#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 361 of 1
Could I have a hint for showing that the powers of $(x_1, \dots, x_m)$ are primary? I am now fixing $k$ and letting $f$ be a zero divisor in $k[x_1, \dots, x_n]/(x_1, \dots, x_m)^k$. Then there is $g$ with $fg \in (x_1, \dots, x_m)^k$. Hence $f$ is not a polynomial in $x_j$ for $m < j \leq n$, and so $f \in (x_1, \dots, x_m)$. So $f^k \in (x_1 ,\dots, x_m)^k$. Does this work? I just don't see where we would use Exercise 7 but seems fine to me...
okeyokay
I feel like "hence f is not a polynomial in xj" is doing some lifting.
Are you thinking about writing down f explicitly or are you having some other argument in mind?
Well I considered two approaches
The first approach was what I just posted but it's kind of hand wavy
The second approach was induction on the power
Or induction on the number of variables
And I kind of got stuck on that
Anyway, you can prove this pretty quickly by using that powers of maximal ideals are primary and applying 7iii
Yeah that's the hint I got 😭
So you don't understand it or you want a different approach?
Well I thought about it for an hour and how it was useful
I know that powers of (x_1, \dots, x_n) are useful but I wasn't sure how to apply that to powers of (x_1, \dots, x_m)
Okay, so you can prove the result for m=n
Then you just apply 7iii and you get it for n=m+1, then induction it holds for all n>m
Hold up I'm confused I thought only (x_1, \dots, x_n) was maximal
You're my savior
I guess I forgot induction as well
I will think about how I can apply 7iii again 😂
Like to take an example.
You know that (x1)^r is primary in k[x1]. Then the statement of 7iii is precisely that (x1)^r is also primary in k[x1, x2].
And then applying 7iii again it's primary in k[x1, x2, x3]
And so on, induction
Bourbaki ?
Nah Atiyah Macdonald
2.4 has always kinda bothered me. Just always felt like random linear algebra magic
Maybe learning why adj(A)A=det(A)I would make me feel better but idk
This just follows from expanding the determinant
Anyway that identity is like the defining property of the adjugate matrix
I will try to remember like there is a nice geometric way to think about it lol
Okay maybe not quite geometric but still very cute
hmm interesting
I guess just like Cayley–Hamilton even in its usual form is kinda surprising (even if the proof is not too long or anything)
Hm
I should review cayley hamilton too
I mean like this is Cayley–Hamilton
Just in slightly more generality than normal
But like using the adjugate is used in some standard proofs of that in more or less this way I believe
(Though imo it is probably easiest to prove CH by reducing to triangular matrices)
The key is that it's non-random linear algebra magic.
The opposite of what you meant by random, i.e., that it's not arbitrary or unmotivated.
Why? It doesnt seem motivated to me
Just seems like write this equation in this way and then uh multiply by adjugate
My linear algebra class presented this as the complete proof but motivated that it’s massively unintuitive, but it also gave a kinda slightly bullshit intuitive proof, perhaps that’s of interest
It might help to first think about the case where M is free.
Then all you're doing is showing that a matrix satisfies it's characteristic polynomial, which should feel more familiar.
Then the general picture is just lifting the endomorphism of M along a surjection R^n -> M
But also with that being said I do think this is the easiest and clearest proof so maybe just dwell on it for a bit lol
Oh shit
I never realised that wow
That is really nice
I am having trouble showing that spec(A) is disconnected implies A is the direct product of nonzero rings. Does anyone have a hint?
My trouble is that I can write spec(A)=V(I_1)\cup V(I_2), disjoint and I want to use the Chinese remainder theorem, but I_1 \cap I_2 is contained in the nilradical and might not be zero. I was able to show that I_1 and I_2 are comaximal, though.
Ok so you know I + J = (1)
So take e \in I, f \in J such that e + f = 1
You also know ef is nilpotent
Can you modify your choice of e, f to some e’, f’ such that e’f’ = 0?
Hint: ||raise the equation e + f = 1 to a sufficiently high power, and divide the resulting terms on the lhs into two groups||
Hint 2: ||2n should work for your power, where (ef)^n = 0||
Ohhhh I see now! Thanks!
Though I don’t know if the second hint is correct. If (ef)^n=0, then we can take (e+f)^n. This will give us e^nf^n+ef* “other stuff”. We can subtract the “other stuff” to the other side and then 1-ef(…) is a unit say u. Then pick e’=u^-1e^n and f’=u^-1f^n.
Or maybe you had something else in mind with the hint.
In any case that was the little push I needed. Thank you!
I was going to errr
(e + f)^2n = (e^2n + … + (binomial) e^nf^n) + (the rest)
I believe an alternate proof is outlined in the exercises
This is what I used to see it
What theorem can this fact be attributed to: "If G is a finite cyclic subgroupof order n, then G has a unique subgroup of order m for each m dividing n."
Lagrange's theorem, but you would also have to show uniqueness which is specific to cyclic groups here
i dont know if there is a name for that
Oh I thought Lagrange is sort of the converse, that if H is a subgroup of G then the order of H divides G
That is lagrange yes
But it doesn't give existence of subgroups of given orders tho right
Idk if that theorem has a name but you do use lagrange in the proof
I would say that it is a corollary
Right, this is Cauchy for prime order
Claiming the subgroup of order m is unique goes beyond those statements, though. It needs to depend on the assumption that G itself is cyclic.
I'm trying to do a group theory general result test: Let $g\in G, G$ a group with order $|g|=d$. Then for $s\in\mathbb{N}, \langle g^s\rangle=\langle g^{\gcd(s, d)}\rangle$.
What I tried: It is sufficient prove the two generators have the same elements. On the one hand, since $|g^s|=\frac{|g|}{\gcd(d,s)}=d/\gcd(d,s)$, we write $\langle g^s\rangle={e,g^s,g^{2s},...,g^{d/\gcd(d,s)-1}}$. From the other hand, $|g^{\gcd(d,s)}|=\frac{d}{\gcd(d,\gcd(d,s)}$. We can prove that $\gcd(d,\gcd(d,s))=\gcd(d,s)$, so $|g^{\gcd(d,s)}|=|\langle g^s\rangle|=d/\gcd(d,s)$. Then, $\langle {g^\gcd(d,s)}\rangle={e,g^{\gcd(d,s)},...,g^{\frac{d}{\gcd(d,s)}-1}$. Now?
Can anyone give me a hint or any helpful proof?
schrysafis
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I think you can prove that sets <g ^ s> and <g ^ gcd(s,d)> are the same. To this end we can prove that sets of powers of g are the same modulo d. For that we need to show that each element from the left set corresponds to an element from the right set and vice versa. We know that cyclic groups consist of powers of their generator. || So all powers on the left will be of form s * n where n is integer. Then you can show that for each of those you can find a corresponding element on the right, i.e. to find a matching power m such that gcd(s, d) * m = s * n. Note that s can be represented as gcd(s, d) * k for some integer k (because any common divisor of s obviously divides s), so we have gcd(s, d) * m = gcd(s, d) * k * n. We can cancel gcd now from both sides and get m = k * n, so we found our m and it is an integer. So for each element from the left set, there is a corresponding element in the right set. You'll also need to prove in another direction. How about that? ||
Mm, in another direction it's actually trickier 🙂 Maybe I need a better proof!
It will help if you could write in latex
so you go about proving both inclusions
I'm tired now I'll try it tomorrow
Paste into gpt and ask gpt to lateX it
have you no dignity
Your dignity is as bad as ur music
well my music consists of only bangers so I'll take that as a compliment <3
Indeed they bang my eardrums💯 fr
i have to prove that a nonabelian group of order 21 has a unique composition series
but i honestly forget what it even means to have a unique comp series
no way i just got anki reacted by mq bru
i know that if we let T be that group
then $1 \unlhd Z_7 \unlhd T$
hiidostuff
What the heyl is that latex command
it means that every two compositions series are the same
well if Z3 and Z7 are normal then T = Z3 x Z7
would it just suffice to show that T only has one maximal simple normal subgroup
maximal normal subgroup
in this case yes
because it has only two composition factors
(namely Z3 and Z7)
yeah
so it just suffices to show that T has no normal subgroup of order 3
which is solved by the fact that |T| is only divisible by 3 once and so by properties of sylow subgroups, any subgroup of order 3 in T cant be normal
bc its conjugate to all the other subgroups of order 3 in T
and there must be more than one subgroup of order 3 as otherwise T would be abelian
yis
man
idk why but for some reason i suddenly have like nilpotence and solvability and all that in the bag
or just like group classification that you see in an intro alg course
that's good no?
yes very
its just nice to feel confident on stuff that was seemingly advanced
sometimes you forget what you were even struggling with in the first place
(why I'd probably make a horrible tutor)
true
hopefully one day i will see that with topology
today is not that day
topology, like category theory, is unreasonably effective
but to that end hopelessly abstract without good intuition
its beautiful but unfortunately it feels as if my prof is making it harder to understand it
i dont say that lightly because i dont like blaming professors but its bad
oh damb
how so?
we barely went over quotient spaces
as in i have a comfortable understanding with pretty must every topic in pointset except for quotient spaces
which is not good considering that many have told me theyre one of the most important concepts
my prof also doesnt really argue anything rigorously which makes understanding the nuts and bolts of topology take much longer than it does for any of my other courses
i also think our weekly quizzes are unreasonable in my opinion
for example were expected to answer a question like "the klein bottle minus one point is homotopic to the figure 8 space" in about 30 seconds to a minute after only having known about homotopy for 3 days
im assuming the answer can be reached intuitively by someone who understands homotopy but i dont feel as if i had enough time to settle with it in order to handle these problems
that sounds reasonable tbh
as in its reasonable that its true
not the question
30 seconds to a minute for that is crazy
yeah okay
its just so overwhelming
my intuition didn't fail me
I can imagine
I guess I'd imagine removing a points and blowing up the gap, but the klein bottle is alr hard to visualise
i mean i think i know how to construct it via quotients but i kinda forget how you have to orient the boundary of the unit square
i think its both factors having sides directed in different directions
smth like this
you spin me right round baby right round like a record baby round round-
lol exactly
i pretty much just took the mobius strip orientation but did it both ways
damn it seems i wasnt right
one of the sides has to be going the same way
hm
its been even more stressful as i have an exam on pointset on monday
and im just so unsure as it how ill do on it
To follow up on that, here is the proof in another direction, @proven stone:
Note that this part is where we actually use the fact that d = |G|, we didn't need it for another inclusion
Can smn give a light hint on showing that GL2(R) is isomorphic to R* x SL2(R)
Construct an isomorphism using the determinant
You need to find a subgroup of GL2(R) which is isomorphic to R* with only one element with det = 1
I don't think the "obvious" way of using the determinant here gives rise to a direct product when the dimension is even.
(Some cheek we have, trying to lecture Niels Henrik Abel on group theory!)
Yes i had the idea of sending a matrix A to (detA, A/(detA)^(1/n)) but it has some problems
In some sense it's much easier.
Like what is an obvious matrix with determinant r for a given r?
diag(r,1,1,1,..)
That's what I would answer too ... but that doesn't commute with SL(2,R).
Oh, I thought we were talking semidirect product
Is this even possible?
One idea might be to split R* up further as (0,infty) × {-1,1} and map one part to the squared magnitude of the determinant and the other to the sign.
That you have a surjective homomorphism from GL2(R) to SL2(R)
How do you find all the ideals of Z12?
So what are you sending -1 to in that description?
Because diag(-1, -1) is in SL2
It's a bit fuzzy for me yet.
My rough idea is that I can make the subgroup of matrices with positive determinant as a direct product of SL(2,R) and the subgroup of positive multiples of I -- and then wave my hands and say something like the subgroup has index 2, so it must be a direct factor. But I'm not sure of the exact argument for the second step.
But subgroups of index 2 aren't in general direct factors
Well, darn.
Hmm this answer says there is no surjective map so you can't have an isomorphism from GL2(R) to R*×SL2(R) because otherwise you should be able to restrict to the second component and get a surjective map from GL2(R) to SL2(R)
https://share.google/pDNXNiICN0is5zVb2
As a quotient of a principal ideal ring, Z/12Z is itself a principal ideal ring, so there are only 12 candidates to check.
im confused
You know what the elements of Z12 are, yes? Are you able to determine which ideals they generate?
By one of the isomorphism theorems, every ideal of Z/12Z is the projection of an ideal of Z, and all ideals of Z are principal, so every ideal in Z/12Z will be generated by a single element too.
In general, a good method for finding all the ideals of a ring starts by determining the principal ideals first anyway.
Then considering sums of them gives you everything
But how practical is the set of generators it gives you?
"The center of a group $G$ (denoted by $Z$) is defined to get the elements ${z_1, z_2, ...}$ that commute with all elements of $G$, that is $z_i g = g z_i$ for all $g$. Show that $Z$ is an abelian subgroup of $G$"
I have no idea how to proceed with the group ${z_1, z_2, ...}$
Absolute Chips
So... do you know the definition of subgroup and being abelian?
Have to satisfy the four axioms of the group, and abelian means commutative relationship holds
Alright, so are you able to show that the commutative relationship holds?
I'm just a bit confused by the element ${z_1, ...}$
Absolute Chips
They are just giving names to the elements
Because it doesn't seems like it's being finite or closed
Not sure how to show the set being closure
it need not be finite (or even countable), but it is closed. it is true that the numbering is a bit misleading
I'm still really new to this
So say x and y are such that
xg = gx and yg = gy for all g.
Then your goal is to show that
xyg = gxy
Such that $g_i g_j = g_k$?
Absolute Chips
if you are calling the elements of the center as g_x then yes you need to show g_i * g_j = g_k for some k. that is also the "goal" in the above message
I think I should say $z_i z_j = z_k$ instead
Absolute Chips
So exactly what i, j or k is not important. All you need is to show that
z_i z_j
satisfies the property of being in Z
Namely that it commutes with everything
First by proving Z is subgroup of G?
I'm not sure I understand what you're asking.
Showing that Z is closed is the first step in showing it is a subgroup yes
Hmm let me try it first
So is this it?
I thin its fine.
i thin so too
Lol
Not sure what the point of bringing in banana and pizza here is, but the answer is just
🍔[🌮]/(🌮^n+1)
🍔[🌮]/(🌮🔼🇳➕1️⃣)
And the bottom index for 🍌 and 🍕 should be 🥪, not🍔.
The whole line is messed up actually
technically uses group structure on elliptic curves so its indeed #groups-rings-fields stuff /hj
this just in! Homotopy theory is group theory!
How much fruit is too much fruit, and what does that have to do with elliptic curves? The answers are, respectively, 154476802108746166441951315019919837485664325669565431700026634898253202035277999, and a lot.
This is a contribution to the #MegaFavNumbers project, and a first venture into the world of educational videos for its creator, so ple...
So did u get anything about the isomorphism between GL2(R) and R* x SL2(R)
Asteroid found an MSE answer that argues it is not possible.
What makes you expect such an isomorphism ought to exist?
Hmm, this is the point where we generally ask to see a picture of the exercise, just to make sure you haven't misunderstood it.
Yep
what is R here?
arbitrary ring?
There isn't any instructions to go with it that could have been "prove or disprove" or "is this true"?
that isn't an exercise, that's a statement
There is a Show that out of this image
Hmm, so there must be a mistake either in the exercise or in the argument Asteroid linked to.
Ok thank u
It seems to me that they meant to write C instead of R
Or 3 instead of 2. Who knows?
But with induction we have to show first that the powers of (x_1) in k[x_1] are maximal right, we can't just start from the last case with all the variables
In any case I will just show that (x_1)^r is primary in k[x_1] like you said and then use induction like you said
I am still lost as to why we are first considering the powers of (x_1, \dots, x_n) (given that there are at most n variables) but everything else makes sense
Maybe I just got confused about the indexing
Yeah I think that was it
The powers of (x1) are not maximal... I don't understand what you mean.
Like the point is that
(x1, ..., xn) is maximal in k[x1, ..., xn], therefore its powers are primary.
Then you 7iii tells you that (x1, ..., xn)^k is also primary in k[x1, ..., xn, x_{n+1}]
Yeah I understand I just got confused about the indexing
I interpreted it as this: suppose n = 7 say. Then I was confused about why we were starting with the powers of (x_1, \dots, x_7) in k[x_1, \dots, x_7] when we should be starting with the powers of (x_1)
Anyways I understand now
Ty
I guess this also implies that (x_1, ..., x_m)^r [x_{m + 1}] = (x_1, ..., x_m)^r
within k[x_1, ..., x_{m + 1}]
Something like this: Fix $1 \leq i \leq n$. Then $k[x_1, \dots, x_n]/\mathfrak{p}i \cong k[x{i + 1}, \dots, x_n]$ is an integral domain. Hence, $\mathfrak{p}i$ is prime. Let any $r > 0$ and suppose that $m < n$. Then $(x_1, \dots, x_m)^r$ is primary in $k[x_1, \dots, x_m]$, for $\mathfrak{p}m = (x_1, \dots, x_m)$ is maximal in $k[x_1, \dots, x_m]$. If $A \coloneqq k[x_1, \dots, x_m]$, $k[x_1, \dots, x_m, x{m + 1}] = A[x{m + 1}]$. By 7iii, $\mathfrak{p}m^r[x{m + 1}] = \mathfrak{p}m^r \subset k[x_1, \dots, x{m + 1}] = A[x_{m + 1}]$ is primary. By induction, this completes the proof.
okeyokay
Hello perhaps a more general question: I am (re)learning basic group theory for a representation theory class.
I'm not used to the arguments because I am a mathematical physicist that does more analysis, hence I'm used to arguing with pictures where you can see that a property leads to a bound somewhere or sth similar.
How should I heuristically think of proofs where being coprime is an important property? Should I begin instinctively by contradiction and look for a divisor?
Probably the most important property of coprime integers is that they give you a resolution of the identity
This is one way I like to think about them, at least
The formal statement of what I mean is Bezout’s identity
Is there a proof you like that demonstrates this idea?
Proving Euclid’s lemma requires this
If d | ab and gcd(d, a) = 1, then d | b
i mean in algebra
Using Bezout you get integers x and y such that dx + ay = 1
So then bdx + ab y = b
d divides the LHS, so d divides the RHS
Perhaps it would be more targeted if you could point to an argument where "coprime" appears in a way that's surprising or unclear to you, and we'll see if we can find an intuition that works for you?
To be honest the reason I'm asking is because whenever I see it in the proofs in the lecture I can understand where it was used and how we got to the end result using it, but when I go to the exercises and it's a condition I blank out on how I'm supposed to use it
which is why I'm just looking for general ideas
where I can re-read the lecture notes with these ideas in mind
to try to build an intuition
I just don't really know how to deal with integers tbh
Can you show some exercises where you "blank out" then? I think we need something to hold on to; otherwise all we can do is blindly recite favorite facts about coprime numbers, which is not terribly likely to be helpful.
I think as a concrete example of the exercise I'm blanking out on now (I don't want a solution)
I am to show that if U,V are subgroups of G and their indices in G are coprime, G = UV.
I start with the examples:
The dihedral group is the product of the reflection and the rotations.
The cyclic group cannot be generated by a product of some subgroups (like, choose the subgroup with index 2 and index 4 in C_8 or sth)
But I don't see what's going on
constructing the examples didn't really teach me anything beyond "yeah that happened", which, from my experience elsewhere, isn't meant to be the case
I'm meant to learn something from it that will help me with the problem, but I can't figure it out
Hmm, what I would immediately think (no guarantee that it leads to a solution, though) is "it doesn't seem to be easy to use the coprime condition directly here, so I'll first try to prove it in contraposed form: if UV is not all of G, can I then show that the indices must have a common factor?"
And in order to connect UV to indices, my first idea would be that UV is a union of right cosets of V, but is also a union of left cosets of U.
Hmm, is G known to be finite such that it makes sense to calculuate with the sizes of cosets?
oh right sorry it says finite
lemme see are there any other words I've missed
nope, finite was the only one
My first idea was to show that the index of UV in G is 1, since it's a common divisor of both [G:U] and [G:V], but this only works if we know UV is a subgroup. Anyways, I think it's worth pointing out that you can have intuition for why a result is true without knowing how to prove it. Sometimes a proof is just a trick or some specific technique that you'd need to have seen before
So to get back to "coprime", I wouldn't think of that as a freestanding concept here. Rather, my experience is that pretty much every integer that shows up in the context of a finite group is a divisor of the size of the group, so I'd be thinking of the lattice of divisors ordered by divisibility. "Coprime" means that the two numbers don't meet downwards before we get to 1. But going from "order" to "index" corresponds to turning the lattice upside down, so the assumption also means the orders of U and V don't have a common multiple other than |G|.
In order to make use of this way of thinking, my first priority would be to see if I can prove that |UV| is a divisor of |G|. It feels like something that ought to be right, even though I don't currently know it is.
Hmm ... but then again I've just argued that |UV| is a multiple of |U| (since it's a union of right cosets) and also a multiple of |V| (since it's a union of left cosets). So |UV| is a common multiple of |U| and |V|, and the turn-the-lattice-upside-down intuition implies that the assumption that [G:U] and [G:V] is coprime means that |G| is the least common multiple of |U| and |V|. And then we're done and I don't actually need to argue that |UV| divides |G| in general.
i vaguely understand the individual steps but I will be converting this into rigorous writing to better understand it, thanks for the help
...oh
i see it
My goal here was to demonstrate the (necessarily vague) intuition and exploration I'd use to solve the problem. [This was my actual thought process -- I genuinely didn't know how I'd get through before I started writing the last post].
yeah that helped a lot
Presumably the notation UV here means the subgroup generated by U and V
Hmm okay, I thought it was just the product of subgroups
it's written like that in my exercise sheet, but I thought it meant the product of subgroups too
now that you mention it i don't actually know what the convention for the former is in this class though
Conventions vary, but the set
{uv : u in U, v in V}
is not particularly interesting. So usually UV means the subgroup generated by this set
okay I just checked, apparently we \langle and \rangle it if we want the cyclic group
And also if someone says "the product of subgroups" I would assume they meant the subgroup generated by them.
If they actually meant "pointwise product of elements" I would expect them to say something more along those lines.
Ah right this makes some other counterexamples more clear, like if I choose a dihedral D_12 or sth, C_3\subset C_6, and the reflection this doesn't work because it's "too small"
because those 2 meet at 6, which is half of D_12
In this case the conclusion is true about that set too, though.
Indeed, so the author could have meant either
And I guess might aswell do the most general one
I think this set is rarely interesting when it's not a subgroup, but it is quite useful to know when the subgroup generated by U and V is "UV" rather than "...UVUVU...". So (I believe) the notation UV for {uv : u in U, v in V} has survived, with <U, V> being more common for the subgroup generated by U and V.
Id rather people call it the join of two subgroups ngl
and write U ∨ V
I'm just glad everybody agrees on the product of ideals at least
whats wrong with U ∨ V 
If only we could get people to agree on the definition of a ring
Ring is this thing on people's finger
Rings have identity but aren’t necessarily commutative
Rings may also be non-associative if they are algebras
C[x,y] -> C[t], by x-> t^2 and y -> t^3, I have to prove that kernel of this ring morphism is an ideal generated by x^3-y^2, how do I show it any hint?
Do I need to write f \in C[x,y] in terms of x^3-y^2 ?
So it might be helpful to frame it as the map
C[x, y]/(x^3 - y^2) -> C[t] being injective.
Not that in the first ring since you can replace y^2 by x^3 every element can be written as
f(x, y) = g(x) + yh(x)
Ah, and image of f(x,y) will be g(t^2) + t^3(h(t^2) ), and if we simplify it we have, g(t^2) all terms in this polynomial have even degree and in t^3(h(t^2)) all terms have odd degree so therefore no terms of g(t^3) and t^3h(t^3) cancel out each other, therefore all such coefficient zero if the image of f(x,y) = 0, right?
And if I have to find the explicit form of the image of this morphism, isn't the subring generated by {t^2, t^3} ?
Not quite, you also need some constants as generators.
The subalgebra generated by t^2 and t^3 at least
You get all the integers for free, of course, but the image contains for example pi, which is _not_in the subring generated by t² and t³.
Even more explicitly, I would describe the image as consisting of all the polynomials whose t^1 coefficient is 0.
I see
What is subalgebra?
I got it, thank you
a subset containing all constants and closed under the operations
i was going to say if you know sub-(anything else) the answer is immediate
its an object thats sub
so are quotient objects bus then
no they're cosub
cos sub is like something i failed to do on my GRE
gonna have to do cos sub on friday 💔
I see
I have to show if the ring has characteristic p, then if a is nilpotent then some power of (1+a) is equal to 1.
So if a^k = 0, then I am thinking of taking (1+a)^kp, but my calculations are not so good, any good candidate for power of (1+a)?
use binomial expansion
I think it would go better with (1+a)^(p^k).
I think so
How do I show < x^2, y > is not the principal ideal in F[x,y].
If it is then there is f(x,y) which divides both x^2 and y but how do I get a contradiction from here?
I mean, gcd x^2,y = 1 and <x^2,y> isn't the unit ideal
Can i check if its dangerous to try to define Group homomorphisms/R-module homomorphisms from tensor products to something directly on the simple tensors(and then extend it) instead of the universal property? I notice that in alot of the examples in my course, we seem to go back to the universal property construction even if the map on the simple tensors seem obvious.
For example, lets say i want to define the group homomorphism $\phi: D \otimes (P\oplus Q) \to D\otimes (P)$ thats act in the expected way of projecting the second second part. Could we just define $\phi$ on the simple tensors by. $\phi(d\otimes (p,q))=d\otimes p$ and then claim that we extend linearly and call it a day?
somethingwrong
if you can show its well defined then i dont think you should have any problem. the universal property tells you directly that a well defined map exists
the universal property tells you on the level of elements that this is exactly the induced map
the universal property basically tells you "hey this map is well defined no need to worry abt it 👍"
ah okay makes sense thanks both. for example my map may not be well-defined if two simple tensors are actually the same right? whereas I will never encounter this if i just consider the direct product D \times (P\oplus Q)
In what sense are you talking about gcd here? Since F[x,y] is not a pid
The only common divisor between x^2 and y is 1, and 1 is not in (x^2,y). Saying it like that makes sense to me
yes. (i used it as a short hand if you want)
GCD’s always exist in ufd?
Im just thinking in a pid i know that we can define gcd of a and b as being the generator of (a,b) and we argue “greatest” bc of ideal inclusions and stuff
I guess im talking about the use of “greatest” here specifically
yes
in very large generality you have gcd domains
which are a larger class than UFDs
Oh yeah we just define greatest as the one where everything else divides into
U dont need it to be a pid to talk about that i guess
yeah so in a UFD you decompose the elements into primes and take the ones they both share
and that's the gcd
Oh ok yea makes sense haha
you have something similar going on in dedekind domains where every ideal can be decomposed uniquely into a product of prime ideals
tho okay in hindsight this isn't really related it's just another version of unique factorization
Yeah
I did learn about that a bit at some point but i dont really have too much intuition for it
oh you were learning about dedekind domains?
weren't you on your local cohomology arc hahahahaha
Yeah lol, this was early this year i took some sort of number theory course but it was very introductory, so i think the term dedekind domain was only mentioned in passing
whatre sylow theorems?
they are three theorems concerning so called p-sylow subgroups of a finite group G
are they stuff ive probably done without being told the name?
probably not
In mathematics, specifically in the field of finite group theory, the Sylow theorems are a collection of theorems named after the Norwegian mathematician Peter Ludwig Sylow that give detailed information about the number of subgroups of fixed order that a given finite group contains. The Sylow theorems form a fundamental part of finite group the...
I would doubt youve come across them without being told their name unless you learned maths in another language
😭
Okay im trying to prove that G/G_tors has no non-trivial elements of finite order
the sylow theorems should not have anything to do with that question
Isnt that pretty much by definition
so if i assume there is a non-trivial element of finite order which we can call gG-tors for g \in G, then g^nG-tors = G-tors which implies that g \in G-tors = e which is trivial since g G-tors = G-tors
oh nah this is a separate q sorry 😭
can someone verify this?
g^nG-tors = G-tors
this implies that g^n has finite order, so g has finite order
how does this help with my argument
you said g^nG-tors = G-tors implies g is a torsion element
this about abelian groups?
yeah
yeah
is that wrong?
no, but I added a bit more detail since I think its not immediate
I want to make sure that I'm understanding this proof right. Here, $x$ is algebraic over $K$, since $x$ is a zero of a polynomial with coefficients in $\mathfrak{a} \subseteq A$, and we can just project that polynomial into the field of fractions? Also, what does the sentence ``The coefficients of the minimal polynomial of $x$ over $K$ are polynomias lin the $x_i$" mean? The minimal polynomial is listed in the proposition, and its coefficients are the $a_i$; how can these be interpreted as polynomials in $x_i$? Just as constants? Moreover, wouldn't it be easier to say, the coefficients lie in $\mathfrak{a} \subseteq A$, hence are clearly integral over $A$?
the minimal polynomial of x in L, f(t), is a product of the galois conjugate t-x_i's
okeyokay
Sorry I don't understand. I don't get why we can't just say, each $x_i$ satisfies $x_i^n + a_1 x_i^{n - 1} + \dots + a_n = 0$, and since $a_i \in \mathfrak{a}$, this shows that each $x_i$ is integral over $\mathfrak{a}$. Also, don't we have $a_i \in \mathfrak{a} \subseteq r(\mathfrak{a})$?
okeyokay
Maybe I need to review Galois theory or I'll just blackbox it for now, I'm prob wrong
well yeah they are
that is true
but we're not trying to show that the x_i's are integral over a
we're trying to say something about the a_i's
It's displayed in the Proposition right
I'm confused but the coefficients of this minimal polynomial displayed in the proposition are the a_is
yes
so we have t^n + a1t^n-1 + ... + an = (t - x1)^m1 (t-x2)^m2 ... (t-xn)^mn
and when we expand out the coefficients you find that each ai is a polynomial in the xi's
Ahhh okay I see
so thats what it means by the coefficients being a polynomial in the xis
Ahh got it thanks
so a p-primary torsion subgroup is a subgroup of a torsion group with elements of p^n order?
Uh I would guess so but the terminology is a bit ambigous
I'm not sure if this implies it's a subgroup of the torsion subgroup that's the p-primary component or that the whole torsion subgroup is the p-primary component
tho I'd bet on the former
the trivial action 
most actions are not faithful really
for example the action of a group on itself by conjugation is faithful only if the center is trivial
ooh that's an action?
G x G -> G
woah
g(x) = gxg^-1
more than the factorial of the acting set*
since for example Sn acting on n points is faithful
i guess with infinite order groups it's different
You should think of a group action as being a manifestation of the symmetries of the group on an actual object
And it's faithful if the symmetries on the object actually "faithfully" represent all of the symmetries of G
matrix multiplication by invertible matrices on a vector is an action right?
yep
can i have an example?
yeah sure so for example the cyclic group C_n you can think of being the abstract ideal of rotational symmetry
abstract ideal?
Then an action of C_n is basically picking out some object with a rotational symmetry
is that just like
not a precise term
isomorphic to the behaviour of rotational symmetry
I mean it in the sense that like, the number 3 is an abstract concept
but 3 apples is something concrete
group actions are kinda like that
ahhh it's like we're actually using our group now
yeah it's really the main reason why groups are useful is because they encode symmetries of objects
haven't actually seen that use though 😭
todays lecture was on orbits and stabilisers
but also before that commutators and torsion subgroups i guess
So an example of a non-faithful action is for example the symmetric group S_n acts on a two point set {x,y} where even permutations do nothing and odd permutations swap x and y
okay yeah it's non-injective
so in this case most of the symmetries of S_n are kinda being forgotten by this action since you're only using the fact that it's even or odd
yeah
and yeah an action of G on X is faithful if the action identifies G with an actual subgroup of the group of symmetries of X
(For actions on sets the group of symmetries is just the permutation group on X)
yeah
but you can actually have groups act in many interesting ways, so for example an action on a vector space V (usually called a linear representation but it's really just an action) is a homomorphism from G into the general linear group GL(V)
which are the symmetries of the vector space V (that respect the vector space structure
symmetries just mean respect the structure of the group?
probably the #1 most useful theorem in group theory
no wayyy
yeah typically, it's not really precisely defined
what's G?
but typically the symmetries of a mathematical object X means the isomorphisms from X to X
just a group
where "isomorphism" depends what you are studying
ah so you can describe the action as G x V -> V?
in a first course in group theory you usually stick to actions on sets
but obviously it's mapping toa subset of V
Yeah
GL(V)? I thought they were square, invertible matrices over a field?
so I assume you've seen the fact that an action G x X-> X for sets is the same information as a homomorphism G -> Sym(X)
yeah if you pick a basis then that's what it is
My first course of group theory was way more simpler than this 😭
how is that a subset of V?
isn't that a subset of L(V,V)
GL(V) is just the invertible linear maps from V to V
which are the same thing as matrices at least in finite dimensions
anyway that's not super important it's just good to know that groups can encode the symmetries of many different types of objects in math
yeah okay
i understand that now
i really sucked at groups last year 😭
they barely did it tbh
think it was like 10 lectures of groups
My favourite theorem to just create random really slick proofs that I never spot
I had to use it in an assignment for an operator algebras course the other day so it just keeps showin up
its a silly trick mathematicians like to pull out of thin air
algebra is the study of group actions. Maybe monoid actions if we're feeling fresh
wait you are kind of cooking
Orbit stabiliser is quite helpful
expanding on the idea to clone actions and youre technically correct lol
how do conjugacy classes relate to normal subgroups
a normal subgroup is a union of conjugacy classes
always?
yup. but a union of conjugacy classes isn't always a subgroup
proving a subgroup is a union of conjugacy classes is equivalent to the question of it being closed under conjugation
if you're given complete knowledge of the conjugacy classes by some oracle I guess it could be faster
ah
so a conjugacy class is essentially the set of conjugates of an element and all those conjugates
what other definition of conjugacy class is there
A conjugacy class is a maximal set of elements whose values under every complex character coincide
you win this round, chucklefucks
Let Z[G] be the integral group algebra of a finite group G with natural basis B of elements of G. Let C be the centre of Z[G] and C^+ be the positive cone of C. Then a conjugacy class of G is precisely a subset of B such that the sum over B is an element in the minimal (under the obvious ordering) hilbert basis for C^+
the worst part is this is true
I’m not sure I’ve seen a more cursed definition of anything before, well played
nvm I'm just sleep deprived (ignore the messages that i deleted)
I see y is prime because F[x,y]/(y) is an integral domain, and in integral domain every prime element is irreducible element
Thank you
I have one question, how many automorphisms of C there? Don't give the whole solution just give me a direction, I know that automorphism gives identity on Q and i maps to ± i
A lot
Depends on what you mean by automorphism!
As a field, there should only be 1 (the identity) and as a group, there are countably many at least
Unless it has index 2 🥸
I think that $\text{Aut}_{\mathbf{Ab}}(\mathbb{Q}) \cong \mathbb{Q}^\times$
Lucas
His point still stands
It was about ℂ, not ℚ.
Correct BTW.
OH, I missed it.. Then there is only two (as a field)
Nope.
As they said.
What about conjugation?
Nono, ignore me. I misread your question (twice)
When I said that, I thought you meant the (field) automorphism group of Q. In which case, you get the trivial group
A hint could be that it's consistent with ZF that there are only 2.
wrong channel
sorry
I have the quotient ring R=Z[t]/(1-t)^3 and you have to show that (t^3-2)bar=(6t^2-6t)bar but idk what to do
They are equal in R iff their difference is in ((1-t)^3) which is the ideal you quotient with
am i wrong or are they not equal?
it did say show that so im confused on why it would be false
@rapid cave
Ok
Can you send the original question?
The a question also says to show that the polynomial is equivalent to a degree lower or equal to 2
it’s in Dutch tho
Yeah so its probably a typo
nederlands!:o
nederlands!!
with choice
implicitly assumed
All my homies use choice
can you tell me more about it?
Like you want me to elaborate on why this is a hint, or just tell you why it's true?
both
i don't see how ZF comes into the game?
and here how aoc related to it
So my point about the hint is just that, since it's consistent with ZF that conjugation and the identity are the only automorphisms you will need aoc to construct the remaining ones.
so you mean there are more than 2?
but how do i show it?
and sorry but i don't get fully understand what does it mean by it's consistent with ZF
It means you cannot disprove it.
So without using aoc you cannot prove that there exists other automorphisms.
and how i can construct other by using aoc?
Are you familiar with transcendence bases?
is it something like C is vector space over Q which has infinitely uncountable dimensional?
That's part of it yeah
ah, no
Alright, that makes it trickier. Let me see if I can come up with a good hint
but how Q-linear morphism related to ring morphism?
Well a ring homomorphism C -> C is in particular a Q-linear map
but not converse, right?
Correct
Alright, so maybe the best hint is just to tell you what they are.
A subset S of C is a transcendence basis for C if it is algebraically independent, meaning there is no polynomial
f(x1, ..., xn)
with rational coefficients that is 0 when evaluated on n (different) elements, and
C/Q(S)
is an algebraic extension.
Can you prove transcendence basis exists?
And notice that Q(S) is just isomorphic to the field of rational functions in |S| many variables
what does it mean by algebraic extension?
E/F is algebraic if every element of E is a root of a polynomial with coefficients in F
okay
so if i take S be the basis of C over Q, then S will work
right?
so transcendence basis exists
should i mention how i did it?
A vector space basis?
That won't work as S won't be algebraically independent
yes vector basis, i see
i am not sure but my guess what if i take all transcedental number in C ?
Well pi and 2pi are both transcendental.
Also notice that you're not using aoc
sorry, i have no idea
do i need to use Zorn's lemma?
And say i have a transcendence basis then how do I use it in my problem?
Say S is transcendence basis, is S basis or do I need to work more ?
Well, are you able to construct automorphisms of the field of rational functions Q(S)?
No, it's larger than that. R(x) contains all rational functions, so for example also 1/(x+1), which is not in R[x, x^-1].
I see
Q-linear automorphism or ring morphism?
I think you mean ring automorphism
What if there exists two distinct s1 and s2 exists in S, and i map s1 to s2 and s2 to s1 and remaining s_i to s_i?
If I have to describe Q(S), how do I do it?
Well the elements are of the form
f(s1, ..., sn)/g(t1, ..., tm)
with f and g polynomials in Q and s1, ..., sn, t1, ..., tm from S
I see
Yes
So using Q(S) automorphism, do I have to induce automorphism C to C?
After you have that automorphism, you need to appeal to the fact that an isomorphism between fields can be extended to an isomorphism between their algebraic closures -- which also depends on choice.
Okay thanks @rocky cloak @tribal moss 
Why for maximal subset B, k(B) \ K, is an algebraic extension?
I think because if there exists a in K such that there is no polynomial with coefficient in k(B), which has root a.
Then a not in B, so B \subset B u {a}, now I have to show B u {a} is algebrically independent.
If it is not then there is polynomial f(x1,..,x_n) such that f(a,x_2,..,x_n) = 0, i choose x1 as a, because otherwise it will contradict the algebrically independent of B.
Now I am not sure how to proceed further?
Maybe f(a,x2,..,x_n) = 0 implies there is polynomial in k(B)[x] which has root a.
Indeed, f(x, x2, ..., xn) is that polynomial
R(x) is the same as R[x,y] with xy=1?
Still no.
I am stupid
Okay, does every automorphism of k(B) induce the automorphism of K?
So the algebraic closure of F means extension field K, such that every polynomial in F has a root in K?
That stuff is interesting
Have you learned it ?
A little
Yes, in particular a minimal such extension.
I see
Whoops, not quite. You need every polynomial on F[x] to split into linear factors in K[x], not merely have one root ther.
Why is it not equivalent to that one?
(This turns out to be equivalent to wanting a minimal K such that every polynomial in K[x] splits into linear factors.)
I got it
I can't rattle off a complete counterexample, but consider that for R over Q, the polynomial x³-2 does have a root in the extension field yet doesn't split.
Isnt it equivalent
Oh right
I thought u could factor it and the process continues
I forget the detail im missing
Yes, so it is equivalent to requiring that every nonconstant polynomial in K[x] has a root in K.
But it's (as far as I know) not enough to require it for polynomials in F[x].
What r the relationships between the fields in question rn
We're defining what it means for K to be an algebraic closure of F.
So together with the condition about polynomials splitting or having roots, there needs to be an additional condition saying that K is algebraic over F, or is minimal.
Like K is alg closure of F?
We're talking about the definition of that.
Where can I learn more about transcendence basis? In field theory?
Yeah every polynomial over F needs to split completely in K, and K is the minimal field to do that
Not necessarily. At least in the screenshot, K doesn't have to be algebraically closed, so for example it might be that some of the B have square roots in K and others don't. An automorphism of k(B) that interchanges them wouldn't extend to an automorphism of K.
I think milne has something in his field theory notes
I honestly have no clue how one would come up with examples of this stuff
Of what
Examples of this ig
K is algebraically independent over F or whatever it was ig
Examples illustrating some of this stuff basically
if K is alg closed, then?
Then (assuming choice) an automorphism of k(B) always extends to an automorphism of K.
How does that work?
Oh i think i know how
how?
You’re allowed to choose any x in K to some conjugate
And since its alg closed it contains all conjugates
So thats why it can be bijective i think ..?
what is conjugate in arbitrary field K?
I think its like the image of it under some automorphism
That fixes the ground field
( that part necessary im pre sure)
but then identity can be one of them
Cuz it needs to fix the polynomial equation
Ya
I think you can get through by using Zorn's lemma on extensions of your automorphism whose domain and range are subfields of K, ordered by set inclusion.
Question about automorphisms of field extensions (rather on topic). Ive got 2 similar problems on this homework and im thinking about how theyre different. The first question says, let w be non-real root of X^p-1 for an odd prime p, show that Aut(Q(w)) is non trivial. The second say let a be a root of X^p-2 for p an odd prime, show that Aut(Q(a)) is trivial.
Im a little stuck with the second and but I think im getting there, I just need a nudge. The first difference I spot is that in the first problem, the polynomial is reducible, it has 1 as a root and that is in Q. We know the automorphisms are non-trivial because we can just take like complex conjugation. Apparently we cant do this with the second one, and I am admitadley not sure why. Like, we can work over the splitting field of f, Q(a,w) and then the automorphisms are determined by where we send all the p roots, but im not sure how to bring this all together tbh
I guess I dont know where to go because im not actually conviced that Aut(Q(a)) is trivial, like Im sure it is true, but I dont have a feeling for why this is the case yet
(I can tex that up if its hard to read btw lol)
how do i show transcendence basis S of C over Q is infinite?
If it wasn't, C would have only countably many elements.
You can always do complex conjugation?
Like its not complex conjugation isnt it like just replace + with -
I may be off or confused its been a while
I think the issue is that in the second case the root could be real
So there conjugation doesnt do anything
The complex conjugate of a is not necessarily in Q(a).
Ok, so I know this is true for the pth roots of unity, because they all give the same field extension, but im not sure how to make anything happen for the second case
"odd prime" is just so -1 won't be root in x^p-1.
is there any relation with transcendence basis and vector basis?
Ohh primitive root of unity but p is prime so any root of unity generates da shi
Thats why odd prime matters i think
Yeah im happy enough with that one
Any basis for field extension stuff is formulating it as vector space basis
Im pretty sure anyway
But im stuck with showing the second group is trivial
As I said I dont really have a feeling for why it should be trivial, so im not sure where to start looking
A transcendence basis generates the field uniquely by plugging the base elements into polynomials.
A vector space basis generates generates the field uniquely by linear combinations.
Yeah true
I got kinda lost there too
I thought u could get all pth roots by multiplying by roots of unity
And since its odd prime adjoining any root of unity u get all of them
So like $f = x^p-2$ and then $\alpha = \sqrt[p]{2}$ and $\omega$ is a primitive root of unity. We then get that $f$ splits as $f = (x-\alpha)(x-\alpha\omega)\cdots(x-\alpha\omega^{p-1})$ and we can call these $p$ roots $\alpha_i$ in the sensible order
Nope
Whoops, that's not quite true. It's more involved than that for transcendence bases.
which are base elements and what are they polynomial?
then any automorphism is determined by where we send each of the $\alpha_i$
Nope
So we’re restricted in choices somehow ig
Yeah Im wondering if we can say one of them has to be fixed for some reason and then it follows from that, that the rest must be too
I think the important thing here, thats different to the first case, is that 1 isnt a root I guess?
Ive not worked out exactly how this helps yet, but 1 is a root, and ring homomorphisms preserve 1 so idk this likely means something
Doesnt that just mean something like the extension should have nontrivial automorphisms
I didnt think that statement through but
Nah the root u adjoin isnt assumened to be in base field anyway
Yeah its just a root (and in this case none of them are in Q anyway)
Oh i didnt notice the nonreal vs real prt
For $i\neq 1$, do all of the $\alpha_i$ not just generate the same field extenstion?
Nope
Or just nonreal
No I dont think thats true actually, I think thats key, because thatll be why the conjugate doesnt work
What do u mean exactly by conjugate
For clarity this is the actual question
The map sending a+xb to a-xb where x is whatever youve stuck onto your field
Gtg doing tutoring
I think the right way for (b) is to argue that you get an isomorphic subfield of C no matter which root of x^p-2 you adjoin, namely one isomorphic to Q[x]/<x^p-2>. Since at least one of those subfields -- namely the one where you adjoin the real root -- doesn't contain any other roots, none of the subfields contain a root other than the one you adjoin.
Yeah this is what I was working out there after realising that alpha_i dont actually generate the same subfields, then I think I should be ok from there?
That's not even well-defined unless the extension has degree 2.
(And it's only a homomorphism if x happens to be a square root of something in the base field).
Yeah of course, I was just kind thinking out loud and working out why that didnt always work
i have a question: given an abelian additive $p$-divisible group $A$, \let $p_A:A\to A, x\mapsto px$. why is the tate group given by $T_p(A)=\varprojlim A[p^{n+1}]$ instead of $\varprojlim A[p^n]$ where $A[p^n]=\ker p_A^n$. I mean if each element (sequence) $(x_0, x_1,\dots)$ of the tate group starts with $x_0=0$ then $p^nx_n=0$ and $x_n\in A[p^n]$ for all $n$ no?
ali yassine
here is the context
Does the difference matter? One of those expressions leaves out A[p^0] but everything it contributes is encoded in A[p^1] anyway -- you can leave out any finite number of steps at that end of the inverse system without making a difference in the limit (up to isomorphism anyway).
is it because here if x_k\in A[p^k] then x_k\in A[p^m] for any m>k?
No, it's because whenever you have (x1,x2,x3,...) you can reconstruct what x0 must be be by applying p_A to x1, so leaving it out of the limit doesn't lose any information.
In general, whenever we have an inverse limit of a system of the form
... -> A4 -> A3 -> A2 -> A1 -> A0
we can omit A0 without changing what the limit is, because the A0 component of a limit can always be recovered from the A1 component by applying the A1->A0 map.
And so forth -- in fact you can omit just about any combination of the objects as long as there are still infinitely many of them left. For example, omit all the even-numbered A's.
Hello everyone. I am new to the server. I would like to discuss something about cayley's table D4 and some observations I made.
I am still a novice and only know till like cyclic groups and generators and a first year undergrad.
So the idea is mostly to compute cayley's table of D4 without exhaustively computing each elements of the table individually.
I have tried explaining my observation in this reddit post https://www.reddit.com/r/learnmath/comments/1o8cakr/studied_basics_of_group_theory_and_cayley_table/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=mweb3x&utm_name=mweb3xcss&utm_term=1&utm_content=share_button
I am open to criticism and want to know more well read individual's opinions on the method.
That's a pretty long text, and I haven't the energy to look at every detail, but if you're getting the right results, then most likely what you're doing is valid.
It's definitely good for your learning and understanding to engage with the material in this way, but I doubt you have discovered something radically new. On the other hand, if it was new to you, then it has served its main purpose, so well done.
For what it's worth, the comment by Wofster to the Reddit post describes the usual way to calculate with elements in the dihedral group.
(Actually writing down Cayley tables is something nobody really ever does, except during the first few weeks of a course in group theory in order to get familiar with how the definitions work. Pretty much every group that matters in practice has better ways to calculate with it when you need to calculate -- which is less often than you'd think at first ...)
It is in fact enough, but it is not completely immediate to show.
I see, can one also omit uncountably many objects too? (of course when the indexing set of the collection of groups is uncountable itself so that it can contain uncountable subsets)
And also when it meets the conditions necessary for the definition of an inverse limit to make sense
As in the indexing set I being a directed poset and the family of groups being directed
As long as everything you omit was reachable from something you keep, and you don't delete so much that the diagram stops being directed, the inverse limit should be the same.
Hmm, actually that's probably not true in the general case where the diagram is not linear. I can't immediately rattle off the right condition in that case.
Ohhh makes sense
Thanks for the review! Btw, I have also observed that It also worked for like cayley table for D2(with some tweaking here and there)
And yea it's a bit too long because I thought I wanted to display that the method works instead of writing some examples.
And thanks again, I appreciate your effort to read the post.
Just curious, is that grothendieck in yr pfp?
No it's a wizard yes
is there really any difference?
So one approach is to show that alpha is the only root of X^p - 2 in Q(alpha).
Another is to calculate the Galois group of X^p - 2 and find the subgroup corresponding to Q(alpha). Then show that it's equal to its own normalizer.
No, but I had to clarify
That surprises me. On the other hand it's not a question that lends itself to simple counterexamples ...
Hmmm, I actually know it to be true when the base field is finite. Perhaps we can lift it to arbitrary fields by some kind of model-theoretic shenanigans.
No Galois groups introduced yet, but I went for the first thing. I just kinda had to think out loud for a minute first lol
Thanks though
So for perfect fields it's not so bad.
For any element polynomial over F, the splitting field is seperable, so by the primitive element theorem it is generated by a single element. Then any conjugate of this element generates the same extension, so just having one root of the minimal polynomial is enough.
So this covers characteristic 0 and finite fields, among others.
by the primitive element theorem
Ah, if I ever knew that, I had forgotten it again. Yes, I see that would do it.
Hey, I'm considering a few books on ring theory to get, and I was wondering if I could get some recommendations
The ones popping up for me right now are:
A Course in Ring Theory by Donald S. Passman
Lectures on Modules and Rings by T. Y. Lam
Ring Theory (Volume by Louis H. Rowen)
And there was a broad suggestion to read Serge Lang
Here's an argument for the non-prefect case
https://www.jstor.org/stable/2315743?seq=1#metadata_info_tab_contents
The idea is once you adjoin all pth roots to F you get a perfect field, then you can apply the perfect case argument to this to show that the extension is algebraically closed and you're done
Bruh just get dummit and foote or atiyah macdonald
Ok like im biased cuz thats what i use lol but those ones u mentioned i never heard of (besides lang, which i dont think is good for beginner text)
Lam is a very common book for non com rings, I don’t know how beginner friendly it is though. I’ve had a look at passman before too but it’s quite dated iirc, I used another one of his books a lot of a short paper I wrote though and it was well written
But yeah basically these are just noncom texts
some people want to do noncomm rings
wowie
Makes sense why i wouldnt know
I mean i wouldnt be opposed to learning about noncomm stuff
But i dont know where they’re important
From a mathematical point of view, I just think they’re more interesting, and it makes sense to study the more general object
As for more tangible reasons, there’s plenty of things that don’t commute, differential operators being the clear example, there’s a whole field of differential algebra and that’s all noncom stuff
Yeah i guess for me personally im only just feeling like i have some sort of handle on ordinary commutative rings
So noncomm is like eh
Might be nice for putting some stuff into context ig
Thanks. I’m planning on going into a PhD program for data science so I want to understand the concepts deeply. But I also have not yet looked at ring theory related topics. Currently am a research assistant for a professor’s idea to improve Gaussian Processes
Would you say that these authors are generally superior?
Theyre more common for commutative algebra purposes which is what most ppl usually study at first
Atiyah macdonald in particular is a well liked book
Okay. For context, the concept of ring theory came up when I was looking up the relationship between the different forms that the Bellman Ford equation takes, if you’re familiar
Im not , but if its commutative stuff then ur thinking commutative algebra lol
Thanks I’ll look into these books
ive been asked on my hw if the set of all functions with finitely many zeroes along with the zero function is a subring of {f: [0,1] to R}
the answer is yes as elements of rings can only be expressed as finite sums and products of other elements, right?
I think you have issues with sums
what if you take some function thats equal to 1 on [0,0.5] and add it to a function equal to -1 on [0,0.5]
oh duh
ive been conditioned by analysis to only think about the positive real numbers
unless im misunderstanding the question, because it seems kinda strange
are you sure it doesn't mean the functions with finite support
(as in, finitely many nonzero values)
its finitely many zeroes
hm weird question
yeah
i guess its just wanting you to think about closure properties somewhat abstractly
yeah
is there a not incredibly tedious way to do this
the first relation is obvious
but the others just seem like such a bore
oh yeah, there's another way to derive this automorphism
hold on i can dm
In Atiyah, they said a ring R is called Noetherian if R is Noetherian as R-module
But say M is a finite set, which is an A-module then it is always Artinian and Noetherian, right?
yes
what is the problem here?
So when I am saying some A- module is Noetherian, it is very important that what is A, if I change A to some B then maybe that's not true, right?
So now what if one of them is subring the other? [ I think it depends on the scalar multiplication too ]
well if youve got a morphism f : B → A and you pull back an A-module to a B-module, you usually lose a lot of structure (as f might fail to be surjective), so there will appear more submodules
for example, the underlying group of a Noetherian R-module usually fails to be Noetherian
and this is obtained by consider R as a Z-algebra and performing a change of basis
If R is a ring, and if I show any maximal ideal is finitely generated then R will be Noetherian, right? No.
Can you give me a counterexample?
I know why it cannot be true
There are nice counterexamples if you look into ring of smooth functions of certain manifolds
perhaps if you localize a non noetherian ring you can get something
Also you can check for local rings with their maximal ideal being principal, though I have no idea if Non-Noetherian examples of this exists
Take R = ∏_i∈I F_i, where F_i ≈ F is some fixed field, and I = {0, 1, 2, ... }. This is certainly not Noetherian; consider the chain of ideals
0 < F×0... < F×F×0... < ...
however, each maximal ideal is of the form F×...×F×0×F..., which is generated by the element (1, ..., 1, 0, 1, ...)
ah, great example!
products always make for great non-Noetherian rings which are still relatively well-behaved
There are actually other maximal ideals given by non-principal ultrafilters on I. And I have a feeling these won't be finitely generated...
agh of course
bamboozled again by infinity
take the ideal generated by all (0, ..., 0, 1, ...)
what would the resulting quotient be?
the ring of "almost equal" sequences
or ig equivalently "eventually equal" sequences
Enpeacian sequences
reduced products are weird
given an algebraic modular lattice L such that the top element is compact, is there always a ring such that the ideal lattice is isomorphic to L?
i cant imagine that
Do those lattices necessarily have maximal elements (under the top)?
whoops forgot completeness
oh yeah right should add that
top element is compact
N_(i-1)/N_i and M_(i-1)/M_i as a set are different right? I mean both have empty intersection as a set, so how do I say N_(i-1)/N_i \subset M_(i-1)/M_i?
The inclusion N_i into M_i, composed with the quotient map from M_i to M_i/M_{i-1}, has kernel N_{i-1} and hence its image is a submodule of M_i/M_{i-1} isomorphic to N_i/N_{i-1} by the first isomorphism theorem.
(This is an argument applicable to any algebraic structure and not specific to modules.)
what are irreducible integers? 
Prime numbers probably
Presumably defined in the actual chapter? But yeah they're the prime numbers here ('irreducible' and 'prime' technically refer to different properties, but for integers they're equivalent)
yeah probly
i just tried to attempt the exercises first
Okay, it is written in the book, that tensor product is a function $ \omega \otimes \eta (v_1,v_2) = \omega(v_1) \eta(v_2) $ from $V \times W$ to $\mathbb{R}$, where $V,W$ are vector spaces and $\mathbb{R}$ are their Field.
Am I correct that It's exactly the linear morphism I would get with universal property of tensor product if I factor map to just the ring of tensor product $M \otimes_R N$?
Pyramid
The tensor product isn't a function
The tensor product of two functions is the function you get when you factorize your map V x W -> R through V (x) W
So it's a map like η(x)ω(v_1 (x) v_2) = η(v_1)ω(v_2)
But yeah your other paragraph is correct
I believe it's elementary way to introduce tensors in analysis book.
And yeah, that's good. Thanks for verifying
you might want to look into the Kronecker product of matrices if you want more of an intuition for this
wait kronecker product?
ohhh i mixed that up with hadamard product srry
kronecker is the tensor one
Does the hadamard product have any uses? I feel like I have come across it before outside of the context of “why doesn’t this naive idea work” but I couldn’t tell you where
$\operatorname{Hom}(M \otimes N, K) \cong \operatorname{Hom}(M, \operatorname{Hom}(N,K))$
I thought it could be somehow related to this, but type-checking said no.
Idk If I can reverse tensor product from it though. Although it's unique, so I can reconstruct it knowing r-modules
Pyramid
yeah this is the tensor-hom adjunction
I'm not sure I understand what you mean by "the linear morphism I would get with universal property of tensor product", are you asking about the relation between ⊗ defined as (w⊗p)(u, v) = w(u)p(v) compared to ⊗ as the canonical multilinear map from VxW to V⊗W? Or are you asking whether the former map factors through V⊗W?
It's about category-theoretic definition of tensor product
essentially the thing is that
multiplication on the real numbers is a bilinear map $\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so if you have linear functionals $\alpha : V \to \mathbb{R}, \beta : W \to \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then you get a linear map $\alpha \times \beta : V \times W \to \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
composing gets you a bilinear map $V \times W \to \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and then using the universal property gets you a linear map $V \otimes W \to \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
which is defined on simple tensors $\vec v \otimes \vec w$ as $\alpha(\vec v) \beta(\vec w)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah, and this is how you identify V*⊗W* with (V⊗W)*, right?
oh uh hm
is that true
$(V \otimes W)^* \cong \text{Bil}(V \times W, K)$ by the universal property
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
now there's certainly a map $V^* \times W^* \to \text{Bil}(V \times W, K)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
by sending $\alpha, \beta$ to $(\vec v, \vec w) \mapsto \alpha(\vec v) \beta(\vec w)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so that gets you a linear map $V^* \otimes W^* \to (V \otimes W)^*$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i can believe this map is injective
i'd have to check but i think it is
i don't see why it's necessarily surjective though
I think this is only a bijection for finite dimensional vector spaces (not sure if both or only one of V, W need to be fin. dim)
i think if one of them is finite-dim you'll get a bijection
I'm not sure if it's true but I have possible false memory, that in Aluffi it was proved through showing func and it's inverse
and thus an isomorphism
Proving it's section and a retraction categorically (intentionally rephrasing for cat fan)
but if both are then you won't
yes yes i'm aware
wait, you mean neither, right? Or are you saying it's not a bijection if both are fin dim?
oh sorry i mean neither lol
the issue is i don't see a natural map $(V \otimes W)^* \to V^* \otimes W^*$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this would be a decomposition of a bilinear form into products of pairs of 1-forms
i don't expect such a decomposition exists generically
yeah so
$(V \otimes W)^* \cong \text{Hom}(V, W^*)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and it's a standard result that if either $V$ or $Z$ are finite-dimensional, then $\text{Hom}(V, Z) \cong V^* \otimes Z$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in fact, in general, $V^* \otimes Z \cong \text{Hom}_\text{Finite Rank}(V, Z)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and so $V^* \otimes W^* \cong \text{Hom}_{\text{Finite Rank} }(V, W^*)$ for example
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah, that makes sense 
Yay
Oh my god, haha, I was 1 page away from the answer and more general approach to tensors 
Okay, it make sense to review chapter before going through every detail
oh nice, what’s he general approach
Define the tensor product of the spaces $V_1, \ldots, V_k$, denoted by $V_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes V_k$, to be the following quotient vector space: $$V_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes V_k = \mathcal{F}(V_1 \times \cdots \times V_k) / \mathcal{R},$$ and let $\Pi: \mathcal{F}(V_1 \times \cdots \times V_k) \to V_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes V_k$ be the natural projection. The equiv- alence class of an element $(v_1, \ldots, v_k)$ in $V_1 \otimes \cdots \otimes V_k$ is denoted by
Pyramid
Just common tensor product in algebra
Ah yeah, this is the standard way to construct it
There is an alternative construction I prefer but it uses a little cat theory
You mean concrete construction in r-mod? What is it?
As left-adjoint to multilinear map?
Well that’s just a universal property, it’s not a construction
Are you familiar with natural transformations
Yeah, even with abelian and monoid categories
Awesome awesome
So here goes
Given these spaces V_1, …, V_n
You can define a functor from Rmod to Set, via Z -> n-Linear(V_1 x V_2 x … x V_n, Z)
So it sends a R-module Z to the set of n-linear maps from that product to Z
Do you agree this is a functor?
I believe yeah
Cool
Then, you consider the set of natural transformations from this functor to the forgetful functor U
Which just sends an R-module to its underlying set
This actually forms an R-module, via pointwise operations on your natural transformations
This is in fact the tensor product
In other words, the tensor product is an R-module of natural transformations
In fact you can view any free object this way
As a kind of “algebra of natural transformations”
The trick is
You look at what functor the free object is supposed to represent
In this case, it’s n-linear maps
Then you consider natural transformations from that functor to the forgetful functor
These obtain a natural algebraic structure via pointwise operations
And that correspond to your free object
It's pretty interesting. A pretty universal way and uncover some properties of categories and linkage between free objects and tensors
You do have to check this of course
The set of natural transformations isn’t guaranteed to form an algebraic structure if the type you want
And while this is a “construction” it doesn’t tell you too much about what the elements of your free object are
Unless you have a good idea of what such natural transformations look like
I prefer the view of the free object over X being the set of all terms with variables in X over your signature quotiented out by all the equations your class of algebraic structures satisfy
it is, at least, the interpretation which is much more useful in UA
how the hell did someone work out this addition definition so that the new point is always on the elliptic curve??
well that's the end product
the begin product iirc is you take two points, and the line through them, and the third is the other point intersecting the curve and your line
then you do some algebra do derive this form
ah, so it has a geometric interpretation
ic
Some plucker embedding joke
im a bit confused on finding a counter example for this, bc i know its not true and that its not closed under composition but like i just dont know what to do from here
well, this is true only if B is the orbit of b under some subgroup of S_A
🙏
whats an orbit
Take A = { 1, 2, 3 }, and B = { 1, 2 }, and b = 1. Then (321) maps 1 to 2, but (321)(321) = (231) which doesnt send b to an element in B
you're sending gifs for no reason, and adding nothing to the conversation
is that illegal?
handled
Not here, in #chill if you want to 
hmm, doesnt 1 get mapped to 3 though?
thank you mods!
@thorn jay please don't delete mod pings in future
ty mods :3
oh, I'm sorry! I thought it was already deleted by the mods lol that's why, but I won't in the future
not to worry, we'll react to the mod ping in future, and its not really an issue for mod pings to be in chat
exactly, so the subset { s in S_A | s(b) in B } cannot be closed under composition
ohhhh
because the cycle (321) maps 1 to 2
they absolutely do)