#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 366 of 1
You cant reverse physcology me into doing your homework. I know I cant do it!
It s not hw
that's what they all say
"groups-rings-fields" lol
Cmon pls
ch circle?
Its a q from ch circle
what is ch circle
Yeah, not really the channel for this, try #prealg-and-algebra
we will never know
it seems so...
In an artinian ring with no non-zero nilpotent ideals
there are no non minimal ideals right ?
As in no proper ideal that contains a proper minimal ideal
I believe such a ring would be semisimple and thus have krull dimension zero but that only guarentees what you want for prime ideals
maybe someone who has thought about rings once in the past 3 years can spot the obvious thing I'm missing
i'm assuming unity
that's good - I was as well
Every one sided nilpotent ideal is contained within every prime ideal so maybe theres soemthing there, but ive not fully formed a thought yet
even so why can't we have 0 < (p^2) < (p) < R. I don't think the intersection of all prime ideals vanishing could detect this happening
we could try artin-wedderburn tbf but idk how it would help
you're a direct product of fields, so k x 0 x 0 ... is contained in k x k x 0 ... etc right?
ts is true
in this we show that in a semi simple ring any ideal can be characterized as Re where e is some idempotent
you can just add the primitive idempotents together right
But the proof also uses the fact that the minimal ideal in said ideal is equal to Re
I really need to brush up on my rings before this scholarship interview
is it martingale scholarship ?
Yuh
I hate rings so much
linkedin spammed it all over my feed so i saw if i could apply for it but i'm not even eligible 💔
Yeah but they tend to have nicer presentations so you can just see them
wut about E_oo rings
better but not great
no longer a mod
I'm on break break, I will be pink again in like 2 minutes
strongly disagree. It tells you how the elements work but nothing structural
What else is there to know? This is actually somewhat serious, this is I think a large reason why I prefer working with rings
rings are annoying because there's more structure so you have to study more
I can't tell you what else there is to know but the 6000 billion different entries in the chain between "domain" and "field" make my head hurt
I feel I understand them far better because I can look at the typically much more simple presenatations and just know how they behave, even for big rings like A_n
A_oo mention
A_oo categories have such a simplie intuitive definition
(I mean the weyl algebra, not any of that woke n-lab nonsense)
A_oo cats are very concrete objects
they come up from topology
as in non schizo topology
The thing that makes things nice for rings is that the quotients you care about are more likely to behave as you expect, I feel
So like generator-relation presentations are more useful
Eyyy im all pissy here
relations in quotients work the same for both groups and rings?
WOW
Apparently ive been too nice of late
Shit role when
my condolences 🌾
<@&1328097118644338779>
In the literal sense yeah
But in a more philosophical sense, I feel the ones we care about for rings tend to be nicer than the ones we care about for groups
Yeah but like S_n is confusing
rings are nice because abelian groups are nice and monoids are relatively nice, so tensoring the two theories yields a somewhat nice theory
I like solid concrete objects like x and a, not (123) where I need to work out which version of the notation someone using
How it’s literally the nicest object ever
Cycle notation confuses me
who is out here actually multiplying permutations
not even that nice
I am only like half joking here, S_n is of course pretty concrete but I do think in relation to like a polynomial ring, not as concrete or nice
And im including non-com rings in that, even weird quotients of them
just go so abstract that the word computation doesnt even make sense anymore 
reasoning with concepts atp
Is there a large class of finite groups G for which in every composition series 1 = G0, ..., Gn = G, Gi is not normal in Gj whenever j-i ≥ 2?
nobody does everybody just pretends they do
"counting is hard" 💔
This is based entirely just on vibes because I dont work with groups, but I would presume this is specific enough that youd want to just make a search with sage
Or your CAS of choice
yes
what a coincidence! listening to music rn
Me too
(not a coincidence i am literally always listening to music)
I barely know what 2+3 is c'mon
Real
Does the following proof strategy for Sylow's theorems work?
- Consider GLn(Fp). Show that Un(Fp) (upper-triangular unipotent matrices) is a Sylow subgroup (mainly that the index is coprime to p). Show that any representation of a p-group in characteristic p maps into Un in a basis. This proves the first two theorems for GLn(Fp).
- Prove that any group embeds into GLn(Fp) for sufficiently large n (indeed Sn embeds in GLn(Fp)). By some basic counting arguments the intersection of a Sylow subgroup is a Sylow subgroup of the subgroup. Hence using the result on representations of p-groups we get Sylow's first 2 theorems in general.
- TODO 3rd part (just the 1 mod p bit is not very easy).
Did you also have an argument for 1 in mind, showing that a representation lands in Un
No, I realised I need to fill that in as I wrote it. But it should essentially come down to showing that in char p the only irrep of a p-group is trivial (e.g. since the group algebra is local). I'm still hoping I can find a more basic argument though.
I think that argument is pretty good. But not super basic yeah.
For 3) you can just use that |N(P)/P| = |G/P| mod p, but that doesn't involve any rep theory
I think when I had the idea I knew it's elementary (or at least just linear algebra) for cyclic groups and subconsciously jumped to p-groups 
I am working on Problem 7 from Herstein:
it's quite interesting, but I think I am getting stuck
I have those considerations:
-
I don't know any "ready to use" non-abelian groups that have this property (S_3 and D_4 have subgroups that are not normal). So I started thinking that maybe this statement is true and I have to prove it.
-
I tried to prove a contrapositive: start with a non-abelian group that has a pair of elements such that ab != ba and somehow show that I can get a subgroup that is not normal, but I couldn't easily do that:
-
I tried to focus on commutators of non-abelian groups (since they are in some sense "a measure" of how non-abelian the group is). I thought that if I start with them, maybe they will automatically lead me to some non-normal subgroup. But it looks it is the opposite, in a way, i.e. I can prove that if a subgroup contains all commutators, then it is normal. For example {e, r^2} in D_4 is normal, when r^2 is a commutator. When it doesn't contain all, it's not clear, at least I can't say that it is automatically not normal.
-
Maybe if I can start with just one commutator in a group that has many, and build a cyclic group out of it then it may potentially end up with only one commutator there, so it is not automatically normal. But I couldn't find a way to prove that it will always lead to a non-normal subgroup.
-
Overall, the statement that for all subgroups H we have Ha=aH (normality) is a weaker statement then claiming that ha=ah for all possible a, h from G (abelian-ness). So I started to actually doubt the truthfulness of our statement. But on the other hand, maybe some extra power comes from the fact that it holds for all subgroups H... But I don't see how to reason over all subgroups H, i.e. how to combine their premises.
do you have any hints? 🙂
There is such a group
There is also such a group with small order (ie, less than ||16||)
(Yeah I tried the same thing as you, ||reduced to the case of p groups|| then ||realised the|| answer: ||quaternion group|| is an example)
ok, thanks 🙂 I'll think more about that then
I should really learn more group theory, it’s pretty interesting
Group theory is fun
(I am legally required to indoctrinate people into groups)

I’m really interested in groupoids so I’m sure learning more about groups first will undoubtedly help me learn more about groupoids too.
Only if its geometric group theory
Is geometric group theory related to interpretating group presentations as CW complexes or is there some other notion of geometric at play 🤔
Other group theory also allowed (but the more combinatorial it is the more I’ll tell you you’re doing the wrong group theory)
Somewhat
Although it’s more generally considering actions of groups on spaces (usually by isometries, sometimes by homeos)
That’s the answer I was guiding them to without outright saying it
Is algebraic groups a gray area then
Alg groups isn’t really GGT
It’s more group flavoured AG
Oh that makes sense, neat!
I might end up forced to do a GRT-ish master’s thesis equivalent 😢
Sorry, I thought you were implying that the smallest counterexample was of order 16, so I deleted my message.
Yeah I just chose 16 because the number of groups you’d have to consider jumps drastically then
Like after you rule out abelian and dihedral, there’s not that many groups of order less than 16 left
||there’s one of order 8, and some of order 12?||
how do i prove soemthing is an action, do i prove that theres a homomorphism from the group to the symmetric group acting on the space? that seems quite long
That’s one way
The other way is the whole g(hx) = (gh)x and 1x = x
how do i even know what symmetric group my action corresponds to though
It’s a bit confusing, because the second counterexample actually has order 16 haha, sorry.
how are they equivalent
Some hints could be
- ||Notice that if the sylow subgroups are normal, G is the product of its sylow subgroups, so it's enough to think about p-groups||
- ||If the subgroup generated by a and b are both normal, then aba^-1b^-1 must be contained in their intersection.||
- ||If you're just looking for a single example you can of course just consider the subgroup generated by two elements a and b that don't commute. What could their orders be, what could aba^-1b^-1 be? Here you can try a few things and see if something works.||
f_g: X -> X via f_g(x) = gx gives an element of the symmetric group on X
Then prove g \mapsto f_g is a homomorphism
is g a group element?
Yes
and does gx mean g acting on x
Yes
Use the class equation to show that a group of order pq, with p and q prime, contains an element of order p.
I know how to solve this generally (it's just cauchy's theorem), but how is the class equation relevant here?
So the size of possible centralisers is 1, p, q, pq by Lagrange
So the size of possible ccls is the same list
So we get pq = apq + bp + cq + d with d > 0 (as the identity has ccl of order 1)
So we deduce a = 0 by size considerations
And we know that p divides cq + d
So either c = 0, d = p or pq (so the centre has size p or pq, so we get an order p element in the centre)
Or c > 0, in which case there is an element g with centraliser of size p
But <g> commutes with g, and has size ord(g) \in p, q, pq, so the order of g must be p
Huh. yeah, that works.
|G| = |Z(G)| + Sum |G|/|C(x)|
if G is divisible by p it means either ZG is aswell or one of the summands is not.
If ZG is, then you're dealing with an abelian group. Otherwise C(x) is a smaller group, so you can apply induction.
And yeah I feel like the point of this is kinda just to show that you can prove Cauchy manually for simple cases
ah, holy cow, it's a || quaternion group || !
I recalled that in Pinter there were 3 sets of exercises: Survey of 6 element groups, survey of 8 element groups, and 10-element groups. The only non-abelians there were symmetrical groups, dyhedral groups and quaternion (which I forgot)
So I've built the table for quaternion, it's 8 elements, so non-trivial subgroups are either of order 2 or order 4. Order 4 is automatically normal (because it has index 2 and I already proved that it is normal). So the only one to check was the subgroup of order 2
In some sense Q8 is basically the only such group.
(e, a^2), and checking that it turned out to be normal too, yahoo
OK, now let me read all the hints 😄
They are exactly of the form
Q8xAxH where A is elementary 2-group and H is abelian torsion group where all elements have odd order.
Re 1: I haven't got to Sylow yet, this is just after introduction of normal subgroups and quotient groups in Herstein. Re 2 and 3 : that would be interesting to try!
mm, this doesn't make much sense to me yet 🙂
I don't know what is a torsion group
Group where the elements have finite order
It would be interesting to learn what was Herstein's intended approach here
I mean, they might not have a singular intended approach
I think technically, if I didn't request for hints -- I could have proceeded to groups of larger orders and tried to classify them somehow, like Pinter actually asks in his exercises
I already proved that dyhedral and symmetric didn't work for any n
I guess you probably would have seen Q8 before at that point (?), so just trying groups you know would work
but working with those larger groups is kinda terrifying: it requires a lot of manual calculations, at least until one starts to "feel" those groups and internalise their properies on higher level
no, that's the thing!
I think he doesn't introduce quaternion groups in his book
I see, then it's a bit of a challenge yeah
and they also are barely mentioned in Pinter (only in that exercise with the survey of all 8-element groups, that I didn't do, because Pinter has so many exercises!)
I've seen quaternion group in D&F, but they just listed the relations and that's it, it didn't spark my imagination so I promptly forgot about that 😄
let me check actually, maybe I missed it. Also, it's possible that it was mentioned in some exercise
no, I am right, in the index it comes 26 pages later 🙂
it will be introduced in an exercise a couple of chapters ahead
Yeah knowing every group of order at most 11 (read: cyclic groups, dihedral groups, the Quaternion group, and their direct products) is generally useful for this sort of counterexample
yeah, so Pinter saved me with his surveys 🙂
Who needs A4, amirite
I can never remember the complete set of groups of order 12, but yeah remember symmetric/alternating too
just installed a GAP package for visualising groups using his template
Normal = yes in all rows 🙂
It's just A4, dihedral, dicyclic and the abelian ones.
So I guess it's not a big ask to remember everything < 16
I just remember all finite groups tbh
Does it product html?
yep
and there are usage examples here: https://github.com/nathancarter/gap-pkg-groupexplorer
Cool, maybe I should get this in case I ever want to look to something not in groupprops
and the manual too. It generates HTML and opens it in browser
even with some cool 3D Cayley diagrams that one can rotate 🙂
Oh thats cool
I’ve wanted to look into GAP since I read the counter example to the unit conjecture, it seems really powerful for group stuff
it really is
Wow
Too prescient? 👀
How about this:
- For a cyclic group of order p (or really any power of p), the minimal polynomial divides x^p - 1 = (x-1)^p (or x^{p^n} - 1 = (x-1)^{p^n}) whose only root is 1. Therefore the element is unipotent and conjugates into U_n.
- In general, argue that there is a proper normal subgroup N with cyclic quotient (haven't yet thought of a more elementary proof than showing centre is non-trivial by class equation hence by induction all p-groups are nilpotent hence solvable hence take a suitable subgroup containing [G, G]), say generated by g in G. Find a basis where N maps into U_n. Now define V_i = { v : (x-1)^i v = 0 for all x in N }. Then g preserves V_i because it normalises N. By the previous part, we can find a basis of V_i/V_{i-1} so that g is unipotent upper-triangular; pull back those into a basis of V.
Step 2 is wrong: the intersection of a Sylow subgroup with a non-normal subgroup need not be Sylow. 
how do you prove this if G is finite? id assume that first you write G as a product of its sylow subgroups, then somehow we split the 2-sylow subgroup into Q_8xA where A is of that form, and prove that the other sylow subgroups are all abelian? although i dont see exactly how to proceed with this.
ok so these are called dedekind groups but could not find a proof classification of them online. wikipedia has the classification theorem in the article but there is no reference to it after they stated it. the article as a whole has a bunch of references but honestly i cba to look through them
But then there are 14 nonisomorphic groups of order 16
most of them will be the abelian ones which are not hard to remember by the structure theorem.
No, only 5 are Abelian
oh order 16 my bad i read order 12, but yeah i guess for numbers below that its not hard because order 12 is easy like he said, 13 is cyclic, 14,15 are semiprimes so they are classified as semidirect products iirc. either way he said <16
Hence the “but then”
anyways i found a proof in The Theory of Groups by Hall page 190 if anyone else also wants to look into it
I was wondering about a question and would appreciate help, the question is prove that for a belonging to a ring R and integer n, n * (-a) = - (n*a). To prove this we have to assume that the ring has a unity but the question doesnt mention that, can it be proved for general rings as well somehow?
Hmm, idk why you need unity, because n*(-a) + n*a = -a+-a+...+-a + a + a +...+a =0, so adding -(n*a) to both sides gives n*(-a)=-(n*a)
I think, just show n*(-a) is the additive inverse of n*a
First equality by definitions and second one is by pairing the a's with -a's
Thanks, I was using - (1)a = - a and distribution over individual a's
Isn't that the same thing?
This is completely valid as well. The 1 here isn't referring to the unity of the ring R. It's referring to the 1 in Z(integers)
And the n in n*a is also referring to the n in Z. n*a just means a+a+... n times
Could be interpreted as such but the book I am reading doesn't take it as such, plus for us to use distribution we have to consider - 1 as an element of the ring rather than an integer. That was the difficulty I was struggling with, but honestly your sol is much simpler and easier to understand
Does anyone have any sources they like/find are useful to grasp polynomial rings? (any good videos or textbooks they'd recommend) I'm in first year uni and doing a semester project on post-quantum cryptography so I want to understand lattice-based cryptography more in depth. I understand the basic of polynomial rings but I feel like I'm missing an intuitive understanding of moving from rings to polynomial rings (I haven't technically taken Linear Algebra yet, this is more self taught right now)
"Abstract Algebra" by Dummit and Foote is a good resource for this.
Seemed to do the job for me, that particular section at least
It’s very much the opposite, some 1000 pages of yap
Maybe they were talking about the section. But yes, Dummit and Foote is the opposite of terse
What are you looking to learn about polynomial rings ?
I also recommend dummit & foote. I had a hard time with it when I first read it but it gets a lot better if you sit down and think about everything carefully and do the exercises ofc
If you are doing more computational things maybe ‘ideals, varieties and algorithms’ by cox little and shea is interesting to you
I'm very much a noob in this area. I just don't fully comprehend what they are in comparison to regular rings. I'm looking specifically at module learning with errors (with regards to CRYSTALS-Kybe) and wanting to understand that. So it seemed like the natural jump was from understanding basic LWE to polynomial rings so I can understand how module LWE applies polynomial rings to basic LWE
I don’t know what those things are so I cannot help you
polynomial rings are just rings too
theyre a construction much like direct products are a construction
Does St(g(x)) = gSt(x)g^-1 imply that the union of all stabilisers of all elements within the same orbit is normal?
it'll be conjugacy closed yeah, a normal subset if you will
also can someone show me a small example of how i can form normal subgroups from conjugacy classes?
canonical example is that $x$ is central if and only if $|x^G| = 1$, hence $\mathcal{Z}(G) = \bigsqcup_{x \in \mathcal{Z}(G)} x^G = \bigsqcup_{x \in \mathcal{Z}(G)}} {x}$
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
says compile error yet displays exactly what I wanted
is this what you're after or do you mean more generally
what does x^G mean?
the conjugacy class of x
I'll give another example anyway: the conjugacy classes of S_3 are {1}, {(123), (132)}, {(12), (13), (23)}. The union {1} U {(123), (132)} is closed under multiplication and is thus a normal subgroup
ah yeah
and how do you get that conjugacy class of the 3 cycles
do you just get any element and apply conjugation to it
oh is it also that
conjugation of any permutation must produce the same cycle shape
for S_n this is easy. Two elements are conjugate if and only if they're of the same cycle type
yeah
yes and it's easy to prove
hmmm
let me think
so take a normal subgroup
then for all x E N, and for all g E G, gxg^-1 E N
so taking an element, keep applying conjugation to it, this will always be in N
so all possible conjugates of an element are within the subgroup
and then take elements outside these already found conjugates and repeat
but the thing is, how do I know that they are disjoint
they're orbits under a group action they're always disjoint
G x G -> G?
in fact this proof directly generalises to show that any subset of a G-set that is closed under the action must be a union of orbits
such that g(x) = gxg^-1?
yeah
hmmm so what would a formal proof be of this
you just wrote one
G-set?
a set with a G-action on it
ohhh
like R-module but less woke
i don't know about modules yet 😭
starting rings in like 2 weeks time
i think modules is third year if i choose the course
im sleep deprived 💔
they're closely related to group actions in ways people don't like telling you
if X is a set then Aut(X) naturally has a group structure, so groups should act on sets. But if X is an abelian group then Aut(X) naturally has a ring structure, so rings should act on abelian groups. We call an abelian group with such an action a module
WAKE UP
a presentation is used for DESCENDING A RESULT ON FREE OBJECTS DOWN TO ALL OBJECTS not something to be PLAYED WITH
Can somebody please help me see why 5.19 implies this highlighted sentence
1-v0 is not in the maximal ideal, so not in any maximal ideal
Bro got it in 2 seconds
And every non-unit is contained in a proper ideal (the one it generates) and hence in a maximal ideal
(A) not bro
(B) it’s a standard argument with local rings
Ah sorry
How do we know 1 - v_0 is not in th emaximal ideal tho
Nvm
Oh wait this claim is unrelated to equation (3)
If it were, and x = 1 - v0, then x + v0 = 1 \in m
Why is the action of G x G by conjugation never transitive?
wait i get why
{e} is always its own conjugacy class
hence it's own orbit
Of G x G on what?
Which group is acting on what and what exactly is the action, bc I don’t see it there
Yeah for this reason
ah okay
(There are actually (infinite) groups with only 2 conjugacy classes)
really?
like what 😭
The construction I know is kinda hard to explain
Essentially you start with G_0 = Z
Then for n > 0, fix g \in G_{n-1} set G_n to be G_{n-1}, with |G_{n-1}|-many elements attached, where the element corresponding to h, called t_h, is defined so t_h ht_h^{-1} = g (with the exception that we ignore t_g, t_e)
Then take the union of all the G_i
Why does k[x] not satisfy d.c.c on ideals
Where k is a field
Oh wait
Just (x), (x^2), (x^3)... right
yeah
In order to be a chain it would need to be something like (x), (x^2), (x^4), (x^8), ...
No sorry, I'm speaking nonsense.
No?
The ideal generated by x^2 contains xx^2 = x^3
Yeah.
You mean End(X) for X an abelian group, right? I don't think Aut(X) has a natural ring structure
Shouldn't this be N?
Yeah
Why can we make this assumption? If m[x] = B[x], then the proposition gives m[x^{-1}] \neq B[x^{-1}], but how does this show that x or x^{-1} is in B?
The proof after that sentence will show that m[x] ≠ B[x] ⇒ x in B or x^{-1} in B; by repeating it for x^{-1} in place of x we will be able to show that m[x^{-1}] ≠ B[x^{-1}] ⇒ x^{-1} in B or x in B. But by (5.20) either m[x] ≠ B[x] or m[x^{-1}] ≠ B[x^{-1}], and in either case we have that x in B or x^{-1} in B, so we are done.
Ah okay, thanks!
Another challenging problem from Herstein.
I proved that this subgroup H can't be abelian, normal in G, or finite, because then under given condition we'll have aHa^{-1} = H.
This leaves me with non-abelian infinite groups, and I don't know many examples of those.
Basically, we need to find an element of H that can't be represented as aha^{-1} for given a and any h from H.
Or in other words, we need f(h) = aha^{-1} to be a bijective mapping that maps H to its proper subset (which is, in a way, a definition of infinite set H, if such a mapping exist).
I tried a subgroup of mappings of infinite set A to itself that moves only finite number of elements which is a non-abelian subgroup of all mapings from A to A, but then I can't see a way to construct this mapping to a subset of H...
Also tried some other non-abelian infinite groups (like group of functions f(x) = ax + b under composition of mappings), but that seems to be fine, can't find this peculiar case there.
Any hints please? 🙂
It's perfectly possible for H to be abelian. But of course G can't be abelian, since then aHa^-1 = H
ah, right
ok, then I'll update: G can't be abelian, H can't be normal in G (because then for all a: aH=Ha), H can't be finite (because if H is finite, aHa^{-1} has at least ord(H) elements, and all of them are in H by assumption, so H doesn't have any more "space" for those elements that we are looking for, since its order is ord(H) too)
but H can be abelian, hmmm, not sure if it helps me much, because I still need to start from G, and this leaves me only with that example of mappings that move only finite number of elements 🙂
What kind of non-abelian infinite group do you know ?
some subgroups of permutations of infinite sets A, like permutation that move only finite number of elements. Or say permutations that do not move some element a_0
whats ord[H}?
H has to be infinite
Yes, that's what I stated above
why does finiteness of H mean that aHa^{-1} has ord[H] elements?
unless A is infinite wont the permutation group also be finite?
because we can build a bijection from aHa^{-1} and H, right? So when H is finite, they have the same number of elements, so number of elements of aHa^{-1} is also ord(H)
For the latter, the set of permutations of an infinite set that fix all but finitely many elements of that set is infinite
f(h) = ah^{-1}
f is a bijection because:
injection: f(h') = f(h'') => h' = h'' (by cancellation laws)
surjection: for any h', we can use a^{-1}h'a as an argument to f and have f(a^{-1}h'a) = a(a^{-1})h'a(a^{-1}) = h'
injection + surjection = bijection
well, the surjection case is actually wrong because a^{-1}h'a is not necessarily in aHa^{-1}, but actually just injection is enough there, because this means that aHa^{-1} has at least ord(H) elements. So H must be infinite
I am not sure I understand the second question 🙂
I am now actually confused who is trying to give me hints and who is just thinking about his problem...
Permutation groups of a set A (where |A|=n) have size n! no?
yes
so youd be dealing with an infinite set A.
wouldnt dealing with a set of matrices directly be more natural to work as a choice for H?
or for G even
maybe, but I don't know much linear algebra to work with that
also, Herstein marks problems that require knowledge of LA with "#"
and this problem is not marked
Ah, I think maybe there was a confusion when I talked about "permutation of set A" -- it looks like people automatically assumed that I am talking about finite A, I was not
I just meant mappings from A to itself, perhaps "permutations of A" is a wrong choice of word for that
so is the consensus that I need some LA-based examples of groups to figure this out?
(maybe then it's worth quickly reading Artin's first chapter, he should cover that 🙂
but still, this is surprising to me, if true
i wasnt im just worried this mgiht be something thats more difficult
does multiplying 2x2 matrices count as LA knowledge?
if you know that you may already know enough (idk maybe youre bijections of a set A approach is right or maybe you need even more LA knowledge and thats a mistake in the textbook)
nah, I know how to multiply matrices 🙂
alright then id always try to work within 2x2 matrices. do you know what kinds of transformations 2x2 matrices can 'look' like/represent?
well, this definitely counts as LA in the book and is marked as such 🙂
you see, all the ones that deal with matrices are marked with "#"
in previous chapter
so I suspect that there is a solution to my problem without matrices
does anyone know any?
I can see that previous he introduces three types of examples: any 2x2 matrices (with non-zero determinant), matrices with det=1, and matrices of type ( (a b) (-b a) )
I suspect that the first two correspond to some kind of GL and SL, and the third one I don't know
GL_2, SL_2 and the complex numbers
but all those examples are marked with "#"
right, maybe I should just experiment with those matrices and see what I can get
Consider the group of permutations of the rationals, the subgroup ||that fixes everything except the integers, ||and the ||permutation given by doubling||
or just do BS(1, 2) /hj
More seriously free groups generally aren’t introduced until much later
yes, free groups are not introduced yet
this is a chapter about normal and quotient groups
ok nvm this isnt correct
Any module with 1 is cyclic right
wdym by 1?
Say the module is a ring with 1
Not necessarily, consider k[x] as a k module
well if you take R as an R module and R has unit then yeah
but thats not saying anything
But we define a cyclic module as { rm | r in R} no ?
so the cyclic module generated by 1 here will be k =/= k[x]
I think if you try to formalise what you mean by “ring with 1” you’ll probably end up with something basically trivially equivalent to being cyclic, or that fails to k[x] (possibly quotiented out by x^n)
Hmmm
Ok but lets say i have cosets G/A as a G module
Then g/a is cyclic if g contains one right ?
Since surely
1+A is our cyclic generator
a module does not contain a "1" element
G/A are G-sets, not G-modules
if you mean to take the quotient ring R/A of a ring R with unity as an R module then it is cyclic (as you said with generator 1 + A), and all cyclic R modules look like this
Hint: ||first find such an example with a general automorphism rather than a conjugation, i.e., find a group G, a subgroup H and an automorphism f of G such that f(H) ⊊ H. Then use a semidirect product to embed G in G' such that f comes from a conjugation in G'.||
Sure since its a group
It is actually a good idea to start from H.
There's another fun example given by a standard example of ||an embedding of the free group on countably many generators in the free group on 2 generators||, but I don't think that solution is very motivated.
a module contains a 0 element
the additive identity
the identity of the group structure is the 0 element
Sure but we in a sense construct a module from a ring it can contain the element that woukd act like 1 if the module was a ring
well I guess that's just the definition of a cyclic module
and then it's isomorphic to R/I
I think the most accessible example is probably ||affine functions i.e. f(x) = ax + b with a and b rational, and a=/=0||
There is a theorem that states
Is this what people mean by fundamental theorem of pid?
Or is that smth else
Ye or like fundamental theorem of finitely generated modules over a PID
I see and it includes uniqueness right
Which ig is not mentioned above
Yes, though this is sort of easy
Easy for oxford phd
No I mean this uniqueness is a like paragraph at the end of the proof
The existence is the hard part
I see my lecture notes spends some time developing notation ad terminology for the uniqueness bit
Hence why its not in the original statement
I usually call it "the structure theorem", or "the structure theorem of finitely generated modules over a PID"
Man i am dying in my algebra class with these 30 step proofs
The proof can be a bit involved. Are you doing it through Smith normal form?
At least proof seems more doable than smith normal form ig
It uses some linear algebra ideas. I dont have good grasp of
Well, once you have smf the rest of the proof is basically done, no?
They use stuff with linear basis idk
My lin alg is too trash for this
bro is doing module theory with trash linear algebra
Eh tbh this is the first time i got stunped due to lin alg
In my 12th lecture
So it seems alr i just need to get through it
And after this and 3 more lecs no algebra for a long (potential infinite time?)
what a sad existence that must be...
depends on the person
Nah topology is where math gets fun
topology is fun ngl
More fun than algebra
Wait till you hear about algebraic topology
I was planning on taking it next year but got convinced not to
I think that depends a lot, but I guess hatcher likes the "just imagine the homotopy" type thing
Yeah i am screwed
if i do algebraic topology
I'm not sure that's a good reason not to take it, but maybe you have other fun stuff you want to do
i can't decide between wanting to branch out and take introductory courses in other fields or go hard and specialize
i think latter could help more with career
former might be more fun
The advice i've recieved is during undergrad try to get breadth in a lot of fields and depth in (atleast) one specific one
by end of this year i would have 2 courses in algebra, 2 courses in mesure, 1 course in top
i have one more year
hmm
if i really like mt i think i'll go down mt probability route
if someone says topology is fun i assume they mean algebraic topology
in a direct product of groups, every group is normal?
They are the kernel of projections
So yes
What are the conditions on U and V for G to be isomorphic to U × V ?
Got this warning on Amazon for one of Abstract algebra textbooks! 📚
It must be very energising or something ⚡️
Tell me if is this right: i have the short exact sequence 0→Zn→Zn²→Zn→0 and i have to find all n such that this splits. I know about a theorem that such graphs split (for abelian groups like i have) iff there is isomorphism between Zn² and Zn x Zn such that the graph commutes. I know that Zn x Zm is isomorphic to Znm iff (n,m)=1 and therefore there isnt any n.
this never splits
if I'm interpreting everything right
n=1
n=0, though?
n=0 this is 0 -> Z -> Z -> Z -> 0 which does not split
I have that n≥1
Ah, I somehow thought I saw a bunch of ^ that weren't there. Ignore the n=0 quip.
So, the explanation yet is ok?
but we can prove it directly?
U inter V ={e}, G=UV and U and V commute
Though tbf it would be interesting if you asked about 0 -> Z/nZ -> Z/nZ x Z/nZ -> Z/nZ -> 0 but where the maps aren't the standard ones
But then splitting lemma
abelian groups are too easy 😔
but yeah this explanation makes sense
This is the only case
Exactly
just ig you have to account for the trivial n=1 case
Mfw Z/n is selfinjective
Nice, thanks 🙏🏿
Gotem
Hmm, I haven’t got to semiproducts yet. But I can try to use the first part of your hint
Yes?
Well, I tried to look at those basic examples of 2x2 matrices, i.e taking GL_2 as a group and SL_2 as a subgroup but then it’s normal
If G = U x V then V is the kernel of the homomorphism
U x V -> U
So not getting anywhere with matrices, I think I don’t have enough intuition about them to come up with something clever
Free groups haven’t been introduced yet
Right, I looked at ax+b functions as a group, but didn’t consider rational coefficients! Let me see what changes then…
Hm, this is interesting, I’ll try. For now I still don’t fully grasp why rationals should be involved in those examples!
Thank you all for the hints!
Rationals is just a nice way to describe…
This sort of construction
Of which this example is a special case (the BS(1, 2) one)
What is BS(1, 2)?
Haven’t seen this before
If you know what this notation means: <a, b | bab^-1 = a^2>
If you don’t, then it’s pretty hard to explain
Yeah, generators and relations
Then that’s your G, H is <a>, and the element you’re conjugating by is b
It should be intuitively obvious why that example works (it’s basically by construction that b<a>b^-1 = <a^2> which is a strict subset of <a>)
Cool. So BS(1, 2) is a general notation to describe that group with generators and relations?
2 Because of a^2?
okay tnx
Yeah
They’re very useful for counterexamples to all your dreams
I wonder if someone should write a book “Counterexamples in group theory”
Like similar books for topology and real analysis
oh these are cool. They're like C_n \rtimes C_m but woke
They’re the HNN extensions of Z over itself
HNN?
Higman-Neumann-Neumann
Everyone calls them HNN extensions
I mean I can see how they're kind of Z \rtimes Z with different actions
They’re extensions which are essentially “add an extra element making two specified isomorphic subgroups with a specified isomorphism conjugate”
Is this the right channel to ask about topological groups
Probably
So I’ve been trying to figure out what special properties topological groups have compared to arbitrary topological spaces
It seems a big one is that you have a family of automorphisms for free, given by left or right multiplication by a group element
connected components are particularly nice for topological groups I believe
since the connected component of the identity is a subgroup, and then all of the other components will just be cosets
so in particular I guess you could say all the connected components are homeomorphic
Yeah it seems that there’s a lot of homogeneity present
and yeah the automorphism groups acts transitively
Lemme think about why the connected component of the identity is a subgroup
its a very nice argument
Hm so first
Inversion is a continuous map
So it sends connected spaces to connected spaces
So the connected component of the identity is closed under inverses
the fundamental grouo is also abelian
another fun argument is showing that every discrete normal subgroup of a connected topological group is in the center
Ok maybe you can do
The map (a, b) -> a b^-1 is continuous
If C is the connected component of the identity, then C x C is connected
So the image under that map is also connected
yeah
And contains the identity
Hence is a subset of C
Is that enough to show C is a subgroup?
yeah since its closed under multiplication and inversion
Any topological group is uniformisable and therefore completely regular (a point can be separated from a closed set not containing it by a continuous function to the real numbers).
oh yeah the uniform structure is important
The uniform structure?
it allows you define things like uniform continuity
I have a hunch this may be as good as it gets, i.e., any (T0) completely regular topological space is a topological group, but I don't know for sure at all.
uniform structure essentially gives you a way of comparing open sets at different points roughly
and a top group you can do this by translation
Ooh
tbh the definition of a uniform space is totally unhinged and I still don't really know what it is 
but the way it manifests in topological groups/vector spaces is quite intuitive I find
Oh yes.
This is probably absurd; ignore it.
yeah u need a lot more qualities
The empty space would like a word
Reminds me of a fun exercise I made for a group theory course:
Define a group as a set with an associative binary operation and inverse such that
b^-1 b a = a = a b b^-1
Part 1: show that this is equivalent to the usual definition.
Part 2: show that you actually made a mistake in part1, there is a "group" satisfying this definition and not the usual one.
reminds me of heaps
I want to check if I’ve proven this property of topological groups correctly
Let $G$ be a topological group, $N$ a normal subgroup
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Consider the quotient group $G / N$ given the quotient topology
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then the quotient map $q : G \to G / N$ is open
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I think this works because, if $U$ is an open subset of $G$, $q^{-1}(q(U)) = UN = \bigcup_{n \in N} Un$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yep
Then since right multiplication by any group element is a homeomorphism, Un is open for every n
Also holds if the subgroup isn't normal
Oh right, yeah
of course then G/H is just a topological space
But still comes up a lot in the theory
Hence q^-1(q(U)) is an open subset of G
So q(U) is open, as reauited
Yep exactly
Yeah I’m currently trying to show that G/N is a topological group
And want to figure out an efficient way to do so
Hm maybe it'd be good to show that product of open maps is open
see #point-set-topology lol
just posted a proof attemtp in #1388211506314870824 if you want to check it out
Ye I was memeing cause I said yes there before coming here and understanding aha
If R is a commutative ring and $f \in R[x]$ i want to show that if f is a zero divisor, there's some a in R s.t. af = 0
sudo
my current thoughts are that:
if g(x)*f(x) = 0, we know the leading coefficient of g, c gives us
f'(x) = cf(x) where deg f' < deg f
and f' is a zero divisor as well or its zero (in which case we're done)
so c^n f(x) = 0 for some c
but i'm not sure how we can avoid the problem of c possibly being nilpotent
anyone have any hints?
Yay, verified that this one indeed is a good example for my problem. aHa^-1 is a subset of H (because it still moves only integers), but H still has some elements that are not representable in aHa^{-1} form, for example a permutation (12) can’t be represented, because any aHa^-1 form would send 1 to 0.5 and then it’s fixed and then multiplied by 2, so we always have 1 -> 1
Yeah
(Fwiw this was an exercise in my first year groups course that I didn’t get, and that either is, or is very similar to, the example I was given)
I see. For me this exercise is quite tough, probably the most difficult from all the exercises from Herstein that I tackled so far (and it’s like 30 or so…). Not sure why it doesn’t even have a star…
oh nvm i figured it out
Now I need to connect the dots to that BS(1, 2) stuff. I can’t see yet how I can generate all permutations of rational numbers from just two generators
You can’t
It’s a subgroup of the permutations of the rationals
Right, but what part BS(1, 2) plays in this construction that you suggested? It’s not G, and it doesn’t look like H either…
It doesn’t
You can get BS(1, 2) as a “minimal subgroup” of (a slight edit of) my example
Where by “minimal” I mean something more like “minimal subject to satisfying the condition”
I see, got it. So basically instead of using “mappings that move only integers” I could use this BS(1, 2) for some generators satisfying that relation and still get everything working for my example, right?
Yeah
Cool, thank you!
for 8, it's mostly routine except for division
For division, you want to think about how you can simplify a fraction with radicals
Thank you , but I don’t know how to solve it by myself
7 it's a bit unclear what is meant by analyze to be honest
Just do binary operation on it
Like prove it’s closed, associative , inverse and identity
Element
as in are you trying to show it is or isn't a group? Ah ok
Just to prove whether or not it’s a group
For most of those you just need to write out the definitions and calculate
Though I suspect it's not actually a group
actually no I think it should be fine
but associativity takes a bit of thinking at one step
So I'm not entirely sure what they're looking for in 7.
But it is possible to write this group as a (semidirect) product of subgroups, and those subgroups will be isomorphic to something familiar.
A good place to start is probably to describe the cyclic submodules
What about 8.?
have you tried just doing the calculations to check the axioms?
The fact that it's a subset of R means you don't need to check things like associativity and distributivity. Just that it's closed under multiplication, addition, subtraction and division
For division you might start assuming
1/(a + bsq5) = c + dsq5 and see if there are any c and d that make that true
Thank you
||Z |x C2 ? right||
Yes, aka ||infinite dihedral group||
Another fancy related name is apeirogon, a polygon with infinitely many sides.
||The infinite dihedral group is the symmetry group of the regular apeirogon||
A thing that can actually exist -- and be regular -- in the hyperbolic plane.
groups exam next week and i'm so stressed
i can't do the most simple stuff 😭
like with this, i know that if H is a subgroup then |H| = p
so H must be cyclic
but then how do i even count for the direct product
i've been looking at smaller examples
I mean, it exists in the euclidean plane as well, it's just that all the angles are 180 degrees
and know that if I have a generator (a,b) then it generates the same group as (ck,dk)
hmmm
I feel like its easier to just say its the symmetry group of the integers :P
But then the symmetry group would be larger.
was that to me?
nvm
😭
nah I mean about infinite sided polygons
No you still have to take vertecies to vertecies.
(so it's just isometries of Z)
so yeah you know that every nontrivial element generates a group of order p, so all you have left to do is think about the possible overlap between subgroups
which is what makes me wanna cry
so what happens if you have two subgroups generated by a single element that have nontrivial overlap?
the subgroups are equal
yeah so if you've shown that, then you're basically done
Hmm, that feels like a bit of an extraneous requirement compared to just "isometries that preserve this subset of the plane".
you just need to do some counting to finish the argument
which is the hard part
its not too bad really, each subgroup gives you p-1 non-identity elements
yeah
and then the entire group has p^2-1 non-identity elements
yeah
so can you see how to finish easily from that
It is the same requirement, but "the subset" is the set of vertecies
because all cyclic subgroups are disjoint, then we have p+1 cyclic subgroups?
yep
bruh
well disjoint except the identity to be precise
lemme marinate that in my head
yeah
But usually the subset is the polygon as drawn in the plane.
Not really. Usually one talks about the symmetries of a polygon by how it acts on the vertices
Like both work, but if you think about the whole polygon then things both get somewhat complicated and infinite, and also doesn't generalize well
Besides if you just think about it as a line, then it's not really much of an apeirogon anymore anyway
You need the information that distinguishes vertecies from edges
By lagrange's theorem we have that for a subgroup H, |H| | p^2 which implies that |H| must be p in order to be non trivial.
So in a group of prime order, no two different cyclic subgroups can have overlap because say for sake of contradiction if they did (call the generators p and q), then we have p^a = q^b for some a,b. Since our group is of prime order, then q^b=p^a must generate the same subgroup as p and q , which results in <p> = <q>
Disregarding the identity element, these subgroups are disjoint and their union must be the group. We have p-1 elements disregarding the identity in each subgroup and we have p^2 - 1 total elements in our group. So, the number of possible subgroups are (p^-1)/p-1 = p+1.
sounds good @noble nexus ?
Hence why I feel it works better in the hyperbolic plane.
It also works in the hyperbolic plane sure
(And that also neatly disposes of the question whether it should count as a separate symmetry to mirror-flip the entire plane across the line, given that it's the identity when restricted to the figure itself -- no matter whether we're considering the line or just the vertices).
this is not a useful comment for your homework/your exam prep but perhaps an interesting perspective.
Z/p is also a field, so you can have vector spaces over it. so Z/p x Z/p is a two dimensional vector space, and a proper nontrivial subgroup here has to be a one-dimensional subspace, which is just a line passing through the origin. but such a line is uniquely determined by its slope.
then there are p possible choices of slope (if it helps, compare it to R^2, where just picking a real number m uniquely gives you the line y = mx), and an additional one for the undefined (directly vertical) slope, which gives p+1 lines.
oh yeah
that is a really cool insight
thank you very much i appreciate it
(In particular, the dihedral group of a 2-gon ought to have 4 elements, so its elements cannot be distinguished by how they permute the vertices).
how do you spot that a proper nontrivial subgroup here has to be a one-dimensional subspace
yep
subgroups and subspaces are the same thing over finite fields
the next question looks like hell 😭 i only learnt about orbits in lectures like a week ago and it's coming up in an exam
gonna try do it rn
because multiplication by an element in the finite field is the same thing as repeated addition
yep
hmmm so far I got that the klein-4 group is one of the subgroups in a unique orbit
since conjugations don't change cycle shape, I would think that gHg^-1 = K for all g in S4
what do you mean by the klein 4 group
{e, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)}
aha
transpositions have order 2
so
we also know that H must have 4 elements
so it's the groups that are generated by two different transpositions
i.e. {e, (12), (34), (12)(34)}, {e, (13), (24), (13)(24)}, {e, (14), (23), (14)(23)}, {e, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)}
that is 4 subgroups
and i am tyring to find the S4 orbits of these
hope you guys don't mind me talking to myself
would love some advice on other ways of thinking if there are any though
ah so i think one orbit would be {e, (12), (34), (12)(34)}, {e, (13), (24), (13)(24)}, {e, (14), (23), (14)(23)
the other orbit would be {e, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)}
check the answer and i'm right but how would i know if there are any more sets H 😭
If it contains (12), then every other element is a transposition commuting with (12) (and similar for (13), (14)), so the only other possible elements in the group are (34), (12)(34), and those form a group
If it contains no single transposition, it must consist of e and the three double transpositions, and that works
Hmm, maybe I'm being slow, but doesn't this argument work for Z/p^2 too (for which the conclusion is not true)? Where are you using the fact that it's Z/p x Z/p?
“And we have p^2 - 1 elements in our group” the assumption that all choices work is where they differ
So Z/p x Z/p isn't cyclic, or that each element has order p is what is being used
Oh yeah, the union of all p-subgroups in Z/p x Z/p is the whole group, which is not true in Z/p^2, right?
All the size-p subgroups
(I would typically interpret p-subgroups as subgroups which are also p-groups)
tfw p-subgroup versus sub-p-group
The composition factors of a subgroup of a finite group need not be a sub(multi)set of the composition factors of the group, right?
But this does need to hold for normal subgroups and quotient groups?
OK, obviously. IDK why I asked. Mb
Basic question, if I have a group (Z, +), is <1> a generator for the entire group, or do I need to include -1 as well?
1 alone is a generator
1 is a generator for the entire group.
-1 alone is also a generator
That is, the smallest subgroup that contains 1 is the entire group.
you can include both but this is redundant
yeah thats fair, in general <a> refers to all powers of a, positive or negative
nothing about the group being infinite is relevant here
(or 0, getting the identity)
if you look at a generator as forwardly applying this argument to the identity, then you'd generate 0, 1, 2, 3, ... but never generate the negatives. This was my concern. If you can also use the inverse element of 1, that changes things and allows access to the negatives.
yes but you're talking about groups
the free group on one generator is Z, the free monoid on one generator is N
yes, I understand that one has access to the inverse element now, but I didn't a moment ago.
i guess to be more precise, <a> is meant to be the smallest (sub)group containing a, which implies existence of inverses
any such group can always be thought of as the codomain of a surjective homomorphism from the free group on a one-element set {a}, which is a bunch of words to refer to the group of all positive and negative "powers" of a. the free group is like the "least informative group possible" that encodes a group structure for one element
whatever you get after applying the homomorphism will still ensure that those inverse powers exist in some form, just maybe equivalent to other existing elements of the codomain
bump (I got curious about this again)
More precisely, examples of such finite groups with arbitrarily large numbers of composition factors.
Is that result when R has no unity?
no because that's an exercise in atiyah's commutative algebra book (which assumes all rings are unital commutative)
I thought prime is equivalent to maximal in commutative rings
(0) in Z
one hint is that: ||show that the nilradical equals the jacobson radical (because otherwise there is a prime ideal which is not maximal)|| if i remember correctly
Yeah my bad I sorely misremembered a theorem in d&f
Maximals are prime no matter the ring, but not vice versa
youre thinking of dimension 0 rings
Dw it's fine
One thing that is true is like many rings that appear are "dimension 1 domains", which equivalently means the zero ideal is the only non-maximal prime
nuh uh
take a small enough nonprime quotient of a dim 2 integral domain
Fixed lol good catch
(for example: Z)
I proved for commutative ring with unity but now I am wondering for ring without unity
Let p be a prime ideal and x an element that is not contained in p.
Then for all y
x * (x^n-1 y - y) = 0 is in p, means that x^n-1 y - y is in p. Hence x^n-1 is a multiplicative identity in A/p.
From there you can reason the same as the unital case
Ah great, thank you
Let V4 = {1, a, b, ab}, G a group, and
B = {(g, h) ∈ G × G | g^2 = 1 = h^2, hg = gh}.
Show that the function
ψ : Hom(V4, G) → B : f → (f(a), f(b)) is a bijection (first show that the function is well-defined).
What are you stuck at?
like the meaning of Hom(V4, G) → B
ψ takes a homomorphism V4 -> G and gives you an element of B, namely it returns the pair where the components are the images of a, b in V4
Non-commutative algebra when?
thats literally 5he rest of algebra
Any hint on this exercise: let 0→A→B→C→0 be a short exact sequence of free finitely generated free abelian groups. Show that rank(A)+rank(C)=rank(B)
use the fact that the sequence must split, as C is free (and hence projective)
Alternatively, show that the rank of a free Abelian group G is the same as the Q-dimension of Q (x) G, whence this is just rank-nullity
Why is this true
if you have a surjection r : B → C where C is free generated by x1,...,xn then you can choose b1, ..., bn such that r(bi) = xi and this will be a section
A section is just a left or right inverse of a map f?
these techniques feel a little heavy handed for the level of course i'd imagine this question to be asked for, you can just take a maximal generating set for A and C, and choose their images/preimages in B, and grind out independence and maximality
minimal generating set btw
maximal is just all of A and C
oh derp yeah
Whence
What, without asking, hither hurried whence?
And, without asking, whither hurried hence!
Another and another Cup to drown
The Memory of this Impertinence!
Mathematicians be talkin like its 1492
Yes that was the thought. But then is it necessary any info for B like the free finitely generated?
hey can someone do a quick sanity check for me, R is a flat Z module right
Yes
Z is a PID so flat is equivalent to torsion free
Or you can see that Z -> R factors through Q, and Z -> Q is flat cuz localization and Q -> R is flat cuz a field
Tyty
By definition (1 2) sends 1 to 2
This is what the notation means, its the transposition between 1 and 2 in S3
Let I be the ideal in $\mathbb{Z}_2[x]$ generated by $x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1$. Prove that $\mathbb{Z}_2[x]/I$ is a field with 16 elements
hiidostuff
so the fact that I is maximal follows from the irreducibility of the polynomial its generated by
but im confused how this field doesnt have 32 elements
Lol I was confused what you meant by R initially
im looking ahead at my algebra final and the question im asking is stuff we havent covered yet but its fairly intuitive i feel
i was thinking of creating a ring homomorphism from Z2[x] into Z2^5
that just spits out the 5-tuple of elements in Z2 that are the opposite of the coefficients of the 0-4 degree terms
so for example x^4 + x^2 + 1 would map to (0,1,0,1,0)
but that homomorphism would be surjective
It doesn't have kernel I
how so
oh wait
x^5 + x^4 + ... + 1 is in the kernel
wdym
divide what by x^4 + ... + 1
oh wait i think i see what you mean
youre saying that any polynomial mod x^4 + ... + 1 is a degree 3 polynomial
so there is more than one dual of A?
because one can consider Hom(A,Z_m) for any exponent m of A and there infinitely many such m
Exercise: they’re all canonically isomorphic
(hint: prove the isomorphism for an arbitrary exponent m and the smallest exponent m0. The isomorphism between two arbitrary exponents will then follow)
i have no idea on how to proceed
So taking the smallest exponent m0, we want an isomorphism
Hom(A, Z/mZ) -> Hom(A, Z/m0 Z)
So take f \in Hom(A, Z/mZ)
What is the image of f?
More specifically, ||if x is in the image of f, what is m0 x?||
to Hom(A, Z/m0Z)
I can’t type 🙃
i havent read the spoiled part, but perhaps the answer you are looking for is that im f is a cyclic subgroup of order >= |A| or something like that?
Not quite
I’m looking for “contained in a cyclic subgroup” but that’s not the order
ohhh ok
well f(m_0x)=f(0)=0
Yup
also since m_0 is the smallest exponent of A then m_0 is in fact the order of A right?
False
ohh lol
Z/2Z x Z/2Z is of exponent 2
ok so for any k in Z/mZ, write k=qm_0+r where 0=<r<m_0 and q>=0. Then for any f in Hom(A,Z/mZ), f(kx)=f(rx). This means that all values of f are determined by its restriction on Z/m_0 Z
but ah i dont think that really explains the fact Hom(A, Z/m_0 Z) and Hom(A,Z/mZ) are isomorphic, does it? I am probably still missing details (assuming that what i said is even true)
well we know that m0 divides m, so there is a unique subgroup of Z/mZ isomorphic to Z/m0Z. Then the only thing you have to show is that every homomorphism from A to Z/mZ must have its image in that subgroup
given f in Hom(A, Z/mZ) and x in A, m_0f(x)=f(m_0x)=0 so |f(x)|=<m_0 and f(x) in Z/m_0 Z?
Hence im f is a subset of Z/m_0 Z
is that right?
if by |f(x)| you mean the order of f(x) then yes
yes thats what i meant by it
because the unique copy of Z/m0Z in Z/mZ is { x ∈ Z/mZ | m0x = 0 }
yes then youre correct!
took me too long 
bro it was there all the time
tysm .enpeace and micose, have a great day/night
Hello. My algebraic structures professor has defined the biyection group as the group whose elements are biyections of a set X. He has defined the composition operation like this, flipping the order:
$f \cdot g = g \circ f$
which is very confusing for me since we've learned about more complex structures that flip the order of the functions. Is this normal? Would you suggest I get used to it or to write it the other way around (since it would also work)
dp
the convention usually is that, for functions f and g we denote f ∘ g as the function sending x to f(g(x))
yeah, he follows that convention
that's the confusing part for me, $(f\cdot g)(x) \neq (f \circ g)(x)$
dp
yeah because he is probably old fashioned
its an annoying convention youll probably have to get used to
Is this convention out of fashion?
ok, thanks :)
I'll get used to it and pray the next professor doesn't change it back
Wow now I feel guilty
Don't worry too much about it
I always right fg for f circ g in groups
It just bothers me so much since last year we did it the other way around, but I'm sure I'll get used to it :)
well you begin to treat them as abstract groups and then it really doesnt matter
What is the reason of fig 5? Is it a true visualization of the homomorphism? i dont understand rly
Look into « universal covering spaces » and related concepts
If you imagine the circle in the x-y plane, and you spiral R above it in the z direction, then yeah the homomorphism is given by projection onto the first two coords
The cool thing about the diagram is that, by choosing a small neighbourhood around a point of the circle, you can look at it’s preimage by phi. The result is visibly a countably infinite discrete copy of « a single » preimage
As in, the preimage of the neighbourhood is « all of the points that are directly above it », and what you see is a countably infinite amount of « copies » of your original neighbourhood
Here
So \mathbb{R} is shaped like a helix in the diagram to make it intuitively clear that it satisfied the necessary conditions for a covering space (i.e. the whole, preimage of neighbourhood is a discrete set of copies of the neighbourhood, up to homeomorphism)
This seemingly random covering space property turns out to be extremely powerful
tnx
wow very intresting thank u
this is so epic
quick question: for each n, the natural homomorphism
f_n: G/H_n->G/H_{n-1} is the one that sends each coset xH_n to the coset xH_{n-1} for all x in G?
Yeah
i see tysm
Honestly IDK about this. I have been reading a book that was inconsistent about these things (including whether Graph(f) = {(x, f(x))} or {(f(x), x)} for f a certain automorphism) and it slowed me down a lot sometimes.
For primary decompositions, if p contains I then p is associated/belongs with I right? Its the radical of a qi in its decomposition
Im not sure if its that or like only if p is a minimal prime containing I, then its associated to I and a minimal one
Not every prime ideal containing I is an associated prime of I. For example, if I is prime, its only associated prime should be I, but I need not be maximal.
I think Vakil has a good explanation for how to think about associated primes pictorially. At least, it should make it straightforward to guess what the associated primes of an ideal (at least of a polynomial ring) are, however much work you have to do to prove that afterwards.
Can somebody hoelp me see why this is true
A general element in k' = B'/m' = B[x]/m' is the image of p(x) for some polynomial p with coefficients in B; check that the image of p(x) in k' is \overline{p}(x), where \overline{p} takes the coefficients of p modulo m.
Well, the inclusion of B in B' induces a homomorphism from k = B/m to k' = B'/m' (which is an embedding since k is a field and k' is non-trivial). This is technically not "true as sets": k is not equal to a subring of k', but isomorphic to a subring of k'. But apart from this identification, it is an equality of sets: k' = k[\overline{x}] where the latter denotes the subring of k' generated by the image of k and \overline{x}. Note that you have to use the identification to make sense of the RHS in the first place.
Are they just saying that the embedding from k -> k' induces an isomorphism from k[\overline{x}] -> k'
I think I need to read the proof again lol
Oh waittt
We embed k into k' (say i(k)) then we simply take i(k)[x]
Are fields Artinian and Noetherian since they have no proper ideals
yes
If you are interpreting k[\overline{x}] as the polynomial ring over k, then no. If it's the subring of k' generated by the image of k and \overline{x}, then yes (and this a set-theoretic equality).
funnily enough, I've looked today at J. S. Milne's lecture notes on Group Theory and he introduces this example - that I was looking for as part of Herstein's exercise - right after the definition of normal groups!
What are good resources to introduce oneself on p-adic definitions and properties, and also the general concept of the I-adic rings?
I liked Gouvea's textbook for a first reading.
@knotty frigate -- was this the example that you had in mind, when you mentioned 2x2 matrices?
i didnt have one specific one in mind i was just trying to think of one
Thanks!
And do you know any resources on specifically I-adic rings or is this book a good introduction to that too?
The first 3 chapters of Local Fields by Serre (the rest go into class field theory) are also good, if more advanced and dense / technical to read.
By l-adic ring do you just mean finite extensions of ℚ_l, or something else?
No, like, the generalization of p-adic rings are I-adic rings where I is an ideal right? With all that thing about the completion and relation to topology
atiyah-macdonald has a chapter on completion
Thanks
Oh
I would suggest Serre
Unless your interest is more for algebraic geometry in which case maybe a commutative algebra textbook like Atiyah-MacDonald?
Like if you just want it to understand some dimension theory thing in algebraic geometry then any full book is probably overkill and part of a CA textbook would be better
Kind of basic question but: let G be a group and H a subgroup of G and K a normal subgroup of H. How are the G-sets G/K and G/H related? Obviously there's a surjective map from G/K to G/H with fibre H/K (but this is only canonical above the basepoint * = 1H). Does the normality of K give us anything more?
IG the stabilisers of the points of the fibre above any x are all the same, i.e., only depend on x, whereas in general they would be a conjugacy class of subgroups of Stab(x).
interesting question, I don't know of more that can be said
is there a typo here in the hint of ex. 1.15? I think since |h| < |g|, it should be n < m, not m < n
unless maybe we can let m = 0?
like what if |h| = 20, |g| = 21 (hypothetically, as this is in fact not possible)
are we writing |g| = 2^0 * 3 * 7 and |h| = 2^2 * 5, so m = 0, n = 2, and m < n ?
seems weird
actually, I guess one of m or n must be allowed to be 0, otherwise if |h| and |g| have no primes in common then there's no way to make sense of this
still feels weird that |h| is using the larger exponent of p
well if there is no such p, then any divisor of |h| is a divisor of |g|, right?
wait no i think this is not it too. I cant think straight today 
I'm not quite sure where those equations are coming from
all we're assuming is |h| < |g| and |h| does not divide |g|
and it sort of looks like he's using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
but it feels strange that |h| is the smaller one, yet it's got the bigger power of p
this should be the reason
well dont forget that there are also r and s
I guess if none of the primes of |h| are in |g|, then you pick any one of them and use m = 0
so if r is sufficiently smaller than s then you can probably have the power of p in |h| greater than that in |g|
yeah, I can see if we have like |h| = 2^3 * 5, and |g| = 2^2 * 17, then we can take m = 2, n = 3, p = 2
I was just getting confused about if that sort of comparison isn't possible
but m = 0 is the way out
Do you mean like if p divides one of |h| but doesnt divide |g|?
if yes then what you said is exactly right!
sweet, thankee
suppose |h| < |g| and |h| does not divide |g|.
- if |h| has a prime factor p not appearing in the prime factorization of |g|, then take m = 0 and n to be maximal such that p^n divides |h|
- if |h| has all the same prime factors as |g| but |h| does not divide |g|, what would happen if all the prime powers of |h| had exponents at most those of |g|?
oh looks like you figured it out
Given a group G acting on a set X, a G-invariant subset U of X is a union of disjoint orbits, just partition U with the relation x~y iff x and y have the same orbit, then use the axiom of choice to pick exactly one element from each equivalence class. These will have disjoint orbits and the union of their orbits will be U.
Is there any proof of this fact without the axiom of choice?
What is your definition of orbit?
To sorta strengthen what Raghuram said, what is the fact you want to prove?
The orbit of x is the set {gx|g in G}
I basically cannot see a way of interpreting that that is not tautological
Maybe some helpful points are 1) Xis irrelevant, wlog U = X and 2) an orbit is then by definition an equivalence class under this relation
So you want to prove that there exists a subset S of U such that {orbit(x) : x in S} partitions U?
Not by their definition, which is why I asked. 
Well specifically I want to prove there is a set of points of U, each of whose orbits are disjoint from the others, without choice. Sorry if I phrased it poorly 
Well like x ~ y iff they are in the same orbit by definition of ~
They mean S -> orbits: x -> orbit(x) is a bijection
Reading back I definitely phrased it poorly
Or if you like a transversal for the orbit space
yeah sorry
I think in general this is equivalent to the Axiom of Choice. I haven't proved this fully (i.e. that this would imply the full Axiom of Choice), but a sample weaker version: suppose S is a set and for every x in S, A_x is a set of size 2. Then let the cyclic group of order 2 act on the union of A_x by non-trivially permuting each A_x. Your choice of elements would be equivalent to choosing an element from each A_x simultaneously.
Choice is equivalent to being able to pick a set of representatives for any equivalence relation. Given an equivalence relation on a set X, consider the action which permutes elements within each equivalence class.
Oh just product of symmetric group on each equivalence class?
😂
Got to think bigger
But okay sorry I misunderstood the question
Ic, thank y’all!
Though I guess maybe there is the amusing thing of like
identity
Yeah that was stuoid
Don't infect group theory with your non-canonical-ness /s
We can write down all the elements
