises yet though bc I went through it a little to fast) and I'm working on an online galois theory course as of recently
I got mostly A+'s in my last semester also so hopefully that will help me a bit
Is it true that in a general Euclidean domain with a norm function N, that N(x) = 1 implies x is a unit?
Okay the answer is yes
@chilly ocean Hey
@fickle brook There's a guy here that I just pinged that speaks French and needs some help with basic abstract algebra
hi
@worthy kindle are you free
so I was asking how to check if a ring is distributive in order to chdeck if it is really a ring
Hello
He speaks french
Pour la distributivité, c'est avec le context qu'on fait ça
ok dans mon cas l'exemple c'est Zn sachant que Zn c'est l'ensemble des restes dans l'arithmetique modulo n
mais pour le moment je veux just apprendre les proprietes de certains elements avant de les appliquer
je suis sur les les anneaux en ce moment
et je veux savoir comment verifier qu'un anneau est distributif
Avec cette example-là, il s'agit de montrer que pour tout a, b et c, on a (a+b)c congru à ac+bc modulo n
ce sont des entiers qu'on utilise comme représentants
comme representants?
Z/nZ c'est un ensemble de classes d'équivalence
ok je vois
moi je travaills juste sur un ensemble
une chose apres l'autre
tu as dit "Avec cette example-là, il s'agit de montrer que pour tout a, b et c, on a (a+b)c congru à ac+bc modulo n
" donc je prend un element au hasard dans l'ensemble et je fais ca?
oui, montrer une propriété pour des éléments arbitraires, c'est montrer la propriété pour tous les éléments
ok je vois
tu peux me donner un set et je t edis s'il remplit la propriete de distributivite de l'anneau?
juste pour voir mes calculs?
@worthy kindle
hein
mais il va falloir faire vite je dois partir dans 5 minutes
je demandais si je pouvais faire un mini exo pour voir
ah bah, euh, Z, avec + et × usuels
ok on va dire que Z vaut {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,... infini}
je prend 3 elements au hasard: 2,3,4
si 3X(4+5) = 3x4 + 3 + 5
alors l'anneau est distributif
du moins avec cette propriete
@worthy kindle
alors, 3, 4 et 5 ils sont pas arbitraires xd
@worthy kindle je dois y aller. ce que j'ai dit est surement faux. on peut se voir dans 1 h je dois partir
Ok, à bientôt peut-être
ok a+
How can you tell using Light's Test whether a binary operation has an inverse or identity?
Oh wait, I figured out the identity part.
Okay, but what about inverse?
🤔 that's not what Light's test is used for
maybe you want to use some alternative definitions of a group
I think one of them was
Blitzkrieg:
I used Light's Test to prove associativity
But he wants us to justify whether this set along with this binary operation is a group.
The set is nonempty, it's associative, and one of the elements when starred with any other element in both directions "leaves it alone"
I have no idea how I would go about showing (or disproving) that the elements have an inverse.
for every x you can try finding an element y such that xy = yx = 1
or use the above definition of a group
Ah.
Let's see if I was given that information.
1 meaning the identity, right?
yes
Idk which method is faster, probably the one with inverses
Okay, it's not a group because I can eyeball this and clearly see that a few elements wouldn't have inverses. Thanks!
Abstract Algebra is the first and only class where I do the later problems first, then realize I was over thinking the earlier problems.
the other definition is useful if you want to show something is a group, but can't necessarily eyeball out the inverses or identity
in a more abstract case or when semigroup is infinite
Good to know!
Okay, doesn't seem like this class covers infinite groups for the most part
yeah those are usually neglected for the finite case
probably because with the finite case you can work with cardinalities and such better
Lagrange theorem
with infinite case the same theory isn't really that useful
oh, and the other definition of a group (works for finite or infinite semigroups)
there is element 1 such that x1 = x for any x
and exists y such that xy = 1
i. e.
we only care about right identity and right inverses (without assumption of uniqueness, it follows from definition)
similarly we can care just about left identity and left inverses
but for example left inverses and right identity doesn't work, so you must remember to keep them the same 'side'
its more in the spirit of 'inverses and identity' definition, but weaker assumptions
@chilly ocean We did that proof in class
And we also showed why they have to be the same side for both.
We did a counterexample where they weren't the same side and it was clear that it wasn't a group.
I was checking if a ring with the set {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,... infinitre} is distributive.
I took randomly 2,3,4
if 3X(4+5) = 3x4 + 3x5
then the ring is distributive
but somebody told me 2,3,4 are not arbitrary.
what does he mean?
note I actually told 3X(4+5) = 3x4 + 3 + 5 by typo. it might have been confusing
if you read that tomorrow, then can you let a message?
The problem is, an example does not prove the claim in general
Claim: All numbers are 19.
Clearly, 19 works.
Hence, all numbers are 19.
interesting I understand the problem
@fading wagon so to ensure R is a ring I have check each elements of the set
for example S = {0,1,2,3,4,5} then I have to do:
if 0x(1,2,3,4,5) = 0x1+0x2+0x3+0x4+0x5 then the ring is distributive
not like that
what does distributive mean?
it means for all $a, b, c$ in the ring, $a\times(b+c)=a\times b+a\times c$.
Element118:
"for all" is important
but in the last example I tried to say 0x(1+2+3+4+5) = 0x1+0x2+0x3+0x4+0x5
I made a typo
yeah, but that's not sufficient, I think
You need to prove that statement directly: For all $a, b, c$ in the ring, $a\times(b+c)=a\times b+a\times c$.
Element118:
where is the difference? in 0x(1+2+3+4+5) = 0x1+0x2+0x3+0x4+0x5 I say a = 0, b = 1, c=2 etc...
@fading wagon
you don't say a=0, b=1, c=2
you need to show for all
So, for all possibilities of a, for all possibilities of b, for all possibilities of c...
it could be that it works specifically for this particular sum you wrote out
but not if you e.g. leave out a number
so just cause it works here doesn’t mean it always works
evne though your example involves all numbers
Ok so concretely how to proove the distribution of the ring?
you already have the distributive property of multiplication
on integers
so, if your ring has only integers with multiplication and addition defined as known, then just quote that
what’s actually the specific problem you’re trying to solve
@chilly ocean example?
I don’t see it written down anywhere
if hes struggling with distribution hes not going to follow that
is this a children algebra channel ?
@chilly ocean maybe ask your teacher
@fading wagon "you already have the distributive property of multiplication on integers" I need a way to determine the distribution with other sets. for example how to know if {1,3,4,2} is distributive? if I can not know the ... ah ok I might understand. you mean check if a set is distributive is not related to ring!
anyone else failing to parse that comment?
also, still
what’s actually the specific problem you’re trying to solve
@chilly ocean You need to see the definition of the multiplication and addition operation given to you
It may not be the same as normal multiplication and addition
a set can’t be distributive, something can only be distributive if you also have operations
namely two of them
ah ok so it is as easy as check to see the operator and determine if the ring is ditributive???
easxy
what’s actually the specific problem you’re trying to solve
I do not have any specific problem I want to understand ring properties. I give to myself exercises selfmade
"a set can’t be distributive, something can only be distributive if you also have operations" => lol it is a ring
a set isn’t a ring
a ring is a set plus some properties. but {1,2,3} is not a ring
it’s just a set with three elements
anyway, consider this then: take the integers modulo 5. that is, take the integers but then only consider their remainder when doing division by 5. so in this ring, 2+3 = 0, and 4*3 = 2, to make two examples
show that this is indeed a ring
ok lets take an example {{1,4,5}, +, X} : if 1x(4+5) = 1x4+1x5 then the ring is distributive. and both are 9 then the ring is distributive
Blitzkrieg:





