#groups-rings-fields
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when you say a complex number is unit length you are saying that a^2 + b^2 = 1
unit length means its length is 1. a^2 + b^2 is how you compute its squared length
do you know what a vector is? if not i don't think any of this will make any sense
no no ik what a vector is
I'm familiar with linear algebra
and I've known about complex numbers for a while, it's just that them being used as rotations is new
ok so this might be a dumb question
but even tho a + bi is unit length, it still affects z?
yes, it doesn't affect the length of z but it will rotate it
got it
and multiplying by the conjugate of of a + bi (a - bi), neither affects the length nor rotates z?
it will rotate it in the opposite direction
which cancels out?
so if you apply both a + bi AND a - bi then the rotations will cancel out
but if you only apply a - bi then it will rotate, just in the opposite direction of a + bi
(a + bi)z = rotates it
(a - bi)z = rotates it in the opposite direction
(a + bi)(a - bi)z = (a^2 + b^2)z = 1z = z = doesn't rotate it at all because the rotations cancelled
so u do something like (a+bi)z(a-bi)?
yea, something like that
it undoes rotation in one of the planes but doubles it in the other
cuz ik in the context of quaternions it reinforces one but cancels out another
yes
but what about in complex numbers?
in complex numbers it just undoes it
oh so same as multiplying them right next to each other?
(a + bi)z(a - bi) = z will also undo the rotation
correct
interesting
quaternions work the same way as complex numbers in 1 of the planes so it will cancel in that plane
but in the other plane, by moving it to the other side it will flip the rotation again
so it will double it
I see
and, ik that 4D rotations can have either simple rotations or double rotations
quaternions always represent double rotations?
or can they represent single rotations as well?
yea, you can think of the quaternion as breaking the 4D space into two perpendicular 2D planes and executing the rotation in both planes
you can do a single rotation using the sandwitch trick
yea
gotchu gotchu
damn this is a lot of new concepts đ
going back to the complex numbers real quick
is multiplying by something like (a - bi) or (a + bi) considered a rotation?
or multiplying just by i?
or both?
i is equal to 0 + 1i which is also a unit length complex number
it will rotate by 90 degrees
oh ok
multiplication by any number with unit norm corresponds to a rotation
imagine the complex number as a 2d vector, whatever angle it makes with the x-axis (real axis) will be the angle it rotates by
and u can figure out that angle using the dot product formula?
oh ok
you can use arctan
oh?
but yes you can find the angle between two complex numbers with the dot product
no you'd use arctan to find the angle of a single complex number with the real axis (x-axis)
oh
ok I'd have to look into how to do that then
but dot product also works right?
to figure out the angle between complex number and x axis
also, how do u represent x-axis?
is it just 1 + 0i or something?
cuz just that feels like a point
you may discover later you can write any non-zero complex number as a positive real number multiplied by a complex number on the unit circle.
this explains why complex multiplication corresponds to a dilation + a rotation
1 + 0i
is 1 + 0i not just a point?
you have to think of them as vectors
a complex number is just a 2d vector. a is just the x-component, b is just the y-component
1 is the unit vector along the x-axis, i is the unit vector along the y-axis
yes
wdym by "non-zero complex number"?
0 + 5i?
something like that?
sure
oh
got it
just anything that doesnât have itâs real and imaginary parts both zero
a + bi with a != 0 and b != 0
oh
ok so
complex numbers are often literally just thought of as 2D vectors?
the real part is the x-axis and imaginary part is y-axis?
yes
historically the concept of a vector was derived from the complex numbers (and the quaternions)
you can think of complex numbers as outdated notation for 2d vectors, if you want
thatâs often how the complex numbers are defined. R^2 with a multiplication
wdym by "R^2 with a multiplication"?
R^2 is a vector space. its elements are ordered pairs of real numbers (x,y). in particular, you can add these pairs of real numbers component-wise.
to âupgradeâ it to C, you define
(x,y) ⢠(u,v) = (xu - yv, xv + yu)
from there you can redefine 1 and (1,0) and i as (0,1) and write each ordered pair (x,y) as
(x,y) = (x,0) + (0,y) = x(1,0) + y(0,1) = x + yi
and you can check that the multiplication works how it should work
so C is R^2 with a multiplication
so wait
how is applying a rotation using a vector different from applying a rotation using a matrix?
cuz that's what I'm used to seeing
well, each vector (x,y) such that x^2 + y^2 = 1 determines a rotation matrix
[x -y]
[y x]
and vice versa
if you have a 2d rotation matrix, you can get a 2d vector with unit norm
but the ârotation using a vectorâ is encoded in the definition of complex multiplication
oh what
so if u have a unit vector
u can make an equivalent rotation matrix?
or something like that?
yea
oh
ok I need to read up on all of that
I didn't know about that
ok now, back to quaternions real quick
so, earlier, mc said that one of the rotations a quaternion causes works the same was as the rotation caused by a complex number?
e.g. multiplying the quaternion by its inverse cancels it out
yea, what's your question
sorry I'm just trying to think all this thru
q*qv will cancel the rotations in both planes, but moving q* to the right will cause only 1 to cancel
interesting, is there a name for that? like a property or something?
or is that just something that happens?
cuz yeah it's interesting how in complex numbers both versions completely cancel the rotation
it just follows from the fact that rotations commute in the first plane but anticommute in the second
but in quaternions, their results differ
yea, that's the main difference
I see
idk if there even is an answer to this question but, which plane is which? if that makes sense?
as in, how do u know which plane's gets doubled, and which plane's rotation gets canceled out?
is it possible to determine that, or is that just some background magic?
the plane spanned by your quaternion and 1 is the first plane, the one that behaves the same as with a complex number
and then whichever plane is perpendicular to that is the second one
which gets doubled
ok so
that axis pointing up in that picture
is the axis that points in the direction of ur vector?
its the axis you want to rotate around
the plane perpendicular to that axis (which will also be perpendicular to the whole plane)
is the one the rotation gets doubled in
let me explain it like this
just like you can split a complex number z into a component along 1 (real component) and a component perpendicular to 1 (imaginary component)
you can split a quaternion into a component along 1 (real component) and a component perpendicular to 1 (in that picture it's a)
the plane spanned by 1 and a (or alternatively 1 and q, it's the same plane) is the one that behaves like the ordinary complex plane
so the plane that's spanned by q and 1?
and the plane perpendicular to that is the one that behaves differently, in which the angle is doubled
wait what?
they are pointing in different directions in the diagram
and are orthogonal to each other, no?
the identity quat (1) and your quat (q) span a plane
call it plane 1
the rotation axis a is also in plane 1
plane 2 is perpendicular to plane 1, it's not in that drawing
so plane 2 will be perpendicular to a since a is in plane 1
does that make sense?
oh ok so everything in that diagram is meant to be on the same plane?
yes
it's comparing plane 1 of the quaternion with a regular complex plane and showing the similarity
here's a final thing that might help you finally put it all together
purple arrow is your quat (q).
blue arrow is the identity quat (1)
red arrow is the rotation axis.
purple ring is plane 1
red ring is plane 2, perpendicular to plane 1
and the animation is showing the rotation being applied in both planes
yea
its perpendicular to the identity quat so it has no real component
its pure 3d, you could say
and plane 2, which is the plane you want to rotate in, is perpendicular to it
you dont want to rotate in plane 1, so you would use the sandwitch trick to undo that purple rotation
and youd double the red rotation
and then you can cut the angle in half to componsate for the doubling
ok so u don't want to rotate in the plane that is spanned by q and 1?
correct
oh wait
hold on I think that makes sense
real quick so, a is the axis of rotation?
yes
oh ok and u want to rotate around the axis of rotation
that's why u don't wanna rotate the plane that it's in?
yes
ok ok
in a regular 3d rotation, the part of your vector that lies along the axis of rotation is supposed to stay the same
imagine rotating a globe, all the points on the line of rotation through the globe should not move
only the points perpendicular to it should rotate
so you definitely dont want the component of your vector lying along the axis of rotation to rotate into the 4th dimension
and does that happen when the "w" becomes non-zero?
yea, the part of your vector that's supposed to stay the same will get shorter because it's rotating in that plane
part of it "transfers" to the w-component
anyway if you're trying to do a regular rotation in 3d space you need to only rotate in plane 2
I see
ok this is sorta coming together
now, I saw this about double rotations on the wikipedia page:
"For each rotation R of 4-space (fixing the origin), there is at least one pair of orthogonal 2-planes A and B each of which is invariant and whose direct sum A â B is all of 4-space."
that makes it sound like planes A and B don't rotate at all
but as we just discussed, they do get rotated
am I just misunderstanding what it's saying there?
yes
it just means the planes are mapped to themselves
so like a vector lying in one of the planes will still lie in that plane after the rotation
which is what you would expect
it will be rotated, but still lie in that plane
if you just read the next sentence it makes it clear: "Hence R operating on either of these planes produces an ordinary rotation of that plane."
ok so it just means that the vectors that lie on those planes will all still lie on those planes after the rotation is done?
yes
ok
that's weird, cuz qv moves the vector off of the plane
by giving it a "w" component
but oh well
no it's still in that plane
it moves it off the a axis
but it still lies in plane 1 (spanned by 1 and q (or a))
yea, it's in plane 1 still
I see
i think you may be overthinking it. it's really not that complicated. the quat q breaks 4d space into 2 perpendicular planes and executes a rotation in both of those planes
and that's it
some other quat v can be broken into 2 components, one in each of those planes, and those components will rotate
yeah ur probably right lol
it's always 2 perpendicular planes in a double rotation in 4D right?
yea, which planes in particular will depend on how q is pointing relative to 1
but plane 1 is always the plane spanned by q and 1 and plane 2 is whatever plane is perpendicular to plane 1
got it
ok I'ma leave all the complicated behind-the-scenes stuff alone for now
quick question about the single vs double rotation tho
is there a simple way to tell whether a quaternion (or a 4x4 matrix for that matter) will produce a simple (1 plane) rotation or double (2 plane) rotation?
or not really?
a quaternion always breaks 4d space into 2 planes and rotates in both of those planes
if you want a rotation in a single plane you need to use the sandwitch product trick
to cancel one of them out
so the answer is a single quat q always does a double rotation
it can never do a single rotation by itself
you're welcome, good luck
thanks
now just to generalize, higher-dimension rotations can rotate more than 2 planes at once right?
e.g. 6D, 10D and whatnot?
yep
thanks
oh wait by the way
regarding that simple/double rotation stuff
that can only be done by unit quaternions right?
or 4x4 matrices with det +/- 1?
cuz everything else also scales, shears, etc.?
yea if the quaternion isnt a unit quaternion it will also scale
same goes for complex numbers
I see
but does the one/two plane thing hold?
like, a 4D linear transformation will either affect one or two planes at the same time?
it's just that it won't be a pure rotation?
Nonunit quaternions should do the same thing as unit quaternions but just also scale by the magnitude right
scaling leaves all planes invariant
can't they also shear?
It's just a unit quaternion times a positive real number, right
The positive real should just scale, if I'm understanding the representation H â R^4Ă4 we're using correctly
ye but a non-unit quaternion
Is a unit quaternion (rotation) times a positive real (scaling)
no, just scale and rotate. a quaternion isnt equivalent to a general 4d linear transformation
Is every torsion free abelian group isomorphic to a subgroup of Q^n under addition for some cardinal n?
No, â^â isn't a subgroup of â^n for any n.
n doesn't have to a natural
n is a cardinal
Oh ok
oh ok, thanks!
I mean I am reasonably certain this is true, but i am unable to prove it
oh yeah and also
is there a reason that for 2D u can extend the real number system by just one parameter (a + bi) for a total of 2 parameters to allow for 2D rotations
but for 3D u can't extend by 2 parameters and get something like (a + bi + cj), but instead u have to extend by 3 parameters to get (a + bi + cj + dk)?
is it something to do with "division algebra"?
and how (a + bi + cj) are not gauranteed to have a multiplicative inverse?
plz ping, thanks!
Rotations in 3d space are parameterized by 3 values, if you also want scaling that comes upto 4 values
yeah but I was referring to extending the real number system
like how complex numbers for 2D are 2 parameters but how quaternions for 3D are 4 parameters
well it depends on what properties you want
?
If you don't care about division, then (a,b,c)*(d,e,f) = (ad,be,cf) works
ok, thanks
But if you want to garantee invertibility
And let us say you are extending C
so you want to assign some values to i*j and j*j
but now if i*j = a+bi+cj
then (i-c)*j = a + bi
but (i-c)*((a+bi)/(i-c)) = a+bi
so (i-c)(j-(a+bi)/(i-c)) = 0
But neither of those is 0
yes: let A â Ab be torsion-free. for every nonzero a â A, we have <a> â A and <a> â Z embeds into Q. Q is an injective object in Ab, so we get a map from A to Q extending this embedding: in particular, a is not in the kernel of this map. using the universal property of Q^(A \ {0}), we have a map from A to Q^(A \ {0}), and by construction, no nonzero a â A can be in this map's kernel
What is an injective object?
I haven't seen this argument, nice one
in general, given an injective R-module I, an R-module M embeds into some I^n if every cyclic submodule of M embeds into I, although actually im not sure if the converse is true
dw ill respond to what you said
im just saying this to say it
Nice
I is injective if, for all A â B, for all f: A -> I, we have a map g: B -> I such that g restricts to f on A
so i guess im implicitly assuming the proof that Q is injective
the issue is that i never studied the proof too well, it's in aluffi, but i uhhh skimmed it

I see, i don't need the proof though, just a hint
you might need zorn's lemma?
unsure, i should reference a proof
actually, you might not need it for Q specifically? unsure
this criterion requires zorn to prove
i shall actually study the proof for the first time in my life and get back to you
the proof is not too bad
Oh, can't I just do,
if a --> 1
and b^k = a^j , f(b) = j/k
and if this is not true for any j or k, f(b) = 0
That doesn't prove injectivity, but that's enuf for the qn i gave
I think
(injective => extending from ideals is trivial, and in the other direction, you form a poset of submodules with an extension of f, hit this with zorn, and then using the condition for ideals you can actually extend the homomorphism further than the upper bound unless it really is extended all the way)
but yea choice is required
ah yea fair. you can replace R-module with abelian group, R-linear map with group homomorphism, R with (Z, +), and I with subgroups of (Z, +)
if you're curious
it turns out to be equivalent to an abelian group being "divisible", i.e. for every a â A and natural number n there exists b â A such that nb = a
(this happens for R any PID)
That makes some amount of sense
So no cyclic abelian group is injective?
yea
Weird, i would expect like C2 to be injective.
yeah standard examples of injective abelian groups are Q/Z and Q
yea, the issue comes trying to extend the map from 2Z to Z/2 given by sending 2 to 1
Makes sense
Z/p should be ig
yea this concept becomes a lot more rich once you start learning modules, and it's already kinda hairy as it is

Ok thx alot
(yeah trying to pin down what injective modules look like for arbitrary rings is uh kinda terrible lol -- in a certain sense they usually have to be very big)
Can you "injectivize" an abelian group by introducing formal divisors?
A localization style construction like that only works if the module is torsion free (exercise: why?) but the idea of taking the smallest injective group containing a given one is a thing you can do
this is called taking the injective hull
I mean like that would take Z/2Z to Q/Z
no it would take it to zero
you can inject Z/2Z into Q/Z but that's not done by localizing
Idk what localising is
ok the issue is that this doesn't work: consider the group Z^2 and the subgroup generated by (1, 0). then we would send (1, 0) to 1 and (0, 1) to 0 and also (1, 1) to 0, which isn't linear
it's exactly that kind of "introduce formal divisors" idea you were talking about -- like how we construct Q by just adding an inverse for every nonzero integer
you can look up the construction on your own time tho i need to get out of bed lol
tfw $\varinjlim_{s\in S}R[1/s]$
i prefer the description where you take a colimit over this diagram personally :3
the proof might necessarily be very tricky and zorn-y: how would we prove that we can get a map from Z^N -> Q that extends (1, 0, 0, ...) -> 1?
Ah, ok, can I just take the quotient group
for the subgroup of things which share a power with a
How?
Oh yeh, I use choice here
I take a representative element from every coset
Such that the representatives form a subgroup
I can do that by choice non trivially but pretty easily
Like i first well order all the cosets, and for each coset, if I am forced to take an element i take it, else i choose anything
And by abelianness I am guaranteed that i will only be forced to choose one thing
Then i send the reps to 0 and everything else to the obvious thing
@frail shoal does this work?
ohhh ok i didn't realize you meant something more like this
ok i will think about this
i feel I'd need more detail to be able to say
most of the time injectives are infinitely generated
but the general shape of the proof seems to be what you said
more precisely it'll look like this
Icy
You can say things much more precisely, if thereâs a finitely generated (nonzero) one then your ring is Artinian
So like if your ring isnât Artinian, there just straight up isnât any
Altho maybe you know that, so itâs more for @verbal valley
Also, if you want to know the structure of injectives, I think really the only time itâs tractable is to look at minimal injectives
Thereâs a whole structure theory for these due to Matlis, and this is somewhere in the middle of Matsumura
But it comes down to them being a direct sum of injective hulls of various residue fields of the ring
And the amount of each one can be read off of Exts and stuff, and this gives rise to the notion of Bass numbers
we just covered all of what you said in my commutative algebra class last semester so the reminder was indeed helpful
Oh I forget, you might need a Noetherian hypothesis to make what I said true about Artinian
It might possible be true without Noetherian in the local case, but the statement Iâm thinking about is about a local ring, and I think to go from general to local you need Noetherian to ensure that the fg injective module stays injective?
oh neat
this was fact i didn't know
You'll need some connectedness assumption at least. Otherwise you can just take a product of an artinian ring and a non-artinian one.
Alternatively I guess you could change to the injective envelope of any fg module being fg
Well Iâm not sure, cuz for a Noetherian local ring, fg injective => Artinian right?
So if youâre Noetherian and have a fg injective I, then I_p is a fg injective for any p, and thus A_p is Artinian thus its dim 0, thus p is maximal
So now every prime ideal is maximal, and so the ring is dim 0 and Noetherian => Artinian
I_p can be 0
Like take k a field and R and ring, then
0xk is an injective Rxk-module
Tells you nothing about R
Oh yeah fair fair fair
But say you're Noetherian and I is an fg injective. Then there exists a maximal ideal m with I_m non-zero.
Then A_m is dim 0, so m is a minimal prime. If A is Noetherian you have finitely many minimal primes. Let I be the intersection of all except m. Then I is not contained in m, so I+m = A and InM is the nilradical.
Then A/nilradical is a product of rings, means A is a product of rings.
So if we throw in the connected assumption we should be good
Yeah ok
I think even more simply V(m) and V(intersection of other minimal primes) is a disconnection right?
So this is basically saying if you have a minimal, maximal prime, you can rip apart that part from the rest of Spec
Yes.
Even more complicated geometry-y*
Which makes sense cuz such a point is like a floating point off in space by itself
You need Noetherian for it to work though. But maybe that's par for the course when it comes to geometric intuition
Yeah
hey guys
so, yesterday I asked about quaternions and I ended off by asking why 3D space had to be represented using a 4D object (a + bi + cj + dk) instead of a 3D object (a + bi + cj)
and, I did a bit digging on my own and I just want to make sure I understand the reason
is it basically because closure breaks?
because u if u define ij to be something else (e.g. "k"), then u leave 3D space and enter 4D space, but if u define ij to be something like a constant (e.g. 1 or 2), then u enter 2D space after multiplying
did I understand that right?
plz ping, thanks
Yes, if you try to define ij as some combination of 1, i and j you won't be able to define a well defined multiplication. So it will have to be a 4th thing.
A separate, less formal, reason why the quaternions are 4d can be imagined like this: Instead of thinking of quaternions as 3D space with a multiplication you can think of it encapsulating something about rotations of 3d space. Just like a complex number can be thought of as a length and a rotation of 2d space you can think of a quaternion as a length and a rotation of 3d space (this is true except that q and -q describe the same rotation, which is in fact related to spin on Physics)
As 3d space has 3 planes of rotation, length + rotation should be 4 dimensions.
I see, thanks
and this might be a dumb question too, but why does a 3D object like (a + bi + cj) not work, whereas a 3D vector like (1, 2, 3) works just fine?
cuz can't a + bi + cj also just be represented as a 3D vector like (a, b, c)?
a + bi + cj works fine with addition; the problem is trying to define multiplication of them in such a way that makes a division algebra
that turns out to not be possible
but yes, a + bi + cj can be identified with (a,b,c), and with the natural addition and scaling operations, this is isomorphic to the vector space R^3
but doing this we're no longer claiming i^2 = j^2 = -1
Well itâs about how 3D space is represented. Any 3 dimensional vector space can ârepresentâ positions and translation in 3D space, however another important facet of 3D space is rotation and translation, I.e Euclidean transformations.
(Special) Euclidean transformations in 2D and 3D space are rotations about an axis and translations. Algebraicly, 2D rotations and translations are encoded in complex multiplication, where
ux + b, |u| = 1 represents such transformations and can easily be composed.
To âencodeâ 3D rotations , we want multiplication of some algebra in some way to encode those invertible rotations (I.e be division).
To do this, the quaternions do this by conjugation by the exponential of a purely imaginary, normalized element
But this is quite different from the complex case.
Notice how for complex numbers, we use âthe wholeâ space. As in, a + bi are our componentsâŚ
But for quaternions to be used as such, we only use the âimaginaryâ part bi + cj + dk. The real part for this purpose is kinda like an âintermediateâ thing.
But that additional ârealâ part needed in the intermediate steps is why we need 4D
This is especially worsened by the fact that rotations in 3D are noncommutative
if you can rotate a vector by 90 degrees in some plane, then as long as you can also scale it, you can rotate it by any angle in that plane. so in some sense a 90 degree rotation is the most fundamental. in 2d you have only one plane you can rotate in and i is your "90 degree rotator" for that plane. but in 3d you have 3 planes you can rotate in so you need 3 "90 degree rotators" (i, j, and k), and you still need the real part for the scaling.
if you want to make a 3d unit vector represent a 90 degree rotator, you can immediately see that you cant do it consistently with only 3 dimensions
like if you imagine that the unit vector will rotate any vector perpendicular to it by 90 degrees, well that's fine
but what if the vector is parallel to it
then the first problem is you have an infinite number of planes you could potentially rotate in, but side stepping that issue, if you just pick one
that plane will intersect the plane perpendicular to it
but then you wont have two applications of the rotator resulting in a flipping of your original vector: u(uv) = -v, which is a feature you definitely want. and this is resolved by moving to 4d because in 4d you can have two planes that don't intersect
It just took me a while to realize that the quaternion form of rotations is mechanically way different than the complex one
they function pretty similarly
Similarly yeah
Just what took me the longest time to grapple is the fact that we use both the real and imaginary for positions in the complex but only the imaginary ones for quaternions
ah yea that's true
Also a degree of freedom problem,
Linear-conformal maps in 2D are a rotation and scaling, 2 degrees of freedom.
Linear-conformal maps in 3D are an axis-rotation and a scaling, 1 for the scaling, 2 for the axis, and 1 for the rotation, you need 4 degrees of freedom, so 3 degrees of freedom are not sufficient
wow, i hope that coincidence doesn't lead to anything confusing
Yep, one real eigenvalue
that eigenspan is the axis
oh yea, if a rotation has a real eigenvalue, it must be 1 or -1
Thatâs a rotation of 180 degrees about z
yes
Oh shit yeah
180 degree rotations are a bit pathological in that description
But yeah
@frail shoal speaking of coolness
Rodriguez rotation formula is:
$M = \cos(\theta) \mathbf{I} + \frac{1 - \cos(\theta)}{u^T u} u u^T + \frac{\sin(\theta)}{\Vert u \Vert}[u]^\cross$, where $M$ is the rotation matrix, and $[u]^\cross$ is the antisymmetric tensor form of the vector. The symmetric part is the first two terms and the antisymmetric part is the latter two.
Tits metric
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So you can actually "find" the axis and the angle from a rotation matrix in most cases
Noting that $tr(M) = 1 + 2\cos(\theta)$, you can then determine sine, and thus if sine is nonzero (i.e $\cos(\theta) \neq \pm 1$, you can divide the antisymmetric part, $A = \frac{1}{2} (M - M^\mathsf{T})$, by sine to get the antisymmetric tensor associated with $u$,
Tits metric
[[(x,y,z)]^\times= \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \ z & 0 & -x \ -y & x & 0 \end{bmatrix}]
Tits metric
is it like a 1-form
not that I'd find it particularly intuitive cuz of that
it's just all that my analysis class has been talking about

wait shit there's also a SYMMETRIC part?
Sorta
Those are another thing lumped under the umbrella of the "exterior" / "antisymmetric" side of tensor nonsense
Differential forms are in a sense exterior algebra objects stretched across a whole manifold, i.e they are locally antisymmetric forms
This is just an isomorphism for a specific case of the exterior algebra
where antisymmetric bilinear forms in 3D are isomorphic to 3D due to a convenient overlap in dimension
Do you know what a 2-form etc are
yea
2-forms locally are antisymmetric bilinear forms, which for 3D euclidean space you can identify with vectors due to that isomorphism
same thing with curl
oh yea sounds reasonable
Though this is just dealing with the algebraic side, not gluing together the algebraic things into a smooth section of the overall bundle :p
anyway im thinking about the eigenvalues of a rotation. they always have to be complex units, and the product of conjugate units is always 1. additionally, the determinant of a rotation is always 1. so that means, in odd dimensions, rotations must have axes, cuz we always have an odd number of real eigenvalues, so they can't all be -1
Yes
4D rotations are bastards
I.e they can have two axes of rotation, for two eigenvalue pairs
Actually just two rotations, no axes
Yep lmfao
This is Eulerâs theorem iirc
4D anything just sucks
so is it a division algebra that we want, or just closure?
oh ok
ah that makes sense
well yeah u use a 3x3 matrix for that right?
?
well, a rotation in quaternions of a purely imaginary vector is
$$v = q u q^{-1},\quad \Re[u] = \Re[v] = 0$$
Tits metric
Notice how the real part isnât used to describe position⌠but for the 2D complex one it is used.
historically Hamilton was trying to find what we would today call a 3D real normed division algebra. He eventually found the quaternions, which is one of those but 4D. Later it was proven no 3D one exists, and the only ones that do exist are 1D (R), 2D (C), 4D (H), and 8D (O)
If we define (a,b,c) + (x,y,z) = (a+x, b+y, c+z) and (a,b,c) * (x,y,z) = (ax, by, cz) we get a commutative ring, but it fails to be a division algebra
oh I see what u mean
division algebra just means that every element in the set has a multiplicative inverse, right?
every element except 0, but yeah
Note again that rotations are not just quaternion multiplication
right they can be represented by 3x3 matrices
but yeah could I plz get some clarification on this?
ManifoldCuriosity said that "we're no longer claiming i^2 = j^2 = -1"
could I get some clarification about why that matters?
At a high level this isnât enough degrees of freedom to describe all linear conformal maps
have you learned what a vector space is?
a set of vectors that is closed under vector addition and homogeneity (scalar multiplication)
right?
yeah
it requires addition and scalar multiplication, but not multiplication of one vector by another
the set of all a + bi + cj can be identified with the set of all (a,b,c)
that is R^3
oh is that why they are able to represent R^3?
cuz they don't require the multiplication?
what is "they"?
3D vectors
why 3D vectors are able to represent R^3?
What do you mean represent
yes
cuz they don't require multiplication
I am confused what about Euclidean space you mean by represent
I'm also confused
sorry I'm still just asking about 3D vectors vs (a + bi + cj)
if you want to speak of some kind of space of numbers of the form a + bi + cj, you have to state what the rules are with them
Thatâs just a 3D vector space with basis 1, i and j
right yeah, and that's why I'm just confused as to why something like a 3D vector (a, b, c) can represent R^3 just fine but (a + bi + cj) can't
and yeah, one thing you can do is say addition and scalar multiplication are defined in the obvious ways, and forget about multiplying those points together
then what you have is isomorphic to the vector space R^3
It can represent position and translation
As can any 3D vector space
However, adding an additional multiplicative structure that somehow encodes rotations and scalings is a different story
it can
what closure?
of multiplication
i think in the context of this discussion, the reason complex numbers and quaternions are so special is that they encode 2D / 3D rotations, which are an entirely different kind of thing than vectors in a vector space
oh wait
And again, the way it encodes rotations isnât JUST multiplication, itâs conjugation on a 3D subspace
yeah, and further, there's more to the quaternions that that
3D vectors and (a + bi + cj) can both encode position and translation, as u guys said
but they can't encode rotations?
oh damn, never knew that part specifically
you can just multiply quaternions as any two points of R^4
Rotating a purely imaginary quaternion is conjugation by the exponential of theta/2 * the unit imaginary vector of the axis
is this right?
I think I might be getting it
and that is right regarding both 3D vectors and (a + bi + cj)?
Thatâs not just an algebraic fact, once again itâs the fact that itâs not enough degrees of freedom
but u can technically multiply 2 3D vectors tho, can't u?
it's just it'll have to be a row vector and a column vector
you can multiply them, but you will not get what you want
for instance if you take the component wise product then [1 0 0] * [0 1 0] = [0 0 0], so the product of two nonzero vectors is zero, which doesn't really make sense geometrically
There are several different concepts of multiplying R^3 vectors together; one of them may be what you want, depending on what you want it for.
I see
All sorts of ways. But they all are structurally different
Most are meaningless for this context
gotchu
I see
so, sorry if I'm going a bit in circles, but is the main problem with (a + bi + cj) the fact that it's not closed under multiplication, or the fact that it doesn't form a "division algebra"?
or are those related?
What is a + bi + cj
like a quaternion without the fourth dimension
they are related. The fact is there's no way to define multiplying them so that you get a division algebra
another way to restate "division algebra" is that there are no zero divisors, right?
yup, together with commutativity and etc
No, that is not enogh.
Well then what is i * j?
right yeah that's what my current understanding is
u can't rlly define ij, so it doesn't work
division algebra requires commutativity as well?
I thought it just requires no zero divisors/every element other than 0 has multiplicative inverse
R[X] has no zero divisors, but it is not a division algebra.
Normed division algebra
my bad, you're right.
The proper way to say it is for any fixed a and b, with a nonzero, the equation ax = b has a unique solution in x
R[X]?
is that just real numbers in the X dimension?
R[X] is the ring of all polynomials (in one variable) with real coefficients.
And xa = b
Left inverses that arenât right inverses happen
ok
actually no. I was tripping. A commutative division algebra is a field
oh ok
is the difference between an "algebra" and a "vector space" the fact that an algebra also requires multiplication to work?
whereas vector space is just additivity and scalar multiplication?
An algebra is a vector space with multiplication
Yes.
got it
I understand this stuff is fascinating but you need to build up a proper background in algebra to do this stuff
Make it a goal post to understand the background to then get back to this :3
yeah mb
it's just that I was trying to understand quaternions
and then all this stuff popped up đ
but yeah, thanks for ur time everyone
I think this makes a lot more sense
sure, happy studies! quaternions are super cool
@mystic ether continuing from #point-set-topology
The image isnât normal in general as tits metric pointed out
You quotient not by the image but by closure of the smallest normal subgroup containing it
right but it is if everything in sight is abelian
okay cool
yeah im just saying that if everything already was abelian, then you can compute coker in Grp or in Ab and get the same thing
I think this kinda makes sense though
Because morally you canât tell if a group is abelian by maps into it
So if you have forgetful functor, colimit properties defined by maps out of it and into other groups
Although actually this reasoning doesnât fully work
Cause it doesnât work with coproducts
yeah so here's a question that im too tired to think about
theres no coincidences in category theory so why can you compute coequalizers of abelian groups in Grp or Ab? like i said you can compute limits in either category, so something is going on
maybe this has to do with that one axiom of abelian cats where coker(ker) = ker(coker) idk
but any argument that is provided cannot work for coproducts, because finite coproducts and products agree in Ab but disagree when computed in Grp
Same thing would be true in any algebraic category and a subcategory given by adding a property.
Any such subcategory should be closed under both subobjects and quotient objects
here your algebraic category is Grp and youre adding commutativity?
wdym by algebraic category exactly? i think i have heard this used to describe categories of the form Fun^{\Pi} (C^op, Set) where C has finite products and \Pi means pick out the product-preserving functors. this includes Ab, CRing, and Set for example but not Grp afaik
I meant, like universal algebra.
ah rip ik nothing about universal algebra lol
So a set with some operations satisfying some equations
yea that's how I'd understand it to some degree
i think often one only considers when C consists of precisely x^n for all finite n and some fixed object x
then it's a "lawvere theory"
but it doesn't change much if you drop this restriction, cuz it just lets you have more "underlying sets"
anyway Grp is algebraic
we take C here to be the full subcategory of f.g. free groups
to recover a group from such a functor F: C^op -> Set, note that there is a map from <a> to <x, y> given by sending a to xy, and so F induces a map in the opposite direction, F(<x, y>) -> F(<a>), and because F is product-preserving, we get F(<x, y>) â F(<a>)^2, other operations and properties are recovered similarly
universal algebra takes a more syntactic approach to arrive at essentially the same thing, what jagr said, we look at sets X equipped with functions X^n -> X that satisfy universally quantified equations, i.e. each variable is quantified by â, thus the name "universal algebra"
and arbitrary products
(valued in the original category)
I guess it should be all limits and all filtered colimits as well
universal algebra does essentially everything the product preserving functors pov can do, at the cost of less categorical flexibility, but with the benefit of being a lot more concrete and easier to understand at first brush
well ok also it's older, dating back to the early 1900's
so bearing in mind that this can be formulated in categorical language, one can also precisely define what it means to "add an property"
well in this context we often call it an equation
here it's "ab = ba", by default we drop the â symbols cuz we assume them
but it's short for "âa, âb, ab = ba"
if you're curious, here's the syntactical presentation of groups typically given in universal algebra:
- we have 3 operations, a binary operation written with concatenation, an identity "e" (i.e. a nullary operation), and a unary inverse operator written as ^-1
- a(bc) = (ab)c
- ae = a
- ea = a
- aa^-1 = e
- a^-1a = e
one can explicitly use these syntactical presentations to recover "free" structures over them, and then use those to recover the categorical perspective, similar to what i described for groups
those can all be expressed as a quotient of a subalgebra of a product
ok i think im yapped out
HSP jumpscare
the goated theorem
oh yea i should mention that one of the gems of universal algebra is the HSP theorem, which says that an "equational class" (i.e. classes of algebraic structures described by equational properties) is precisely those subcategories closed under product, then subalgebra, then quotient, in that order, with the "correct" definitions of each that it would take a bit to explain
I have a very silly question, but let R be an integral domain and suppose I have a map F: R^l ---> R^m
Consider coker F = R^m/im F. This is certainly a torsion module isn't it?
not necessarily, you can just take the embedding of R into R^2
then coker is just R
Hmm yeah, and then the torsion submodule (as an R-module) is 0 in this example.
I'm in a practical situation where R = k[x,y], k is a field, and I need to compute the k-dimension of Tor(coker F).
To do this, does it suffice to determine a monomial basis for coker F and check which of them have non-zero annihilators?
on second thought, I'm not sure if that is enough to compute Tor(coker F) - it's possible for a linear sum of non-torsion elements to be torsion so I'm not convinced it is sufficient to check this on a basis
do you have a better handle on what the structure of coker F looks like?
alright notation is kinda tripping me up here again
so previously in this text it was implied that when you see S^-1 A for A a ring that S is a subset of A
but when im looking at S^-1 (M1 x ... x Mn) that makes it seem like S is in that product of modules, and for S^-1 M1 x ... x S^-1 Mn that each S is in each Mi
but the notation is the same so i thought its just that S is a subset of the ring which each Mi is over
im fairly convinced its the latter but now im struggling to think about (c) properly
so like usually when i see (1, 1/2, ...) as a counterexample its that its not possible for it to be in the image
it is this
but if S is simply a multiplicative subset of Q couldnt i just pick s^-1 (s/1, s/2, ...) to map into it
I mean this is how localization of modules is defined
oh i suppose the issue is that this map is not well-defined
because for any s i can have this
sorry the backwards map wouldnt be well defined bc the forwards map isnt injective
yeah i mean this makes sense
i guess now im just not sure how exactly the counterexample on the bottom works
bc naively this seems to me to be a problem even in the finite case
maybe the problem is instead this idk
i said that the obvious map is $s^{-1}(m_1, \cdots) \mapsto (s^{-1} m_1, \cdots)$
hiidostuff
nvm im a goober
the infinite product of Q is supposed to be S^-1 Z so that Q is the field of fractions
ts makes sense now
Hmm, good point.
I do have a specific matrix I want to get the cokernel of, but its not obvious from looking at it what it should be. Maybe its more helpful to know the relationship between dim_k Tor_S(coker M') and dim_k Tor_R(coker M)
Am a bit confused on the definition of cofinal, is it supposed to mean a subfamily? Because otherwise I am thinking what they are asking to prove is wrong? I mean can't I take F to be the family consisting of only the trivial subgroup, and I can take H_i to be something more interesting?
For a general poset you would talk about a subset being cofinal.
In this paragraph it seems F is specifically the set of all finite index normal subgroups.
You might note they say the completion with respect to {H_i} is the same as for "the full family F" implying that {H_i} is a part of F
hi
so yesterday I've more or less cleared up my uncertainty about quaternions and algebras
I just have one little question:
why is the cross product considered to be an "algebra"?
isn't the cross product just an operation?
plz ping, thanks
yes, what they mean is that the cross product is an operation that makes R^3 into an R-algebra
The definition of what an algebra is varies a bit, but the thing everyone agrees is that an algebra should have an addition and a bilinear multiplication.
And R^3 with the cross product as multiplication is exactly that
Other people have more restrictions on what the multiplication operation should satisfy
The trouble in the table is that there isn't a commonly used short word for "R^3 with the cross product" which is how the algebra would be described, so instead the author just put a description of the product operation in the "which algebra are we talking about" column.
ok so what does "bilinear" mean exactly?
like I've seen the definition but idk what it means
also can't R^3 not be an algebra?
cuz it just doesn't work cuz u have nothing to assign ij to?
Bilinear means linear in both arguments, so
(rx + sy) * z = r(x*z) + s(y*z)
and similarly in the second argument.
R^3 cannot be a division algebra (i.e. where we can also divide). It's also not possible to make an algebra spanned by 1, i, j with i^2 = -1 (even if we don't require division)
that's it?
It's isomorphic to so(3) in a pretty natural way. But I think introducing that would create more confusion than clarity 
Hmm, point.
right that's why I was confused about the inclusion of the cross-product there
right so, it can't be considered an "algebra" then, can it?
it is an algebra but not a division algebra
The term algebra isnât 100% settled, but I think most people would agree thatâs an algebra over a field
more specifically it's a non-unital, non-associative algebra
really?
but wait
I thought algebra was vector space + multiplication
cross product isn't necessarily a vector space, is it?
it's just an operation?
Another word I hate in math
wow i didnt know you hated algebra
Itâs a bilinear map, R^3 has a natural vector space structure on it coming from R
ok
is that even possible btw? cuz I thought R^3 can't be an algebra
Canât be a division algebra
but u still can't multiply them together
You can with a bit of effort show that only R^{2^n} can be a division algebra, and with a lot of effort show that only n=0,1,2,3 work
What do you mean?
like u can't multiply (a + bi + cj) by (d + ei + fj)
Ok so you have that R^3 is a vector space over R right, you know how that works. Then we turn it into an R-algebra using the cross product, that gives a reasonable notion of multiplication of vectors, and by reasonable I specifically mean itâs a bilinear map
oh
hm
well alright ig
it's just weird that all the other examples were number systems but for R^3 it was an operation
How do you do the first one?
You consider like the map on RP^n xRP^n induced by multiplication and look at the cohomology rings
Theres then a fiddly bit of counting to be done, which is kinda easier if you restrict to binary, but yeah thereâs an argument in Hatcher lol
Deducing that you only have R C H and O is then quite a bit harder and you need some homotopy theory, I donât know how that argument goes so maybe itâs not so bad but it does take more, itâs possibly an Adamâs spectral sequence argument if I remember correctly but Iâm not particularly confident in saying that
wow
Please donât deal with quaternions and the like until you have a proper understanding of the underlying algebra
You are going in circles
(x,y,z)(a,b,c) = (xa,yb,zc)
Since you seem to be interested in quaternions why not read https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/ringtheory/quaternionalg.pdf
Atheism
I'm not sure what you mean by this - the examples mentioned in that table are complex numbers, R^3, quaternions, polynomials, and square matrices. Of those, only the complex numbers and quaternions are commonly called "number systems".
In each case, the "multiplication" is a bilinear operation that takes in two elements of the algebra and outputs a third.
I would recommend not trying to work with a + bi + cj as representatives of R^3, and also forget about the "you can't multiply them" idea. A point of R^3 looks like (a,b,c) or (x,y,z), and you can multiply them in various ways, like componentwise or with the cross product. But, again, these do not result in division algebras.
mb
Gatekeeping
oh ok
didn't think cross product was considered multiplying
I thought it was just its own thing
It may also be helpful for you to think about how the complex numbers a + bi are essentially the same thing as R^2 with the multiplication of points defined by: (a,b)*(c,d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).
in that setup, the imaginary unit i is identified with the point (0,1), and the equation i^2 = -1 becomes (0,1)*(0,1) = (-1,0)
mhm
and there's a similar identification of quaternions a + bi + cj + dk with points of R^4, (a,b,c,d)
I'll read that, thanks
but there's no good number system with only two imaginary units i and j that can be identified with R^3
right, because u can't define ij
yup
ok so
from what people have said
R^3 can be made into an algebra
but not into a division algebra?
wdym?
(a,b,c).(d,e,f)=(ad,be,cf)
oh so just component-wise multiplication?
Yeah
ok
I thought it couldn't be an algebra cuz u can't multiply two terms like (a + bi + cj) together
but I guess that doesn't matter for an algebra
so this only prevents it from being a division algebra, right?
not being able to multiply terms like (a + bi + cj) together?
Tbh ig I am unsure you far you understand what algebras are, like what is ur understanding of them
In an algebra you can multiply any two elements
If we use (a,b,c)(x,y,z) = (ax,by,cz), we are essentially defining (a + bi + cj)(x + yi + zj) = ax + byi + czj. But that's clearly not how we usually multiply imaginary units
Yeah the problem is defining a multiplication compatible with some ways you'd like i and j to behave
Namely you'd probably like to have i^2 = j^2 = -1
(In what I said above, i^2 = j^2 = 1)
I know several of us here would really like to clear up the confusion, but this has gone on for a while and gotten fairly muddled up with different ideas. If you're still feeling confused, could you restate what you're wondering about?
(@indigo surge )
at this point start a thread
Vector space + multiplication of any two elements
Thatâs my understanding
Right, so that seems like it canât be an algebra
Thatâs rlly my only point of confusion
why not? It's a vector space with multiplication, as you just said
Well itâs like u said, âthatâs not how we multiply imaginary unitsâ
an algebra doesn't have to have anything to do with imaginary units though
it's just incidental that R^2 and R^4 (and R^8) have algebra structures connected to imaginary units
Ohhh wait ok
I see
I think I might have been mixing the two up
Ok
So, in that case, is there a different name/grouping for regular R^n and the imaginary number format?
If that makes sense?
well there's C instead of R^2 (complex numbers), H instead of R^4 (quaternions abbreviated in honor of Hamilton), and O instead of R^8 (octonions)
and we can say there's an isomorphism of algebras between C and R^2 with the relevant multiplication
and between H and R^4
And between O and R^8?
yup
yeah it's a great read imo
Okkkk, I see, thanks
Ok Iâll just have to read up on isomorphism more and what it is and whatnot
But that clears up my confusion on that
Thanks
I am away rn (typing on my phone) but when I get back I will fs
And only the dimensions that have an isomorphism with a complex number-like system can be division algebras?
Over R anyway, yes. This is what I was saying earlier, you just get R, R^2, R^4, and R^8 but this is quite hard to actually show
@indigo surge Look up the Cayley-Dickson algebras
I see, thanks!
Interesting, will do
Hi everyone, I just wanted to discuss stabalisers, centralisers and orbits
In the fourth point, shouldnât the primes be distinct? And wouldnât be more useful to prove it for distinct prime powers?
Yes for both your questions
Thanks
hey guys
I think I've connected some dots and want to make sure I did so correctly
definitions like i^2 = -1 for complex numbers and i^2 = j^2 = k^2 = -1 for quaternions are not universal for all algebras in those dimensions, right?
those were just chosen to be that way for those specific cases in order for complex numbers and quats to be normed division algebras?
but u could also have something like i^2 = 0, j^2 = 2, and k^2 = -1
it's just that then, stuff would break and the algebra would not work out to be a clean, normed division algebra, right?
plz ping, thanks
There is an extension of the real numbers where we introduce an element epsilon for which epsilon^2 = 0. This is usually called the dual numbers
so, what I said was right?
An interesting application of adding these relations like this comes from physics. Dirac wanted to "take the square root of the laplacian" and what he ended up doing was defining an operator $D = \gamma^\mu\partial_\mu$ where ${\gamma^\mu, \gamma^\nu} = 2\eta^{\mu\nu}$. This is an example of a clifford algebra. Where you take a vector space and a bilinear form and then define a multiplication in manner relative to this bilinear form
Khush
Yeah basically
interesting
well that makes everything come together a bit
that's weird tho, like, what is the point of being able to define it however u want?
if 95% of the time something is just gonna break
The thing that usually breaks is invertibility
So you still end up with an algebra, just not a division algebra
there is division whenever the real part of the denominator is nonzero as per wiki, so you have division, just many zero divisors
but those can't be divided
cuz they can't have inverses
hence why invertibility breaks
Right
But yeah thatâs why Iâm wondering
Do those regular, non-division algebras have a use?
Or not really?
previous user can argue for dual numbers, but in a more general sense, there are lots of algebraic structures where division isn't a guarantee. famously rings
and there are many rings which are a useful language for dealing with some collection of objects where you can add and subtract and multiply. the ring C(X) of continuous functions on X eg
I gave an example in physics where its used
This one
matrix algebras are highly useful and they're not division algebras
Ohhh ok
Oh I see
No not yet, sorry Iâve been moving around a bit recently and have just been asking here and there when I had time
But I will tho
I will
Hi got a questions about isomorphisms for fields
i thought i was being smart considering the invertible elements as a cyclic group and then finding generators for each, and then having my map send each generator to each other but i can seem to show the addition property. This is the question for reference
These are the fields F3[x]/f and F3[x]/g where f = X^3-x+1 and g = x^3-x-1
the generators i found were (x-1) and (x+1) how do i show for two arbitrary elements that phi(a+b) = phi(a) + phi(b)
Thereâs a nice way to do that with first isomorphism theorem
Consider the map F_3[x] -> F_3[x]/g which sends x - 1 to x + 1
This is a well defined surjective homomorphism
What is the kernel of this map?
im lowkey dont know im gonna guess that the kernel is f so we get that they are isomorphic but i dont actually know why the ker is that
Yeah
The kernel is the ideal generated by f
The way Iâd reason it is that the kernel is the preimage of (g) under F[x] -> F[x] via x - 1 -> x + 1
And then just compute the preimage of g, and youâre done since itâs a bijection
the issue i have is not that i cant show that they are isomorphic its creating an actual map
i argued that they are isomorphic by F3 being a field the PID then f and g irreducible... then they both have same elements so they must be isomorphic
but if i need to create a map i need to show that addition, multiplication properties hold and thats its bijective right, theres no way to get around that is there?
The first isomorphism theorem gives you an explicit map
my bad i thought it only said they were isomorphic thank you
how unclear is it to use <= to denote sub-* structure
like subspaces in linalg/topology, subgroup, subrings, you get the idea
I'm not quite sure what you mean by unclear. If you mean 'uncommon', then from personal experience I've had at least two lecturers use this notation. So it's not super uncommon.
In any case, as long as you make it clear what your notation means, and you are consistent in its usage, it shouldn't be an issue.
You should be writing out what it means anyway. Like "Let H <= G be a subgroup of G" or something similar
Agree with swiftee, pretty common in my experience, but theres never an issue doing these thing as long as youre clear about what you mean
Using $\leq$ for subgroups and $\trianglelefteq$ for normal subgroup is the standard I would say
jagr2808
Of course its best to stick to a convention, but you dont have to
Not so much for subrings, where I would probably think <= means ideal.
i've seen \trianglelefteq for ideals, i thought that was nice
analogous to normal subgrps
Or <= for ideal, so that it is analogous to submodule xd
use neither and just use fraktur for all your ideals to make it really obvious 
that is way too far
I'd go with \trianglefteq for two sided ideals, and then \leq for ideals
for a second I forgot there were non commutative rings and was like wdym two sided ideal đ
Oh wow I never knew about this command I only knew about \unlhd
what does unlhd stand for? always wondered
$\unlhd$
micoi the group objects (she/it)
jagr2808
left head or something?
Yeah, that was what I was gonna guess
It is the head of a left arrow I guess
Some confirmation from the documentation
https://tex.stackexchange.com/a/684365
ah, nice
Whatâs up groupsss
No
This proof doesn't make any sense right? This is not a set... It won't even be a set if you take the set of all algebraic extensions up to isomorphism?
Well yes, itâs implicitly considering the elements of the set to be the same up to isomorphism and embedding
And under those assumptions itâs small enough to be a set
why under those conditions its small enough?
tbh I do much prefer the constructive definition
Very loosely you can identify algebraic extension of F with polynomials in F[x]
I think you'll run into some trouble in making this poset if you consider things up to isomorphism.
But something you could do is just fix some set of cardinality max(|F|, |N|) and consider field structures on subsets of it
The only thing to account for is the same isomorphic extension may admit non isomorphic embeddings into an algebraic closure, but an extension of degree n can have at most n such embeddings
So it is reasonable to expect that this set would be close to being countable
very weird this is the proof my logic professor gave..
would've thought logicians would be more rigorous đ¤
I think that makes sense..
I got confused because the proof I found online was much longer
anyway thanks I will give this some more thought when I'm done with my exam
Thereâs an alternate non zorns lemma construction of Fbar that makes it immediately obviously a set
But poset techniques do show up in algebra and other areas so I donât object to doing it this way
I see
yeah have seen that a couple times
I guess the other proof I know would just be to take the polynomial ring where you adjoin a variable for each polynomial. Then quotient out so that the variable becomes a root of said polynomial and then take a maximal ideal to get a field.
that is very cool
i think this still uses zorn implicitly because you need to find a maximal ideal containing ur poly?
not that you were claiming that it doesn't, i'm just curious
It does depend on AoC. I don't think this is provable without
Has that been proven?
Idk, but I would think so
you have to do that more than once, it's not guaranteed to terminate in one step
i.e. start with F_0 := F, do that to get F_1, and then take the union of all the F_i's and that is the algebraic closure
It actually is guaranteed to terminate in one step. But that fact is much harder to prove then just doing the union trick
In characteristic 0 it's not so bad, you just need the primitive element theorem. For non-perfect fields you need some fideling
you don't need AoC
you only need the ultrafilter lemma
which is known to be strictly weaker
Yeah you don't need the full strength
So what I mean is not provable in ZF.
Couldn't really find a good source for it, but people on MSE sort of imply it is the case
Although it's apparently open if it is weaker than the ultrafilter lemma
I think it's just there are also standard ways to get around these kinds of issues
But I am surprised you would give a proof like this in lecture notes or whatever lol
Here's a paper citing the result to a German paper
https://metaphor.ethz.ch/x/2025/fs/401-2004-00L/sc/Banaschewski.pdf
I imagine it's cause this is enough to get existence of prime ideals?
Yeah okay that is what that paper uses lol
I think you can also use the compactness theorem
Ah sure
I think thereâs an n cat cafe thread discussing this iirc
https://golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/2021/04/algebraic_closure.html
Not as directly as I remembered, but all the comments are very related
Oh cool this was posted by Leinster, the course I'm taking next semester is following his category theory book
Nice one! Itâs a good book
I donât believe in myself I guess đ
Thanks
how does the formal derivative for polynomial rings over a field relate to the limit derivative?
it agrees when you would expect it to, like in $\bR[x_1, \dots x_n]$
lexi
yeah I know, but is there some deeper kind of connection or is that all
in general, it gives you the âlinear partâ of the polynomial at a point
so if you take the polynomial $f \in k[x]$, the formal derivative at $c \in k$ will correspond to the coefficient of the degree-1 term of $g(x) = f(x + c) - f(c)$
lexi
what we get out of polynomials is that we can talk about âlinear partsâ of things by breaking down the coefficients, even if there is no way to take limits
ah that makes sense.. thank you!
what this is really nice for is that it lets us still talk about repeated roots
also
like we can check if the derivative at a root is 0 to see if it has multiplicity >1
and this works even in finite fields
yeah pretty cool
formal derivatives are therefore quite handy for field theory and algebraic geometry
cool! I basically only learned the definition and the repeated root thing but there wasn't any intuition so thought I'd ask
thereâs very cool uses, like the dimension of the space of possible values of the formal derivative at a point telling you when a curve has a cusp
what!!!
crazy
and it turns out if youâre working in multivar polynomials over â, this agrees with the âusualâ notion of a cusp
very cool stuff
very interesting! I'm not sure how one "should" approach algebraic geometry but I'm taking commutative algebra next semester so I think that's a step in the right direction
Having derivatives is important
When things have actions via other things it tells you stuff.
This is a really deep thing that wonât mean anything to you, but in commutative algebra (and from there algebraic geometry), the mixed characteristic case splits very distinctly into the ramified and unramified case
In the unramified case, for a regular ring at least, you take the form of a formal power series ring over a nice ring which means you admit derivatives
In the ramified case this isnât the case
This means a bunch of cohomology modules and stuff donât have an action by derivations which in the unramified case can be pretty crucial to proving things
So thereâs a lot of stuff thatâs known in all but ramified mixed characteristic, and I personally chalk up a lot of that to the fact you donât have this power series ring presentation
Now the fact that means you donât have derivatives is only part of why that sucks, but itâs certainly a big one
does âmixed characteristicâ mean like Spec â¤
Yes and no

