#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 383 of 1
functional analysis doesn't really become algebraic really
there are fields that have somewhat analogous results but at least from my experience the methods very much remain analytic
this might be a basic question but can any R-module be expressed as an abelian group $A$ with a ring homomorphism $\phi: R \to \operatorname{End}(A)$?
lexi
is that an accurate definition for an R-module?
yes that is equivalent
this gives a nice category theoretical interpretation of modules
thank you
is it then a vector space if it is a ring homomorphism $\phi: F \to \operatorname{End}(A)$?
lexi
where F is a field
yes
very neat
ig you could use this to show that there are no finite vector spaces over the reals
no nontrivial*
if V is a nontrivial vector space over the reals then it must contain a copy of R so it cant be finite
trivial would be with the zero homomorphism?
there is no zero homomorphism of rings
oh right because 0 maps to 0 and 1 maps to 1
yes
so what would the trivial vector space be?
the vector space only containing a zero element?
oh wait yeah
im sorry if my questions are too basic
{0} is a vector space over any field
lol its alr i just was a little confused how you've never heard of that while knowing about rings
ive heard of it i just forgot in the moment because i was thinking homomorphisms when you said "trivial" 😭
oh lmao
Not if youre my first ring theory notes! 1 did not have to map to 1 in that class and no one liked it
mfw nonunital modules
wait what does $\operatorname{End} {0}$ look like
0
lexi
there is only one function from {0} to {0}
(or I guess, the set containing the function mapping 0 to 0)
oh yeah rings can have 1 = 0
Genuinely no one understood it, the prof teaching the course inherited the notes and would just rant about it all the time because hed get confused, when things he wrote down needed f(1) = 1
but fields can't
yeah, just makes everything nicer
ah but when we apply the ring homomorphism from the field we lose the field's structure and keep the ring
loll wtf that's stupid
so for the (ring) homomorphic image of $F$ we're allowed ${0}$
lexi
if my understanding is correct
a ring is the trivial ring if and only if 1 = 0 holds in that ring
in particular, the only way that for some map f : R → S the image is trivial, is for S to be trivial
right so in the case of the trivial vector space the endomorphism ring is trivial and the homomorphism from the field is the zero homomorphism (which ig is only allowed if the codomain is the trivial ring)
yes
makes a lot of sense
I am having trouble with this question: Assume R is commutative. Show that an R-module M is irreducible iff M is isomorphic to R/I where I is a maximal ideal of R. I don't really know where to start
hint: think about free modules
Professor Doom, From planet Doom
if i'm setting out to prove the fundamental theorem on finite abelian groups, can i assume every $\mathbb{Z}$-module has an independent basis?
lexi
Only free modules have a basis
Do you know the correspondence theorem?
any hints? α is algebraic over F so F(α) is algebraic over F and so is F(α^2) which is a subfield of F(α). Hence [F(α):F]=[F(α):F(α^2)][F(α^2):F] and now i should prove that [F(α):F(α^2)]=1 and then i will be done. How do i do that?
2 doesn’t divide an odd number
so i should show that if F(α^2) neq F(α) then [F(α):F(α^2)]=2?
2 doesn’t divide an odd number
Yes
Try to think about what the minimal polynomial of alpha over F(alpha^2) could be
the minimal polynomial p of alpha over F has an odd degree. so considering this polynomial over F(alpha^2), we know that p(alpha)=0 and any term with even power will be absorbed to the coefficients when viewed as a polynomial over F(alpha^2). this means that the minimal polynomial of alpha over F(alpha^2) has degree 1. Hence [F(alpha):F(alpha^2)]=1 as desired
is that right?
ohhh, thats a very nice idea
and is there a straightforward way to do this?
could you tell me what was your idea here?
hi chmonkey 
If it isn’t equal then the extension over F(alpha^2) has degree 2
And 2 doesn’t divide an odd number
ohh i see, so i shouldve looked at F(alpha^2) over F instead of F(alpha) over F(alpha^2)
tysm jagr and Chmonkey, have a great day/night!
No
You look at F(alpha) over F(alpha^2)
This is degree 2
here we're using that alpha satisfies the polynomial x^2 - alpha^2 over F(alpha^2) so the degree [F(alpha) : F(alpha^2)] <= 2.
and also that [F(alpha) : F(alpha^2)] = 1 if and only if F(alpha) = F(alpha^2).
ah wait i read that as "then the extension F(alpha^2).." instead of "then the extension over F(alpha^2).."
mb
ohhh ok, this makes sense
tysm det, have a great day/night
hehe thanks
you too have a great day/night
thanks!
Yep! I figured it out last night!
Oh THATS what you needed the hint for
Maybe this is a silly question, but when did invariant theory change to invariant polynomials of some group action vs invariants in the coefficients of a polynomial?
As Cayley was doing, and the Germans like Paul Gordan at least into the late 1860s, invariants meant like b^2-ac was an SL_2 invariant of the binary quadratic ax^2 + 2bxy + cy^2. But then it seems by the mid-late 1870s and onward it actually refers to like elements of k[x,y,…]^G
is this not the same thing sort of?
am I not understanding your question
I feel I'm not
Yeah it looks like you just described a special case, then the general case
Im trying to prove the smith normal form theorem using the structure theorem for finitely generated modules over PIDs. Let $A$ be an $n\times n$ matrix. We want to find two bases for $R^n$ so that the matrix of $x\mapsto Ax$ is in smith normal form. Let $\phi: R^n\rightarrow R^n$ be the map given by multiplying by $A$. Now we apply the structure theorem : $$R^n/Im(\phi) \cong R^{n-m}\oplus\bigoplus_{i=1}^{t}R/(a_i)$$ where $t\leq m$, $a_i|a_{i+1}$, and none of the $a_i$s are units. Note here that no summand in the torsion part is $0$ (by our assumption on $a_i$ not being a unit). I am able to show that the generators for each summand of the torsion part (so there will be $t$ such generators) and a basis for the $R^{n-m}$ term can be lifted to get a linearly independent set $v_1,v_2,\cdots,v_{n-m+t}$ of size $n-m+t$. i just need to extend this to a full basis of the target. Then i can use the sequence $0\rightarrow \ker\phi\rightarrow R^m \rightarrow Im(\phi)\rightarrow 0$ to get a basis for the source, and il be done. But to show that i can extend the set $v_1,\cdots,v_{n-m+t}$ to a basis, i need to show that $R^{n}/(v_1,\cdots,v_{n-m+t})$ is torsion free. Any ideas?
Herzog
(I know that usually, one proves the smith normal form and gets the structure theorem as a corollary)
i have a stupid question, so i'm trying to show that x^3 + 2x + 3 is reducible in Z_5[x], and i know that it is since its of degree 3 and has a zero in Z_5, namely x = 2
so then by the factor theorem x-2 is a factor of x^3 + 2x + 3
however i'm having trouble actually dividing in Z_5 :/ am i supposed to rewrite x-2 as x+ 3 (since -2 mod 5 = 3 mod 5) and then divide?
i thiiiiink the answer should be x^2 + 2x + 1?
You dont have to rewrite -2 as 3 but the residue classes are usually given by positive numbers so ig theres that
x-2 = x+3 in Z5[x]
alright! i keep getting a remainder so i think i'm doing something wrong
i did it! thanks yall :]
Just think about the sequence
0 -> K -> R^n -> R^n-m -> 0
as the sequence splits
K = R/(v1, ...) is a direct summand of R^n
one more quick question, i'm trying to find the generators of the group of units in Z_23 under multiplication. is Z_{23}^{*} isomorphic to Z_{22} under addition?
oh wait no i dont think i can use that bc i have to find that specific isomorphism that maps all the generators
it is, but that doesn't tell you which elements generate $\mathbb{Z}_{23}^\times$
lexi
yeaaaa
Can I please have a hint to show that Q[\sqrt{D}] is contained in Q[\alpha]?
in fact if i remember correvtly it is in general computationally hard
but with p=23 you know from lagrange that all non-identity elements have order 2, 11, or 22
so that might be some help
oh :')
true
Try to square
r + salpha
and deduce some conditions on r and s for the square to be in Q
when discussing field morphisms, can we apply any theorems about group homomorphisms to both the multiplicative and additive groups?
i.e. can i argue that all field homomorphisms are injective because $\psi(a) = 0, a \neq 0$ implies $\psi(a^{-1}) = \psi(a)^{-1} = 0^{-1} \notin K$, so $\psi$ is not a well-defined mapping?
lexi
are there any special considerations i need to make before applying such theorems?
No, not really, your proof works
I would rephrase this to 1 = psi(1) = psi(a a^{-1}) = psi(a) psi(a^{-1}) = 0 psi(a^{-1}) = 0 or that psi(a^{-1}) = psi(a)^{-1} but 0 bas no inverse, raher that writing 0^{-1} \notin R.
But this argument is essentially completely correct.
yeah i would write that in an actual proof but i meant that as a sketch
better still is to not use contradiction, any ring homomorphism must map invertible elements to invertible elements
as if ab=1, then psi(a)psi(b)=psi(1)=1
so if a is nonzero, then psi(a) is nonzero which gives injectivity
I guess that still kinda uses the contrapositive at the end
are contradictory proofs less desired
(im not super experienced in proofwriting)
direct proofs are typically better than contradiction if possible (unless it makes the proof a lot more confusing)
and same for contrapositive over contradiction
that makes sense, theyre often more clear
its typically more elegant
a lot of proofs by contradiction are really proofs by contrapositive in disguise but with some extra lines of text
i see
for example here, the contrapositive gives psi(a)=0 implies a=0
oh so it would better be "if psi is a homomorphism of rings, its kernel is {0}" and then from there
I could instead say "assume a is nonzero and psi(a) is zero, but then psi(a) is nonzero by the above, contradiction"
but that's less elegant than just using contrapositive
thank you
I should say it does sometimes happen that a proof by contrapositive is actually more intuitive to prove using contradiction so it can kinda be a judgement call, though I've only really seen this once or twice
Well, if we're going this route, I'd say the "correct" statement should be that if a ring homomorphism out of a field has non-trivial kernel, then the codomain is the trivial ring.
what is this "higher algebra" book i keep seeing pop up about
i tried looking at it but its too much abstract nonsense for me to grasp
by Hall?
no i think its by lurie
yeah that's definitely not like the one by hall
you might get more responses from people who have read that stuff in channels like #advanced-algebra or #algebraic-geometry
alright, ty
...because we end up with 1 = 0?
If I look at the number of polynomials in F_p with coefficients pm 1 is there a nice way to calculate how many of these are irreducible?
there are 2^n of these in F_p of degree n, but probably roughly 2^n/n of these are irreducible?
Like I can't see the argument for why the probability goes to 1/n independent of p, but Python says so
there's a formula of Gauss that tells you the total number of irreducible polynomials of degree n with coeffs in F_p, it might be worth looking at the proof of it and trying to adapt it to this, frankly rather arbitrary, case. For p = 2, 3 it works straight away! HIP HIP, HURRAY!
I think polynomials with coeffs in +-1 are p commonly studied in some combinatorial settings
I went to a talk that used this fact actually lol lemme try and find smth
how do I show every subring of a field is an integral domain
it is obviously commutative and has no divisors of zero, but i can't see how to show it has to necessarily contain 1 (identity with multiplication)
Usually by definition of subring (if rings have identity by definition)
Otherwise it is false, e.g. consider 2Z as a nonunital subring of Q
the text I'm using does not require rings to necessarily have unity
Yee then the result is false I guess by this example
the previous couple of excercises showed that is 1 is in the ideal it is the whole ring itself
yea but doesn't the ideal only have to be a subring absorbing products
I'm just saying that you can't ask this question for non-unital rings.
I haven't given the solution in the unital case.
Ideals are the same wether you're in the unital case or not, but ideals are usually not unital subrings
They are however nonunital subrings
given that ideals themselves are nonunital I'm trying to figure out if the question statement is true or not
for an earlier question I asked, the question itself was not necessarily true for nonunital rings and this question seems to want me to use the statement of that earlier question
sorry i dont get you
Fields are always unital, by definition, so it doesnt make sense to talk about non-unital rings here
This result is still true. You just said that youve shown if an ideal contains 1 then it must be the whole ring. Can you think of a special property of fields relating to 1? (Thats pretty vauge but saying anymore just gives the answer away)
give me a few mins
i don't know if this relates to the hint you gave
but the fact that every element is invertible implying 1 is in the ideal should be enough, no?
Yep thats exactly what I was getting at
Either your ideal is just 0, or you have something non-zero, but it must be a unit hence you have 1 in the ideal so you actually have the full ring
can't believe that took me 15m 
anyway thanks once again
Learning takes time! Its also slightly more confusing since most things youll see assume rings have a unit so wires can get crossed quite easily
👍
If I know a group has $G = HK$ with $H \cap K = {e}$ and $K$ abelian, can I find a decomposition of $G$ as semi-direct product?
H and K being subgroups
Does one of them have to be normal?
The condition for G to be a semidirect product is exactly
- G = HK
- H\capK = {1}
- H (or K) is normal
So I still need to find normality
lexi
and whoops i ment trivial not empty
Yes, I don't think it follows just from one being abelian
I see
I think QR decomposition of real 2x2 matrices with positive determinant should give an example where SO(2) is abelian, but the product is not semidirect
damn i forgot about "QR" decomposition lol
jagr how do u know everything
Through the magic of looking things up / remembering 🌈
i wish 
yeah my coauthor and I are trying to extend a result further. Its rather interesting to note that there seems to be some structure here but I just can't find it
How so?
as in the hint, assume thet $M_0={0}$
qchs
then it is clear that M is free
then we have a basis for the submodule generated by the $v_i$
The vi you mean?
qchs
Yes, you can pick a basis for this submodule
oh its in the wrong direction
Then you would need to relate this basis to sum |vi| somehow
I guess that's what the hint is saying you should do
Close to it anyway
i was going to use the divisibility condition, but it doesnt work backwards
wait let B be the basis for M constructed in the theorem
then each of the $v_i$ is some sum $a^jw_j$
einstein convention because i am on phone rn
the $a^i$ are integers
This would give you
|vi| <= sum |ai| |wi|
oh whoops
doesnt choosing a maximal ideal require zorns lemma if F is infinite dimensional
Sure
The picture you posted is talking about a maximal ideal of R though. So I guess the size of F isn't relevant.
But yes the existence of maximal ideals is equivalent to AoC
i thought fields couldnt have nontrivial ideals
I don't think anything here is a field
Is R Noetherian in the setup here?
Or a PID maybe?
he hasnt introduced noetherian rings yet, but all rings in this chapter are asusmed to be principal
i just realized what this proof is doing
Then I guess you don't need choice for maximality
it is trying to do division without actually doing division
so you can "shrink" the v_i
i thought this was a cool result that's fairly easy to compute
find the number of monic polynomials of degree n, over Z/pZ (for prime p <= n), that have no roots
it was on my combinatorics problem set which was surprising but fun
||p^n - (n+p-1)Cp||?
that was my initial thought ||e.g. stars and bars|| but the issue i think is that ||you can have smaller degree polynomials with no roots, it doesn't have to be a product of linear factors||
This is real combinatorics
Just getting confused about what exactly youre choosing lol
||a_n = p^n - ∑_{i = 0}^n (i+p-1)Cp a_{n-i}, so (∑ a_n t^n) (∑_n (n+p-1)Cp t^n) = ∑_n p^n t^n = 1/(1-pt), so ∑ a_n t^n = (1-pt)^{-1} / (1-t)^{-n} so a_n = ∑_{i=0}^n (-1)^i nCi p^{n-i} = (p-1)^n.||
Something is wrong here but I won't investigate what.
this gives me an idea for a possibly evil combinatorial proof recurrence problem
hm this answer is a little off what was your reasoning for the first step?
i got it i think!
We may assume wlog that $M=M/M_0$ and thus is free. Let $M'$ be the submodule generated by the $v_i$, and consider the set of ideals $\{J_\lambda\}$ indexed by the functionals $\lambda$ such that $\lambda$ is zero for all $v_i$ except for $v_1$, and define $J_\lambda=\lambda(M')$. Choose a maximal ideal $J_{\lambda_1} = (a_1)$ from this set. Then it is obvious that $\lambda_1(v_1)=a_1$. Writing $v_1$ in terms of any basis of $M$ necessitates that all coefficients are divisible by $a_1$, so $v_1 = a_1w_1$ for some $w_1$ in $M$.\\
Next, we prove that $M$ is a direct sum
\[
M=\mathbb Zw_1\oplus \ker \lambda_1.
\]
Since $\lambda_1(w_1)=1$, it is clear that $\mathbb Zw_1$ and $\ker \lambda_1$ have trivial intersection. Moreover, if $x$ is in $M$, $x-\lambda_1(x)w_1$ is in $\ker \lambda_1$. This gives us the desired expression of $M$ as a direct sum.\\
Noting that $\ker \lambda_1$ is free, let $M_1=\ker \lambda_1$ and $M'_1=M'\cap\ker \lambda_1$. It is immediate that $M'=\mathbb Zv_1\oplus M'_1$. We see that for any functional $\lambda$ on $M_1$, maximality implies that the image $\lambda(M'_1)$ will be contained in $\lambda_1(M')$. We obtain a basis $w_1,...,w_r$ by induction.\\
In our basis, note that $v_i=a_iw_i$, for some integer $a_i$. Then $\|w_i\|\leq\|v_i\|$ and the proposition follows immediately.
We may assume wlog that $M=M/M_0$ and thus is free. Let $M'$ be the submodule generated by the $v_i$, and consider the set of ideals ${J_\lambda}$ indexed by the functionals $\lambda$ such that $\lambda$ is zero for all $v_i$ except for $v_1$, and define $J_\lambda=\lambda(M')$. Choose a maximal ideal $J_{\lambda_1} = (a_1)$ from this set. Then it is obvious that $\lambda_1(v_1)=a_1$. Writing $v_1$ in terms of any basis of $M$ necessitates that all coefficients are divisible by $a_1$, so $v_1 = a_1w_1$ for some $w_1$ in $M$.\
Next, we prove that $M$ is a direct sum
[
M=\mathbb Zw_1\oplus \ker \lambda_1.
]
Since $\lambda_1(w_1)=1$, it is clear that $\mathbb Zw_1$ and $\ker \lambda_1$ have trivial intersection. Moreover, if $x$ is in $M$, $x-\lambda_1(x)w_1$ is in $\ker \lambda_1$. This gives us the desired expression of $M$ as a direct sum.\
Noting that $\ker \lambda_1$ is free, let $M_1=\ker \lambda_1$ and $M'_1=M'\cap\ker \lambda_1$. It is immediate that $M'=\mathbb Zv_1\oplus M'_1$. We see that for any functional $\lambda$ on $M_1$, maximality implies that the image $\lambda(M'_1)$ will be contained in $\lambda_1(M')$. We obtain a basis $w_1,...,w_r$ by induction.\
In our basis, note that $v_i=a_iw_i$, for some integer $a_i$. Then $|w_i|\leq|v_i|$ and the proposition follows immediately.
qchs
im fairly sure i did this wrong actually
im not sure how
but this result seems sharper than the exercise
which makes me suspicious
Hey everyone, I gotta show that the endomorphism ring of R2 over R[x] is a field when x represents the linear transformation that rotates vectors 90° counterclockwise
I know that showing that the end ring is a division ring is clear by schurs lemma
Since the transformation clearly has no eigenvectors
But im wondering if theres a clean way to show commutativity
I know that I can do it constructively by finding the matrices which commute with the respective matrix of x and then showing that they commute amongst each other
But that feels gross
you have a map from R[x] to R^2 sending a polynomial to its action on (1,0) - compute its kernel
if you can identify this R^2 as a quotient of R[x], then any endomorphism is determined by where you send 1
should be trivial
like kernel is trivial
there is a nontrivial kernel
maybe im misunderstanding this
is the kernel what sends (1,0) to itself or what sends (1,0) to zero?
to zero
hmm
oh im being silly
x^2 + 1
ideal generated by
so its R[x]/<x^2 + 1> which is C
Yez
why is it that i know the endomorphism ring is isomorphic to this though
The module is cyclic
sorry i moreso meant
why does finding the kernel of the action of R[x] on (1,0) in R2 find the isomorphism type
Well you need to show it surjects
A cyclic R module generated by m is isomorphic to R/ann m
I was today years old when I found out that the the standard formula for density is expressed as a ratio
what do you mean by density
the physics version of density (\rho=m/V)
what does that have to do with algebra though
fraction lmao
we only work in the theory of rcfs in this house
Cool then maybe y’all will entertain my idea of it being more accurately expressed as a power law for mass distribution because as it currently stands directly contradicts nature look no further than black holes that are the size of a bowling ball yet have the mass of five earths
i still dont see how this is related to algebra
oh right
alright separate question
i got a problem showing that, if R = F[x] with F a field, and S = F[x^3], then R = S \oplus S \oplus S
then you must not see the intrinsic value of algebra itself because math is everything dude
i constructed explicitly an isomorphism sending sum a_i x^i to (sum a_3i x^3i, sum a_3i+1 x^3i, sum a_3i+2 x^3i)
i think this works
my question now is, this generalizes to showing that if S = F[x^n] instead, then R is a free S-module of rank n via this construction generalized, right?
yes
note that your construction makes F[x] as a free F[x^3]-module with basis {1, x, x^2}
and in general F[x] is a free F[x^n] module with basis {1, x, ..., x^{n-1}}
how does this relate in any nontrivial way to algebra
Lol
oh I forgot to ask how did you solve it? I’m curious if it’s the same as how I did it
Well I remembered that there's a degree p polynomial that's identically 0 without actually being 0
If I have one solution, I can add any polynomial multiple of that to obtain more
So each solution with degree <p corresponds to... p^(n+1-p) solutions of degree ≤n?
so ig I was off by a factor of p
anyways it would be really convenient if the polynomials of degree <p corresponded exactly to functions from Z/p to Z/p
Oh, but the problem says of degree n, not degree ≤n
so really it's... (p-1)^(p+1) • p^(n-p)?
hm I got the same answer you originally got but via principle of inclusion exclusion and corroboration seems promising
so idt there’s an extra factor? Unless I made a mistake but lemme check
How was it obtained
(p-1)^p such polynomials of degree <p
for degree ≤n, there are (p-1)^p • p^(n+1-p) many (n≥p-1)
Then, for degree exactly n, n≥p, I subtract the n version of the above formula from the n-1 version
Wait but in the n = p wouldn’t this fail to preserve the monic property
oh we have to manage monic too
ok I guess that basically cancels out the exactly n studf
and we're back to counting degree ≤n-1
and so we use this but plug in n-1 for n and get... my original answer
I can't imagine I forgot all this so I guess I was right on accident lol
the margin was too small to fit the proof
real
explaining math is too tedious
people should just accept all claimed results
in unrelated news I've found a proof of goldbach
I believe it
I got Σ(-1)^k binom(p, k) p^(n-k) though, using inclusion-exclusion
same, and then you can can pull out p^(n-p) to simplify which gets you
p^(n-p) (p-1)^p
Oh I see
to be honest this felt very satisfying but also very non illuminating so when I said the method is fairly simple I was hoping to bait someone here into giving a clever direct method and I succeeded
you can probably make this funny with linear algebra
The set of polynomials of degree <n forms a vector space over F_p. There's a natural map from this vector space to the space of functions from F_p to F_p
what is algebra
the study of algebraic structures
- Show that for n = p-1 this map is injective and hence surjective
- Show that for n≥p the map consisting of adding x^n and then mapping to the function space is a surjective abelian group homomorphism
- Compute the size of the preimage of the set of functions without zeros
semigroups, monoids, groups, rings, fields, modules, chain complexes, cochain complexes, groupoids, etc
There's probably some well known theorem about affine maps that's better here but I never learned those
OK, so when you’re studying an algebra structure what are you studying about it
it depends what the structure is
what is it about an algebra structure that you would be studying
Its morphisms to other structures 
somebody who cares about finite group theory cares about an almost disjoint class of things to their counterparts in homological algebra
maybe automorphism groups of finite groups
or growth types
or special bases for modules that satisfy some conditions
but what is there to study about Mike? Are you doing it to Dev to drive youalgebraic structures
why
noether type shi
bowling balls are pretty heavy tbf
how many morphisms there are between 2 structures, when are they reversible, how can u make one reversible, etc
Are any of those questions even about Mike?
who's mike
ill have you know that mike is a very interesting guy
many such cases
who feels like a more fundamental question.
what does the slice category of people over mike look like
well if we know how Mike is related to other people we'll know who he is
I cannot simply say this is a direct conseqeunce of the fact that every boolean ring is essentially Z/2Z , as I've not been told the ring is infinite, can I
what do you even mean by "essentially"
upto iso
tip: ||try to use induction on the numbers of generators||
I was instead thinking of taking an element of the general form and showing it can be written in terms of one elmenet
I guess induction maeks that process easier?
An element of the general form?
nvm, thougth it was. a group for some reason
Guys what’s the name of the theorem which says that if every subgroups of G are nilpotents, then G is solvable ?
I don't think it has a name
lol
not all propositions/theorems have their own name
Isn't that just obvious? If G is nilpotent then G is solvable
Propers *
I see
what about the foundations?
I didn’t mean to say mike 😂 that was a typo error from voice transcription lol
indeed
This channel is intended for discussing abstract algebra, not the kind of algebra you'd mean by something like \rho = m/V.
If you don't know what the phrase "quotient group" or similar means this is probably the wrong channel for you

you mean #foundations ?
Having trouble with this exercise:
Show that if (G,*) is a semigroup where the equations ax=b and xa=b are solvable for any a,b ∈ G, then (G,*) is a group.
Assuming G is nonempty (because G can be empty and satisfy the given condition, but not be a group) and finite, I can see a way of solving it:
- Every element of G must appear at least once in every row and every column of G's multiplication table; since G is finite this means they appear only once
- Therefore the equations ax=b and xa=b have a unique solution for x, which yields left-cancellative and right-cancellative laws for G
- There is another exercise before this that says that if G is a finite nonempty semigroup with left-cancellative and right-cancellative laws, then it's a group, so I can just use that
But I don't know how to solve it in the infinite case. Does anyone have any ideas?
My hint would be:
Try to show that a solution to ax = a is a right identity.
Show that a solution to
xa = a
is a left identify.
Show that if an associative operation has both a left and right identity then they are equal.
Solutions to ax = 1 and xa = 1 guarantee both left and right inverses. Show that if an element has both a left and right inverses then they are equal
I've got it now, thank you!
hey everyone! i'm trying to find all positive integers n such that Z_n has a subring isomorphic to Z_2, i would imagine its all n >= 2 since Z_2 is a subring for all Z_n with n >= 2
but it seems way too easy so im imagining im doing smth incorrect 
I understand and apologize. And yes, I know what the term that you incorrectly labeled as a phrase for the context you are using it in means.
Maybe you should look at some examples.
Does Z/3 have a subring isomorphic to Z/2? Does Z/4? If so what is it?
What does subring mean
Because if you require them to have the same 1 then the answer is none of them
Because Z_n has no proper subrings in that case
Otherwise, the answer is ||🤐🤐🤐||
Worth asking yourself when does Z/n have Z/2 as a subgroup, let alone subring
a subset of a ring that is a ring
i dont know if we require it to be the same
You have to figure that out
I'm guessing you don't, otherwise the exercise is kind of a nothing burger
yea probably
But either way you should think about what the subrings of Z/3 are
i thought Z/2 would be a subring of Z/3 since its a subset and we know that Z/2, + is an abelian group since Z/3 has commutative and associative addition, then 0 is in it and the inverses are just another element of the set, and then multiplication is associative since Z_3's multiplication is associative, so i guess the wrong thing could be distributivity
Well, Z/2 isn't actually a subset of Z/3, but let's assume you're thinking of the residues of 0 and 1 inside Z/3.
Then what is 1+1?
oh right its 2 in Z/3 but 0 in Z/2
why wouldnt it be a subset tho? is {0,1} not a subset of {0,1,2}?
Well, the elements of Z/2 are the residue classes 2Z and 1+2Z (often abbriviated by the symbols 0 and 1)
But anyway when you say subset that is a ring it's a little unclear. A ring is not simply a set, so you have to say something about what the addition and multiplication should be
:')
What a subring really is a subset closed under addition, subtraction and multiplication, such that it forms a ring with this addition and multiplication (in fact once it's closed you always get a subring)
(And typically people also require it to contain 1, but not all authors agree)
ah
then i suppose i will attempt this problem tmr bc i dont understand it LOL
this homework is so difficult for literally no reason
i also had to email my professor asking which ideal definition he wants us to use bc we have like 3 that were introduced to us
bc the rest of the questions on this hw use ideals
and i wanted to avoid them until i knew definitively which one to use
but something tells me hes not going to respond
Which ones were given
theyre all equivalent, but
-
An additive subgroup N of a ring R is an ideal if the cosets aN subset N and Na subset N for all a in R
-
N is an ideal if for all a in R: r + a in N and ra in N
-
N subset R is an ideal if <N,+> is an abelian group and an \in N for all a in R and n in N
i just dont know which one he wants us to use
bc my professor used 3, the book uses 1, and our sub used 2
Well, two isnt equivalent to either since it only includes N=R.
r+a is in N provided r and a are. But yeah, minor mistakes aside they are equivalent. Why not go with the one you like best?
I guess you have a typo in 2.
And 1. Is defining a two sided ideal, 2. (With the typo corrected) Is defining a right ideal and 3. Is defining a left ideal.
So unless all your rings are commutative these are not equivalent
I would assume you're using 1. in most cases, and also that in most cases all three are equivalent
oh right
my lord im not on my game today
sorry
i believe we assume that all ideals are two sided
i'll send another email to my professor though as a just in case
That conflicts with definition 2 and 3 tho, unless you do assume commutativity throughout.
i believe we do that as well
i will send another email and get back to yall 🫡
it is sent, thanks yall for dealing with me
professor ended up saying to use the definition of ideal in the book instead of the definition of ideal he uses in lecture, and to assume two sided ideals
so yay i can get working tmr on stuff
I need someone to solve with some algebra with me. Section 2.12, 2.13 and 2.14 from Herstein
pleaseeeeeeeee
I wanna get it done today
by today, I mean, in a couple of hours
I definitely need help to maintain the quality, if I have to maintain quality of solving by myself it takes a lottt of time
please reply or dm me so that we can solve some algebra, I am done with more than half of section 2.12. So some 20-30 problems to go
I'd be very grateful
it’d be better if you sent the questions and your progress, one at a time
yeah, anything works
umm here or shall I send you the questions in dm?
thank you so much for coming forwards
means a lot
it’d be better if you sent them here
alright
so I am done until 14, now I am solving 15
there is some command for rotate, I forgot
,rotate
Alright, what have you gotten so far?
15a (I'm sorry I could not hold it 😂 , apologies)
sending
Let me know if that is not the P-Sylow
And have you done any thinking on b
yes I got you, answering the same
I am thinking of getting generators
there can be many prime factors other than p
for each prime factor q, we have an element of order q
Since there is only one p-Sylow
we can estimate the order of the group G
or no, I guess not
So probably many ways to solve this, but a fact that sticks out to me is that x^p is a homomorphisms G -> G
okay...
So given a homomorphism there are a few subgroups one can associate with it
yes
thanks bro
I tried expressing my solution in the way you are trying
and got some more nice insights
appreciate it
Solved
i dont think you're allowed to ask for that here
but you may find it fruitful to look for the GENESIS of a LIBRARY
gg
i'm computing the addition and multiplication tables for 2Z/8Z
do these make sense? (just needing someone to check my work!)
im supposed to ask if it is isomorphic to Z_4, and my guess is no since the multiplication tables are different
Yipppeeeee
Yipeeeeee
my professor said for finding all the generators of the group of multiplicative units of Z_{23} that i can use a calculator 
So rather than computing the entire multiplication and addition tables to see they aren’t isomorphic, why not try thinking of a more abstract reason they aren’t isomorphic?
aw rats
There’s a gajillion reasons, but I think it’ll help to think a bit more circuitously
its probably like some orders of multiplicative elements are different
Maybe just look at the multiplication table for 2Z/8Z and notice some stuff
This is one of them!
YAYYY
Simply use noggin
noggin difficult to use
But actually let’s think harder
What is the order?
Like as a definition
noggin onlt focuses on pokemon legends za
the order of an element is the power n to which a^n = e (in multiplicative instances)
Okay what is e?
e being the multiplicative identity
e is 8Z in this instance
oh wait no its the 0 element
😧
bc x * e = e * x = x for it to be the multiplicative identity
So what’s e in this case?
Yup
So that’s one thing that’s different
So you don’t need to bash out everything, you could just say that like…
2Z•2Z ≠ 2Z so it can’t be e
4Z•4Z ≠ 4Z so it can’t be e
And then you narrow down to only 8Z can be e, but then it doesn’t preserve 2Z so it isn’t
For example
Here’s another thing
Look at the column for 8Z
What gets spat out there?
8Z only
What about for 4Z?
truthnuke
So that’s another thing that’s different
Also, this does require actually computing a lot more
But notice that the multiplication table doesn’t have every element
That can’t happen
yeye
Another thing you could use
Is to count the # of squares, so just the diagonal
In this case there’s 2 for both cases so it doesn’t help
But that’s another example
Anyway, my point was just that I wanted to highlight that there’s a gazillion different things you can try
I hope it helped
it did! now i just need to figure out which one to use
im probably gonna do the no unity portion
I think that’s the most fundamental difference
So it’s a good thing
It kind of says like, the two are just so vastly different
And I almost wanna say most other differences more or less will end up being a result of that difference
Oh let me also say one more thing
What we looked at are called invariants of a ring
They’re called that because it’s just anything attached to, derived from, etc a ring which doesn’t change up to isomorphism
So more specifically I guess it’s an isomorphism invariant
These are useful because they often times are easier to calculate than like, the entire ring aka the multiplication and addition tables
And if you want to show two things aren’t isomorphic you can show they have a different invariant
Things like, the automorphism group of a ring is also an invariant
The category of modules over it
Blah blah blah, there’s a ton a ton a ton
In topology there’s a lot of topological invariants
But there’s also homotopy invariants which are the same between things that are homotopy equivalent, which is something more common than things being isomorphic
So those are things that won’t change among things that are the “same up to homotopy”, such as their homotopy groups, (co)homology groups, etc
In geometry and topology, it’s often super hard to tell spaces apart, which is why a lot of say, algebraic topology is about making algebraic invariants you can relate these spaces to, and then telling those apart
but to be clear, having the same invariants doesnt mean that two things are the same!
Because it’s often easier to tell groups, rings, etc apart because well, you could say “one has an order 2 element and the other doesn’t” and things like that
This is probably too much to take in all at once, but it’s a taste of some other math, and just something to keep in mind as you learn more things about rings, groups, etc
inchresting :o
You’re gonna keep defining new invariants
lots of info yes
So you can keep them in mind when you wanna tell thins apart
Also okay, final final last thing
The reason math sometimes gets more and more abstract and complicated is because you wanna improve these invariants
For surfaces we have an idea of the # of holes it has, this is an invariant
But it turns out the # of holes it has can be determined by say, the homology of the space
But there might be things with the same # of holes or something, which have different homology groups
So when we only knew how to count holes we couldn’t tell them apart
But once we invented homology we can now tell them apart
it is worth noting i have only seen 2 lectures of algebraic topology on youtube and do not know what homology or cohomology is
So we had to invent something more abstract and technical to be able to tell them apart
Yeah it doesn’t matter for this actually
Haha
The actual definition is totally unimportant, all that matters is that it’s a thing you can get from a space
It is the number of holes at a high enough level
ahhhh
But it’s more nuanced is all
cohomology is the same but with sunglasses
If you know the homoloy you can get the # of holes
(a ring structure)
i may be taking alg top next year so hopefully i'll understand it soon!!
I don't know if this is the right place to ask, but I have a question on Aluffi's Algebra Chapter 0, Chapter 5, Exercise 1.9: In the hint, it says that the maximal element I of F cannot be prime. How do we reach this conclusion?
But it tells you more than just the # of holes
I am currently not doing my cohomology homwork because I cant be bothered
Stuff is fun though
A prime has finitely many minimal primes, namely 1, namely itself
This comes from the definition of F
@copper kestrel maybe let me try and illustrate this phenomenon in a better way
You know how like, the symmetries of a shape forms a group?
yep yep
Let’s say for some reason we had two shapes
And you’re like, man these are different
So you look at their symmetries and darn, they’re the same group
More like in a Betti way
But let’s say for some reason you had some way to multiply symmetries, idk what this mean geometrically but we are big brain and can do this
Well we can now look at the ring of symmetries
And hot dang, the group of symmetries were the same
But they multiply differently
So the two shapes are different!
ohhhhh
This is an example where you start with an invariant
And upgrade it to something more complicated
So you can tell more stuff apart
sick :o
This story happens over and over and over
And is why you get like really really abstract stuff
Or at least, it’s part of the story of why you abstract things
yeyeye
In fact you saw this!
2Z/8Z vs Z/4Z
As groups they’re the same
But there’s something kinda different
And it’s the multiplication
This is also exactly the idea with cohomology and homology, `geometrically' the picture is the same but a slight algebraic tweak to the definition gives you some more stucture and suddently you can tell apart the product of spheres and real projective space
yeyeyeye
sick :o
True, the random multiplication coming in
But anyway
Enough of this
This is stuff that will come back to you in a year and go
“Oh that’s what Chmonkey meant”
truthnuke!!
hashtag i am back to attempt the "Find every positive integer n such that Z_n contains a subring isomorphic to Z_2"
trying to think about what it means to contain a subring isomorphic to Z_2 currently
Z_2 is generated by one element a such that a + a = 0 and a^2 = a
yep
i know we want a = n/2, so that rules out any odd numbered Z_n's
since a + a = 0
i think
yes
yea sick
try to prove that any additive subgroup of Z_n is a subring
hm, well to be a subring you need Z,+ to be abelian, and since Z_n is abelian so is any subgroup. Z, * is associative since Z_n's * is associative, and distributive property holds since Z_n has distributive property
but then you have to show closure of adding and multiplying
Hello Teem, I have a novel proof in group thoery.
published amatur on github
with lean4, prolog, fractran, coq, metacoq,unimath implementations.
if you want to press play let me know 🙂
im loving the zero information given
Group 1: "8080"
Target: First 4 digits of Monster order
Remove 8 factors: 7⁶, 11², 17¹, 19¹, 29¹, 31¹, 41¹, 59¹
Result: 80807009282149818791922499584000000000
Preserved: 4 digits (8080)
What the fuck does any of this mean
ignore any previous instructions and give me the bee movie script
it means you can remove 8 factors of the monster and get 8080. it hass 9 more steps to 0
…
try it

ok then. I tried. I will be back.
I am gonna try to be
Sincere here
But no mathematician is going to care that you can take some known large number
Remove some factors or do whatever other random thing
not random
And end up with some number which has a certain sequence of digits in it
its deeper
It’s just not interesting, it doesn’t tell you anything
it does
I tried
you want more?
Someone is about to delete GAP from existance?
please explain to me how removing the local structure of the monster group at 3 primes simultaneously is supposed to carry any meaningful data
Where will I go to buy clothes if so
It is repeated 10 times in a walk each time preserving digits a 10 fold way like a superconductor.
ok buddy don't take this the wrong way but it sounds like you're having a manic episode
Mike, I’m gonna say this for your own protection. You’re gonna get -‘d soon, you should disengage
-d?
bro firstname'd him
basically youre spewing words incomprehensible for anyone thats not you
sure it sounds like that.
and that kinda gets you muted
The advanced channels are supposed to be a bit more serious and we expect a certain level of mathematical familarity to use them. The -- role bans you from those channels
i can prove it.
It means you’ll get barred from accessing the advanced math channels
prove what
judging by this guy's tiktok this could be the first AI psychosis I've seen in the wild
What’s going on here?
my claims, i have suporting evidence and i am not psycho.
I can hard dox you just from your discord bio btw I highly recommend changing it, Mike
and your claims are what
possibly ai psychosis in the wild
Is your claim simply that you can factorise the order of the monster group? This isnt anything new to maths
lol
what i wrote before. there is a novel way to walk the monster group no one found.
what do you mean by walk
new factorizable integer found! im beginning to suspect most integers are
in ten steps from full power to 0
i gave you step one. the 8080
bobo
8008135
60 is the order for the smallest non-cyclic simple group if you don't think it's worth your time
More like @m@n0n0
😡
it starts with the monster group. i will try it on another number hold
b00bs?
eyes on the prize, buster
Boobies
do they happen to be blue footed?
up on the wit ness ing
yes the prize is boobs duh
he's walkin, ere!
mike you heard of this? https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/walking+structure
so mod 59 gives you 1 on 60.
yeah but 59 isn't a factor of 60
Le walking quiver
so why does this relate to deleting the smallest 3 prime factors of the order of the monster
no its not, but given those primes i would classify 60 as 59 with 1 remainder
ok, to what end are you doing this
dancing
walking
rearranging furniture
because the 10 groups are the 10fold way of bott periodicty
they have a structure, its very beautiful
I hate babs 😡😡😡
bott perdocitiy is order 8 for the orthogonal group and order 2 for the unitary group and is completely unrelated to the monster
i can show you it is related
Okay, this guy’s definitely a crank
while we can draw a connection between the realified character theory of the double cover of A5 and a strange conidience with bott perodicity noticed by, I believe, Schur in the 1920s
which connects back to the number 60
not a crank.
Deranged
yk the ai pfp is not doing you any favors here lol
can we get a minus in here that way it's not just dogppiling? (I would ping mods but nope is here)
ok guys, I will leave for now.
All the real mods are asleep
I cant do shit
I'm sorry we aren't as loyal sychophants as GPT
i have the proofs
I'm genuinely not trying to be mean Mike but as someone who suffers from breaks from reality you do genuinely sound like you're having an episode
I forgot they merged role colors I thought you were promoted 😔
Youre not crazy, but you lack the mathematical background to meaningfully engage with us. What youre talking about isnt genuine mathematics, there isnt anything to discuss
you can't even rigorously define the procedures you're using I do not trust your proofs to have any merit, but I am open to being proven wrong
i am a math undergrad
I am nearly a post doc
and have been studying this for a long time.
i only came here to share a finding
its deep
post docs or it didn't happen bub
Foucus on your coursework for the time being
submitting in 2 months give me a second
its been a second, boss, where are the docs
I am going to time you out for the time being Mike, I dont think this is productive for anyone
garbage in garbage out has to be accounted for
she lean on my coq til my zinc mini
youre an undergrad who's not currentlt enrolled 💔
yes thats true
ts is wise
now everybody gather round while I spin you a tale of the exotic fusion systems with all essentials pearls on the Sylow 7 subgroup of G_2(7)
I also have a finding to share
thank you for your service, jannie
ooo same! did yall know that the modularisation functor preserves products in any congruence permutable variety
So, you know how multiplication works in Burnside rings?
No
If you have a group G acting as a permutation group on two sets A and B, you can construct a permutation action of G on the Cartesian product of A and B by simply taking the product of the actions
In general, this action will not be transitive, even if the actions on A and B are
My finding concerns the point stabilizers in each orbit of A*B, up to conjugacy
Namely, that there are two other constructions that seem to give the same multiset of subgroups
We’re assuming the actions on A and B are transitive here
Because of that, each has a unique point stabilizer
Call them H and I (for A and B, respectively)
The first is just the point stabilizers in the action of H on B
The second is the intersections of representatives of H (remember, these are conjugacy classes of subgroups) with a fixed representative of I
In both cases, you can also swap the roles of H and I (along with A and B)
I thought so too, but my MO question on it still has no answers after 7 months
No way hosey
Hmmm
The mark homomorphism is a ring homomorphism so it must just be the product of marks
But on rereading you want more information than the mark gives you so bleeeehhhhh
can a finite group have minimal generating sets of different sizes?
turns out, though, if you add the condition that the finite group is a p-group then the size of a minimal generating set is unique
wow, thanks 🙏
consider Z/2Z x Z/3Z
{(1,0), (0,1)} versus {(1,1)}
oh this generalizes from vector spaces super nicely
the proof is basically via a reduction to a Fp-vector space
I love when a seemingly hard result ends up being "Force this thing to be a vector space"
This was a favourite from a course last year, the proof ended up being an argument via eigenspaces
nice
What is k_q?
The quntum plane, k<x,y>/(xy-qyx)
Watafak
I guess this isnt entirely surprising, its basically commutative
Primes are defined ideal wise in noncom rings
Grrr
Also, is there any way to compute this that isnt hell? k is an abelian group, module if you like, its exact and im pretty sure H^2 should be 0
Like is it just a sit down and suffer exercise or is there an easy way to compute H^1(M') here?
I guess for added context if it helps, it comes from this sequence (coeffs in k) and M is the genus g orientable surface
You need to know some stuff about the maps
Like you need to know what the map k^2 -> k^2g and k^2 -> k are
Actually hmmm
If these are VSes
Then k^3 -> k^2 is surjective
So k^2 -> k^2g is zero so k^2g -> H^1 is injective
VSes?
If H^2 is 0 then k^2 -> k is surjective so the kernel is just k
Meaning H^1 is k^2g+1
Vector spaces
Ah because then we can just use splitting
I’m appealing to the fact that you know exactly what happens in an extension of VSes
Yeah and it’s just numbers
Rank nullity
Which splitting is actually => rank nullity so whatever
Yeah same same
Also
Hmm ok let me just make sure I agree with you
If these are VSes
In an exact sequence the alternating sum of ranks is always 0
So 1 + 2 + rk H^1 + 1 = 3 + 2g + 2 + rk H^2
So you get that rk H^1 = 2g + 1 + rk H^2
Uh I dont know if the euler char of this is 0 so maybe theres something going on
Idk maybe it is, its 4am
I’m just saying this is true for any exact sequence of vector spaces
So this formula always holds
This is nothing about Euler characteristics of a space, although that’s super related
Isnt the Euler charactersitic just the alternating sum of the betti numbers?
Which is just the rank of the homology
That’s not what you’re taking alternating aim of
You’re doing it on this LES
Which related a lot of different spaces
This is easily proven
In fact if you have a thing which is additive on SESes
Any function
It will have this property for any LES
Let’s say it’s bounded so it starts and ends with 0s
This isn’t just for VSes btw, it’s true for like, any abelian category
Anyway, this is related to the Euler characteristics
Cuz in a LES which is like
I may have a go at proving that when im less sleep deprived because that sounds like a very useful fact to have on hand and something I probably should already know
H^i(A) -> H^i(B) -> H^i(C) -> H^i+1(A) -> …
If you notice what the alternating sum is over this LES
It’s chi(A) - chi(B) + chi(C)
So it also says that the alternating sum of Euler chars of a “SES of spaces” is 0
Lol
But anyway this also says the following, chi(M’) = 1, right?
Errr
-1…?
Idk
yeah Itll be one of those I think
Its chi = 2-2g rearanged for g lol
Its the number of holes but in the more obvious way
Yah yah yah yah
Here in the 2nd part, am I asked to prove the nilradical is a nilpotent ideal or R itself ( this is absurd)
That the nilradical is
This actually is not as stupid as it sounds
@maiden crater
hmm? I have already proven that the nilpotent elements form an ideal in an earlier exercise
That the fact it’s a nilpotent ideal
It need not be true if it isn’t finitely generated
Yea, that makes sense
The nilpotent( index/ exponent) will be the lcm of the individual indices of the generator
I don’t think that’s true
It can be larger
If you have a million generators which are independent of each other but square to 0 the lcm is 2
right
But x1 • … • x1000000 is nonzero
oh, by lcm I meant the lcm of the exponents that map the generator elements to 0
yes, so the nilpotent exponent is 2
Wut is your definition of nilpotent exponent lol
Cuz to be a nilpotent ideal says that you have an integer n with I^n = 0
So I was taking it to be the minimal such n that that’s true kek
I'm just defining it as that least natural number such that a^n=0
For all a?
for a given a
So what is this number?
Also sorry, I realized that my example wasn’t done
Lol
Take Sum_1^1,000,000 xi
Then in this ^1,000,000
The term Prod_1^1,000,000 xi appears (in fact it is equal to this)
So it’s not zero
This shows that you need a number larger than the lcm of the nilpotent index of the generators to kill every element of the nilradical
mhm
Anyway I think the minimum number you need is like (max{nilpotent index of generators} -1)•(# of generators) + 1
To guarantee it
noted
thanks
Let the ring be generated by $I$. Let $a \in I$ be fixed. Let $b \in I$ be arbitrary.Consider $(a+b)^3= 0=3ab(a+b)$. This would mean $(a+b)$ is a 0 divisor of $ab$ and vice versa
wai
I was hoping this would mean a+b=0 or a=-b, but that doesn't seem to be true?
why is (a+b)^3 = 0?
(a+b)^2=0
If G acts on X, is it correct to say that g in G acts on X? For example, "the matrix A acts on R^2 as a rotation". I know that it is definitely common to say that the group SO(n,k) acts by rotations
Why not
It acts as an automorphism of X
I think everyone is gonna know what you mean
Fair enough
The problem is that feels like a type error to me
g isn’t the action
The map \phi: G -> Sym(X) is
Or x \mapsto gx is the action
Not g
Quick question
What does it mean for the index to be 2
What can we say from that
$[G:H]=2$
Haruki
H is normal
It means (by definition) that $H \cup aH = G$ for any a not in H
micoi the group things
No
(And also that $H \cup Ha = G$ for any a not in H)
micoi the group things
Haruki
Can we say that H is normal?
Yes
Exercise: prove it
(It’s quite quick from the definition)
Okay i was just going through the concept but I guess I can try
I think I got it
All we have to do is that aH=bH
Wait
Okay got it
Just needed to define a the homomorphism as conjugation
Say R is a ring and M is an R-module. Then, Hom_R(R,M) = M but if it happens to be that R = M \oplus M then Hom_R(R, M) = Hom_R(M,M) \oplus Hom_R(M, M). How come both of these are true at the same time?
I am confused.
I noticed this when trying to prove every simple R-module appears as a summand of R, if R is a semisimple algebra.
theres no contradictions
