#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 436 of 407
Like just make it into a cyclic group or something
But this group operation has nothing to do with the group operation of G
So G/N isn't related to G at all anymore
yeah
just to clarify
the fact that aH*bH=abH comes from the fact that G is homomorphic to G/H
that's a way to think about it sure
If we have a group homomorphism from G to G/H
that sends a to aH
Then, since it's a group homomorphism, we must have that aH * bH = abH
yep
because that's the requirement that all group homomorphisms must satisfy
say that c and a belong to the same coset, and d and b belong to the same coset
so then aH * bH = cH * dH
then it must be true that cd and ab belong to the same coset
my question is
assuming that aH * bH = abH
is there any way that cd and ab belong to different cosets?
if c and a are in the same coset
then you have that aH = cH
and similarly, bH = dH
yep it's always true that cdH = abH
with the same variables as above
say there is a homomorphism from G to some group F with kernel H
is it true that K is always isomorphic to G/H
where G/H is the set of the cosets
i'm asking this bc when say say that H is a normal subgroup of G, this means there exists a homomorphism from G to some other group with kernel H. i'm just not sure how this implies that there exists one from G to G/H.
This is only true if your homomorphism from G to F is surjective
hmm yeah
but then why is it said that G/H exists when H is a normal subgroup?
if being a normal subgroup is not sufficient
right
H is normal is the same as saying there exists a homomorphism from G to some group with kernel H
right?
but we specifically need a homomorphism from G to G/H in order for G/H to properly by a group
i don't see how this follows from H being normal
because the function that sends a to aH is a homomorphism
Do you know how a group homomorphism is defined? You just need to use the definition
how do we prove this
i do
but how is this true
(ab)H=aH * bH
basically what i'm saying is don't assume that the mapping G to G/H is a homomorphism yet
$ah_1bh_2 = ab(b^{-1}h_1bh_2)$ so it follows from normality
Jamie:
Hey, this is similar to a question I had asked yesterday (thanks @mild laurel). Given that G is a group what does G^0 represent?
If in general, talking about sets, G^n is the cartesian product Gx...xG, i.e. the set of ordered n-tuples of elements of G, G^0 can be defined to be the set consisting of only the 0-tuple or empty tuple: G^0={()}
This is also used to talk about nullary operations
If for example a binary operation is a function from G^2 to G and a unary operation is a function from G to G, a nullary operation is a function from G^0 to G
For a group (G,*), where * is a binary operation, one can also think about the inverses as a unary operation and the neuter element as a nullary operation
@tender mist thanks a lot đ
the most reasonable interpretation for G^0 is as the trivial group
Any singleton can represent the trivial group, and G^0 is simply a set which happens to have one element
If one adopts the definition of X^n as the set of functions from the set with n elements to X
But it may be interesting to interpret through G^0 the neuter element of G as a nullary operation on G
n: G^0->G with n(emptyset)=e
I was taught this way, but I'd be curious to know if this interpretation is used somewhere
idan:
You're right, it's weird.. i'll edit the question
it's not weird, I just don't know what you mean by that
Ok, I deleted the previous version, edited question is:
Is the following correct? If so, why?
Let $H<\mathbb Z_p$ (the p-adic integers)
If $[\mathbb Z_p:H]=n$ then $n\mathbb Z_p\subset H$.
idan:
No
lets take G=Z6 and H=<2>, you have [Z6:H]=3 and 3*Z6={0;3}!=H
wut
oh no [Z6:H]=2
okay so you can show that H=<n>
because H is cyclic as a subgroup of G and you know that a generator of H has order p/n
so it shows what you want
Thanks , but I wasn't referring $\mathbb Z/6\mathbb Z$. I was referring the p-adic integers $\mathbb Z_p$ where $p$ is prime.
idan:
what is the motivation for defining the product of cosets
aN * bN = (ab) N
i don't see why we couldn't have defined the product of cosets as aN * bN = (a^-1 b^-1) N
i know that this forces the quotient group to be homomorphic to the original group
but that does not answer the question
Iâm not sure I understand your thinking?
I suppose you could do that, but as far as I can tell youâre just taking the automorphism induced by -1
Or sorry not by -1 but by sending g to -g
Oh wait thatâs only an automorphism if your group is abelian
Yeah Iâm not sure what youâre getting at with this construction, and I def don see how you get an isomorphism from the original to the quotient
@magic owl if ab gets sent to b^(-1) a^(-1) then that's an automorphism
Even for non abelian
Yeah thatâs what made me realize what he said wasnât
But either way the fact that it works for abelian disproves his isomorphism claim
So basically the question becomes: what happens if given a group (G,â˘) one defines another operation on G by a*b := bâ˘a ?
It becomes the opposite group G^op, which is isomorphic to G
Every left action by G corresponds to a right action by G^op, and vice versa
a -> a^-1 is an isomorphism
Thanks Liquid
I think Zak is saying that a -> a^-1 is an isomorphism between G and G^op
Are there only four isomorphism theorems?
there are more but you don't unlock them until you get to grad school
and the Final Isomorphism Theorem is only unlocked once you become a prof
yes, I was answering to the previous question
a->a^-1 is an isomorphism between G and G^op
The final one is one that would've made your thesis much easier
the final one is what your thesis is on
(riley hobson and bence) uses the fact that two groups have the same number of elements and the same number of elements of any particular order exclusively to prove that they are isomorphic. is this correct?
if they are finite yes
hmm it is if they are abelian for sure
Im not sure for non abelian groups
creamy shits:
isn't associativity an axiom of categories
I think you just have to check that the composition of isomorphisms is an isomorphism
and the inverse of one is one
both are very straightforward
yeah the identity is free
I don't think you did actually
I would expect to see things about the definition of what is an isomorphism
it's not just any morphism from X to X
yeah
yeah
and f^-1 ° f = idX and f ° f^-1 = idY
what ?
i'm just completing your incomplete definition of isomorphism
f : X -> Y is an isomorphism iff there is a f-1 : Y -> X such that f°f-1 = idY and f-1°f = idX
with that in hand you have to show that if f : X -> X and g : X -> X are isomorphisms then f°g is also one
by explaning who is the inverse of f°g
and checking the related equalities
creamy shits:
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@abstract sandal @hollow peak the answer is no for non-abelian groups.
Eg/
Consider
G = Z/4Z x Z/4Z and H = Z/2Z x Q where Q is the quaternion group of order 8.
Both of these have 1 element of order 1, 3 elements of order 2 and 12 elements of order 4.
But they are non-isomorphic, as can be seen by comparing the cardinalities of {x^2: x in G}
you should explain how (g°f)°(f-1°g-1) = idX follows from the axioms and properties that you have
Tbh
If youâre doing category theory I feel like composition of isomorphisms is an isomorphism
Is generally something youâve had mentioned in class before yeah?
no
you haven't justified that f-1 ° g-1 is the inverse of g°f because you haven't showed that (g°f)°(f-1°g-1) = id
you only said "it is the inverse, trust me on that"
it is sad to do category theory and never use the axioms of category theory
on the other hand maybe it feels too obvious to warrant a proper proof
you have to show that (g°f)°(f-1°g-1) = id follows from f°f-1 = id, g°g-1 = id, and the axioms of category theory
(i'm not putting the subscripts on id cuz I would have to look up on which object they are)
(and they aren't exactly relevant for the proof to work)
(and no one ever remembers to use them)
Itâs almost as bad as the subscripts on the differential maps of a complex
I never really managed to do anything nice with cohomology :(
creamy shits:

I'm trying to show that $N \triangleleft G \implies n_{p}(G/N) \leq n_{p}(G)$. So far, I know that I can construct a bijective function $f$ from the subgroups $G/N$ to the subgroups of $G$ containing $N$ such that, for any subgroup $K$ in $G/N$, $|f(K)| = |K||N|$. \
If we say $|N| = p^{\beta}m$ and $|G| = p^{\alpha}n$, then $|G/N| = p^{\alpha-\beta}\frac{n}{m}$. Hence, if we consider any sylow $p$-subgroup $K$ of $G/N$, then $|f(K)| = p^{\alpha}m$, and, from sylow one, we know that $f(K)$ must have at least one sylow $p$-subgroup which, in this case, turns out to be sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$. My only problem now is that I don't know how to show that, for two distinct sylow $p$-subgroups $H$ and $K$ of $G/N$, there are no common sylow $p$-subgroups of $f(H)$ and $f(K)$ (I don't actually know if this is true).
Should I continue with this reasoning? Does this look promising?
âScoopityPoop, Scoop â Poop:
what is np ?
number of sylow p subgroups
n_p(G) is the number of sylow p subgroups in a group G
$G = \mathbb Z_{10}, H = {0, 5}$ (Explain why $G/H$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_{5}$).
The operation table can be renamed. However, the additive group of integers is cyclic (the generator being 1), an isomorphism must preserve such the cyclical nature so what is the generator element of $G/H$?
birb:
There must be a generator right? Did I make a shoddy assumption somewhere or am I missing the obvious? (Sorry if I don't reply, the internet here is spotty)
There is a generator?
is Z10=Z/10Z here?
Yeah, it's the additive group of integers modulo 10
If it's isomorphic surely it has a generator since it must also be cyclic?
That's true yes
that's Bezout
Sorry to bother you lot đ
Do you understand why any of those generates the group
Yeah
This is impart due to my inexperience, I know they all do I just can't write the proof why if that makes sense?
Maybe you don't understand the definitions well enough to work rigorously with them?
Most likely
I've been going through a book in my own time so I've been flying solo đ
Wait @hollow peak thatâs not correct
You new Zp for prime p to have all elements as generators
For example take 5 in Z_10
It wonât generate 2
10 is not prime
np
My b, thatâs what I get for walking and typing lol
@torn gate
Important you see the conversation after
An element generates Zn iff it is coprime to n
2 does not generate Z10
3 does generate Z10
mood
though i'm also open to salvation now if someone wants to spare me the ongoing torture of trying to understand a 100 year old paper that even my supervisors are complaining about :p
Whatâs the paper
@magic owl
yeah, we're working on classifying all groups that have alpha = 3/4 where alpha is the number of cyclic subgroups divided by the order of the group, we think we have all of them and from a remark on a paper about it it seems like this paper might classify the nilpotent 2-groups we're dealing with. We've practically done it with GAP but we now have to deal with proving it. And tbh this would probably be over my head with modern language but this paper is really pushing me towards insanity
it also doesn't help that since I'm transferring from the UK to the US my summer was cut in half so what was going to be a 16 week project is now an 8 week project with 2 weeks left
though it's probably safe to assume this will turn into my master's thesis topic
Itâs a cool topic for sure
is it
Are you in any of the higher math discordâs?
There are people who can help you better in there probably
nope, this is the only math discord I'm in
I don't know if there are any group theorists on hopf
Who would want to be a group theorist lmao
Let me shower real quick and Iâll invite you to one with an algebraist or two
me!
People who get lonely
thanks :)
Because they prefer to be in groups
eh that's still me :p
i'm not sure it's what i want to do long term but i'm really enjoying this even though i feel 100% out of my depth. I also loved real analysis when I did it like 2 years ago (complex analysis not so much) and I enjoyed IMO level number theory so I might do something along those lines too, idk. I have a while to figure things out since I'm graduating in 2021 and then hopefully going into a PhD
@analog oracle it's difficult for me to bring myself to care about these kinds of problems at all, but good for you if you enjoy it i suppose
it's always been hard for me to imagine people enjoying finite group theory
yeah i don't really have an answer for when people ask me why do we care and I got rejected from a research grant because it's not a "central problem" or whatever which basically sounded to me as "who cares" but I thought it would be a fun summer project, now we're all realizing this is a way bigger project than just a summer thing and I guess while it's still fun I might as well stick it out and see what happens
it's not like I have a better idea besides just vague "these areas are cool" :p
@analog oracle sure, i have no intuition for which kinds of problems in finite group theory are easy and which ones are hard
but picking problems that are easy and then working on them should be fine even if nobody cares about the problem
at least you get an experience of what the field is like
i don't think my supervisors do either. Though surprisingly we expected the non-nilpotent groups to be way harder than the nilpotent case because none of the papers about it went anywhere near that but nope! we are literally getting a single group crossed with powers of C2
@analog oracle i'm already confused by his description of what seems like a semidirect product in the second paragraph
no, i'm wrong
it took us like 2 hours to get through the first and second paragraph and then we were annoyed about how simple it was compared to the explanation. But I don't have my notes on me and I'm too lazy to go fetch them
um, so, I don't wanna bother anyone, but I kinda need help with something I posted earlier. It got buried and nobody responded; so, can I post it again?
fine by me!
ok, then
âScoopityPoop, Scoop â Poop:
@brisk granite it's promising enough, i suppose, though the last statement is not how you should be going about it
what should I do?
think about the transitive action of G on the sylow-p subgroups of G versus those of G/N
see what you can make of that
Do you mean I should consider the transitive action of G/N on its sylow p-subgroups as well?
well, the action of G/N lifts to an action of G
so yeah
not sure how to give any more hints without giving away the entire solution
ok thankyou
Let R be a commutative ring, N(R) be the nilradical. Then N(R/N(R)) = 0.
Could you give me a hint?
@bleak finch i don't know how to, this is too simple to give a hint for
i can tell you the solution
Don't
I know, generally speaking, that if take the quotient of a ring by an ideal, then every element of that ideal will map to zero in the quotient ring.
But that isn't in proofese
Was my statement at least correct?
try to reformulate this statement as a statement about the arithmetic of R itself
yes, it was correct
try to get rid of the nilradical and the quotient entirely, just try to write it as an arithmetic statement about R
what does it mean to say that N(R/N(R)) = 0?
It means that for any a in R/N(R), if there exists an n such that a^n = 0, then a = 0.
yes, so for any a in R, if there exists n such that a^n \in N(R), then a \in N(R)
does that make it easier to see why it has to be true
a^{n+1} in N(R). a^{n + 1} = a^n a = 0 a = 0
Wait
That was obvious
Nevermind.
So N(R) = {0, a, a^2, ..., a^{n-1}}
The kernel of R with respect to the projection operator is {r in R : phi(r) = 0}
The elements of R/N(R) are literally elements of R
You just have equivalence classes
So any nilpotent element in R/N(R) is nilpotent in R
Therefore N(R/N(R)) =N(R) =0 as an equivalence class
painful death by integration, for any rin g R, it is not necessary that N(R) = {0}
lots of concepts floating around are mixed up I'm sorry
painful death by integration, the elements of R/N(R) are a subgroup of R, yes?
but Q[x]/(x^2 + 1) is a subring of Q[x]
Q[x]/(x^2 + 1) is a subset of Q[x]?
but 1 + x is an element of both Q[x] and Q[x]/(x^2 + 1)
because 1 + 1 + 1 = 0 in the latter but not in the former?
does that matter?
so if 1 behaves differently from 1 in Z then the latter does not have the same elements as the former?
Yes, I was not careful in my wording. Elements in the quotient are not elements of the ring. Elements in the quotient are represented by elements in the ring.
@bleak finch
@placid pond Could you give me the answer?
Oh wait
I think I got it
Suppose you have a sylow $p$-subgroup $P$ of $G$ that is also a sylow p-subgroup of two subgroups $H$ and $K$. Then, $PH/H \cong P/(P \cap H) \implies PH/H \cong P$ and $PK/K \cong P/(P \cap K) \implies PK/ \cong P$. Thus, $PH/H \cong PK/K \implies H = K$.
âScoopityPoop, Scoop â Poop:
Isn't $P\cap H = P?$
Obama Llama:
@chilly ocean yea, I see that now. There's more stuff wrong with it too...
ignore the hint i gave earlier, that doesn't work i think
@brisk granite i think you show that the map {sylow-p subgroups of G} -> {sylow-p subgroups of G/N} given by P -> PN/N is surjective
if you have any sylow-p subgroup of G/N that lifts to a subgroup H of G, it contains some sylow-p subgroup of G, say P; and it also contains N, so it contains the composite group PN which lifts to a sylow-p subgroup of G/N, since its index is coprime to p
and that implies PN = H
so i think this argument is good
Is the ring of power series in z with coefficients in C with an infinite radius of convergence Nothereian?
Sidenote: can you give an example of a subring of a noetherian ring which is not noetherian?
@uncut girder any integral domain embeds into its field of fractions, which is noetherian
so just pick any non-noetherian domain and its field of fractions
Any field has only the 0 ideal so its noetherian, sure
(0) is the only maximal ideal
@uncut girder for your first question, you can find entire functions on C with prescribed zeroes via the weierstrass factorization theorem, so take N as embedded into C on the real line and consider the ideals I_n of entire functions vanishing at {n, n+1, n+2, .....} for n = 0, 1, 2, 3.....
I_n is an ascending chain that doesn't terminate
so the ring is not noetherian
but the germs of analytic functions at any point are noetherian, this is a consequence of the preparation theorem
so in some sense the non-noetherian behavior comes from the global properties of the ring
Do you need Weirerstrass factorization theorem for this? Because I never learned it
no
preparation theorem is for the second part
the first part you can do explicitly too, you don't need the factorization theorem
the factorization theorem shows all of the inclusions in the chain I_0 < I_1 < I_2 .... are proper
which you need to do ,but you can do it in other ways also
try thinking of how you might construct an entire function that only vanishes at natural numbers, for example
it's a good exercise
once you have that function you can get all of the other ones by just translating it to the right
sin is entire
but sin vanishes at integer multiples of pi
so you can make it Z, but not quite N
you're close
this one doesn't quite give you N
it gives you some pure imaginary zeroes
and pure real ones
on both sides of the origin
little weird shape
well, the obvious idea is, let's ignore N for the moment, since for the problem we don't need to make it work for N
consider a product like (1 - z/exp(0))(1 - z/exp(1))(1 - z/exp(2)).....
infinite product
it's clearly convergent for all z, and vanishes only when z is equal to one of exp(0), exp(1), exp(2)....
i use exp of natural numbers instead of natural numbers directly because otherwise it's not so obvious it converges
in fact generally it doesn't converge in that case
to get N you need to be more clever about how you construct the product
Why does it converge even
take the logarithm
to turn it into a sum
and use the asymptotic log(1-z) = -z + O(z^2)
you get a geometric sum
so it's convergent
and nonzero so long as z doesn't equal any of the exp(n) for n \in N
it's also clearly entire since on compact subsets it's the uniform limit of entire functions and blabla
it's the first order taylor expansion
of log(1-z) around z = 0
you take the logarithm of the partial products, and that gives you some partial sums where the terms are log(1 - z/exp(n))
you approximate this by -z/exp(n)) and pick up an error term of O((z/exp(n))^2)
and that second guy is summable, in fact it decays really fast
so that means your original product is convergent and nonzero
i didn't think i would have to explain so much for this construction, if you really don't know any of this i should think of a different solution
but this one seemed very obvious to me
@uncut girder yeah, you can do your argument using sin alone actually
define I_n = { entire functions which vanish at 2^n Z }
then I_n clearly form an ascending chain of ideals
and you can show the inclusions are all proper by using sin(pi z/2^n)
which is an entire function vanishing exactly on the set 2^n Z
so it's just the same idea but simpler execution
Is there a reason you are using 2^n Z and not nZ
Thank you @placid pond
no problem
The next question is about whether or not the following ring is noetherian:
The ring of polynomials in z whose first k derivatives vanish at 0.
My question does this mean p(0)=0, ie do we count the 0'th derivative as well?
i doubt it'll make a difference
you can just use the idea of the division algorithm, no?
hm, actually it's not quite so simple
let me think about this
@uncut girder ah, this is a nice problem
the answer is yes, for p(0) = 0 at least
you need to think of a cute idea
in retrospect it's a bit obvious but whatever
First of all, this ring is simply (x^(k+1)), correct?
yes
It's a theorem in the book that if A is Noetherian and f is a homomorphism of A onto a ring B, then B is Noetherian.
So C[x] is noetherian (which is proved in the book as Hilberts Basis theorem, also its PID by division algorithm)
Now the map f:C[x]->(x^(k+1)) given by
f(p) =px^(k+1) is a surjective ring homomorphism so (x^(k+1)) is Noetherian.
Is this what you had in mind? @placid pond
Wat
it's a module homomorphism
it's not multiplicative
f(pq) = pq x^(k+1), but f(p) f(q) = pq x^(2k+2)
not equal
Right
also, i think the argument i have in mind requires you to have C as a subring
if you impose f(0) = 0, let's say you take, idk, k = 1
so you're dealing with (x^2)
what do you do with an ideal like (x^2, x^2/2, x^2/3, x^2/4, .....)
i don't think this one is finitely generated
obviously if you have the elements of C as a subring then you have no such problem
f is a polynomial?
yeah
as in
in the derivatives you require to be 0
you also require the zeroth derivative to be 0
that is, the polynomial itself
if you do that, i.e. you're working with (x^(n+1)) C[x]
then my thing seems like an ideal that's not finitely generated
but i think it's different if you work with C + (x^(n+1)) C[x]
I'm hungry, I'm gonna eat lunch
okay
Suppose I have a set of left cosets of a group by a subgroup that is not normal (so leftcosets != rightcosets).
How do I show that no group structure is possible on this set?
@bleak finch you can't, because a group structure is possible on the set
it's just not compatible with the action of G on the cosets
any set can be given a group structure
What is the action of G on the coset?
say your subgroup is H
you have a natural map G -> {left cosets of H in G} given by g -> gH
this is a function, and if H is normal and you give the set its quotient group structure, it's a group homomorphism
that is, it's true that (g_1 H)(g_2 H) = (g_1 g_2) H for any g_1, g_2
this property requires H to be a normal subgroup
which you can see by, say, setting g_2 = g_1^(-1)
but if you just want to put a group structure on the set {left cosets of H in G}, you can easily do that
doesn't require H to be normal
when H is normal, it's defined as (g_1 g_2) H, and you show that this is well defined
that is, it doesn't depend on the choice of g_1 or g_2
but if you just want to put a group structure on the coset space, you can do that however you want
What happens if I say (g_1H)(g_2H) = (g_1g_2)H when H is NOT normal?
Don't you know what emerges?
Starfall, do you know what an emergency is?
it depends on the choice of representative you pick for each coset
not in this context
An emergency is when something breaks and undefined behavior occurs. In medicine when a body part breaks and symptoms occur we say "this is an emergency!" Emergency = emergent phenomenon.
i'm lost
In order to define an action on a left coset, we need an agreement on the choice of representatives beforehand.
not when H is normal
which is the entire point
if H isn't normal then you're correct
though it does depend on what you mean by "action", the action of any group of the left cosets of any subgroup is well defined
the action by left multiplication, that is
this one doesn't depend on any choice of representative
So what you're saying is that if (g_1H)(g_2H) = (g_1g_2)H when H is not normal, an emergent phenomenon happens where there might be a different action (g_1H)(g_2H) = (g_1g_2)H for two different choices of representatives.
I am going to work out A_4 and A_3 (latter is not normal) to test this idea out.
Why does that g_1H = g_2H may not imply (g_1 g_3)H = (g_2 g_3)H mean it's not well-defined?
Starfell,
typically when a function is not well-defined it means that x = y does not imply that f(x) = f(y)
So when you say that the morphism g --> gH is not defined for unnormal subgroups, that typically would mean that g_1 = g_2 does not imply g1_H = g_2H. But that is not the case.
hmmmm
@chilly ocean ?
yes
i was wondering what your "hmmmm" was about
feigned pensiveness
ah
could someone explain what a free quadratic module is (in relation to free modules)?
I don't understand why abstract algebra textbooks keep saying "ideals in ring theory are like normal groups in group theory"
@bleak finch What don't you understand
For a subring S, let rS, Sr, represent the left and right cosets.
If rS = Sr for all r then is S an ideal?
For rings, if you take all the elements and take the multiplication element on them
It's not always a group
So properties of left/right cosets you have for groups don't hold if you try to do it with the multiplication operation
So ideals are a tenuous analogue to normal groups
It's really not tenuous at all
Instead of looking at multiplication like you did
You just let your cosets be r + S
what do ideals have in common with normal groups besides the fact that both are used for quotient/coproduct constructions.
And then, since your additive group is an abelian group, S is a normal subgroup, so this forms a quotient group just fine
"since your additive group is an abelian subgroup, S is a normal subgroup"
An abelian subgroup is not necessarily normal
sorry, typo
normal subgroups are kernel of group homomorphisms
just like ideals are kernels of ring homomorphisms
first isomorphism theorem and that's just a rephrase of "normal/ideals are used for coproducts"
đ
Now I have a question
Composition series when restricted to cyclic groups are a kind of unique factorization right?
I'm not sure what you mean by restricted to cyclic groups
Composition series are unique, it's called the Jordan Holder theorem i think
Composition series of a cyclic group of order n = what you would get if you took the prime factorization of n
Hi, I got a bit of an odd question for any abstract thinkers out there -
What would a universe be like with ' i ' spacial dimensions?
Its more geometry than algebra
it'd be pretty neat
This question doesnât really make sense as normally we only define dimension to make sense for whole numbers
Was reading this smbc http://smbc-comics.com/comic/a-new-set-of-numbers
and the property described seems like some generalization of irreducibility to structures without identity, wondering if this was interesting enough to explore
Undergrad student who only just took basic ring theory last quarter so my understanding isnt that deep
An element p in a structure <S,*> such that for all a, b in S, a*b â p
Seems to me that such elements do exist, i.e. in 2Z 2 isnt a product of any other elements of the set but idk what properties there are to be gleaned from this
Consider the additive group $G$. For each $g\in G$, let $g+g+...+g=ng$ be an element of $nG$.
How does one calculate $[G:nG]$?
idan:
Are you assuming that G is abelian?
Yes, thank you @mild laurel
If G is infinite, this index is always n I'm pretty sure
How come?
well the cosets are [0]nG, [1]nG, .... [n-1]nG
that's certainly not true (@ zopherus's last statement)
take G = (Z/pZ)^N and n = p
here N = natural numbers
then pG = 0
it doesn't make sense to talk about [k]nG as a coset
because [k] isnt an element of G
@weary terrace @mild laurel
yeah you're right
F_(p^k) seems like the classic counterexample.
I agree.. my approach was assuming each g in G is a sum of some amount of g', say k.
So in order to calculate the order of the quotient, we can take a general element and calculate its order.
So taking g in G, we say g=kg' where g' in G and k is natural.
If gcd(k,n)=1, then the order of g+nG is n.
Otherwise the order is less then n.
Now my problem is proving the existence of this element..
I don't think there is a general answer, it will depend on exactly the structure of the group
for example, if G is a finite group of odd order, then every element is a square (in multiplicative notation) or a "double" (in additive notation) so G/2G would be 0
You're correct! Thanks for the example..
whats the channel to ask about prime numbers?
galois?
I will have the intro to Abstract Algebra book on Wednesday. Any ideas on which of the big topics I should read about before starting the class?
Probably good to have your basic NT down for sure
Huh? What basic NT is involved?
By basic I mean like, ultra basic, stuff that might get referenced in passing
that stuff can be picked up along the way
Knowing gcd and Euclidean algorithm and shit like that
i self-studied D&F with absolutely no ENT
i knew what mod was, and thats about it
and ftarith
I think D&F has a bit of that stuff in chapter 0 anyway
it defines like, z/nz, yes
If there's anything that's useful to read up on before starting algebra it's to make sure you remember that stuff
I guess maybe reviewing some linear algebra stuff can't hurt either
linear algebra + actually knowing proofs are the most useful things.
I can already tell this will be a painful class đ đ
Oh yeah you didn't like linear algebra as much, right?
In group theory at the beginning it won't matter as much honestly, just that matrices lead to some examples of groups
But it basically boils down to multiplicativity of stuff
For example, determinant is multiplicative, product or orthogonal/unitary matrices is orthogonal/unitary
I didn't like linear algebra until I learned more applications of it
how long does abstract algebra usually take to learn, well more specifically, learning from dummit and foote, it looks pretty long and I'm just curious.
Um most people learn it
in a 1 year sequence of undergrad
but that's learning about 1 years worth
becomming an expert would take at least a decade
It takes a decade to master most things
Once you get over the steep slope of learning a certain topic, learning is much more enjoyable
I'll add that Dummit and Foote is not my recommended starting point if you are self learning
its very much a great reference text
but not super pedagogical imo
pinter or similar is better I think for starting out
my favourite "first course" in algebra is Herstein's topics in algebra.
I don't like D&F either and I'm annoyed I have to deal with it this upcoming semester. My intro to abstract algebra course at UC Berkeley used this textbook and I thought it was way better than D&F (I had used it before for a different class elsewhere) http://homepage.divms.uiowa.edu/~goodman/algebrabook.dir/download.htm
same here \o/ though i'd much prefer to use Lang tbh
Is using D&F for an intro like reading munkres or baby rudin for an intro to the topic?
No
The second two are fine intros
DF is just too terse and technical to be a good intro
Pinter is fairly conversational
I see
I have the book lemme look into it
DF doesn't use end of proof symbol scoff
they didnt say they didnt like it
I see
they said its bad for begineers
i disagree, but to each their own
You could just skip the unnecessary parts of DF?
@uncut girder sure, DF is a fairly large book
DF is very easy to read so far
So composition series is like unique factorization for groups
DF motivated composition series very well in 2 pages
yes, you can say that
Is proof of Jordan Holder actually "fairly straightforward"
yes
Lol I dunno DF just puts me to sleep so fast
I was originally using it one time in my REU to try to learn about group actions and Sylow stuff
And I just started reading it and things just dragged on forever
Eventually I was like aight I'm gonna need something much faster than this
Said thing was Herstein, much as I wouldn't recommend it now since while I philosophically agree with x(f) notation, it's non-standard and thus inconvenient to learn. Also it doesn't cover enough
I am liking Jacobson's Basic Algebra I quite a lot (using it to review for quals)
What do you think of Serres rep theory book?
Used it briefly when I was taking rep theory and it seemed real nice
Read Lang and git gud 
Lang loves categories tho, it can actually be benefitial to know some very very basic defs and stuff in category theory before starting to read Lang.
Whatever, who reads Lang as an intro to abstract algebra?
lang would be an extreme choice, but i suppose it's doable
i always thought lang's books are meant to be used as reference books
Maybe
I bought it on sale some months ago
I think it is a must have for every mathematician
UC Berkeley's first grad algebra course usually uses Lang but you're assumed to have done at minimum 2 semesters of abstract algebra before that. I definitely wouldn't recommend Lang as an introduction but it's very comprehensive and in my opinion better than D&F (but again, wouldn't use D&F as an introduction so :p )
I did Fraleigh for intro to algebra, and I do not recommend that book
that's the one book I can think of that I consider worse than D&F :p
For the Rings and Modules course weâre doing Bhattacharya, Nagpaul and some other guy which seems good
To illustrate Langâs addicition to categories; already on page 8 where he is giving examples on groups, he describes the automorphism group as: ÂŤFor any object A in a category, the automorphisms form a group; Aut(A)Âť
Lang seems to have a bunch of good problems tho
Theorems Iâve never heard about
to be honest my opinion of it might change significantly now that I'll be using it again but using it as an introduction when I was self teaching and later on auditing a class at Stanford I found it very dense and dry and things weren't explained in a way that was intuitive to me while everything just clicked the second I started reading the Goodman book I sent earlier. The exercises are good, I'll give it that. I worked through them even after giving up on the book itself
but it's that way with most things, ask 20 different people what the best book for some specific field is and you'll hear at least 3-5 different ones being recommended and people having very strong views about them. So nowadays when I'm picking textbooks I'll gather up recommendations and then try to find them at the library and see which one is more suited to my intuition and learning style
Let phi : R -> R/Nil(R). So for every x in Nil(R), phi(x) = 0. Let x, y be two nilradicals of R/Nil(R). So there exists a, b such that phi(a) = x and phi(b) = y. But because these are homomorphisms, and homomorphisms preserve multiplication, (e.g. if x^m = y^n = 0 for some m,n then a^m = b^n = 0 for same m, n), therefore a, b are nilpotents, so, phi(a) = phi(b) = 0. But by definition phi(a) = x and phi(b) = y. Therefore x = y = 0. Is the above proof sound?
It's not wrong but why do you need x and y?
I don't really understand what you are trying to prove
and why you need both x and y
I trying to prove that Nil(R/Nil(R)) = {0}
The most direct way to that is to take x, y in Nil(R/Nil(R)) and show that x = y
no, the most direct way is to take x in Nil(R/Nil(R)) and show that x = 0
which you've done, although now I see a mistake in your proof
I was confused by all the names: you know phi(a) = x and x^n = 0, so you know phi(a^n) = 0
that doesn't mean a^n = 0
because there can be nonzero things that map to 0 under phi
I don't see your logic. if x^n = 0 (i.e. after being annihilated by repeated multiplication n times) and phi preserves multiplication, then why shouldn't a^n = 0 after being multiplied n times?
because all you know is that phi(a^n) = 0
phi preserves multiplication which just means phi(a)^n = phi(a^n)
You know that phi(a^n) = x^n
absolutely, and x^n = 0
so phi(a^n) = 0
you know that phi(0) = 0, but it is NOT TRUE that if phi(blah) = 0 then blah = 0
Yes I can see that.
okay so how are you concluding that a^n = 0
I have no idea.
I mean that was exactly your argument. you said phi(a^n) = 0 and thus a^n = 0
and i'm saying that that step is not correct
Yes I know that was my argument.
so as a hint: in this problem, you won't be showing that a^n = 0 because that's not true in general
you will show that some other power of a is 0
second hint: a correct proof should use the word "kernel" (or at least the idea of kernels)
Let phi : R -> R/Nil(R). So for every x in Nil(R), phi(x) = 0. Let x, be a nilradical of R/Nil(R). So there exists a such that phi(a) = x. Let n be the integer such that x^n = 0. But because phi is a homomorphism, and homomorphisms preserve multiplication, therefore phi(a)^n = 0. But because a is in the kernel of phi, therefore there must exist an m such that a^m = 0 (by the first isomorphism theorem, the kernel of phi is the nilradical of R). Because phi(a^n) = 0 and phi(a^m) = 0 and phi(a) = x...
I need a hint on how to proceed.
so you should specify how you found that m
also the whole point is you prove that a is in Nil(R)
so x = phi(a) = 0
Let phi : R -> R/Nil(R). So for every x in Nil(R), phi(x) = 0. Let x, be a nilradical of R/Nil(R). So there exists a such that phi(a) = x. Let n be the integer such that x^n = 0. But because phi is a homomorphism, and homomorphisms preserve multiplication, therefore phi(a)^n = phi(a^n) = 0.We know that phi(a^n) = 0. So a^n is in the kernel of phi.But the kernel of phi is the set of elements such that there exist some m such that said element raised to the power of m is 0. So there exists m such that (a^n)^m = a^mn = 0. But that means that a itself is in the kernel of phi, which means phi(a) = 0. Because phi(a) = x and phi(a) = 0, therefore x = 0.
looks good
Hello, yaâll.
hi
:0
@placid pond Hello, good sir. Iâm trrying to learn AA with a book in the #resources and the book mentions the universal set U, but I thought this wasnât allowed
Due to Russellâs Paradox?
what does it mean by universal set
there is no "set of all sets"
but there's nothing wrong with "set of all sets with cardinality < aleph_{whatever}"
which may be the sense in which you have a universal set
The book likely means "universal set" as "all sets you're currently working with"
Universal set is defined as that which, A C U means: Aâ = {x: x is an element of U but not an element of A}
Sometimes we will work within one fixed set U , called the universal set. For any set A â U, we define the complement of A , denoted by A â˛, to be the set A Ⲡ= { x : x â U and x â A }.
Iâm going to go with Kaynexâs interpretation of it I guess
A' is everything that is not in A. However, "everything" is something you define
Is that the definition of a compliment?
(The book has not mentioned it yet)
Oh â I get it now, :c
Now that I think of U as all sets currently defined other than A, the compliment of A makes sense to be that
Indeed, Russell's paradox shows that some "things" can't be sets
So you can't work with these "things" with set theory alone
Just don't include them in U
For a concrete example
Let U be all real numbers
And A be (0,1)
The complement in this context would just be everting less than or equal to zero or greater than or equal to one
But I could also make U=(-1,2)
Then the complement changed
Changes*
But the complement is defined as all elements not in A
When all sets under consideration are considered to be subsets of a given set U, the absolute complement of A is the set of elements in U but not in A.
You may not know the notation
(0, 1) is the set of all real numbers between 0 and 1, not including 0 and 1
If U is all real numbers,
And if A = (0, 1)
Then A' = (-inf, 0] ⪠[1, inf)
Note that [ means to include the endpoint
Oh! I was going to ask ;c
But yeah you have the idea of universal sets and complements down, the way you just described it was lit
I get it now, thank you!
Np. Feel free to ask if you have anything else!
Btw this basic set theory probably fits better in #proofs-and-logic
So
An R-algebra is an R-module that is also a ring where the multiplication is compatible with the scalar multiplication.
But what would it mean if the multiplication were incompatible with scalar multiplication?
So, tell me, what is the compatibility with scalar multiplication?
preferably in a concise statement like $(rs)\cdot x = r\cdot (s \cdot x)$ or some such
Darkrifts:
Well, I know scalar multiplication is associative. Let's denote scalar multiplication by â˘
Yeah iirc that's what I just put down, so what other compatibility things are there?
Let u, v, w be module elements and a, b, c ring elements. Because u, v, w are elements of an R-Algebra, we have uv being valid and closed (unlike in a vector space like Reals^3 or structures like (Reals^3, inner product)).
So I would guess that compatibility would mean râ˘(uv) = (râ˘u)v
so, how would $(rx)\cdot (sy)$ look like?
Darkrifts:
x, y elements of your module
(rx)â˘(sy) =râ˘(xsy)?
You should straighten out what the dot means
Oh wait
is it multiplication in the R-algebra? Or is it scalar multiplication of R acting on the R-algebra?
on one side it's algebra mult, on the other it's scalar x alg
⢠is scalar multipication
you might wanna pick
in that case, (rx)*(sy) doesn't make sense
So what we have is (râ˘x)(sâ˘y)
ok
And (râ˘x)(sâ˘y) = râ˘(x(sâ˘y))
it makes sense
yes that is correct but you don't need the s there
doesn't really use the R-bilinearity
just r*(xy) = (r*x)y
Is that it?
I was tryna get you to go for R-bilinearity as the property there but aight
that's what it means to be an R-algebra yes. It should be an R-module, and also a ring, and those structures should be compatible
Can you derive bilinearity from r*(xy) = (r*x)y
what do you mean exactly by bilinearity
scalar multiplication is acting on the left here and it distributes over the addition in the R-algebra (which I'm just going to call S from now on)
and you need the condition that r*(xy) = (r*x)y = x(r*y)
(râ˘x)(sâ˘y) = râ˘(x(sâ˘y)) = sâ˘((râ˘x)y)
idk why you need the s, you can just state it how I did above
iirc algebras are your modules with your multiplication f: S x S -> S such that f(rx, sy) = rs f(x, y)
I don't understand how you're swapping in the last equality
sure, it suffices to also say f(rx, y) = rf(x,y) = f(x, ry)
yeah
what do you mean? that's the definition of an R-algebra
i just put both r, s since i'm way too used to seeing it as such
I mean the easy definition of an R-algebra is "a ring homomorphism R --> S"
(assuming everything is commutative)
What was S again
your algebra boy
Oh okay
S is the R-algebra
yeah that definition works, I prefer the "monoid in Ring" version though tbh
get your categories out of here, there are children present
i mean, the way I learned it originally was as a module + a multiplication anyhow
So the ring homomorphism Ď(rs) = Ď(r)Ď(s)
So also Ď(r + s) = Ď(r) + Ď(s)
yeah if phi: R --> S is a ring hom
and R and S are commutative
that turns S into an R-algebra
where you define the scalar multiplication by: r*x = phi(r)x
for r in R and x in S
What do you mean by a commutative module? And in an R-algebra the ring structure of S need not be commutative
R had better be commutative
and the definition I gave was in the special case that S is commutative
if S is not commutative, then add the condition that the image of phi lies in the center of S
Can I still say that r*x = phi(r)x?
If S as a ring is not commutative, is it still the case that râ˘x = Ď(r)x?
yes
you're kinda saying that like it's some absolute fact. the statement should be "If R is a commutative ring and phi: R --> S is a ring homomorphism whose image is contained in the center of S, then you can turn S into an R-algebra via the scalar multiplication r*x = phi(r)x"
Hold on there's one more step I need to understand.
and conversely, if S is an R-algebra (under whatever other definition you want) then you can define a ring homomorphism phi: R --> S whose image lies in the center of S via the definition phi(r) = r*1
Why is it the case that if the image of Ď does not lie in the center of S that râ˘s = Ď(r)s is not well-defined?
Oh wait
if it's not in the center, then it doesn't commute with them, throwing off your bilinearity
I get it
it's perfectly well-defined, it just doesn't give you bilinearity
so it doesn't satisfy the other definition of an R-algebra
If the image is in the center, then Ď(r)s = sĎ(r)
Because the center commutes with every element
that is true but not the relevant part
like that by itself isn't really relevant for making S into an R-algebra
you need the commutativity in order to show bilinearity
Buncho Bananas I am reading this handout
We don't know that the R-module S is a commutative ring. All we know is that it's a ring.
yeah i've been saying that
basically everything I've said about homomorphisms is section 4.1.8 in those notes
But then there's this seemingly arbitrary identity that râ˘(xy) = (râ˘x)y = x(râ˘y)
I don't know where that identity came from
what? that is part of the definition!!!
also I'm not sure what you mean by "but then"
If you could derive that identity from something else (e.g. algebraic structure) I would understand what it meant
it's one of the things you derive from
unless you take some other definition as your definition
assume r * xy = (r * x)y = x(r * y), then .....
but the notes you sent take that as the definition
if something is the definition, then you'd be pretty hard pressed to derive it
So I just have to memorize it and say "well, that's just some identity. So there."
imagine deriving that a ring has an multiplication that distributes
I mean that's what you had to do with the associativity law for rings, didn't you?
it's literally the definition of an R-algebra
if you want an example, think of matrices
if A and B are real matrices
and r is a real number
then r(AB) = (rA)B = A(rB)
Let me put it to you like this.
it literally just says that if you wanna multiply r by a product xy, then you can either multiply it to x, or multiply it to y
I can never remember the component-wise definition of a cross product
that's bad :(
idk what to say other than you need to practice remembering definitions
wait a minute
But I can remember that it's what you get if you multiply two vectors written in xi + yj+zk treating i, j, k as elements of the group H.
okay nvm thats not as bad as I thought
I thought you were trying to talk about products of rings
yeah cross products are harder to remember
Yeah same
but this is literally one line
I just remember the cross product as just like
f_{a,b}(x) = det(x,a,b) is a functional on R^3
and it doesn't derive from anything. all you have to do is remember that "an R-algebra is an R-module S along with a compatible ring structure"
and there is literally only one thing that that statement could mean
and it's r*(xy) = (r*x)y = x(r*y)
or just remember the definition in terms of ring homomorphisms
So Riesz rep theorem gives some vector v such that f_{a,b}(x) = <x,v>. Call v = a\times b
So my question is, why is it that the only thing "compatible ring structure" can mean is r*(xy) = (rx)y = x(ry)?
"An R-algebra S is a ring hom phi: R --> S whose image lies in the center of S"
what else would it mean lol
the ring structure on S
has to be compatible with the scalar multiplication of R
so if you're computing r * (a product of things in S)
it shouldn't matter when you do the "r *" part
either first, or last, or in the middle
you have to get the same answer
Well it seems that in the first and last equality you're swapping r and x
exactly!!!
like I said
it shouldn't matter when you do the "r *" part
you can do it to x
or to y
or to xy
So what the identity is saying is...
if you had 3 elements in S you could write r*(xyz) = (r*x)yz = x(r*y)z = xy(r*z)
or for shits and gigs: (r*(xy))z
stop
yes sir
Any permutation that makes sense (fits the domain of the operations) of r, x, y are equal
Problem 1 in algebra: verify associativity of abcd
no, as you said earlier S isnt commutative
so you can't switch x and y
but you can do the scalar multiplication part on either x or y
it's saying that you can move r, everything else needs to remain in the same order
it's the same as the 2-element one :(
:(
I don't know it just seems obvious "what's happening" in the 3 element definition while it seems somewhat occult in the 2 element definition.
well whatever works for you
There's a clear pattern
I said that like 10 minutes ago :(
I didn't know what you meant by "just remember how matrices work" until you spelled out that identity that I used one thousand times before.
I spelled it out 10 minutes ago :P
Well I just couldn't process it until just now.
Perhaps I had trouble seeing the connection because I was staring at a different perspective. Ring and modules are rings and modules helping us generalize ideals. Matrices are linear transformations used for functional analysis. And never the twain shall meet.
Wait matrices aren't really used much in functional analysis
Rings and modules are things we use to study ideals, short exact sequences notherian rings, etc... and matrices are linear transformations that we use for something else generally speaking.
I wouldn't really say that we use rings to study ideals
also there's a difference between "a matrix as a linear transformation" and "a matrix as an element of a matrix ring"
in the sense that in my examples I was only thinking of the matrix ring as an algebra, not as some kind of set of linear operators
also, and this isn't meant to be shady, but how do you know what noetherian rings and short exact sequences are but you dont know the definition of an R-algebra?
I'm just confused by what your background is
I took a rings and modules class over a year ago and I vaguely remember the professor saying something about noetherian rings and short exact sequences when I was slacking off in class and aping the homework.
Okay?
I could barely pass the class because it was just a bunch of random definitions that didn't make sense.
So consequently it all became defenestrated.
...so I am asking you so I can rebuild from first principles just what exactly he was saying.
Look sorry for being so thick headed but you really did help so your patience was not in vain
And that's the important thing right?
I wasn't trying to be mean, I was honestly curious what your background was
oh okay
but let this be a lesson to you about slacking off in class :P
yeah
but I had a sadist for my other professor which made it really hard to focus on this professor's class.
because he loved giving us waterboard-level assignments
Near the end of his class me and some other student were the only ones regularly attending because everyone else was so brutally tortured by the assignments.
And so we triaged
Is your professor's name "Souganidis" by any chance?
jk he wouldn't be caught dead in an algebra class

Why not? @bleak abyss
I am a Master's student at DePaul University so no
If I is an ideal of the ring R, show how to make the quotient ring R/I into a left R-module.
do it exactly like how you'd think to do it
sorry but I thought souganidis was a sougandis nuts joke
What I would think to do it is to just take R/I as a left R-module itself
(Because any ring can be interpreted as an R-module)
But this seems really, extremely dull.
wait
how do you interpret any ring as an R-module?
how do you interpret the integers Z as a module over the complex numbers?
Any ring is an R module because for any n R^n is an R-module including n = 1.
Yes
R is always an R-module
Yup mmhm
so what does that have to do with R/I as an R-module
Just take R/I as an R-module over itself.
consider Z/(2)
how is this a Z module over itself
like a Z-module
OIC
or a C-module
b r u h
did you even look at the notes???
C - module
that is pretty clear from those notes you sent
smh
I just thought the R was a decoration.
I mean
I didn't think it acted like a bound variable.
Let me explain
I get what you mean
it's just wrong
in this specific problem
R is a FIXED ring
and I is an ideal of R
usually it's implied, but like
if you have a ring R, and then you see the symbol R-module
i'd personally think it's the same R being referred to but that's just me
Okay, so R isn't actually a free variable dependent on the context.
and you have to turn R/I into a module over the ring R
It's a fixed variable
$\forall R$
Darkrifts:
OIC
how about do it for R and I
- Take the elements of Z as the ring
instead of Z and 2Z
check if the axioms hold
do it in general, and preferably with a touch of rigor
Well I misunderstood the question đ
given s + I in R/I and r in R, how do you propose to multiply r*(s+I)?
I'm going to bed so darkrifts you will have to take over
good luck
aight
râ˘(s + I) = rs + I
So, how would you make sure that plays nice with different representative elements?
I thought that choice of representative element didn't matter.
It doesn't, so how would you show your multiplication respects that?
if râ˘(s + I) := rs + I then it respects that because rs + rI = rs + I for any left ideal.
is the ideal I two-sided?
or are we assuming comm. ring?
just asking before I throw shit at it
I think it has to be two-sided if we're speaking of R/I as being well-defined.