#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 435 of 407
wait, but what does it mean
Yeah he's trying to define A_n
It's something like number of involutions mod 2 I imagine
I'm still confused
Eyy, sorry I had forgotten, so I read through Fraleigh and he might be less braindead than I thought
Okay so
If you give me a permutation, it partitions the set it's acting on into orbits
See the thing is he's using this to define the alternating group
Which turns out to work but threw me off at first sight
yeah that works fine
orbits(s) is fine notation, removing the s turns it into garbage
Since I had mostly seen it as counting inversions mod 2 or really the correct way which is \prod (sigma(i)-sigma(j))/(i-j)
embed it into O(n) and pass to SO(n)
Lel
I guess you only really need determinant over R to define sign
And something something product of eigenvalues
I guess over C really
One of these days I need to rename the number theory channel to "Representation Theory of \overline{Q}", still feels ever so slightly awkward with Galois theory
i was supposed to learn number theory last semester
but nope
it was my weakest class
I didn't learn much
shame
Yeah soon I'd like to get down and do it
For the summer my immediate priority is algebra and probably AT
what I need to do is just go balls deep into AG
Once I actually get back to doing some math... My mom's knee is hurting a lot right now and as a result I kinda need to get everything
Yeah, meniscus tears and mild arthritis. It really messed her up
Between that, soon I'm gonna have to learn to drive, repair some of the damage that bad sleep and a soda addiction has done... I don't have much time to do things I like :/
Orbits are sets , cycles are permutation
If I have a finite set with a binary operation represented by a cayley table
If I want to show the binary operation is associative, do I have to try out every combination of 3 elements?
ye looking at a group table and determining it is associative is a pain in the ass
you look at the main diagonal and if there is symmetry on each side then the group is abelian
i would just check associativity of the group its self not by just looking at the table if possible
yea typically you verify associativity directly from the definition of your group operation instead of appealing to the Cayley table
unless your group operation is defined from the Cayley table to begin with, in which case lol
Ugh
In the problem there are 4 tables, each table is a binary operation with a group of order 4
And now I have to check whether the operation is associative
Wait if does it help if the group is abelian?
I mean it halves the number of things you need to check
or something like this
but it's still tedious
honestly i would just openly assume associativity
if its not associative then theres no reason to study it
The problem is determine if the binary operation is a group
I googled it and I found out that, up to isomorphism, there are only two groups of order 4
xD
every group of order 5 is abelian
i feel like ive seen this exercise in the past but just skipped it
is this from a book
Yeah
Let $ f \in \mathbb{C}[t]$. Find the Jacobson Radical $\frac{\mathbb{C}[t]}{(f)}$
Raziel:
all i know is that C[t] is the set of polynomials with complex coefficients of indeterminate t
I cant resolve in quotient ring. I know each definition and proposition, but i cant see a solution in quotient ring. Sorry for my english...
what are the maximal ideals of C[t]/f(t)?
i) characterize maximal ideals of A/I in terms of the maximal ideals of A
ii) what are the maximal ideals of C[t]?
iii) use i,ii and the fact that the jacobson radical is the intersection of maximal ideals to find J(C[t]/f)
do you not know what ideals are?
@smoky cypress
Note that no element should be repeated in any line or column on a cayley table, meaning it's very quick to make the groups of order 4
You just have to check if you have a match
what kaynex said is called the latin square property
Oh ok I see
so, I think I made a proof for the fact that any permutation can't be a product of an even and odd number of transpositions. Does this look correct? Does it make any sense?
a little rough around the edges stylistically but that's actually a nice argument! i hadn't thought of it myself before
what are you trying to show?
How do I make it less rough around the edges?
Oh, should I phrase my answer more like the textbook did?
Need some help pls.
Translation: Prove the group (G,*) is abelian if and only if that identity is true for every g and g' in G
g is abelian under the binary operation if a * b = b * a for all a and b in G
dont I need to prove both sides of the implication since it is an if and only if?
generally in abstract you show a property is 2 sided like inverses, commutativity, identiy
so this is my attempt to prove that if the identity holds then the group is abelian, is it correct? I feel like its not valid for some reason
sry for bad quality btw
now I was supposed to prove the opposite ( that if it is abelian the the identity holds)
am I correct in thinking that_
?
^
(gh)^2=g^2h^2 iff ghgh=gghh iff hg=gh by left and right cancellation
boom 1 line proof
How do you know whether you're supposed to use the tombstone or qed? Does it matter?
Do the filters on a boolean algebra, B correspond to (possibly a subset of) the chain-complexes on the modules over the ring generated by B in any meaningful way?
@brisk granite ?
Tombstone and QED are generally the same thing
module*
I'm finding it rly hard for me to prove the splitting criterion for the conjugacy classes of S_n
any hints or clues on how I might proceed?
what kind of abstract course are you taking seems quite all over the place
the first line of the first answer is a good hint
yea, I think I'm just gonna read the whole thing
In Hartshorne he says that "we let v :K --> Z be the valuation corresponding to the discrete valuation ring R where K is the quotient field", how is v defined?
p.130
is the quotient field the field of fractions of R or is it the quotient R/m ? it doesn't really make sense on R/m
hartshorne's old so it means the ring of fractions
simple question but im new to abstract algebra, generically speaking, how do I find how many Albean groups of order n (n in N) there are?
ok thankyou
Could someone please doublecheck that this argument is rigorous?
We have $d=2$, as $A_8 < S_8$ with index $2$
Now, let $H$ be a subgroup of $S_8$ of index $2$. Then $H$ is a normal subgroup of $S_8$ (known statement). Now, by the second isomorphism theorem, we have $A_8 H / H \cong A_8 / (A_8 \cap H)$. But $A_8$ is simple (known statement) and therefore $A_8 \subset H$. But as $|H| = |A_8|$ by Lagrange, $H = A_8$.
Sascha Baer:
This works yeah
There's actually a nice argument that shows A_n is the only index 2 subgroup of S_n for any n (your argument requires n≥5)
Namely, if you have a homomorphism from a group G to an abelian group A, conjugate elements have to map to the same thing
In particular, if you have a map from S_n to Z/2, transpositions must either all go to 1 (trivial hom) or must all go to -1 (sign hom)
This also uses the fact you used about index 2 subgroups being normal
nice, thanks
could I have any pointers as to where you could even start on b) and c)?
double brackets standing for power series
a) is easy: it’s a UFD because Z is one and there’s that one theorem, I think it was by gauss? that we covered that says R UFD ⇒ R[x] UFD. and I know a counterexample to it being a PID
d) is easy because that’s just ℂ
but the other two I’m lost as to where even start
I don’t remember any theorems about the ring of power series nor about a generic quotient like that (that’s the split-complex numbers isn’t it?)
well you could try to see who are the invertible elements
for the power series, I already know them: all the power series with a₀ ≠ 0
yes, so what do the ideals there look like ?
hm, well, if I have a power series which isn’t a unit, then I can rewrite it as Xⁿ*u, where u is a unit, and so the ideal generated by it would be the same as that generated by Xⁿ, right?
so (p,q) would be the same as (Xⁿ, X^m) = (X^(min{n,m})?
does that work out?
that would make it a PID
and then also a UFD cause every PID is a UFD
yes
aight, I’ll have to think thorugh the details a bit more but I think I get it
which leaves us with R[x]/(x²-1)
yeah you have to figure out R[x]/(x²-1)'s secret identity
I mean it’s the split complex numbers, but I know like, no properties of them
I could just google them but there’s no fun in that
have you seen the chinese remainder theorem ?
it's not a UFD for a very big reason
lemme try to think what the CRT states again
it’s one of those theorems that I lose track of very quickly
wasn’t it just like... let $N = n_1 n_2 \cdots n_m$ be natural numbers and $R$ a sufficiently nice ring (a PID I think?), then there exists an injective ring hom $R^N \to R^{n_1} \oplus \dots \oplus R^{n_m}$
now lemme read up what it actually is
Sascha Baer:
isom, not just hom
and nothing with powers of rings
but rather quotients
which makes way more sense
I confused myself with the one theorem from modules over PID
aight, so
$R/(N) \cong R/(n_1) \times \dots \times R/(n_n)$
Sascha Baer:
ah, so $\mathbb{R}[X]/(X^2 - 1) \cong \mathbb{R}[X]/(X+1) \times \mathbb{R}[X]/(X-1)$
Sascha Baer:
yes
now I can look at either of those on their own and if either is not a UFD then the product can’t be either
there is a much more glaring issue when you have a product of rings
they’re not even domains, right
yes
cause (0,a) times (a,0) is 0
yep
also, R[x]/(x+1) and R[x]/(x-1) are both isomorphic to R
if you were wondering
so the ring in c) is isomorphic to R²
if you have a polynomial P you look at P(1) and P(-1), and that gives you an isomorphism
so, I know this statement is false, but I need a counterexample and am failing to come up with one (nor can I find one on google): Every group of order n is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
the first time it could fail is for n=6 (I’ve checked the n=4 case by hand, and for prime numbers it’s pretty obvious)
but for 6 there’s also only two groups, S3 (clearly a subgroup of S6) and Z/6Z (also clearly one)
actually, I’m not so sure anymore that it is false
A acts transitively on itself. So A is a subset of the symmetries of the set A, which is isomorphic to S_|A|. And since A is a group, it’s actually a subgroup of S_|A|. Is this correct?
isn't this cayley's theorem?
every group G is ismorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group acting on G
yes that is correct
but isn’t that “of some symmetric group”?
(not necessarily S_n, when |G|=n)
ah, I see
excuse my sudden surge of quesitons btw, we got the questions catalogue for the algebra exam :P
ideally I should know how to answer all the questions (most are easy, but then some are not) and be familiar enough with the things I use that I could answer some followup questions
(there’s 50 questions on algebra I and another 25 on algebra II, those being “rings, groups and five minutes on modules” and “galois theory”, respectively)
i mean questions are what this channel is for
Questions catalog for exams?
I imagine they're stricter as a result
But wow
And yeah it's a nifty result for sure
I mean it‘s a catalogue of 75 questions (but then the exam is more than a month away so I can actually prep quite well)
in topology they also just released it, there it’s a catalogue of over 150 questions
plus a huge table of properties and whether they are stable under certain operations, and counterexamples of things that don’t hvae them; we’re not supposed to memorize them per se but some are marked as “good exercises” that might be asked (and some are marked as “this is way too hard here’s some references” and one is literally an open question)
this is page 1 of the questions catalogue for algebra
and this from topology
as you can see, the difficulties vary a lot
but I suppose if you get easy questions you’ll have to answer more or get more follow-ups off the catalogue
fuck
Lol. Do they expect you to know that?
apparently
I did not expect it and was not going to learn it, but the prof really really liked it
so I guess I shouldn’t be too surprised
note that you don't need to learn the general formula
just the depressed cubic one
cuz you can always put the cubics in depressed form
by telling them that their dad will never love them
Indeed, all you need to know is how to get the quadratic after the transformation
yea I’ll just have to study the thing
it’s not actually that difficult but I would’ve never invested time into it if it wasn’t on the catalogue
where's a good place to learn abstract algebra for a high schooler?
I'm trynna learn algebraic number theory and galois theory. I know the definitions in abstract algebra (like rings, groups, fields, ideals, quotient rings, splitting fields, etc), but I have trouble using them to build upon concepts
Well, you might wanna get better at using your normal structures first before touching fancy number theory or galois
uh, do you know linalg?
yea
Hm, you might could use Artin's algebra
I personally used Fraleigh and liked it, there's a number of algebra books to use
Free online
@old lava that is the one I was thinking of, but kaynex's thing also is nice
ok, thank you for the help!
Use Lang
^
Use Lang or Dummit and Foote
literally anything but Fraleigh unless you're a high schooler
in which case it's a great introduction to abstract algebra
"where's a good place to learn abstract algebra for a high schooler?"
This guy is a high schooler, my Lang suggestion was tongue in cheek
I bought Jacobson actually and it seems good thus far
Dummit and Foote is literally the cure for insomnia
I am not smart, and I needed something as slow as Fraleigh for an intro.
Not everybody needs it. Just another recommendation
From the epsilon amount of time that I glanced at Fraleigh I don't know if I like it among the slow ones
Mostly the way he constructed A_n made me angry
:o Any other good examples for gentle intros to abstract?
There was some question someone asked here and I read through a bit of Fraleigh and was tempted to shoot him in the lung
Lol I dunno any good ones, it's more like "This can't be optimal because optimal ought be good and this isn't"
I liked Herstein I guess, though it has less content
"Topics in Algebra"
And also it does function composition as x(f) instead of f(x) which is philosophically the correct answer but is non-standard and thus inconvenient
I wish composition was left to right but that's just not the way the world works
Never even heard of that
I've heard the names Pinter and Gallian before but I can't testify for either
Really I think Herstein was cute but Artin is probably the correct book with which to learn about algebra, especially if you're not a priori interested in it
Since it apparently situates algebra within other parts of math
Also it does linear algebra if you're rusty on that/haven't had a correct linear algebra class
(Tbh it might even be fine to learn LA from scratch with since it seems to spend non-trivial time on it, but I'm not sure)
haven't had a correct linear algebra class
yeah that
the coset $aH$ is only subgroup when $a \in H$, right?
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
Yea
k
aH needs the identity to be a subgroup
yep
if a isnt in H then a^-1 isnt either
and so aH doesnt have aa^-1 = e
oh ok
its trivial
@full blaze you're trivial



guys - would this be appropriate for universal algebra questions?
i'm torn between this and category theory
this should be a very simple question anyway: I want to prove an ideal subset of a lattice is a sublattice
but having a little trouble proving the infimum of x,y in ideal I is in I
using the down-set hypothesis
basically i'm proving the ideal is a sublattice by the definition of ideal
@magic owl yeah, inf{x,y} ≤ x
I see your point, I think
if x ⋀ y is x or y, then it will be in the ideal
if x ⋀ y = z, then z ≤ x and z ≤ y and then z = z ⋀ x or z = z ⋀ y; thus, z is in I
you don't need that casework
you can just say inf{x,y} ≤ x and x ∈ I, and therefore inf{x,y} ∈ I by (i)
Im trying to prove the orbit-stabilizer theorem. does this make sense?
The mapping $f: G/G_x \rightarrow \mathcal{O}(x)$ shall be defined such that $f(gG_x) = gx$. It must hold that that $f$ is surjective because for any $y \in \mathcal{O}(x)$, there exists a $g$ such that $gx = y$, and, since the coset $gG_x$ - or an equivalent coset - is in the coset space, $f(gG_x) = gx = y$. $f$ must also be injective because $f(g_1G_x) = f(g_1G_x) \implies g_1x = g_2x \implies x = g_1^{-1}g_2x$. Hence, $g_1^{-1}g_2 \in G_x$ and $g_1G_x = g_2G_x$.
wut?
what's going on with latex?
$beans$
not reading #changelog 🤦

can you guys understand my latex code?
no
$pls work$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
oh nice
The mapping $f: G/G_x \rightarrow \mathcal{O}(x)$ shall be defined such that $f(gG_x) = gx$. It must hold that that $f$ is surjective because for any $y \in \mathcal{O}(x)$, there exists a $g$ such that $gx = y$, and, since the coset $gG_x$ - or an equivalent coset - is in the coset space, $f(gG_x) = gx = y$. $f$ must also be injective because $f(g_1G_x) = f(g_1G_x) \implies g_1x = g_2x \implies x = g_1^{-1}g_2x$. Hence, $g_1^{-1}g_2 \in G_x$ and $g_1G_x = g_2G_x$.
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
Im trying to prove the orbit-stabilizer theorem. does this make sense?
@brisk granite that looks ok to me
You might want to argue that your mapping is well defined
Ie g’Gx=gGx implies gx=g’x
valid point max, ye when dealing with mappings with cosets as inputs it could be not well defined
in the strict sense, you must always show that your mapping is well defined
Note that the function $f$ is well defined because $gG_x = g^{\prime}G_x \implies G_x = g^{-1}g^{\prime}G_x \implies g^{-1}g^{\prime} \in G_x$. Thus, $g^{-1}g^{\prime}x = x \implies g^{\prime}x = gx$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
does this look ok?
Also, I've heard statements like two groups are the same "upto isomorphism". what does that mean?
Also, why is it that groups of order 4 must be isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/{4Z}$ or $\mathbb{Z}/{2Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/{2Z}$?
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
why not both or neither?
ah, so, it just means that there exists an isomorphism
the gcd of (2,2) is 2
ok?
therefore by theorem that direct product is non cyclic
but is abelian
do you know a non cyclic group of order 4 that is abelian
2 groups one cyclic one non cyclic cannot be ismorphic
Which one is correct?
Let H <= G. If [G : H] is a prime power of the smallest factor then H is a normal subgroup of G.
Let H <= G. If [G : H] is the smallest prime factor of |G| then H is a normal subgroup of G.
Help
I've unlocked this channel by starting group theory
attah baby
You know diff geo?
not a lick
im studying for my final in abstract right now, for tomorrow lul
ring theory cuh
ye
i have a math professor i chat with weekly who specialized in noncommutative geometry
max planck institute fellow

That's crazy
russian mad man
wew noncommutative geom
gonna ask my current abstract prof if he can prep me for grad algebra 1
cuz hes a boss as well

Are you gonna be a theoretical physicist
leaning more to a mathematical physicist
Oh I thought they were the same
sure
arent they the same kinda

Well, monic means the coefficient of the highest degree is 1
yup sorry
it said leading coefficirnt 1
so i thought monic meant sth like x^2 + x + 1
all coeffs 1
nah fam
@bleak finch the 2nd is correct and called Frobenius theorem. Idk for the first which is a generalization
@bleak finch the second one is correct. you should be able to easily construct a counterexample to the first statement
(think of groups of order 8 and subgroups of index 4)
that's not standard notation as far as I know
It's from herstein if that helps
surely that book defines A(S) before this
just look through the previous pages until you find it
I think A(S) is the symmetric group of S and the homomorphism mentioned is the permutation representation of G on S associated to the (canonical) action of G on the set of right cosets of H
based on the context that is my guses as well
but it shouldnt be that hard to find where herstein defines that notation
Out of context alternating group of S would've seemed more likely, maybe
Maybe based on the theorem we can reverse engineer it
Oh
A(S) = Sym(S)
Herstein ples
so it's the group of all bijections S -> S then
with composition as your operation obviously...
I'd like help starting out on this
I'm not sure where to begin
umm, if I could figure out how to create a subgroup of order p^{k+1} from subgroups of orders p^{1},p^2, p^3, p^4,. . . p^k
then strong induction could work
is that even possible tho?
Somewhere along the line with k = n + a, where a>0? Idk
wdym?
Can you first show that the group must have a subgroup of order p?
Giving answers is not teaching
This may help?
Yup you can use induction by quotienting you group with a normal subgroup of order p @brisk granite
Is there any easier way of determining the order of <A> than just computing a bunch of products? Based off my calculations the result seems to be infinity but I’m not sure
If A is finite ordre you have n such that A^n=I2
The characteristic polynomial of A is X^2 + X + 1
So if A is finite order, 3 divides the order
Because the minimal polynomial of A muste be X^2 + X + 1 (A is real)
And X^2 + X + 1 divides X^n-1
(X^2 + X + 1 = (X^3-1)/(X-1))
A^3 works I think
Maybe I'm wrong but A is a diagonalizable matrix in C of eigen value j and j^2 where j = e^(2ipi/3)
So A^3 ~ I2
I think I figured out an answer! Yay
For all p-groups, we know there exists an element with an order of the form $p^k$ where $1 < k < n$. Thus, the cyclic group generated by this element has an order of $p^k$. Call this group $H$. We can use strong induction to prove that there exists a subgroup of $G$ with an order of $p^k$ for all $k$.\
Base Case: We know that there exists a subgroup of order $p^{0} = 1$ (the one containing only the identity).\
Inductive hypothesis: for a subgroup $H$ with an order $p^k$, there exists at least one subgroup, for all $g < k$, with an order of $p^g$.\
From the inductive hypothesis, we've already covered all orders upto $p^k$. Now, consider the Quotient group $G/H$. All subgroups $G/H$ have orders that divide $p^{n-m}$, and, since $n-m < n$, we know that there is a subgroup of $G/H$ with an order of $p^g$ for all $g \leq n-m$ (via the inductive hypothesis). Further, since the subgroup of $G/H$ are in bijection with the subgroups of $G$ containing $H$, there must be some subgroups of $G$ with orders greater than $p^k$. Upon using the bijection $f$ defined in \textbf{Problem Eleven} (for a subgroup $K \leq G/H$ where $K = {g_1H, g_2H, g_3H,\dots, g_rH}$, $f(K) = g_1H \cup g_2H \cup g_3H \cup \dots \cup g_rH$), it's clear that for an arbitrary subgroup $K$ of $G/H$, $\left| f(K) \right| = |H||K| = p^{m+g}$. Since $m \leq m + g \leq n$, we have thus proven the existence of subgroups of $G$ with orders of $p^k$ for all $k \leq n$.
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
This was the answer I made to the question I put up yesterday I think
Does this make sense?
Is my use of strong induction correct?
Here's the question
I see several issues
what is the point of the group H you define in the first paragraph? all youve done is said "there is a subgroup of some order strictly between p and p^n" which doesn't help you at all (and is also false if n = 2 let's say because there aren't any integers k with 1 < k < 2).
your inductive step is awkward and probably not what you want. I think you are trying to use that "for all p-groups of order less than p^k" or something like that, because when you try to apply it later it seems like you're trying to apply it to G/H
but your inductive hypothesis only says it for subgroups of G, not quotients of G
then in the actual proof, what is H? just something random? is it the H you started with in the first paragraph? What if H is not normal?
Thank you
I'll make these corrections
Is the proof itself flawed?
Like, the logic
it's hard to evaluate because I don't know what your inductive step is supposed to be
Ok, I'll repost soon
also because you haven't guaranteed that H is normal
so G/H might not even be a group
Oh yea
I think what you are trying to do is on the right track though, other than those issues
and also you havent said what f is
oh wait I see
defined in some previous problem
wait, sorry to interupt but does Lagrange theorem has something to do with this question?
yes but not really
lagrange's theorem is in the wrong direction
but it's at least a related statement
well actually I guess the statement |G| = [G : H]|H| is relevant, I would guess something along those lines is going on in the "bijection from problem 11"
doesn't the theorem guarantees the existance of subgroups of every order that divides groups order?
no
definitely not
it says that the order of a subgroup divides the order of the group
yes that I know
also that statement isnt even true for groups of non-prime-power order
the only thing you can say is that if p is a prime factor of the order of the group, then there is an element (and hence a subgroup) of order p
all of that was too much for me back then so i carried that course to this year
now I feel ready : D
Notation question: So do we mean the same thing by G x H if G and H are groups, that we mean by S x V if S and V are just sets in the sense that
if G refers to (G, +) and H refers to (H, +) then G x H means (G x H, +) ?
yeah i suppose
there is a more general definition though
the group operation doesn't have to be the same
the product of $(G, \circ), (H, \star)$ is $(G \times H, )$ with $$ defined as: $$(a, b) * (x,y) = (a \circ x, b \star y)$$ where $a,x \in G$ and $b,y \in H$
Thanks!
@oblique river hey, so, I was thinking about the stuff you pointed out, and I tried to improve my proof
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
does this make sense?
Is the inductive step clearer?
I really hope I've grasped strong induction correctly cuz it's my first time using it
Oh, also, the bijection f just take a subgroup of G/Z(G) and sends it to the subgroup of G that is the union of the cosets
yep this is a much better proof! nice job
TeX comment: every single symbol needs to be in math mode
including all the p's in "p-group"
so you have to type ``$p$-group"
Also, general note, I would say "consider its center Z(G)" not just "its subgroup Z(G)" for maximal clarity
Buncho Bananas:
quick question. Can the reflector in the dihedral group by about any line of symmetry?
Yes
As in, reflecting across any line of symmetry will give you a valid symmetry of your polygon
no, I mean, you know how the generators of $D_n$ are $\rho$ and $\tau$. Can $\tau$ be any reflection that is a valid symmetry?
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
Yes that's true as well
Ok so I have 2 questions that I cant find clear answers to elsewhere: (i) So are cyclic groups and cyclic subgroups the same thing? I've seen what seems like 2 different concepts using the exact same notation, i.e. <a> = {e, a, a^2, ... , a^(n-1)} and <a> = {... a^-2, a^-1, e, a, a^2, ... }, & (ii) is Zn = Z/nZ or just isomorphic? because I dont get how they'd be equal if Z/nZ contains a bunch of cosets while Zn contains integers...
You can show that whatever rotation and reflection you pick, you generate the whole group of symmetries of your polygon
@clear obsidian if a^n = e, then you have that a^(-1) = a^(n-1)
So they really are the same concepts
Wait Zn is simply a notation for Z/nZ
oh, ok
Bad notation, but yeah it's commonly used notation
For the sake of brevity, maybe
bad notation because it takes away from the fact that it's a quotient group?
Bad notation because Z_p is the p adic integers
oh, ok
@clear obsidian $C_n \cong \bbZ/n\bbZ$
where Cn is the cyclic of n element groups yes
Darkrifts:
ok so these include Zn ^^^ ?
well, Cn ~= Zn
they're both just cyclic groups
Groups you really don't care about a strict equality of the sets and operation, you really only care about isomorphisms
I'll write Z_n until the day I die
The worst is when you're constructing Z_p using Z_n
(Granted, that isomorphism is only for Z/nZ as a group, not to be confused with the version with additional ring structure Z/(n))
kek
This happened to me recently
$Z_p \cong\underset{\leftarrow}\lim ,,\bbZ_{p^n}$ or some shit right
Darkrifts:
Yeah
like who writes that shit
tbh
Thanks Darkrifts
isomorphism is all you care about with groups
yeah that makes sense, so similar deal with rings then I guess?
but uh, some things (i.e. sets) you need stricter equivalencies for
Rings, groups, fields etc you care about isomorphisms
so what does the Z/(n) notation mean?
oh that's me being dumb and denoting modding out the ideal by n
literally the same as Z/nZ
ah alright
ah yeah I got to homeomorphisms recently
and you really only care about spaces "up to iso/homeo-morphism"
since you can just go from one to the other without losing anything and all that
mhmm that makes sense, thanks!
also that's an informal as hell statement, so uh
be careful with things like those
also don't use Z_n for the cyclic group
so the definition of R as the unique ordered field with Q as a subfield up to isomorphism, for which the supremum property holds up to isomorphism - is an example of this: only caring about iso/home-morphisms thing right?
because I guess theres things isomorphic to R with these properties also
well yeah there are things which are isomorphic of course
i.e. multiply everything by 2
(though that's literally the same field afterwards)
note: homomorphisms are not isomorphisms
ah yeah isomorphisms are bijections that preserve the operators instead of just functions right?
In the group case yeah
Not generally
You also need an inverse that is a morphism generally
isomorphisms are maps which allow an inverse such that composing them gets you the identity iirc
I actually havent heard of morphism yet, is that just a relation that perserves the operator that doesnt have to be a function?
morphisms are basically generalizing functions in a sense
homomorphisms are your morphisms of Group
That's a shitty explanation on my part, i concede
a morphism is something that morphs A into B
drawn $A \to B$
Darkrifts:
hmm alright, good to know
yeah you don't need to worry about them atm, though they're nice to have
isomorphisms require an inverse, normal morphisms don't
Yeah I guess really anything is good to learn for me at this point basically
anyway, enough distractions, get back to your groups
hmm, if you're considering structures with a given signature, do the homomorphisms wrt that signature preserve all the operators like $h(x_1 \times_A \dots \times x_n) = h(x_1) \times_B \dots \times_B h(x_n)$ or something?
Darkrifts:
(where x_A and x_B are the corresponding function/operators of n arity, i'm horrible at notating this since i'm pleb)
Are there any interesting group actions of D_n?
Ones that aren't the obvious ones tho
like, D_n acting on the vertices or sides, etc
Please don't use Z_n to mean "cyclic group of order n" ever once you leave a first course in group theory. Either use C_n or Z/nZ but be careful cuz they kinda mean different things (which is also why I'm confused; which one do you mean when you write Z_n?)
C_n = a cyclic group of order n, Z/nZ = a cyclic group of order n with a chosen generator
(namely, 1)
I feel like not enough people respect that convention but they should
It's the same as the difference between "a 2-dimensional vector space over R" and "R^2"
I need to show that U(n) is isomorphic to the semi-direct product of U(1) and SU(n)
But i have no idea how that semi product would look like. I thought that I could take exp(ix) from U(1) and Q from SU(n)
And their product exp(i x)*Q would then be a member of U(n). But that is a direct product then isn't it?
what are U(n) and SU(n) again ?
technically, a direct product is also a semi-direct product
Side question: does anyone know what the notation $R\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} R$ where R and R are abelian groups means? Is it just direct product? What’s the intention of including the Z?
MaxJ:
probably Tensor product
np, i dont even know what the tensor product is tho
so it's not exactly the same as a direct product
Yeah I wasn’t thinking when I was looking at it because it was the less-complicated part of the statement haha
@hot lake U(n) are unitary matrices so QQ^h = I, SU(n) are unitary with determinant 1
The exercise says to show its not isomorphic to a direct product but is isomorphic to the semi direct one
But I dont see how I could construct it
direct product is a specific version of semidirect for one
ah I see
But uh, other than that, do you know how to do the semidirect?
what is your decomposition into a "direct product" ?
And their product exp(i x)*Q would then be a member of U(n). But that is a direct product then isn't it?```
how are you multiplying a size 1 matrix with a size n matrix ?
@true ingot
Im just treating it as a multiplication of a matrix by a complex scalar exp(i x)
That way I think I get a bijection between U(1)xSU(n) and U(n)
that won't work
when n > 1 you can multiply a matrix by any nth root of unity and it won't change the determinant
Oh yea hmm
Hey y'all. I'm a bit confused on something
Reading about differences between vector spaces and modules, and how bases work in each
The book I'm reading says to consider Z as a Z-module over itself. Then it says that {2,3} is spanning but can't be reduced to a basis.
Yes
Doesn't Bezout's identity say that since 2 and 3 are coprime, there are integers x and y such that 2x + 3y = 1, and therefore that generates all of Z?
Yes, that's why they are spanning
That's why it's spanning
Sniped
Okay, so then the "basis" part is what I'm not understanding
There's a subtle difference I'm missing.
So with vector spaces, given a spanning set
Basis needs to be minimal
You can always eliminate some elements to get a basis
Oh, and the fact that you can't take some of those elements out and still generate the whole thing is the problem
Here you cannot do that
{2} and {3} do not span all of Z
Yes
Okay, got it.
Whereas with vector spaces, when you have a spanning set that is no longer a spanning set if you remove some elements, you're guaranteed that there isn't an even smaller spanning set that used a different set of elements to start with
Because yay division
I mean you can also think linear independence
Basis has to span + be linearly independent
But {2,3} is a minimal spanning set but it isn't linearly independent
(just arriving but)
fields are nice and non-fields are non-nice
here is some crazy shit: every vector space has a basis (under axiom of choice). for example, a countable direct product of copies of R, the reals
recall that a basis only allows for finite linear combinations
so a countable direct sum has an "obvious" basis whereas a countable direct product doesn't
however, the countable direct product of Z's does not have a basis as a Z-module so it's not a free Z-module!
it's an example of a torsion-free Z-module that is not free
whereas all finitely generated torsion-free Z-modules are free
Hi, I've been stuck for a few hours on something that I feel should be simple
How can I prove that the intersection of two coprime ideals is the product of the two ideals?
Hoping to get some help on this, I'm really frustrated at myself.
More specifically I'm trying to prove that in a PID, with (x) and (y) coprime, (xy) is equal to the intersection of (x) and (y)..
write (x) \cap (y) as a principal ideal.
it has some generator z
what can you say about z in relation to x and y?
well, one of these inclusions holds trivially...
Alright. I just got it, sorry guys.. I don't know why it was so hard for me. I just realised if (x) and (y) are coprime then there are X in (x) and Y in (y) st X+Y=1. Then some substitution gets me to what I want
Thanks for the help
Getting really frustrated at algebra, feels like I'm not getting any better at solving problems.
Well, how do you usually look at them?
I don't think I'm approaching them in a specific manner. I kinda just list things I know about the question and what I have to prove, and start trying to work from there.
hmm
It's just annoying because I do enjoy the subject and it's super interesting but I've been struggling with it all semester
There's usually more than one way to reach the end goal but almost all are homotopic paths, so don't be afraid of looking an entirely different direction
Which is a little demoralizing I suppose
Sorry, just needed to rant a little, it is getting a little off topic
Thanks anyway!
You could have looked at your thing as your principle ideal, but iirc don't you have UFD?
which might've helped if you didn't list I guess (though you didn't really explicitly use it in your proof)
I'm actually not sure how to use the fact that it's a UFD. I think I didn't actually use the fact that I had a PID, but I did assume commutativity.
Thanks for the help anyway. I'm gonna get back to it.
npg = "no problem, G"
but actually though can you please give context?
sure
I was right 🤢
I mean this lemma is proving that np(g) is equal tos omething
but presumably there was some previous definition
yea, but I can't seem to find it
is it the number of p-sylow subgroups of G?
whelp there you go
I'll just work with that assumption
yea, I found where he defined it
so, uh, I missed
it
So is a point with rational coefficients just (r1 r2, ... , rn) with each ri an element of Q ?
yes
so, you know how there's an injective homomorphism between $S_{n} \times S_{m}$ and $S_n$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
And that also means there's an injective homomorphism between $S_{n} \times S_{m}$ and $S_k$ for any $k \geq m + n$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
But, are there any injective homomorphisms for smaller $k$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
?
yea obv
the first one has order nm the second one n
it cant be injective
(if n and m are greater than 1)
no, I mean, can there be an injective homomorphism $f: S_n \times S_m \rightarrow S_k$ where $k < n + m$?
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
no
because if n and m are greater than 1, nm>m+n
oh yes
Pardon my stupidity, I'm kinda new to group theory
mb
yes
example?
because f(Sn×Sm) is a subgroup of Sn+m if f is a morphism
and then you use Lagarange theorem
I'm not trying to show that there is an injective homomorphism from S_n X S_m to S_{n+m}
Done taking notes on abstract algebra first 30 chapters. Time for Galois theory boys!
Because I want the corsera course certificate for my cv, this is the book
@hollow peak m parmi m+n ♿ ((m+n)!)/n!m!)
This is a hard problem for general m and n I think @brisk granite
I think you can inject S2xS3 in S4
oh no lel, A4 has not subgroups of order 6
Suppose $S_4$ acts on a specific conjugacy class of $S_4$ by conjugation. Specifically, the conjugacy class consisting of elements with one $3$-cycle. This allows us to define a homomorphism $f: S_4 \rightarrow S_3$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
What do you mean consisting of elements with one three cycle?
Can you give me an example of such a thing?
Um, if you write the elements of that conjugacy class in cycle notation, it's a 3 cycle
That's what I mean
Is that a conjugacy class?
Wdym?
Also group actions on a group with n elements give you a map to S_n
yes
There are three elements in that conjugacy class
oh shit
nvm
wrong conjugacy class
🐴
the one with two two cycles
that's what I mean't
got confused
but I still have the same question
So you take the congugacy class of elements of the form (ab)(cd)
yep
And you act on it by conjugation
yes
How big is that congugacy class?
Three elements
Which is where we get S3
Yea, but I'm trying to show that the map is surjective
I'm not rly sure where to begin
It's not injective, as that would imply |S3| ≥ |S4|
🐴
um yes
Oh, yes you know that lel
I feel like if the question isn't really simple, then it's hard for me to do a problem about surjectivity. Like, with injectivity, I can always do stuff with kernals but idk what to do here
Not the easiest way to do it, but you could just find each S3
Hopefully something more clever
@brisk granite
There's a very easy homomorphism S4 → S3, simply hold one of the elements. Can you show that they are the same?
I'm not sure if they are but they probably are
It isn't? :O
Think about why that wouldn't work from S^n -> S^n-1
(that's not the reason it doesn't work, the reason it doesn't work is because it's not a well defined map)
But that should give you intuition why it wouldn't work without going through the work of showing its not well defined
Oh yeah, duh I can't make that a function lel
What am I thinking of?
S3 is a subgroup of S4, that's what I'm showing
@quaint wraith this is not the right channel
I'm trying to find the number of 2-sylow subgroups of D_n
Suppose $|D_n| = 2^{a}m$ where $m \in (2\mathbb{Z})^{\complement}$. Then, the number of sylow $2$-subgroups can be $m$, but cannot exceed it. \
Now, consider the group of symmetries of an $n$-gon with an order of $2^{a}m$ and a $k$-gon with an order of $2^{a}$ ($D_n = D_{2^{a-1}m}$ and $D_{2^{a-1}}$). There are exactly $m$ $k$-gons that can be inscribed with the $n$-gon (such that the vertices of the polygons meet), and there exists a subgroup of $D_{2^{a-1}m}$ that are the symmetries of a given inscribed $k$-gon. This is one possible $2$-sylow subgroup of $D_n$, and there exactly $m$ of these kinds of subgroups for each of the $k$-gons. Hence, there are $m$ $2$-sylow subgroups in $D_n$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
does this make sense?
I will see
That's a terrible way to say an odd number jesus
Don't ever do that
@brisk granite
Is your notation that |D_n|=2n or n?
2n
@brisk granite it makes sense to me but yes don't do that to say odd number o_O I also think it would be less confusing if you used |D_2n|=2n and it would look cleaner since it would get rid of the -1s
but the 2n bit is just my own notation preference, i'm sure plenty of people disagree
Z/5Z is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
is Z/(1+5Z) ={0, 1, 2, 3, 4}?
up to isomorphism
No this makes no sense
1 + 5Z is not a subgroup in Z
so you can't take the quotient of it
oh right
it's an element of the quotient group I believe
Yes
so, this isn't really an abstract algebra question, but do you guys also spend more than an hour on a single problem?
Like, it took me a while to come up with the sylow 2-subgroup thing I put above
Am I really slow?
How do I become faster?
Every problem seems so different; so, it feels like I'm climbing a new mountain every time. That's why I'm afraid doing more problem won't help me
I've spent 6 months on one problem; that's the nature of math
I'm not trying to be a gatekeeper like "you don't know a long time until you've..." i'm just saying that yes, the nature of math is that slow progress isn't always bad
big conjectures take the big boyes like years to do
sometimes things take a while to show because 1) you're approaching it the wrong way now and will find a better method by which to attack it or 2) it's just hard to show and you need to build up more and more pieces to finish the final argument
I always start my problem sets the day I get them (we get like 2 weeks) because i know I'll have to read it then spend a while understanding the question and then usually several days of sleeping on it and waking up to a new idea which turns out to be another dead end and i feel super slow because most people in my classes and the professors I'm working with can do it all in one go without notes or anything but ultimately if I get there in the end who cares how long it took me (unless it's an exam, then I'm screwed and rarely score above 70%)
And practice and experience help too, obviously every problem is different but you start getting a feel for what kind of things to throw at it
Speaking of what to throw at things! Anyone know any theorems relating to the order of elements in a p-group? I'm working on a problem and every group that meets the conditions we're interested in only has elements of order 1, 2, 4 and 8 (8 only for D16 X C_2^n) so I started listing all possible numbers of elements of each order for 2-groups and I ruled out all but one of order 32 using the fact that the number of elements of order 2 has to be odd, if for example you have an element of order 16 you also have to have an element of order 8 etc and using frobenious' theorem, and i have a lot more left for 64 so I'm wondering what else I can throw at it
The annoying one with order 32 is (n2,n4,n8,n16) = (17,10,4,0). I know from groupprops that there is no such group but I need to know why and since the number of things needing to be ruled out is much longer for 64 (and i don't even want to think about 128) I need some theorem i can apply or something that isn't a case specific proof
So yeah, any ideas welcome! Things that don't apply to the example I gave too
(Z/2Z)^n has only order 2 elements
Z/2^nZ has order 2^r elements for 1<=r<=n
So idk if you have a specific propertie for a p-group
Can someone help me understand why does this work this way: $$\left[i, a_1, . . . , a_k, j, a_{k+1}, . . . ,a_r\right] \circ \left[i,j\right] = \left[i, a_1, . . . , a_k\right] \circ \left[j, a_{k+1}, . . . ,a_r\right]$$
dog:
how do I interpret the composition of cycles kinda, I mean I think I got it once but not sure if I was thinking about it correctly
Composition if cycles is just composition of permutations
Do you know how to write permutations with arrows between two layers of numbers?
but not sure how composition works here, like how do you do g(f(x)) if f and g are permutations
Do you understand that diagram so far?
not really
Well on the top row you have the numbers 0 through 4
On the bottom row you also have numbers 0 through 4
The red arrows tell you what the permutation does to each number
what is that middle row for
A permutation is just rearranging objects, so this is a nice visual
Ive seen it in different form
just like a table of domain and codomain
so how would this permutation look like as composition of cycles?
It's just telling you p(1)=3 and then putting the numbers back in order
The reason we wanna put them back in order is so we can compose easily
yeah makes sense
So you have a blue permutation and you follow it by a red permutation and the end result is the purple permutation
It's really just function composition, if you know how that works
ye
Permutations are bijections from {1,2,3,...,n} to itself
I mean, thats how I imagined it but in the example I shown its not that obvious to me that that transpose kinda cuts the cycle in half
Transpose?
oh ye my bad
You can break a permutation into a sequence of cycles
And the cycles you get are unique
You can break each cycle into transpositions
yeah I know that
Seems weird to know that but not permutation composition 
I do know these, you still didnt explain why the transposition cuts the cycle
and its different composition
the one you showed are straight forward, I just didnt know how to interpret composition of n element cycle and 2 element cycle
Ok say you have a 4 cycle (1 2 3 4)
How would you break that into a composition of transpositions?
[12][23][34] right
Yes
so like compostitions would be [34] o [23] o [12] but idk
Now draw the two layer permutation diagrams to check this works
The composition is actually the way you wrote it first
[1 2] o [23] o [34]
So (3 4) is the first permutation
(2 3) is the second
(1 2) is the third
Remember function composition is right to left
Uhhh
Maybe I got that wrong lol
so waht you want to say that the way to explain waht I wanted to understand is to divide the thing I wrote into transpositions or what
I gtg
cause Im not sure if you actually know why that thing works or jsut saying random things you know
thanks for your time though, you actually helped me understnad other thing I was not sure of
@wind steeple re-reading what I wrote that bit is wrong or i wouldn't be seeing the groups I'm trying to classify. Oh well that's what happens when I try to write math up when I'm half asleep
i might be wrong because i only just woke up and my brain is dead but I think $$\left[i, a_1, . . . , ak, j, a{k+1}, . . . ,a_r\right] \circ \left[i,j\right] = \left[j, a_1, . . . , ak\right] \circ \left[i, a{k+1}, . . . ,a_r\right]$$ @bold coyote
Jamie:
And how you see that is again if you use the diagrams which I'm on my phone and can't easily make so i guess I can try to explain it verbally
I copied what I wrote from the textbook
With composition you want to look at the rightmost permutation first, so if you had for example (1 2 3 4)(1 3) the rightmost sends 1 to 3. Then you go to the next one and see what 3 is being mapped to (4 in this case) and the resulting permutation will then map 1 to 4. Then you go back to your rightmost permutation and see what 4 is being mapped to (4 again) and then back to the first which maps 4 to 1 so the resulting one has 4 mapped to 1. Then 2 is fixed by the rightmost one and mapped to 3 by the other one so you end up with (1 4)(2 3)
aaah ok I kinda see it, will think about it deeper later but yeah, I guess these small examples are way to go
In the one you sent i goes to j and then j goes to $a_{k+1}$ so I goes to $a_{k+1}$. $a_{k+1}$ is mapped to itself by the transposition and $a_{k+2}$ by the cycle so $a_{k+1}$ goes to $a_{k+2}$ in the result and so on. Similarly j goes to i and i goes to $a_{1}$ etc gets you the other bit
Jamie:
If you still need help later poke me, hopefully by then I'll be both more awake and not typing on a phone and can be more useful :p
Oh and also! It might be helpful to take your abstract example and turn it concrete
So like for example take (1 2 3)(i j), (1 2 3 4 5)(i j) etc until you get a feel for it (or keep the a_k notation and just set some specific value for r)
Plus also Wolfram alpha should be able to compute permutations like that so you can double check your work
idk where to start
If it helps, I've shown that the number of sylow 2-subgroups in D_n is m when 2n = 2^a \times m.
Also, the notation I am using is |D_n| = 2n
@brisk granite what's N? What's its order? What's the order of a sylow 2 subgroup? What about the index? Or look at the index of the intersection of <r> and P in P
I haven't actually done the problem myself but that's where I'd start
hello, can someone help me with groups?
group G, subgroup H
consider all the cosets of H in G
does there always exist a set of cosets that covers the entire group
*disjoint cosets
What have you tried?
cosets partition the group so yeah G is the union of disjoint cosets
you don't need H to be normal for that to hold, you only need H to be normal for the cosets to form a group
ok good lol cuz i proved they were disjoint without using normal
if you've already proved they're disjoint try assuming there's some element in G that isn't in any of the cosets and see what happens
say g in G and not in any of the cosets; but g in gH since 1_G in H; contradiction
you can do it directly
the cosets cover G because for all g in G g is in gH
and then you can show that gH et g'H are disjoint or equal for all g and g' in G
yeah, I went with contradiction because I was trying to give a hint rathe than straight up give the answer but it's cleaner done directly :p
Quick Q. I'm trying to show that the number of sylow p subgroups in any normal subgroup of G must be less than or equal to the number of sylow p subgroups in G. I feel like I'm not really sure where to start again...
Is this an obvious result?
WAit, I think I thought of something
nope nvm
Oh, also, I solved that other problem
Suppose $D_n = 2^{a}m$. Then, for some sylow $2$-subgroup $P$,
$$n_{2}(P) = \frac{\left|D_n\right|}{\left|\text{N}{D_n}(P)\right|} \implies m = \frac{2^{a}m}{\left|\text{N}{D_n}(P)\right|} \implies \left|\text{N}{G}(P)\right| = 2^{a}$$
Hence, the relationship $P \trianglelefteq N{D_n}(P)$ becomes an equality: $P = N_{D_n}(P)$
∀ScoopityPoop, Scoop ≠ Poop:
that doesn't look right to me but my brain is beyond fried right now so that's probably why :p
Could someone please help me with this notation? G is a group, m is an integer. What does G^m represent?
@analog oracle why?
I'm just using sylow 3
or technically, I'm not
Is the fact that the number of sylow p subgroups is equal to the index of it's normalizer a part of sylow 3?
hey guys, i'm confused about how the group operation of the quotient group is defined
its defined as: aN * bN=(ab)N
i don't understand what i couldn't be : aN * bN = (a^-1 b^-1 N)
i don't understand what i couldn't be : aN * bN = (a^-1 b^-1) N
Think about it like this
If you take a group G and a normal subgroup N, then you have a group homomorphism from G to G/N
That sends an element a of G to aN
if you describe the group operation of the quotient group like you did, then this would no longer be a group homomorphism
so the idea is to mimic the structure of G
It's true that if you do it like you described, you still get a group, but it's not really related to G or N in any nice way



