#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 439 of 407
Can't we do an operation called irrational conjugate like
$(x+y\sqrt{b})' = x-y\sqrt{b}$ then
prove that it has nice properties
Blitzkrieg:
The nicer way of saying that is that conjugation is an automorphism
Woke

I'm not sure, I'm guessing this works
definition of the conjugate is a bit wonky for sure
You don't need galois to show that such a conjugation can preserve the whole "being a zero" thing
but uh
galois is nice because there's more stuff you can do than just take a conjugation in that sense
Suppose that $x_1+y_1\sqrt{b} = x_2+y_2\sqrt{b}$, then $x_1-x_2 = (y_1-y_2)\sqrt{b} \implies x_1 = x_2, y_1 = y_2$. This means we can define conjugation as $(x+y\sqrt{b})' = x-y\sqrt{b}$. ($x, y, x_1, y_1, x_2, y_2\in \mathbb{Q}$)
Blitzkrieg:
It's clear that ' is an endomorphism
i think you got the sign wrong
yes. It doesn't matter though.
Yeah. And now proceed for a proof which is the same as for complex conjugate being a root of polynomial with real coefficient i. e. $P(z) = 0 \implies P(\hat{z}) = 0$
lol
i know how to do that
so I spotted the similarity
so that's why I wondered is there a generalization of this idea
Blitzkrieg:
it's \overline isn't it
$\bar{z}$
Darkrifts:
$\overline{z}$
Darkrifts:
bar is shorter
Compare $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{Q}/Q)$ and $\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{Q}/Q)$
Whoever:
But looking at the Galois stuff, \bar is better that time
Oh so the really nice way to talk about conjugation preserving roots is in a much more general sense
So in model theory there's a notion of definability
And it's fairly easy to show that if a set is definable, then a automorphism maps elements of that set within itself
I was with you until you abstracted all the way to model theory lmao
But that’s pretty cool
Are there no requirements on what category the automorphism is in
So this is automorphism in a much more limited sense
Suppose that $R$ is a ring with unity and for all $x$ and $y$ in $R$ we have $(xy)^2 = x^2 y^2$. Prove $R$ is commutative.
Sigma:
btw there are noncommutative rings with $(xy)^3 = x^3 y^3$ for all $x,y \in R$
I mean that should be a pretty standard argument
hochs:
won't spoil the fun of looking for it
it's going to be super similar to the similar proof for groups
I agree it's a dumb problem
but the proof is pretty short
ah actually I see why it's tricky, nvm
i was fucking with xy - yx for like an hour
but unity is vital to the argument
i mean, $(xy)^2 = x^2 y^2$ doesnt mean commutativity if you dont have unity,
so i doubt 3rd powers would prove commutativity
Sigma:
here's a cool theorem I read recently. It might have gotten brought up in here actually... so maybe this is a repeat but: if in a group G you have (xy)^n = x^n y^n for 3 consecutive integers n, then G is abelian
but 2 consecutive integers is not enough: it's always true for n = 0 and n = 1 in any group
(so this is in some sense a "generalization" of the problems to "prove if it's true for n = 2 it's abelian" and "if it's true for n = -1, it's abelian")
thats pretty neat
yeah I remember doing these exercises. they're not so revealing ultimately .
Yeah they felt more like Algebra in the high school sense
this reminds me of that exercise in topology where using closure and complement and interior operations one can get at most 14 (or was it 13?) distinct sets starting from a subset of a topological space
that sounds awful
It's 14
It's called kuratowski's complement closure problem
It's in Munkres I'm pretty sure
Is two sufficient if we restrict n away from 0,1 buncho?
no, I think it still requires 3
I can't give an example
but the proof is basically just manipulate and use the identities and you really need all 3
maybe it happens to be true with 2 but I don't think so
I don't understand the definition of phi
what is p supposed to be?
Here is the whole thing
is it supposed to be a^p ?
Also, how do I know it has a unique subgroup of order p?
what is abelian notation?
Do you know what an abelian group is?
yes
well we often use + instead of \cdot
A group where all elements commute
for abelian groups
ok
I see
multiplication is repeated addition
so we do pn instead of n^p
I agree that the notation there is bad
ok, thankyou
it should at least have been more clear imo
yea, the book could've explained it before using it
What book is it
@brisk granite
Then how do you know the book doesn't explain it before using it wtf
salzedo
This question comes from a section about restricting homomorphisms to subgroups. I came up with a proof for this, but it has nothing to do with restricting homomorphisms. Does anyone have any idea what the question is looking for in a proof?
what was your proof?
I just said that the image of phi must divide the order of G and G'. Therefore the order of Im(phi) = 1. The only such homomorphism is the trivial one
looks good to me
hnnghh but the section is about restricting homomorphisms!1!11
idk I wouldn't try to overcomplicate it😋
alright 
@thorn delta well a restriction is needed to prove that the order of the image divides the order of G, I think
Don't know if you were asked to justify it though
Maybe it's used in another exercise which is more on the topic
I noticed later on that its kinda used for something else in the section. It was basically the problem I proved here, but regarding a homomorphism with its domain restricted to a subgroup of G whose order does not share any factors with G'.
The order of the image divides G because the preimage of any element in the image is a coset of the kernel of the hom. The cosets partition G... etc etc
ok. I'm bored so let me give an exercise from algebra
book - Kostrikin
Every subgroup of index 2 is normal (H - subgroup, G - group, then |G|/|H| is the index)
Blitzkrieg:
@brisk granite There's no book by that title and author
I think something like this might work
and it's pretty clear it's a homomorphism as well
Blitzkrieg:
which is part of reason why it's clear
yeah. I'm done I suppose
because otherwise it would have order 3 which is impossible because y would be of order 6
so simple yet so convoluted
How to prove that subgroup of order 2 is normal
Blitzkrieg:
Not that I know anything about group theory 
that's a bit of exercise
idk what he means by action on left cosets
Wait there is something. Action by left translations
Blitzkrieg:
So let's take any such transitive action and I guess we need to construct H
Blitzkrieg:
We know that H_x are non-empty
Blitzkrieg:
Doesn't seem like it's useful, so maybe
hmm
Take $y$ so that $e\in H_y$. Let $g, h\in H_y$, then there exists $x'$ such that $gx' = y$, hence $ghh^{-1}x' = y$ so $gh\in H_y$
and ability to take inverses
Blitzkrieg:
We can probably take arbitrary stationary subgroup as our H and bijection between left cosets and X as our sigma
For $y\in X$, $\sigma(y) = aH$. $\sigma^{-1}\Phi_x'\sigma(y) = \sigma^{-1}(xaH)$
I'd have to write sigma more explicitly
so actions are in fact equivalent
end
I was chocking on this one a bit, I'm not very familiar to group actions though
Next exercise
Blitzkrieg:
that is
Blitzkrieg:
centrum is set of elements which commute with every other element if I recall correctly
yeah
of course it's normal subgroup
Blitzkrieg:
Take $y$ not in the centrum, then if $y^2\neq e$, $y^2$ generates $Z(G)$. This would mean that $G$ is cyclic, because $G = Z(G)\cup yZ(G)$, contradiction
Blitzkrieg:
If $y^2 = e$, then $p = 2$ and every element of $G$ has order $2$. But then every element of $G$ commutes, contradiction
Blitzkrieg:
Because if every element has order 2, then a group commutes, it can be done as an exercise
the equality is wrong and that wouldn't mean that G is cyclic, but we can still derive that G has a subgroup of order 2p (namely the one generated by y), from which p = 2
from which G is cyclic anyway
why would y^2 be in centrum 🤔
G/Z(G) is abelian
$G = {x^ky^l: k, l\in{0, ..., p-1}}$ where $x\in Z(G)$
what is the question 
idk I was solving exercise here
prove that group of order p^2 where p prime is abelian using that centrum of p-group is non-trivial
I figured that you need to use that Z(G) and G/Z(G) are cyclic here so G is of the form above (if order of Z(G) is prime)
and so trivially abelian
out of boredom
If $G/Z(G)$ is cyclic, then $G$ is abelian.
And if $G$ has order $pq$, both prime, and non trivial center, then $G$ is abelian from above.
Sigma:
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/533698807301406721/614574616320540672/unknown.png
Im not really sure what to do on this one. I see that for some z in the intersection of the cosets, you can write an arbitrary h = x^-1 yk, but I am not really seeing how to proceed from there
yes. z = xh = yk for some h in H and k in K.
if $z \in xH \cap yK$ then $xH \cap yK = z (H \cap K)$
hochs:
grr i don't really see why that is tho 
can you show at least one of the subset inclusions?
for example $z(H \cap K) \subseteq zH = xH$ and $z(H \cap K) \subseteq zK = yK$
hochs:
im stumped. I know what you mean, just no idea how to justify it
let's start with $z(H \cap K) \subseteq zH$. Can you justify this?
hochs:
you can write any element in $z(H \cap K)$ as $zh$ for some $h \in H$.
kxrider:
yes, now what about $zH = xH$? ($z \in xH \cap yK$ as a reminder)
hochs:
zh = xh'
z = x(h'h^-1)
zH = x(h'h^-1)H = xH right?
Yes.
so you've shown that $z(H \cap K) \subseteq xH$. Likewise (similar calculation) $z(H \cap K) \subseteq yK$ and hence one of the set inclusions $z(H \cap K) \subseteq xH \cap yK$
hochs:
now let's try the other inclusion. To start, take an element $z' \in xH \cap yK$ and you should show that $z' \in z(H \cap K)$
hochs:
the condition $z' \in z(H \cap K)$ can be rewritten as $z^{-1} z' \in H \cap K$. This in turn being equivalent to $z^{-1}z' \in H$ and $z^{-1} z' \in K$. We know that $z' \in zH \cap yK$, or $z' \in zH$ and $z' \in yK$ in particular.
hochs:
do you mean xH?
right, $xH$
hochs:
which we know $xH = zH$ from above
hochs:
likewise $yK = zK$.
hochs:
and to say $z^{-1}z' \in H$ is equivalent to saying $z' \in zH$ correct?
kxrider:
Yes.
I am confused by what I did to show that xH = zH. It seems like you could use the same argument to show that any two cosets of the same subgroup are equal which is clearly not true... 
it comes from the fact (you can check this as a review) that if $z \in xH$ then $zH = xH$
hochs:
oh okay i see now i used the fact that z is in the intersection $xH \cap yK$
kxrider:
Anyway, I think I will sleep on this. Thanks for helping C:
np. night
I have no idea
Blitzkrieg:
Did they specify the geometric interpretation?
Blitzkrieg:
do you know how to write down a diffeomorphism from S^3 to SU(2)?
I was trying to write it but I forgot how to make matrices in here 😂
$ a(\varphi, \theta, \psi) := b_{\varphi}c_{\theta}b_{\psi} =
\begin{Vmatrix}
\cos(\theta/2)e^{i(\varphi+\psi)/2} & i\sin(\theta/2)e^{i(\varphi-\psi)/2} \
i\sin(\theta/2)e^{i(\psi-\varphi)/2} & \cos(\theta/2)e^{-i(\varphi+\psi)/2}
\end{Vmatrix}
$
Blitzkrieg:
nah, it's an algebra book
but now they are writing it as a vector of 4 numbers
I don't know either, there was no such notation earlier
I'm pretty sure they are expressing it in terms of $\mathbb{R}^4$
Element118:
$(\alpha,\beta)\mapsto \left(\begin{array}{cc} \alpha & -\bar\beta \ \beta & \bar\alpha\end{array}\right)$
Seoin:
there we go
with \alpha = a + bi and \beta = c + di you get a map R^4 -> 2x2 complex matrices
and if (\alpha,\beta) is in S^3 then the image has determinant 1 edit: and is unitary
so the exercise is to use geometric interpretation of SU(2) to calculate something in R^4?
seems a bit odd
that's just direct calculations from now, thanks
yeah they are just defining a product on the sphere using this diffeomorphism and asking you to compute something using the definition
it's kind of like we're considering an algebraic object and deliver it to a non-algebraic object so it can too have an algebraic structure
its pretty cool
well SU(2) is already both an algebraic and a geometric(smooth) object
since it is a submanifold of 2x2 compex matrices = C^4
If I want to check the multiplication table of a binary operation is associative, what can I do besides the brute force method ( O(n^3) )
I'm glad you ask because it's
kind of my subject (semigroups)
Look up Light's associativity test
Oh ok
what's the operation?
if it's a common one (addition, multiplication, function composition, etc) you can probably get away just by saying "we know this is associative"
got it
Light's associativity test is the only one I skipped because it was explained badly in my book
also note none of this works on infinite groups... you're usually better off writing the expressions out and showing they're the same
It says that this algorithm doesn’t improve on the worst case scenario
like expand (a + b) + c and a + (b + c)
There's some probability algorithms mentioned on the bottom
If the binary operation is define using some expression then it should be easy
Maybe
by Rajagopalan and Schulman
in general, it's hard to check something is associative
it's hard if you do it in a brute force approach
Ok
Lol
i'm the expert here k
🤔
by "hard" do you mean mathematically hard or just hard for people
I don't think an n^3 algorithm counts as mathematically hard
you still haven't defined hard
There's no easy algebraic method for it I'm guessing
Strict associativity is boring anyway :P
I don’t think we’ll ever need a multiplication table that bugger than 100
nah, polynomial time is usually considered fast
Coherence data ftw
Well ofc polynomial is good
if you think n^3 is slow consider 3^n
it's not boring 
Puer is boring 
Why is that so?
Well. I meant more like
if we want to find groups of a given order say
it's pretty easy for a computer
but with semigroups, it's ultra-hard
Lol
But is checking associativity of a semi group hard?
Well
Nvm
That makes no sense
yeah lol
checking associativity for a semigroup is ultra easy
semigroup is associative 
Check associativity for a 2-group
It's.. interesting xD
What was the original question? 🤔
good algorithms for checking associativity of a magma
set with binary operation
magma = groupoid = set with binary operation
snipus
Lol
magma=groupoid? 
Different name I suppose
yes, it's another name
Sniped
groupoid is a category with every morphism invertible
^

groupoid is also magma
Now why would you use higher math terms, this is like using peano axioms and recursive definition to calculate 12592*298592
Jkjk
category theory is nice
Blitzkrieg:
So I'm guessing no, because there is quaternions
In mathematics, an algebra over a field (often simply called an algebra) is a vector space equipped with a bilinear product. Thus, an algebra is an algebraic structure, which consists of a set, together with operations of multiplication, addition, and scalar multiplication by...
Blitzkrieg:
Blitzkrieg:
because it's just a matter of taking correct basis
and it's supposed to be associative
is it not always associative? I guess not
Blitzkrieg:
it's an algebra with division, but nothing indicates we can take an inverse
by division I guess they mean we can left/right cancel
I guess they mean division algebra
In the field of mathematics called abstract algebra, a division algebra is, roughly speaking, an algebra over a field in which division, except by zero, is always possible.
I don't think it's easy to prove? that page says "Later work showed that in fact, any finite-dimensional real division algebra must be of dimension 1, 2, 4, or 8. This was independently proved by Michel Kervaire and John Milnor in 1958, again using techniques of algebraic topology, in particular K-theory."
I mean maybe it's easier to just rule out dimension 3? but idk
It's 4th exercise in Kostrikin's third tome of introduction to algebra
chapter one, classic groups of small 'dimensions'
idk if dimensions is the right word
I heard something like that, but I assume, it must be easy for dimension 3
I see
honestly I probably have no idea about the subject matter leading up to this exercise
it was just groups of matrices (like earlier) + quaternions
Blitzkrieg:
how about assume that ij = a + bi + cj and left multiply by i to get -j = (ac - b) + (a + bc)i + c^2j
ohh
unless I made a mistake then gotta have c = 0 hence a = 0 hence b = 0
now you can use that they are independent
so ij = 0
oh wait
not c=0, it's already a contradiction at that point
because c^2 can't be -1
Blitzkrieg:
right
works 👌🏿

University
you just got to have good teachers
who make the subject really likable
and then you just go from there
I've tried to learn it in highschool, but there was no good resources
I kind of gave up, but on second year of uni, professor of algebra with which I had lessons with really, gave me a second wind
It was last class of high school 🤷🏿
no
Oh
I mean that I was trying to teach myself group theory in the last year of high school
but only resources I found online were bad
I don't know it
Jacobson’s basic algebra
From group theory I know only the stuff I had in uni
Oh I see
or rings etc
and Kostrikin, though I haven't really read it
it's a good book though, Kostrikin, maybe a bit hard
Ok
but everything is easier when you have an algebraic background
of some kind
probably the most confusing topic in group theory is actions via a group
from my shallow knowledge about it
Lol...
Ok idk what that is
Maybe it’s coming up
I just finished the chapter on groups
Now it’s isomorphism and cayley’s theorem
Pretty useless i feel like
the symmetry group of a triangle acts on a triangle exactly like you think it does
cayleys is pretty useless
it is interesting to think about how small of a symmetric group is sufficient for any group
using cayleys argument you get that S3 is a subgroup of S6, but its obviously contained in S3
Yes. It will tell you that it is isomorphic to a subgroup of symmetric group, but not the one with least order
least order is difficult apparently 
I like Cayley theorem because it has an analogy in the study of inverse semigroups
everything that's analogous is a bit cool
imo
cat is entirely analogies
🙄
oh fuck really?
It's highly doubtful
@final gulch shhhhhh
lol

im learning rings right now
because rings are just semigroups with 0 with additional binary operation of addition
there's just more leverage because of addition
Seems interesting
and then it's trivial to see that D(a) = C(a)
and other way is even more trivial, since C(a) is always a subgroup of G
it was easy, but this exercise has 2 parts so maybe the second will be better
Blitzkrieg:
let me see
so it's a subgroup
Blitzkrieg:
Just realized there is an analogous result of cayley’s theorem about monoid
Interesting I guess
is that stronger? it just looks like the contrapositive
well. You said something like, suppose G has order pq... etc
oh that, right
ya. I wasn't aware that you have Cayley theorem for semigroups, interesting
with semigroup of transformations in place of symmetric group
there's also a similar theorem for inverse semigroups
that they are isomorphic to a subsemigroup of https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_inverse_semigroup
In abstract algebra, the set of all partial bijections on a set X (a.k.a. one-to-one partial transformations) forms an inverse semigroup, called the symmetric inverse semigroup (actually a monoid) on X. The conventional notation for the symmetric inverse semigroup on a set X ...
which is something between a symmetric group and transformation semigroup
Must every ring with a prime number of elements be commutative.
Prove or find a counter example.
Am i right in saying that, \ if there exist $a,b \in R$ (which dont commute) with $ab - ba \neq 0$ that any element of $R$ is of the form $n(ab -ba)$?
Sigma:
does your ring have unity?
all rings have unity
if so: every ring with unity, commutative or not, admits a unique homomorphism from Z
oof
f: Z --> R defined by f(1) = 1
not all rings, those which have unity are called unitarial rings
lmao blitz pls no
nonunital rings don't deserve to be called rings
they should be called "nonunital rings"
technically havent gotten to ring morphisms yet
Manifolds with boundary aren't manifolds
but
great, then say that the subring generated by 1 is a subring
that subring is clearly commutative
just argue that it must be the whole ring
I think the notion of a non-unital ring isn't useful enough that we should have to specify unit when we have one
nonunital rings
or rngs as i like to call then
dont exist

If you're doing stuff like Banach or C* algebras then maybe
But otherwise you're usually working with unital rings
Non-unital ones are ideals anyway
the book doesnt include unity in its definition
shame
im learning Gabriel algebra i guess
are you using D&F?
Saracino
How many algebra books are there holy crap
'Non-unital ones are ideals anyway' 🤔
too many, cuz too few of them are good
I'm pretty sure given a non-unital ring you can stick on a new element 1 and then get a unital ring
And your non-unital ring becomes an ideal in the unital ring
Tbh the world needs just 3 algebra books
isnt there a map from R to
Z x R
or something
Artin if you don't know linear algebra
Jacobson if you do
And Lang or D&F for looking things up
That's it
and aluffi
3 algebra books 🤔 maybe for uni students
Aluffi's exercises aren't that great I'm told, I'm pretty sure anyone who would read that is served well enough by Jacobson or Lang
I read that as "localization" and was confused
let's just end the discussion
Sure, take those and translate them
https://twitter.com/UnusualVideos/status/1165317554513960960
cant post in cats but this one is good
yeah, i cant say i recommend aluffi much
c̳̗̮A̲̬͖T̖̪ ̞͉͚ ̗̥̮ ̲͙͇G̙͓̼e̦̣̤T͇S ̭̰ ͍̦̦ dR̖͎̺a̘̙̭G͓g̤E͕̻͉d͈̠ ͉ ̱̖ͅ i̥̞͕nͅT̞͎̣O̲̼͇ ̜̙ ̫̼̦ ̼t͓̱̱H̥̹̪e͕͎͉ ̩ ̟Vo͈͙̪i͓D ...
6090
23230
it has a bit too much faith in the reader
oh my god what did i just see
rings are weird
a nonunital ring can contain an ideal with unity
Is that weird?
yeah
Seems normal. Idempotent elements generete ideals.
Or not ideals but subrings. Those can be ideals as well, seems pretty ok
what do you mean by "ideal with unity"
cuz surely you don't mean the ideal contains the unit of the ring because you said the ring isn't unital
Should be clear
can't that happen in unital rings?
if R and S are two rings, R is an ideal in R x S
which has a "unity" (1,0)
I was clarifying because I didn't agree with the statement so I wanted to make sure we were using the same definition
Given idempotent e of a ring S, can you have ideal I of that ring, such that e is unity of I.
yes, idempotents correspond to decompositions of your ring as a product
"a ring without idempotents"
maybe you should specify "nontrivial idempotents" because a ring always has 1 and 0
Yes, sorry
but in any case, a ring has no nontrivial idempotents if and only if its specturm is connected
in the zariski topology
I'm thinking it would take a while to explain to me what that means
for any commutative ring R, consider the set of prime ideals of R, call this set Spec R
it turns out that you can define a topology on this set in a natural way
it's called the zariski topology
that's about it
So, decomposition is for commutative rings?
hmm, sure yeah I guess my statement earlier about the spectrum would only be valid for commutative rings
' yes, idempotents correspond to decompositions of your ring as a product' holds in either case?
oh, yes I think that is true for noncommuative rings
as well
for any ring R, if e is an idempotent then so is (1-e)
and you look at the ideals generated by e and (1-e) and those are the rings that make up the product
although maybe that's hard if you're not commutative
cuz of right vs left vs 2-sided ideals
I think the conclusion is: don't ever work with noncommutative rings
So, maximal connected subsets of ring in zariski topology make up decomposition basical
I wrote wrong
ah okay, yes that is correct
This zariski topology seems really interesting
it is :)
I mentored an undergrad who was learning about it this summer
so I've been thinknig about it recently
Thank you.
So I have this question for my abstract algebra class that is:
suppose we have two functions f: X --> Y and p: X ---> Q.
Find a necessary and sufficient condition under which "f factors through p",
ie such that there exists a function F: Q --> Y such that
f = F * p, where * means composition of functions.
I'm new to algebra as this is my first time taking this course, and I'm confused on where to start. I'm trying to think about what condition will this function F exists. I
Blitzkrieg:
i. e. p(x) = p(y) then f(x) = f(y)
one way is clear
suppose that p(x) = p(y) implies f(x) = f(y) and try to prove the other one
ok. Enough hints
I have that listed as a lemma in one of my books, I just copied it tbf
functions on sets have a lot of similarities to linear operators on vector spaces, and by that I mean that number of elements in a set plays similar role to dimension of a vector space etc. At least for functions from the same set on itself and operators from the same set to itself.
I wonder if there's a theory that emphasizes this relation. Like for example maybe category theory
Yes
Vector spaces are cardinals from the categorical perspective
Assuming AOC
@chilly ocean
You'll want adjoint functors for this
Fix a field k
Given a set S, you can form the vector space of formal linear combinations of elements of S, call that k\langle S\rangle
So this is a vector space with S as a basis
And then given a vector space, you can just think of it as a set, and forget that there are other operations involved
The first guy is called the free functor, the second is the forgetful functor
The thing is, these are adjoints
Meaning
Let's call F the free functor and U the forgetful functor
Then Hom_{Set}(S,U(V)) = Hom_{kVect}(F(S),V)
This says that if V is a vector space, then set functions from S to V are the same as linear functions k<S> -> V
In day to day language, this means that a function on the basis of a vector space extends linearly to the whole space
@bleak abyss did I trigger you with that assuming AOC remark?
😻
Let X be totally ordered. so is connexity equivalent to trichotomy?
(I would think it is clearly since were comparing a <=b or a>= b to: a < b, a > b, or a = b)
Did you mean for X to be partially ordered?
Connexity?
Blitzkrieg:
but saying that connexity is equivalent to trichotomy is wrong, because it implies we mean the same relation, the one which partially orders the set X
I dont think this has anything to do with abstract algebra though 
I didn't specify but everyone knows what < means
So far, Abstract Algebra is going great. Though I find myself overthinking these 1-4 line proofs so much.
The early proofs are the most fun ones
Don't worry about overthinking them. Just make sure you don't underthink them
What are the uses for cycles and transpositions?
Like these things about permutation is pretty intuitive, but I don’t really see a lot of applications
Are you asking about why S_n in general is important, or why cycles and transpositions are good for understanding S_n?
Why cycles and transpositions are important
I know permutations are important for sure
So, the idea is that these guys both generate S_n
Every permutation can be written pretty much uniquely as a product of disjoint cycles
Yeah but that’s pretty obvious to me
Like
I’ve figured this out when I played around with permutations
So then the idea is that oftentimes you can find things out about general permutations by just trying them for cycles, and cycles are sorta clear in your mind
For example, what's the order of a permutation?
Oh i c
The lcm of all the orders of the cycles
and when we have a symmetric group $S_n$, it can act on a set of n elements
Element118:
Nope
Conjugation for symmetric group is basically doing a renumbering

So the cycle structure stays the same
Ok
$g^{-1}xg$

Element118:
Renumbering seems like applying a permutation to every element in a permutation group
So, you say two elements x and y are conjugate if there's some g such that g^{-1}xg = y
For example, take the group of invertible matrices. Two matrices are conjugate iff they're similar
yeah, that's the definition
Ok
If A, B are similar matrices, then $A=P^{-1}BP$ for some P
Element118:
The notion of similarity makes sense even for non-invertible matrices, and it turns out two matrices are similar if and only if they're representations of the same linear transformation in a different basis
That idea is pretty simple
If P is invertible, then it sends one basis of R^n to another
Ok
(where R is any field 🙃
I kind of see it
So the idea is push your basis across, apply the linear map, revert to original coordinates
But it’s pretty high level and I need to learn linear algebruh
autocorrect automatically corrected it to bruh not my fault
Yeah that'd be important. Artin does both algebra and linear algebra for what it's worth
Nah I'm holding you accountable for that
But yeah so
One nice thing is that a lot of linear algebraic things are invariant under similarity (characteristic and minimal polynomials in particular)
and if you do linear algebra and abstract algebra, we have representation theory
So you can say "Define the blah invariant of a linear transformation by picking a basis and doing this to a matrix", and the point is that this is well-defined
Since if you choose two different bases, you'll get similar matrices, so they share it
Yup
Ok I’ve actually always thought that’d be a good idea, because linear algebra seems like just the study of a homomorphism
Anyway so, conjugacy ends up being a super important idea in group theory
For example, conjugate elements have the same order
Actually so one good exercise is to show that conjugation by any element is an automorphism of a group
Not sure what automorphism is yet
An automorphism of a group G is an isomorphism G->G
So for example, identity is an automorphism
The map sending an element to its inverse is an automorphism iff the group is abelian

groups are not invertible
Anyway so, the idea there is that (gh)^{-1} isn't necessarily g^{-1}h^{-1}, it's h^{-1}g^{-1}
When are those guys equal for all g and h? When G is abelian
Now the exercise is this
Dami:
🤔
I need to go rn but 30 min later probably will try this
Seems reasonable though
Ah it’s pretty trivial
Yup
And this means conjugate elements share a lot of properties. For example, they must have the same order
It’s a homomorphism is pretty clear
Oh
That’s right
Isomorphism preserves a lot of stuff
Yup
And there's a lot more going on, conjugation is one of the most important things out there in group theory
Now: given an permutation, it has a cycle type
So when you write a group as a product of disjoint cycles, I'm gonna put a requirement here
First off, write all the fixed elements as 1-cycles
So (134) will be written as (134)(2)
Well, the missing one-cycles will remain missing one-cycles anyway
Sure but I'm gonna talk about cycle type so I want to keep track of everything
Second, I'm gonna order the cycles in a certain way (they commute so yeah I can do that): longest cycles first
So now the cycle type of a permutation is just the list of the lengths of the cycles in order (this is now unique)
So (13489)(25)(7) has cycle type (6,2,1)
Prove: two permutations are conjugate in S_n if and only if they have the same cycle type
Wait what?
Two permutation σ and γ are conjugate under that certain kind of automorphism f if f(σ)=γ right?
Since conjugate is a map
those are called inner automorphisms

two elements of a group a, b are called conjugate (or that they belong to the same conjugency class (?)) if there exists an inner automorphism f such that f(a) = b
conjugency, I'm not sure if you spell it like that
An inner automorphism $f$ of a group $G$ is:\
- Pick an element $g \in G$ \
- $f(x)=g^{-1}xg$.
Additionally, relation of being a conjugate is an equivalence relation. Abstraction classes of this relation for the group S_n are very simple as dami already mentioned. You should to have your way with the exercise he gave you.
all finite groups are isomorphic to a subgroup of a symmetric group
welp, forgot to proofread
Element118:
Okay, then you need to introduce infinite symmetric groups
@oblique pecan prealg
this isn't abstract algebra
K
K
Sym(S) is the set of all bijections of S @fading wagon
There shouldn't be a distinction between finite and infinite symmetric groups
there is already a distinction, one is finite and the other is infinite
but sure, let's call all of them symmetric groups

No I don't think so
The point of cayleys theorem is that you can view every group as acting on its underlying set
Which gives an injection into Sym(G)
So every group is a subgroup of a symmetric group
I was just asking about order relations here because I was constructing the proof that theres always a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma
I guess maybe elementary number theory would have been better to ask that in idk
Is this a question?
the second thing yeah is
Here's fine
How do I prove that f is irreducible, if and only if f(x+n) is irreducible.
I tried induction for the "only if" direction, as I am not sure if it makes sense or is the method.
Basically, the base case of n=0 is proved.
Then for n, I said either f(x+n) is irreducible, then we are done. If it is not, then f(x+n) can be written as a product of smaller degree polynomials. But as f is irreducible, deg f is the minimum. Therefore there does not exist polynomials that have a smaller degree than f. Hence f(x+n) must be irreducible.
Does this work ? If so I'm going to attempt the other direction.
f(x) is reducible if and only if f(x+y) is reducible
U mean, prove this instead ?
This is equivalent
May I ask, how do I know when to change the question ? I know its asking the same thing though
Oh ok thanks, I will try that
But may I ask is there any flaws in that proof ?
Or it just doesn't work in general ?
If f(x+n) = g(x)h(x) then f(x) = g(x-n)h(x-n)
yeah. Now comment why g(x-n) and h(x-n) should be non-constant
(are you asking me to do that or telling otoro to do that? :P)
n kind of indicates we have Z in our ring, so I would change that to arbitrary y from our ring
Why is it both though ? As f is irreducible, isn't only either g or h is non-constant ?
We want it reducible
suppose that f(x+n) is reducible... then for some non-constant polynomials g(x), h(x), f(x+n) = g(x)h(x)
for any ring R there is a unique ring homomorphism from Z to R
Well if it is reducible, then f(x) would have factors of smaller degree
so you can always talk about integers living in R
(for any unital ring at least -- please never work with nonunital rings)
ah. I always think of non-unital rings
also the problem was only about n, so there's no need to make it more complicated
I'm sorry, I haven't learnt rings yet, its the next chapter 😅
what is a polynomial to you?
What I think of is a_0 + ... + a_nx^n
ok. With what coefficients
normally coefficients would be from a fixed ring (rng? 🤔 )
For now, is integer coefficients
okay great
you want to prove that if f(x) is irreducible then so is f(x+n). so we'll do the contrapositive. suppose f(x+n) is reducible, then f(x+n) = g(x)h(x) for some g(x) and h(x) BOTH nonconstant
then f(x) = g(x-n)h(x-n). what can you say about g(x-n) and h(x-n)?
Well firstly, deg g + deg h = deg f, as g and h are non constant, substituting (x-n), would result in the same degree for g and h.
Secondly, they both translated n units rightwards ?
This has more to do with the fact that degrees of g(x-n) and g(x) stay the same
Well with the substitution, the degrees of g and h remains unchanged. Which implies f is still the same degree as f(x+n). And as g, h is nonconstant, the coefficients remains unchanged as well
Same goes for f
Well it has sense, deg(g(x-n))=deg(g(x))>0 so g(x-n) is non-constant
yes
Blitzkrieg:
etc
Yes, so the degree still remains the same
Does that implies that it is reducible or something more is needed ?
em
f(x+n) = g(x)h(x) for non-constant g(x), h(x) then f(x) = g(x-n)h(x-n) and g(x-n) and h(x-n) are non-constant
i. e. f(x) is reducible
Is it possible to say that since, deg f, deg g and deg h remains unchanged and that f(x+n) is reducible, f is reducible, since g and h are non-constant
Wait let me simplify.
Basically, f is reducible, because g and h remains nonconstant ?
Sorry 😅
after a shift, yes
The reason being same degree ?
that's one of the possible explanations, yes
Or you could say that
if g(x) is constant then g(x+n) also has to be constant
which is simpler to explain
As for irreducible right ?
Just stick with what you got
Ok, thanks
Why are non-unital rigns considered bad?
why is there no natural way of multiplying elements in R/Z ?
The formula $(ab)(ac_1\cdots c_hbd_1\cdots d_k)=(bd_1\cdots d_k)(ac_1\cdots c_h)$ for cycles, what is happening in this formula?
Whoever:
a and b are being switched
a goes to c_1
c_1 to c_2
etc.
c_h goes to b, which in turn goes to a
then b goes to d_1
...
d_k goes to a which goes to b
assuming the convention for multiplication of permutations for you is like we usually take composites of a function
different question, why would we want to multiply elements in R/Z when Z isn't even an ideal of R
and how does that benefit the argument that it's strange to take direct sums of rings
I don't get it. There's almost no argument for why rings should have an unity
But I guess it's helpful to denote them just as rings, when you work in an environment when it is often the case that unity is needed or necessary
we need to retire the term ring since it is so ambiguous due to this controversy
everyone should write r1ng or rng from now on
seems good to me
Is it true that two cycles commute iff they're disjoint?
well I know disjoint cycles commute, but I don't know whether there are examples of non-disjoint cycles that commute off the top of my head
yes @smoky cypress
Ok
oh fuck really i thought i proved that b4
Rip, what is a counter example?
Think, it's not too hard to come with one
(12)(21)=(21)(12) i suppose
any 2-cycle squared?
you can even get counter examples where one cycle is not just a multiple of the other
Whoever:
A poem in Polish about searching for an ideal in a field:
Oj próbuję ja sobie nocami pomału
W niezerowym ciele szukać ideału
Lecz mam taki pech fatalny
Że co znajdę to trywialny
could you translate it
I try in night little by little
To search for an ideal in a non-zero field (non-zero, I guess they mean non-trivial or something)
But I have such bad luck
That every I find is trivial
lol
very nice poem
Ideals 
algebra exam tomorrow
I’ve never been so prepared for an exam
as far as I can tell, I can answer literally every question he can ask
(we got a list of questions)
Prove that any group with order 20449 is abelian
That's a question I know about
It's pretty trivial I think
@somber bramble
Yes
and I suspect you can somehow show that all groups with such an order are abelian
I think we showed that groups of order p² are at some point?
or sth like that
I don't know about that 😅
Lol
I think you show that any group of order 20449 is isomorphic to the direct product of two abelian groups
@smoky cypress i assume both sylow subgroups end up being normal just by the sylow theorems
i didn't do the computation but if that's not true the statement would be false anyway
Yeah something about sylow theorem



i havent learned that but ok