#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 434 of 407
surprising
well I haven't done much topology
but it makes sense that group cohomology would be useful for this stuff
Yeah if I remember right there was some theorem about how... okay don't quote me on this but I think odd-dim group homology of Z/p worked nicely?
We just Googled hard until we found something
Anyway I have an exam in about an hour and a half so I should probably stop procrastinating and get back to studying, so see you
yeah you can just write the stuff and it works out quickly
for cyclic groups
see ya
Hello fellows. I'm studying from Dummit and Foote here and I got a quick question on the necessity of an assumption in an exercise. The question is " R is a commutative ring with 1. Show that an R-module is irreducible if and only if M is isomorphic (as an R-module) to a quotient R/I for some maximal ideal I of R". Is commutativity of R really needed here or is it just added to avoid choosing between left or right modules?
makes sense, just wanted to confirm. Thanks!
0 votes and 3 comments so far on Reddit
so listen, this question asked Show that * is a binary operation on S (ok good so far no problem), then the second part was prove that (S, * ) is a abelian group
do i need to first prove its a group or just show commutativity of the binary operation
just curious
Also the set hasn't been defined as a group or anything yet
You need to show it's a group
alright
i proved it lets go baby

Question: Can two groups be isomorphic if the operation under one group is different than the operation under the other group
The positive real numbers under multiplication and the real numbers under addition are isomorphic groups.
I don't know if this really answers what you're asking but
@full blaze yes
i thought so just checking and nice example
plus just changing the symbol works too

@full blaze learn model theory
i learned some in discrete math 
oh thats pretty cool
dood hes a boss
š
Dr. William Demeo Cu Boulder
I've been meaning to look into model theory but i feel like i should finish my anal stuff
they're totally unrelated
i completely forgot anything he taught me
although model theory and topology are deeply related
They are unrelated, hence why I should finish up my whole adventure into intro analysis first
lul
heres a cute baby model theory problem

prove $(\mathbb{Q}, +)$ and $(\mathbb{Q}^+, *)$ are not isomorphic
Liquid:
Compile Error! Click the
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oof
i see set of rational numbers under addition and set of positive rational numbers under multiplication
ok continue
inb4 some dumb shit about UFD
i know they are both groups
no
oh
oof, sounds fun
hint: there is a first order sentence which one satisfies and the other doesn't
this is not a hard problem btw
don't overthink
@topaz solar any thoughts?
lol
what is the corresponding operation to division by 2
if you convert the symbol + to *
h m m m
Would it be like the ^1/2 thing? seems wrong since you said "right track" to just ^ but idk anything else
smh here I was thinking it was wrong since "right track"
think about the definition of division by 2
yeah, just apply some homomorphism boyes
yeah
smh
but just replace the + in the definition with *
well yeah since it has to convert over
the whole square root thing implies that division by 2 from the additive group is taking ^1/2 in the multiplicative group, which clearly doesn't work due to sqrt(2) not being nicely rational
yeah
yes
so they are different
you can also express this difference in FOL
$\forall x \exists y\ y+y=x$
Liquid:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
$\forall x \exists y\ y*y=x$
Liquid:
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reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
an isomorphism would make these statements equivalant
well group homomorphisms lend themselves well to model theory
Interesting

you can define a homomorphism in logic (a bit) more generally as a function that preserves some constants and some particular first order formulas
this is equivalant to the standard definition for groups
So it preserves some truth stuff and conjunctions or something?
yeah
it preserves something called atomic formulas
from that you can derive that it preserves a lot of other formulas as well
for more details see enderton's a mathematical introduction to logic
or mendelson's introduction to mathematical logic
or hodges' model theory
time to lawfully purchase those books
Help
R (Ć)_Z Z^n
How to prove R^n satisfies the universal property of tensor product
What else do you know about tensor products? Do you know that they distribute over direct sum?
Hey, can someone tell me why (N,+) is a group? Mustn't a group have an element e such that for every a in the set we have a b that a + b = e ?
Or maybe the book... is wrong. For (Z,+) I understand since for every a, there exists b=-a for which a+b=0=e.
(ā, +) is not a group. depending on your definition of ā there wonāt be a neutral element (0) and thereās never an inverse
There is a neutral element for the monoid group, i.e., a + 0 = a. But for the inverse nope @somber bramble ty
N* isn't a group either?
what's N*
Positive integers I was thinking but
what operation
Multiplication cause of the cdot
(N^*,x) isn't a group either, I think :/
that's because ^* means taking group of units, not just taking 0 out
the book doesn't say this cuz it sucks
N* is {1}, Z* is {-1, 1}
@oblique river I got it by showing it satisfies the universal property, but distribulivity of the tensor product is something I didnt think of thanks
Now for this problem, the last line in the image above. I need a counter example
A is a nonzero commutative ring
Obviously A has to be infinite
And not finitely generated
So take A = (+)_{n in N} Z
you're almost done
i mean, if you want unit you want the product instead of the sum
but that's a good one to use
but in this case A^2 = A so uh
I don't know how you're proving the first part
I imagine you're not showing the full problem
oh I guess it works as A-modules
you didn't mean as rings
@marble wagon apparently its true...
Also if A^2 = A that would give a counterexample to the 2nd to last line?
actually you can have R^2 = R as R-modules
so uh
I don't know what's going on here I'll just walk away
im being dumb cuz that can't happen in commutative rings
what makes a coset distinct, because im calculating the left cosets of a subgroup {p_0, u_2} of the group D_4
using the table and calculated all the left cosets i get that
dont get how only 4 of them are distinct when they all look distinct
flip?
uh
p is for rotations u is for mirror images
d is for diagonal flips
and D_4 has 8 permutations so ye
did you write out all the cosets?
uh doesnt that set generate the whole group
i did
you can send a pic and i can show you which ones are the same
asked for all left cosets i wrote 8 left cosets
@wicked mason reflections and rotations generate d_n
wait one sec

yes n is even in this case
ye i think if i read this section in the book it shall prevail the answer
i dont think thats a normal subgroup if its just a rotation and a reflection
for even dihedral the normal subgroups are {r^2,f} {R^2,rF} {e} and {r^d} if d | n
havent learned def of normal i know its number of right and left cosets being equal
but i think we learn that tomorrow
yes
because as @wicked mason said reflection and rotations completely generate the dihedral group
the little set of 2 permutations is a subgroup
of D_4
of course by lagranges theorem

yes
under whatever operation the supergroup has
ok so we have reflection and rotation
then rotation ^2 should be in the group as well
and rotation ^3 .. and so on
it generates the whole group
maybe i just dont know what the symbols mean
if u_2 means r^2 then you're fine
ok so what does the permutation u_2 do
permutation table right there but thats just an example that doesnt really matter
what doe you mean do
like in cycle notation is it (1 3 5 7) (2 4 6 8)
i take an element from the group and multiply it to the left of the given subgroup
p_0 is
(1)(2)(3)(4) identity permutation
i mean i got it i think
ok
the book shades different sections
of the group table of D_4
i think that helps determine if they are distinct
i figured it out the first 4 left cosets consist of all the elements of D_4
actually im retarded
the other 4 cosets are the same as the other 4 just in a different arrangement
and the arrangement of elements within a set doesnt matter in a fuckin set lulul so of course those first 4 are the distinct ones

question or i find it peculiar that the definition of both right and left coset make it seem like it the operation on the group does not matter, makes it seem like its just multiplication of an element from the group multiplied by the right or left of the given subgroup set
What do you mean?
That's kind of the point of defining things for all groups. We define it so it doesn't matter what group and what operation we're talking about
definition is like gH = { gh l h element of H }
is the definition of a left coset
just looks like multiplication
but when finding the cosets of 4Z of Z
use addition not multiplication i know these groups have the binary operation of addition but not obvious you would apply addition to the coset definition
ya know

It's always the group operation
Just like normal multiplication
also my professor didnt tell us that either
People get lazy at writing the group operation and just put things next to each other
true
And so it's assumed to be the group operation
ye i need to get in that mindset
and he probably expects me to know that actually
fuck
the lazy mindset š¤£

it is lazy
your totally right when dealing with permutation groups the operation is composition of functions
but it just looks like multiplication of two functions
Is there any reason a ring homomorphism has to map unity to unity? I remember hearing that but it seems like it's not a true thing.
I feel like I'm maybe remembering something that only holds for isomorphisms.
But I'm also running on no sleep during finals so I want to make sure I'm not just crazy.
Ohhhh, I'm remembering f(1)=f(1*1), which is true and maybe does imply the thing I was saying.
Well no, because f(1)=0 can be a thing.
@wary sphinx What properties do ring homomorphisms sustain between operations like a+b and ab?
or preserve I guess is better
Hello
is there a way to calculate the point of 2 intersecting rays using only the coordinates of the rays
If the rings have unity then ring homomorphisms builds the unity to the unity
But rings don't have to have unities
maybe yours don't
@wary sphinx let f be a ring hom, r an element in the ring. then f(r) = f(1r) = f(1)f(r), so f(1) is the multiplicative identity of the target ring
hm that's not 100% a solid proof yet actually. if the target is a domain, then you can cancel f(r) to get id = f(1)
but if it's not?
oh, you can do $f(1) = f(1)f(1)$, and then multiply on both sides by $f(1^{-1}) = f(1)^{-1}$ to get the desired result
Sascha Baer:
multiplicative inverses dont need to exist in rings
theres a reason that in the definition of a homomorphism, f(e_1)=e_2
certainly, but if 1 exists then its inverse does too
probably because it doesnt follow from the othe properties
as far as I can tell you can either demand it preserved the identity, or inverses (where they exist) and either will follow from the other
thing is, if the rings do have unities, it makes no sense to have homomorphisms not build unities to unities
well yea. you just don't necessarily have to put it as an axiom
all semantics, as far as I see it
Yeah. I think the thing I was remembering is that unity has to map to an idempotent element
The reason is you want to preserve a module structure as well
Where rings are modules over themselves with 1 as the identity
And you could ask again why
And well, it seems to be the right construction
It works well with what we know about rings
And gives us powerful results
Every ring can be taken to have a unit, rings without unity can be included in rings with unity
So in some sense this is a completely general notion
Can someone give me an example for a non-abelian group?
S3
?
Ohkay,thankss
Matrix multiplication is also a good one
my favourite group is nonabelian, the rubikās cube group
(itās just all the rotations of a rubikās cube that leave the centers fixed in place. itās highly nonabelian, and if it was abelian then the rubikās cube would be trivial)
(itās a subgroup of S48)
Rotations in 3 space are non-abelian.
and relatedly, the quaternion group is a nonabelian gruop with 8 elements
{±1, ±i, ±j, ±k} with multiplication, obeying the laws i²=j²=k²=ijk=-1
that one is actually āas abelian as possible without being abelianā in some sense
(look up the 5/8th theorem if you wanna know what I meant with that)
that 5/8ths theorem is cool
that theorem is cool actually wtf

take to elements from a group if they commute or something with a 62.5% chance then the group is abelian
that formulation kinda obscures what's going on
Yup
the point is that the center is of index at least 4
because of an easy result that it can't have prime index
center index 4 is the same as the 5/8 bound
ok i see a little coset talk going on
take the order of the group divide it by the order of the subgroup and get the index value
of course if they are divisible by each other
they are
is there a name for the ring of rationals such that some prime p doesn't divide the denominator?
I've seen this ring come up a lot
ah
you basically want to zoom in on the ideal (p)
so you invert (add inverses of) all the elements which are outside
and now you have a local ring with maximal ideal (p)
@mild laurel where do you see it?
Funny, I just started learning this stuff in atiyah-Macdonald
Think it's mentioned in there
Feel like this is a dumb question but
Is it true that all endomorphisms of an abelian group is a power map, i.e. x^d for some d
i saw that
Sorry meant to send that as a new message
But edited accidentally instead
Nothing changes if we specify that the group is the multiplicative group of a field right
@mild laurel have you thought of a counterexample yet?
Because Silverman makes this statement
oh, the endomorphism ring
What is the cardinality of the permutation subgroup <(1,2,6,5), (1,5,8,4), (1,2,3,4)>?
(it is a subset of the symmetric group of order 8 isomorphic to a quotient group)
All it says is the it's isomorphic to a quotient group of a variation of a different question but doesn't tell me what
@mild laurel are you thinking of G_m as a scheme or just as an abelian group?
I'm pretty sure it's just an abelian group
uhhh no it is a scheme
It's Spec(K[t, t^(-1)])
(also a group scheme for that matter)
but it's certainly not true if you only consider G_m as an abelian group
for example, take k = C, the complex numbesr
then C* is isomorphic to S^1 x R* which is isomorphic to S^1 x R
as abelian groups
and R has many many endomorphisms as a Q-vector space
Yeah okay, I also was thinking it wouldn't be injective for finite fields
correct; for x in F_q, we always have x^{q-1} = 1
so M_{q-1} would just be the identity map
so that's why we need to consider it as a scheme
so the question, translated, is asking you to find all the k-endomorphisms of k[t, t^{-1}]
which is equivalent to finding all of the units of k[t, t^{-1}]
fk okay I have a lot to learn
you'll get there
thanks
@hearty oyster if you're still wondering that subgroup has size 5040
@wicked mason tysm
Any hints on showing that AB does not have finite order? I thought about diagonalizing AB to make it more "apparent" that this is the case, but surely there is a better way....
You can compute the characteristic polynomial of AB, if it's not of the form t^n - 1 then AB doesn't have finite order
the powers of AB should have nice structure
induction would be quick
the nth power (if i havent fucked up) should be this
matricies in latex scare me
yeah that makes sense sigma. @bleak abyss I'm not sure I understand your explanation though
Oh I guess that wasn't exactly right
Okay so
Let's write AB = M
If M^n = I, then the minimal polynomial of M must divide t^n - 1
Not char poly, sorry
So in small cases you can factor the polynomial, e.g. in the 2x2 case t^2 - 1 = (t+1)(t-1)
So if a 2x2 matrix has finite order, it must have minimal polynomial t+1, t-1, or t^2 - 1
i don't know what minimal polynomial is tbh
Now in this particular scenario yeah either you're \pm I, or the min poly is quadratic so the char poly is as well, so yeah
Oh it's not bad, do you know what an ideal is?
Or nah I won't bother with ideals
Okay so
Do you know the Cayley-Hamilton theorem?
rip no :c
Okay so
Let's say A is a matrix with characteristic polynomial f
In general if you give me a polynomial I can stick in a matrix. If you give me the polynomial p(t) = t^2 + t + 1 and you give me the matrix A, then I write p(A) = A^2 + A + I (identity matrix)
Theorem: f(A) = 0
This takes some work to prove, the naive thing is to say "Well if f(t) = det(tI - A) then f(A) = det(AI - A) = det(A-A) = det(0) = 0" but this doesn't type check
The outline of the proof I know: diagonal matrices are ez, you can extend to diagonalizable matrices, and those are dense in M_n(C)
Anyway take this as a given for now
all right
This is one way to see that for any matrix A, there's some polynomial p such that p(A) = 0
Exercise: think of an easier way
"think of an easier way" to do what?
the 0 polynomial
To prove that if A is a matrix, then there's some polynomial p such that p(A) = 0
Okay non-zero polynomial if you wanna be a smartass lmao

@bleak abyss ||{x, Ax, A^2x, ..., A^nx} can't be LI||
if we assume that l and k are relatively prime, then 240 is the answer because 15 and 16 must both divide m.
But we don't know anything about k and l other than that x = g^k = h^l. I can't think of any implications of this that lead to a definite answer... 
I'd go about this differently. Elements of <g> have orders dividing |g| = 15 and similar thing with h. So if something is in the intersection...
something in the intersection would have order dividing 15 and 16
or multiples of 15 and 16....
240 would be the smallest number that does this. yea makes sense
and then in general if |g| = m and |h| = n or something, then the intersection of the cyclic subgroups generated by g and h would have order mn/gcd(m, n), right?
in the first line, yes the order has to divide both 15 and 16
and we know they're relatively prime
you're thinking of lcms with 240
plus an intersection should be smaller than the original things
oh yea, i got mixed up. it would be order 1 then.
Does anyone have an intuition as to why āsplitā is used to describe split functions, split exact sequences, etc?
Is there an image Iām not seeing? (I know the formal defs)
Split morphisms might be a better term
Well, for morphisms in particular, you have splits where it's the identity on one side, but not necessarily the other
so it's "split" between identity and not so identity
By other you mean depending on composition order?
well yeah
Just making sure
yeah fair
ooh
So thereās not really a unifying picture? Those make sense individually
0->A->B->C->0, if either map is split, then B splits as B = A+C
(so the sequence splits as 0->A->A->0 and 0->C->C->0)
Huh. Never made that full connection
interesting
question lads
why would a group lets say has order 120 not have a subgroup of order 60
what would prevent a group to not have a subgroup of a certain order
of course a subgroups can have an order that divides the order of the group
consider this: Sn is generated by an order 2 and an order n element
few elements can generate huge groups
if the group is far for being abelian
ok but S_5 contains A_5
yes this isn't a (120,60) example
although it is a (120, 15) example as S5 doesn't have an order 15 subgroup
no order 30 subgroup either
The Lagrange (? idk i probably butchered that spelling hardcore) thing only says the subgroups divide the order, not that all factors have at least one corresponding subgroup
if you want an (n, n/2) example, consider any simple group of even order
they don't have order n/2 subgroups as index 2 subgroups are normal
lagrange
Thank
monster group is simple of even order
So it works as a (808,017,424,794,512,875,886,459,904,961,710,757,005,754,368,000,000,000,
808,017,424,794,512,875,886,459,904,961,710,757,005,754,368,000,000,000/2) example
@marble wagon Atiyah proved that in just 12 pages š
lads
yall went in a completely opposite direction
let me restate why can a group not have a subgroup of an order that divides the order of the group
e.g a group of order 120, prove that it cannot have a subgroup of order 60
your question was answered above
no
It was, depends on the group
fucking brainlet
hm
I mean, you obviously can have a group with order 120 that has a subgroup of order 60, like the classic C_60 x C_2 which i'm p sure fits that bill
Proving that a group doesn't have a subgroup of that order would require additional information about the specific group at hand
since there certainly exist groups with order 60 subgroups
Why did you not post the whole question from the start?
There's no reason for there to be a general way, it depends on the specifics
^
got it
Okay that's easy
A subgroup of order n/2 is normal
But the normal subgroups have size 1, 2 (the center), and 120
gg
g g
explain further im not grasping it
If G is a group of order n and H is a subgroup of order n/2, then H is a normal subgroup of G
index 2 subgroups are normal as was said above
i get that yes
But we already know the orders of the normal subgroups of SL(2,5)
The only normal subgroups are the trivial subgroup of order 1, Z(G) which has order 2, and the whole group which has order 120
yes
So we're screwed
ah i see
That also shows that a simple group can't have a normal subgroup of order n/2, since the whole "simple" part
not so nice for the whole "no subgroup at all" part but it kicks a full case out
(and since it's always normal you get a big oof)
so what i would say is
since there are 3 normal subgroups and there isnt a normal subgroup of order 60 there cant be a subgroup of order 60
or no
You say there's no subgroup of order 60 since any subgroup of index 2 is normal
(with some fill in the blank about normality)
A subgroup of order 60 would be a normal subgroup of order 60, but there is no normal subgroup of order 60
appreciate it i got it now
well done lads
š
just remembered he said that there would be a question about normal subgroups and index of 2
but couldnt piece it together thanks
so, some $a^{km}$ is in the intersection if $n$ divides $km$. Then wouldn't the generator of this subgroup be $a^c$ where $c$ is the least common multiple of $m$ and $n$?
kxrider:
Yes
Anyone ever seen this description and formulation of the natural number sequence http://prntscr.com/o44w60
"ys" here is meant to mean s(y)
Then you would go onto prove that all "integral systems" are isomorphic
and hence define natural number sequence as an integral system
that's basically the peano axioms
(not for arithmetic, but for the naturals)
which is the "standard" way to define the naturals
Peano axioms huh
That's literally just peano (sans the whole induction and arithmetic part) but generalized so it's not about the particular model but rather the univeral structure as a thing with a unary and nullary operator
In mathematical logic, the Peano axioms, also known as the DedekindāPeano axioms or the Peano postulates, are axioms for the natural numbers presented by the 19th century Italian mathematician Giuseppe Peano. These axioms have been used nearly unchanged in a number of metam...
But yeah it's literally just peano
waht do you mean "sans induction"
there's not the whole induction axiom schema thing
though I guess you could make that an integral system actually
the statement I_2 is induction
there's a second order induction axiom, but iirc the first order one is a schema
yeah you're right
I do my best to never do any math that requires me to distinguish between first- and second-order logic haha
Though technically I2 is just induction but saying theres an isomorphism with integral systems or some dumb wording of that
Like uh I2 is the whole "yeah induction works"
then you just say "lmao integral system"
$\forall p(p_1 \land (p_n \implies p_{n^\prime})\implies \forall n p_n)$ something right?
Darkrifts:
also btw i'm not sure if this really fits/belongs in #groups-rings-fields
oh yeah , and for the above screen shot I posted with the <N,',0> integral system , ' is a function with it being '={<n,n'>| $ n \in \mathbb{N}$}
$Hydrεigon360:
lmao
this was my first time using uh
yeah it probably goes in #proofs-and-logic or some such, but the way it's formulated in his text seems to take a slightly univeral algebra/model approach
latex in a convo
lOL
LOL
this shti is slow
yeah I have no idea where to ask these questions
its just uh
set theory to me so idk shit
so it just says an integral system is an algebra with a signature (1, 0) where the unary operation is bijective to X\{nullary boy}
smh
there's probably a nicer way to formalize that statement but forget it
Anyhow, that formulation is literally just peano
so that's something for you to look up if you need more stuff on it
I'm into this book, its pretty old and I dont even understand these terms like "bijective" lmao
when other people use them
even though its covered a fair bit so far
Bijective: the function is injective and surjective
yeah
its like when you ask a doctor for a definition and they give you more medical terms, but I can google it ofc
I think this book is weird
but its good so
ill keep going
alright
I know what the problem is
its just a tiny bit abstract
all of this
just a little bit
Prove that $\bbZ_n$ has an even number of generators for $n>2$.
kxrider:
tiny hint maybe?
a standard way to prove that some set is even is to find a way to pair up elements of the set
so what you should do is try to find a way to pair up the generators of Z_n
it would be better phrased as "has an even number of possible generators" right?
I see what you mean but I think the current phrasing is fine
thonkingrealhard
The current phrasing made me take a thonk for about a second till i'm like "oh yeah, things that can generate"
ok after a lot of staring i managed to figure this out.
For any m relatively prime to n, m is a generator of Z_n. Since m is relatively prime to n, n-m is relatively prime to n as well.
I can't think of a good proof for the last part other than that gcd(m,n)=1 implies that there is nothing that can be factored out of n-m that can also be factored out of n. Just kinda obvious š¤·
well what is n - m (mod n)
-m?
yep i see
a permutation which swaps two points
let me clarify
a transposition is a permutation which swaps two points and does nothing to all the others
k thx
Who can help me with figural reasonning?
This is probably not the right channel for you
the symmetric group S_n is generated by transpositions
A_n is generated by 3 cycles
Prove it
just write out the two cases and you're done 
hey liquid
Haven't seen you in a while

It is summer after all :(
A_n is the set of all even permutations
and any k - cycle where k is odd produces even number of transpositions
o

Consider the finite abelian group G consisting of the set of elements ${a_1, a_2 , a_3 , \dots, a_m, b_1, b_2, b_3, \dots, b_n}$ - $m$ of which are of order two and $n$ of which aren't. The elements of order two are their own inverse where as those of a greater order aren't. I.e. for all elements $b_k$, there exists a unique inverse $b^{\prime}{k}$ such that $b_k \neq b^{\prime}{k}$. \
Hence, $$a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m b_1 b_2 b_3 \dots b_n = a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m e = a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m$$
ScoopityPoop:
that's pretty botched up
it isn't clear what you're saying
and the little things that are clear are redundant
ok, I'll try to redo it
I'm trying to show that the in a finite abelian group, the product of all elements = the product of elements of order two
oh okay
the idea is fine, you just need to write it properly
writing it as b' k is misleading, you mean b k'
since it's just a different index that depends on k
oh ok
and be more explicit about the idea that you're pairing off each element with its inverse
ok
and that you're taking the product of all the elements
and showing it's the product of order 2 elements
\newcommand{\mysubparagraph}[1]{\subparagraph{#1}\mbox{}\}
\mysubparagraph{Product of the Elements of an Abelian Group}
Consider the finite abelian group G consisting of the set of elements ${a_1, a_2 , a_3 , \dots, a_m, b_1, b_2, b_3, \dots, b_n}$ - $m$ of which are of order two and $n$ of which aren't. The elements of order two are their own inverse where as those of a greater order aren't. I.e. for all elements $b_k$, there exists a unique inverse $b_{k^{\prime}}$ such that $b_k \neq b_{k^{\prime}}$. \
Hence, we can effectively pair up the elements $b_k$ with their inverses to show that
$$a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m b_1 b_2 b_3 \dots b_n = a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m e = a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_m$$
\mysubparagraph{Proof of Wilson's Theorem }
Wilson's Theorem:
$$ \text(p-1)! \equiv -1 \mod p $$
Consider the group $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ (integers modulo $p$) under multiplication (Note that this is a group because $p$ is prime). Any element of this group may be defined as $p-k$ such that $k \in [1, p-1]$, and it holds that $(p-k)^2 \equiv k^2 \mod p$. Hence, the only element of order two is $p-1$ and $1$. From the previous sub-paragraph, one may then conclude that the product of the elements of $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ is $p-1$. I.e. $(p-1)! \equiv p-1 \mod p \implies (p-1)! \equiv -1 \mod p$
ScoopityPoop:
does this look ok?
hence, the only element of order two is p-1 and 1
can't see how you concluded this
instead of saying "previous subparagraph", call that result a lemma
oh ok
the rest looks fine
Is that even true?
yeah cuz it's a field
Is Wilson's theorem true?
x^2 - 1 has 2 roots
Oh right
Lol
I was thinking of using lagranges theorem to show that the number of elements of order 2 is odd lol
monkas
But I guess it's much more trivial

I feel like that argument should work for a generalization of this statement
what is a character table?
You can break a character table up into five parts
Character tables contain information about how functions transform in response to the operations of the group
for a finite group it is a table where rows are indexed by irreducible characters (up to isomorphism) and columns are indexed by conjugacy classes of the group, and the entries are the trace of the representation of any element of the conjugacy class
@brisk granite Is this clear to you?
lol wtf
sh xD
sh: xD: No such file or directory
these people
Commutative algebra (study on rings) is pretty difficult, but groups are where its at
i see kayn
from my biased opinion, commutative algebra is one of the most important topics in algebra
commutative and representation theory are the two most important topics
I would like to find certain subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ where p is any arbitrary prime. Specifically, those subgroups of order $p$. Since p is prime, I know that the order of every element is $p$, and, hence, I can generate subgroups of order $p$ by considering any element in $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ and creating a cyclic group from said element. Each cyclic group will have $p-1$ elements (excluding the identity) and there are exactly $p^2 -1$ elements other than the identity in the group. Thus, there must be at least $\frac{p^2 -1}{p-1} = p+1$ subgroups, but I have no idea how to conclusively say that this the total amount of subgroups of order $p$.
ScoopityPoop:
how to?
wdym?
how do I know that all subgroups of order $p$ are cyclic though?
ScoopityPoop:
that's the part I'm stuck on
ye
k
no, it is not true that any arbitrary group is cyclic @brisk granite
Any arbitrary group with prime order is cyclic
by theorem
ya the only groups of prime order are simple cyclic groups
@fickle brook I meant with a prime order. I was trying to clarify whether he meant it was specifically for the subgroups I mentioned above
Is there any way to prove it without Lagrange?
I haven't learned it yet; so, I'm not sure if it would be fair to use it
Prove what with Lagranges? @brisk granite
prime order groups are cyclic
Yeah you can
Take any element of your group and look at the subgroup it generates
E.g. take some element a \in G and look at {a, a^2, a^3,\dots , a^n}. We know that this must be a finite set since our group is finite
Furthermore, you can pretty easily show that this subset of your group forms a subgroup as well
But Lagrange's theorem says that the order of any subgroup must divide the order of the group, which in this case, is p
Thus, we either have that the subgroup is of order 1 or order p
The identity will always be in this subgroup, so as long as we take the element a not to be the identity, this subgroup has more than one element
without lagranges
So thus the subgroup has to have order p and the subgroup is cyclic
Lol
He knows how to prove it with lagranges
But apparently his class hasn't done lagrange yet
@mild laurel
Or prove Lagrange 
Hi guys I'm good at problem solving but not quite there yet...
I was hoping that there might be some epic maths boss here that could teach me more techniques over discord...
please DM me


is this the right place?
are there rules against this kinda stuff?
def cool pics though
yah :/
Note the all groups consisting of only elements (barring the identity) of the same order as the group are cyclic. To illustrate this, consider a group $G$ - defined such that $\forall x \in G, ; |G| = |x| = n$ - and a single element $x$ in $G$. It holds that $|\langle x \rangle| = n$, and, thus, $G = \langle x \rangle$.\
Now consider the group $\underbrace{\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}...\times \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}}_{n \text{ times}} = G$ for any arbitrary prime $p$. Since $p$ is prime, it holds that the order of any element (other than the identity) must be $p$ and that all subgroups of order $p$ are cyclic.\
Then, notice that there are exactly $p^{n}-1$ elements in $G$ (excluding the identity) and $p-1$ elements (excluding the identity) in any subgroup of order $p$ of $G$. Hence, there must be exactly $\frac{p^{n} -1 }{p-1}$ possible subgroups of order $p$ in $G$
ScoopityPoop:
So, I extended the answer I presented before to a more generic case. does this look complete and correct?
the part where you prove an order p group is cyclic is very confusing
e has order 1 and can't be order n...
DUO, Inc.:
i need to show c)ii) but im not sure how
That's equivalent to showing that K is normal in G, right?
i have no idea what that means sorry
ahh gotcha
well we know that K is a subgroup of G and that for all k in K, f(k) = eH, right?
yeah
and we know f is a homomorphism, so for all g in G, f(k ā¢Ā g) = f(k) ⢠f(g)
yeah
see if that helps you out
er one more step for yaā we then know from the above that f(k ⢠g) = f(k) ā¢Ā f(g) = eH ⢠f(g) = f(g)
right
yes so the left and right cosets are equal
tada
right
i dont understand what they do
if you're taking a course on abstract algebra right now you'll learn what a normal subgroup is pretty soon
and what (i) is showing is that K is a normal subgroup of G
which implies that its left cosets are the same as its right cosets
as well as some other nice properties
well this is in high school
damn that's impressive
in IB, the set theory option
gotcha
so the understanding they provide us with is very shallow in all the options
I see I see
i dont really have an idea of a lot of bigger concepts, and the same is seen with most topics
well it's a good way to dip your toes into the things you'd get in an introductory group theory course
how exactly would you get from knowing that K is a normal subgroup to the left and right cosets being equal
the lazy answer is by copying and pasting the proof for 10.1 from my abstract algebra textbook
it depends how you define normal subgroup
š¦
sometimes normal subgroup is defined by right and left cosets being equal
but any book on algebra has some part "the following conditions are equivalent"
and it will mention a few things that are equivalent to being a normal subgroup
each of those could be used as the definition as well
Ahhh i was thinking of something like that but I lacked the capability to actually do it
Oh interesting
Thanks!
Book in question is Dan Saracino Abstract Algebra ā A First Course 2nd Ed.
When is an abstract Algebra course normally taken?
Second year?
I looked at my first year stuff and it's pretty much all calculus and linear algebra
I took it at the end of my sophomore year, but I go to a liberal arts college which doesn't emphasize math really at all (and since we're right next to CalTech, the zealous mathy students go over there to take tough classes)
Sophomore = ?
I think most students at CalTech take it their first year but that's also bc they usually come in having had all of multivariable calculus and linear algebra
Sophomore = 2nd year
4th semester
because if you get into caltech and plan on doing math it probably means you're a real whiz and have had lots of crazy classes already
Oh that's a scam for international students isn't it
there's some math prep school in the bay that teaches introductory real analysis the first year of high school
prooobably
idk so much about how these things affect international students
in europe you dont take calculus at all
math students start with real analysis and linear algebra
in your first year
I'll be done with AP calc content and linear algebra, and basic set theory, and first year stats by the end of my high school
But defs not multivariable
At least not formally
might be better convo for #math-discussion or another channel at this point, but that's better than I had at the end of high school
Sure
indeed multiple ways to define if a subgroup is normal
such as if you have a kernal of a known homomorphism, that is a normal subgroup of a group
what is a normal subgroup?
Like, what's the difference between a normal subgroup and a subgroup, I mean
reposting image above w/ slightly more context:
that's a formal definition
a more intuitive definition is: a normal subgroup is a subgroup which has some nice properties and let you do nice things. One of the nice things is that it's the foundation of the quotient group, where you basically are dividing your group by a normal subgroup
if the subgroup's not normal, the quotient group doesn't form a group, but if it is normal, then it does form a group, so it has lots of nice properties that are useful for people
you wanna put a group structure on the cosets gH of a group G
for this it should be true that g1H g2H = g1 g2 H
in other words, that H g2 = g2 H
this is the defining property of a normal subgroup
left and right cosets agree
Is there any way to show two groups are isomorphic without actually defining an isomorphism and showing it?
Find an inverse homomorphism
many ways to show 2 groups are isomorphic
assume they arent and find a contradiction
look at abelian vs non abelian, also subgroup orders/# of subgroups have to match with isomorphic groups that is a structural property, also countable/order, also if you know a large infinite group such as C (set of complex numbers) you know the reals, and integers, and rationals are subsets of that big set which is also a group
@brisk granite
I'm stuck on the last part
I can't find an isomorphism that works.
Actually, I only tried $f((m,n)) = \tau^{n}\rho^{m}$
ScoopityPoop:
I think that only works $\phi$ is the trivial homomorphism though
ScoopityPoop:
no, that works
well
the order 2 element is rho here?
your map is the natural choice, and it works
The order 2 element is tau
Tau is the reflection
Rho is the rotation
@marble wagon are you sure it works?
cuz, I think I showed that f(ab) not equal to f(a)f(b). so, that would suggest it isn't even a homomorphism
ok
$f((a,b))f((c,d)) = \tau^{b} \rho^{a} \tau^{d} \rho^{c} = \tau^{b+d}\rho^{c - a}$\
$f((a,b)(c,d)) = f((a \phi(b)(c), bd)) = \tau^{bd}\rho^{a \phi(b)(c)}$
ScoopityPoop:
oh shit
thx
also, in the second row, that should say b+d and a + phi(b)(c)
when d = 1, I don't see how it works
when d = 1 and b = 0, if the top and bottom rows were equal, then $$\tau\rho^{c - a} = \tau\rho^{a + c}$$
ScoopityPoop:
How does that make any sense?
oh you're doing it the other way around
try rho^a tau^b instead
for the morphism
you know, it's one of the two
didn't realize this one didn't work but it makes sense
What are the radical ideals in the multivariate polynomial ring over an algebraically closed field?
finitely generated by irreducibles
possibly dumb question: if b is not a root in a field F and a+sqrt(b)= c+sqrt(d) for some a,c, and d in F. Does sqrt(b) = sqrt(d)? all I deduce is that Sqrt(b) -sqrt(d) is in F
what does it mean to not be a root in a field ?
yeah it should imply b=d
just verified this, thanks for replying
@marble wagon I tried it the other way around and it worked!
Like, where I have rho tau instead of tau rho
yeah
Can someone explain why the last sentence works?
Why is A/q^c isomorphic to a subring of B/q
Consider the quotient map pi: B->B/q.
Now consider g=piā¢f: A->B/q. It is a ring homomorphism so by an isomorphism theorem, A/ker g is isomorphic to g(A) which is a subring of B/q. Notice also that ker g = f^-1 (q)=q^c.
So A/q^c is isomorphic to a subring of B/q.
š š
is this a theorem or corollary : any field is a field of fractions of itself
a remark
really
yes
remark is a simple fact that's easily verified
indeed
proposition is a heavier result, which takes some work and is of value of itself. if it's used as a key ingredient for a bigger result it's called a lemma. and a big result is a theorem
clean
So, I'm having trouble proving that an element that can be decomposed into an even number of transpositions can only be decomposed into an even number of transpositions
I've been stuck for a while tbh
one way to do it is by looking at the number of inversions
the inversions?
pairs (i,j) such that i < j but sigma(i) > sigma(j)
what is sigma tho?
if you have a odd k-cycle permutation
that same permutation can be expressed in terms of an even number of transpositions
aka a 2-cycle
yep
there you go
what is an odd cycle though?
has an odd number of length
k is represented as the number of numbers within the permutation
(1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8) is an 8 -cycle
i just showed you
showed me what
than an odd cycle can be decomposed into the product of an even number of transpositions?
a cycle that has an odd k value can be written as a even product of transpositions
that is what i showed
if k is even then you will have an odd product of transpositions
post the question
jesus
"So, I'm having trouble proving that an element that can be decomposed into an even number of transpositions can only be decomposed into an even number of transpositions"
this what I posted earlier
i meant take a picture
i dont see how inversions help
||The parity of inversions is equivalent to the parity of the number of transpositions||
ofcourse i didnt see it, i messed up the example i was thinking of
so, I don't understand what orbits are for a symmetric group. like, if I had a permutation f in S_n, then what would orbit(f) mean?
I think I understand what an orbit is, but I have no idea what it means here
You don't have orbits of group elements
You have a group acting on a set, and can ask about the orbit of the element of the set
So S_n acts on {1,...,n}
And you can ask what's the orbit of, say, 3?
In this case, it's the whole set, since if you give me any other element in S_n, say 7, I just take the transposition (3 7)
the second answer uses stuff like orbit(s)
what does that mean?
And, s is an element of the symmetric group...
lmao
I don't care if the rest of the book is good tbh
