#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 358 of 1
wait till bro sees the superbuffed red GM+2 chapter 1 maps with like 10 frame-perfect inputs per room 💔
haven't touched celeste in a while though
tho like in some rooms i kept dying and i would mute the game out of rage
ah hn
song : lover your should have come over
what chatper
am loving this video
bingo
if ur a precision lover js play geometry dash
is oshiro the one weith the book room
tna delrune
i hated the book room
yes 🗣️
i love this core whatever it is
last game i liked playing was demons souls remake on ps5
RAHHH GEOMETRY DASH MENTIONED
besides that i havent enjoyed a new game in a long time
go figure i used to play a lot of osu
like a lot of osu
like i bought a drawing tablet just to play osu
bro i played geometry dash for years yk
i see those clips on insta with like "most terrifying gd screasm"
same i love it sm
i beat bloodbath years ago hahaha
LMAO i know exactly which ones youre talking about
hopefully that level is still relevant
and its like people screaming the equavlianet of ike an eldrich horror after 97% on unnerfed sakupen circles or some shi
i mean yeah its still a generational demon
i think i hit 5 digit rankings in osu
yay
oh damn
beating bloodbath used to be cool ok
i feel them tbh
i loved osu
no way thats crazy
i haven't played it in a long long time
wtf
my video got like 50k views or smth
are there any btd lovers out there
yea btd5 is awesome
5?
wait by btd do you mean bloons tower defense
people who are cracked to that absurd degree in GD remind me of those kind of ppl in math
same energy
yeah
yea bloons td 5
yeah hella math people ik play gd
btd 🔥 🔥 🔥
the game genuinely js seems frustrating to me i never got it
yea weird thing
unc /j
bro remember fking bloons world
its deleted off the face of the internet
only I remember it
omg bloons td5 was 2011
holy hell
i thought that was the newest one i didn't know they had one in 2017
zamn
newest one is crazy
no :(
oh nah never heard of it
the big thing when i was a kid was poptropica
i love the music i think that helps a lot
all my friends played it in the school library
club penguin was my thing
well not in the library but during our computer lab
poptropica was laways big i feel
yea probably
coolmathgames so goated
when flash support was taken away from browsers that was so saddening
ong
i think the most recently released game that i really liked was elden ring and its dlc
I don't have an idea for the last one, it seems computational
Try using the fact that R[X] = R[X - a] for a \in R
So R [X,Y, Z] = K[Z], where K = R[X,Y] and K = H[Y], where H = R[X], so K = H[Y-X^2]
So K = R[X][Y-X^2] and R[X,Y,Z] = K [Z] = K [ X^3- Z] so R[X,Y,Z] = R[X][Y-X^2][X^3-Z]
So every polynomial in R[X,Y,Z] is of the form g(X) + ( Y- X^2)( f(X,Y) ) + (Z-X^3)( k(X,Y,Z) ), right?
Thank you @alpine plank
can you have an infinite group with finite generators with finite order?
don't think so now that i think about it
Yes -- we discussed that yesterday; a simple example is that the group presented as < a,b | a²=b²=e > is infinite.
Can anyone give me a push in the right direction to show that a module if projective iff theres another module such that their sum is free? Ive only seen the lifting defintion for projective and in all honesty im not sure how to make use of that for this
ahh yeah
Or, perhaps more concretely, the group of all functions of the form f(x)=a+x or f(x)=a-x where a in Z, under function composition.
It is generated by 1-x and 0-x, which both have order 2.
Hint: you have a surjection from a free module onto your projective module
(This is a general fact for modules, there is a surjection from a free module
And in fact holds for basically any algebraic structure with a concept of "free")
ah yeah that's also a nice one
so that serves as a contradiction to assuming that if we have an infinite group with a finite number of generators, there is at least one infinite cyclic group generated by a single generator
edited it
That's not quite a counterexample because in the example above, 1+x generates an infinite cyclic group.
(Unless you're only speaking of the cyclic groups generated by your one of your finitely many designated generators).
i get mixed up with terminology so easily in gt lmao
The solution to Burnside's problem, which was also discussed yesterday, shows there can be a finitely generated infinite group in which all of the cyclic subgroups, no matter which elements they're generated by, are finite.
(I don't know the particular example, but it took decades to find, so probably too complicated to be explained in a chat anyway).
ahhh okay
how would I structure my proof around that fact?
What are you proving?
every infinite group has infinitely many subgroups
i did talk about it yesterday hhere but I got quite confused
this is what i wrote
Sorry, it looks like we got sidetracked into competing for the nicest proof instead of critiquing yours.
You definitely should not be using Burnside's problem in your proof.
(Sorry for the ghost ping, misclicked) I had gotten this far, and I suspect its staring me in the face and im just being dumb but my current thinking is this.
Take P to be a projective R-module, so we know it satisfies the lifting property, then some other module Q. We then get a surjection between the free module F = R^(PxQ) and P(+)Q. Then using the inclsuion we get the lifting property and whatever, but we dont know that P(+)Q is free, we just have a surjection from F and I dont think this will be an isomorphism in general. I think the issue is choosing Q in the start, im not sure thats the correct way forward, and I dont think that in general I can choose Q such that I do get an isomorphism, so I think this approach is just flawed
how could I write that proof into a better proof or what's wrong in my proof?
So you have F -> P -> 0
Let K be the kernel, so we get 0 -> K -> F -> P -> 0
Can you prove this SES spilts?
Oh that seems much smarter, yes I should be able to do that
Hmm, I think there are three problems here:
- The way you speak about your case split sounds like you're assuming the group "knows" what its generators are, such that you can ask how many of them there are. But there may be several subsets of the group that each generates it, and some of theses subsets may be finite while others are infinite. In any case you can always declare all the elements of the group to be generators, and then you wouldn't need the finite case at all. So unless your "infinite" case actually works for every group, you need to be more explicit about what the condition you split into cases on is.
- In the finite case, "at least one of these generators must generate an infinite group" is not true, as demonstrated by my counterexample above.
- In the infinite case, you're assuming that two different generators generate different cyclic groups. That's not necessarily true -- for example it's generally not true if you've declared every group element to be a generator!
You could try to fix up these problems one by one, but I suspect you could easily end up with something where the case analysis doesn't actually contribute much to the argument.
Yeah ok this is just split exact by the splitting lemma, since the map F->P is surjective, so its right cancelative. Ive got to run now but ill do the other direction when im back and hopefully stop being dumb lol, thanks for your hints though mico!
it is true 🙏 🙏 🙏 🙏
can you explain what you mean by there being several subsets of the group that each generates it
Well, for example, Z is generated by {1}, but it is also generated by {-1}, and by {3,5,42} and by {2,3,5,7,11,13,...}.
One idea for fixing (1) and (3) that doesn't work would be to say, "okay, take a minimal set of generators" -- but unfortunately some groups don't have minimal set of generators. One familiar example is (Q,+) -- every generating set will contain redundant elements (so there's always a proper subset that also generates the group).
how is the set of reciprocals of primes not minimal?
/genq
It's not a generating set
what even are the generators of Q 😭
I mean it kind of works in that you can fix a finite minimal generating set when the group is finitely generated, and then you can think about an ordered generating set for infinite group.
But I think the case work of finitely vs infinitely generated isn't helpful for this problem anyway.
oh right, reciprocals of powera of primes then :P
Well which powers, cause some of them will be redundant
ah i see something the cyclic groups produced by a generator, I can look at like a group spanned by a bunch of generators?
ah yeah i figured it out as soon as i said it lmao, a strange group
Who needs 1/p when you got 1/p^2, amirite
So like say for some generators a group H is produced, if H is finite, we can extend our group into <H,g_n> where it is a larger group than before
so then <H,g_n> must eventually be infinite after repeating the process
just use 1/p^\infty smhsmsh
hmm but this gives finite subsets
Isn't that just Z/2Z x Z/2Z? The wiki page for Burnside's problem says that B(m, 2) is the direct product of m copies of Z/2Z
Part of my point is that there isn't any "the" generators for any group.
One possible set of generators for (Q,+) would be {1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5, ...}.
ah but you could have other generators
ahhh
i see
This is not B(2,2), because there's no (ab)²=e relation.
this is C2 \ast C2
free product
I see
I don't fully understand group presentation yet
In fact unless I'm mistaken, < a,b | a²=b²=e > is isomorphic to my later example of { x -> a+x | a in Z } U { x -> a-x | a in Z }.
so we want finitely many subgroups of an infinite group somehow contadicting the fact that the group is infinite
hmmm so every element has a cyclic group
the union of all of these must be the group itself
Yeah, I would recommend going for "there are infintely many cyclic subgroups" without using a contradiction.
lol, for a second I thought that was a counter-example to Burnside's problem, so I was like, why did it take people more than 60 years to come up with that example 
hmmm
without using a contradiction you mean that i shouldn't start off by saying consider the case of finitely many cyclic subgroups?
Right.
woulnd't i want to rule off why there are not finitely many cyclic subgroups?
(Mostly I'm trying to hint towards the proof I suggested at #groups-rings-fields message -- so I might be biased :-D ).
ah
I mean if there are infinitely many cyclic subgroups, wouldn't their union be an infinite group
im bugging out
Hmm, it turns out I actually phrased my own proof with a contradiction too. 
You can often slice these kinds of things in different ways, so essentially the same proof can look either as a by-contradiction or not.
Another way to state the same idea I wrote yesterday would be:
Consider all the cyclic subgroups.
If all of them are finite, then there must be infinitely many of them because (bla bla bla).
But if one of them is infinite, then there are also infinitely many of them because (other bla bla bla).
yeah
You can also frame the proof as an induction proof which is fun:
Say there's an infinite group with only n subgroups. If it has an infinite proper subgroup it must have strictly less than n subgroups.
If all the proper subgroups are finite, their union is finite, so there is an element not in a proper subgroup, hence the group is cyclic, contradiction.
So there are strictly less than n subgroups for every integer n, and you can have a negative number of subgroups.
me omw to get out of subgroup debt by borrowing an infinite group with finitely many subgroups
Sounds like a swindle.
Is there any reason to bother with polynomials here rather than just jumping striaght to we can write alpha as a/b in least terms etc? I guess its trying to get at the fact that it would be a root if it was rational, but its just made me doubt myself, it seems to be a pointless extra step to consider g
It does sound pointless
I mean it's showing that the min poly has deg. Atleast 2 I guess
Yeah sure I guess, it just seemed like all it did was add a line to the proof so I wanted to double check im not just being dumb
Well the proof will be that f is irreducible so the minimal polynomial is of deg 3
I know. I'm just trying to interpret this exercise in a way in which the last line is not pointless
They're not suggesting you add an extra step though.
They're saying in particular you can conclude this fact.
Like proving that alpha is not of the form a/b, so not rational, is a perfect answer to the first part.
And then it's trivial to show that in particular this means it's not a root of ax+b
Yeah I guess, fair enough
Lol
"Note that the cube root of 2 is a cube root of 2"
This whole problem sheet as been essentially just this, I hope the course picks up a little lol
use fermats last theorem
quick corollary

I do love absolutley nuking a problem, but id be amazed if thats not circular lol
Eisenstien criterion will be a small nuke
I prefer the slightly analytic proof that cbrt(2) is irrational
What is the slightly analytic proof?
I hope there's more to it than that in (b), (c) and so forth.
Otherwise it looks like the exercise is just name-dropping ring-theoretic concepts like Q(alpha) and Q[x] without them really being relevant for what you're being asked to do.
I learnt of a proof due to Conway (but not sure if it is actually due to him). The proof works to show that $N^{1/m}$ is irrational unless it is an integer. The idea here is this: suppose $N^{1/m}$ is rational and write $N^{1/m} = b+ a$ where $0 < a < 1$ and $b \in \mathbf N$. Now note that the subring $\mathbf Z[N^{1/m}] \subset \mathbf Q$ has a $\mathbf Z$-basis given by $1, N^{1/m}, \dots N^{\frac{m-1}{m}}$ so $\mathbf Z[N^{1/m}] \subset \frac{1}{d} \mathbf Z$ for some $d \ge 1$. But then $a^{k} \in \frac{1}{d} \mathbf Z$ for all $k$, which is impossible since you can find $k$ with $0 < |a^k| < 1/d$
(It is of course easier to state for square roots though)
Yeah later it got us to do polynomial division to show that it’s also not the root of a quadratic, so I guess it’s somewhat relevant but it feels such a trivial thing to even bother mentioning
Then again I probably have a much better background with rings and stuff than most of the people taking this so 
Of course not really too "analytic" but the point is that it never uses prime factorisation or anything and instead uses the order on Q
Cute. (But you have two different m's, I think).
Prismatic Potato
that should be fine
I'm not convinced that the stated elements are necessarily a Z-basis for the subring, but they clearly span it, which seems to be all we need.
I guess this really proves the stronger thing that Z is integrally closed
oh yeah
yeah true, I guess they are indeed a basis by considering the minimal polynomial, but the way i would prove that would make this circular lol. but yeah spanning is all that's needed
In fact they're not a basis if we consider for example 4^(1/4).
Except in the sense that they're a basis because we reach a contradiction, and then everything is true. 😆
Hey guys, can i get a small hint on how to solve:
f: M->N R-mod hom,
If f’ : M/IM->N/IN is surjective and I is nilpotent, show that f is surjective
Im not sure what im missing for this problem. Ive been trying for so long
So a good start could be to consider the image of f, let's call it X.
Then the statement that f' is surjective is exactly
X + IN = N.
so if you can prove that IN is contained in X you're done.
It might help to first think about when I^2 = 0
I guess i don’t intuitively understand this that well because that first equation is not immediately clear to me
So ill have to think abt it
A similar approach that might work as too big a hint is to consider what happens if ||you multiply N/X by I||
You should definitely convince yourself of the first equation then
Yeah i did see I^n-1N is contained in im(f) so i was thinking that might be helpful, but i got stuck at that point
Alright, and how did you prove that?
For any n there is m in M st f(m) = n+i1n1, if u just multiply by whatever n-1 i’s then you get that
Nice, this is basically the idea I was hinting at.
Now you just need to go from n-1 to n-2, and so on
Meaning from there show that I^(n-2)N contained in im(f) and so on?
Yeah, i guess thats why im stuck, cause i dont know how to do that yet. Ive been doing this for 3 hours so its probably healthy if i take a break now.
Well the method is pretty much identical to going from n to n-1
The main difference is that instead of multiplying by "whatever n-1" you multiply by "whatever n-2"
I dont see how i went from “n to n-1”
Well you took
n + i1n1 and multiplied by I^n-1 and noticed that I^n-1 * i1n1 was in the image
I noticed I^(n-1)N is in the image
Man, i guess?
Im not really thinking straight rn to be fair because im quite flustered
Coolio, maybe go defluster somehow
Ok im looking at my schools algebra prelim from last semester
First question is to show all groups of order 24 have normal subgroup of order 4 or a normal subgroup of order 8
I felt like i used that any n mod IN is in the image
Couldnt this be done using sylow theory or am I missing something
Yes, that's important too I guess
Oh actually the case where |Syl_2| = 3 leaves the problem unfinished I suppose
There is a small extra step after that yeah
Im not immediately seeing why it implies that theres a normal subgroup of order 4
A hint could be that S3 has order 6
Oh I see
So G acts on the sylow 2 subgroups
That action is transitive so the kernel of the action has order 4 and were done
Cool
In the case I^3=0 we have I^2N in im(f), and from that i can show
f(m) = n + i1n1
So f(i2m) = i2n+i1i2n1
f(m’) = i1i2n1 so then that shows i2n is in image sort of thing
So IN is in image(f)
So then you have it in the box yeah?
In the box?
Haha, i mean, this felt kind of anticlimactic, so im probably gonna go back later and reinterpret why i was so stuck on this
I think formulating it like this is not completely intuitive yet
Using more submodule notation and fewer elements makes the argument a little cleaner for my taste. Like
X + IN = N
Multiply by I gives
IX + I^2 N = IN
adding X to both sides gives
X + I^2 N = X + IN = N
Then by induction
X + I^n N = N
for all n.
Then you just need the existence of an n for which I^n N is a submodule of X
Ok interesting, and for us since I^nN = 0 then that last part is automatically true
Ive done the first part but im looking for a hint with the second part. If the sequence is exact, then its clear that $|A| = p^{n+m}$, and then by the FTFGAG, we know $A \cong \mathbb{Z}{p^{a_1}}\oplus\cdots\oplus \mathbb{Z}{p^{a_k}}$ such that $a_1+\dots+a_k = n+m$. Im guessing this is the right way to go based on the first question, but now im a little lost. I imagine I want to say something about the $a_i$ and get some sort of divisibility argument or something? Im not quite seeing it
Nope
Not an answer, but I think necessarily A is generated by 2 elements (1 in Z/p^m Z and a lift of 1 in Z/p^nZ), so you can take k <= 2.
Also the largest a_i is at least m, so that probably cuts it down further.
Hmm is p^{m+1}, p^{n-1} possible
Oh yeah good spot, but im not sure Im seeing the first thing yet, that its generated by 2 elements
,,
if m = n it seems there is only one such A, Ext^1 vanishes if i havent done anything wrong?
wait no thats wrong lol
ignore me
So I think Raghuram has given you a good hint for an elementary solution.
For a homalg solution: such sequences correspond to elements in Ext^1(Z/p^n, Z/p^m) so by taking the projective resolution
Z -p^n -> Z -> Z/p^n are given by pushouts
Z/p^m <- Z -p^n-> Z
So they are exactly
( Z (+) Z/p^m ) / (p^n, a)
for various values of a
god I love hom alg
Let 0 -> M -> N -> P -> 0. If {ai} generates M, {bj'} generates P and {bj} are lifts of bj' to N,then {ai, bj} generates N.
For n in N, let image in P be pi(n), then pi(n) = ∑_j dj bj'; lift this to ∑j dj bj then pi(n - ∑j dj bj) = 0 so it is in M so n - ∑j dj bj = ∑i ci ai.
God I wish I had time to study it properly and actually be able to make these arguments myself... maybe this summer
i like it too
yeah i see what you mean but doing manipulations on that level is not intuitive to me yet 🙁
Different folks different strokes
I guess youre really just treating it like an equation and manipulating it
Yeah im in the same boat, Ive sat with that solution for a few minutes and I can digest it but no way could I come up with that
Sure, it's an equality of modules, then I do the same thing to both sides
But ive never really spent the proper amount of time with homalg that id like to, I will get there
youre also using a lot how I+J = I iff J is a subset of I right
Yeah
Ok yeah I see this, thank you!
Had to sit on it and write some stuff out but I see whats happening
Ill go try to peice it together now, then its hometime
I once again didnt start ch3 today but im actually going back and filling in the patchy bits of my knowledge so I think its fine
whats ch3 of hatcher?
Cohomology
Im taking a course on it next sem and trying to just make a start
Yeah I dont know none haha, I know pretty much what I need for hatcher, like the first 3 chapters of Weibel, my issue is just that ive not done many excercises so im pretty bad at using it in general
I tried to do excercises in Weibel when I was looking at it but for issues of time, them being quite concerned with sheafs, and generally being hard it didnt really happen
you mean Weibel is concerned with sheafs or your course is
The book was, loads of the questions were about them, and I dont know anything about them, and didnt have time to really learn back then
hmm, might be interested in reading Weibel then
Sheaf cohomology was a bit of a tangent for what was already a tangent into homalg on my combinatoral comalg project
He doesnt like introduce them, theres just questions using them
lmao, still
ah i see, makes sense then
Yeah I kinda just needed to know about projective resolutions and Tor, I didnt have much time to bother with the rest
Yeah ok, pretty sure the final answer is all groups of the form $\mathbb{Z}{p^{m+t}} \oplus \mathbb{Z}{p^{n-t}}$ for $t\in \mathbb{N}$
Theres a third part to the question but I think thats good for now lol, surprisingly simple solution when you put the pieces together but for me at least, damn hard to see
Nope
I learned a bit about Ext but not about some correspondence between its elements and short exact sequences
Thats pretty cool
it's one of the main reasons you care about computing it I think
right??
Yeah thats fair i havent really seen much where Ext is used. Besides as a way to detect depth
I dont really remember how that argument goes much besides using the LES for ext from a ses using regular elements
My understanding of derived functors is that they’re basically measuring failure of a sequence to be exact, or like I guess, making them exact
right-derived functors measure the failure of right-exactness of some left-exact functor
Like the tensor product isn’t exact, so if you want to take an exact sequence to an exact sequence you need to slap some Tor in there
And yeah it’s sided of course
At some point does it go to 0 ?
and left-derived functors measure the failure of left-exactness of some right-exact functor
Like R^nF(A) = 0
I don’t know in general tbh, the only derived functors I know are really Tor and Ext and even then only really for categories with enough projectives etc
I know the idea with tor is that you can take projective resolutions and everything works nicely but I’ve no idea how that generalises
Yea i had to learn a bit about that cause local cohomology is also a right derived functor
Where’s jagr when you need him
Sounds like you got it under control
well the idea with projective resolutions, is that it doesn't matter what resolution you take, the (co)homology will be the same (up to isomorphism of course)
I believe this is done by using projectivity to construct a homomorphism of resolutions and show that, after applying whatever functor you have, it turns into a quasiisomorphism?
In fact all projective resolutions (of a given module) are homotopy equivalent
So taking projective resolution is a functor to the homotopy category
And additive functors or smth preserve homotopies right
Indeed
ohh okay i see, that induces a homotopy equivalence between complexes after passing through an additive functor
Damn about as big a compliment as you can get
I suspected that taking resolutions and stuff would work nicely in general as that’s kinda what you spend the first bit of Weibel setting up and I don’t remember it being anything specific, but I’m not confident enough with that to back myself in general
I mean, was there like a specific question? The general definition of derived functor isn't really different from Ext and Tor
What are people yapping about just homological algebra?
Pre much
Nice
Is there more to life really
Lol
nope
Specifically about this stuff, I don’t really know how anything works in like non module categories, or what happens if you don’t have enough projectives etc and you can’t always build a resolution
derived functors need enough projectives/injectives
though maybe there is some fucky wucky construction that makes it more general who knows
I mean, I guess you can define them as universal delta functors or whatever, but you can't really prove they exist
Ah yes this is true haha
I still don’t really get the deal with universal delta functors, I know they’re somehow a massive deal and everyone loves the Tohoku paper but I don’t really get the big picture
Well, like the main benefit of derived functors is that they give you a long exact sequence.
And a delta functor is just the data of functors that give long exact sequences
yup
yes
Introducing: dan
thank you kiand123
my apologies u been here since 2022. But ur new to me
yeah lol, haven't been active much here?
I just pop up every now and then and ask questions
Got to boost that blue color in the name
and answer some too!
What does the colour in names mean?
Level of activity
How much of your life you waste
ONE DAY!
Jagr is yellow cause he Honourable
is it really time wasted if its talking about math
If you waste it well it becomes golden
You are "Very active" for example
I sureee am 👑
do they just give it at some point
It’s automatic
o
A bot measures it somehow
I am helpful
There was a fuck up with said bot today though, it’s like 2 weeks behind
Why are u helpful
because I am helpful
True
I help at the help channels
homological algebra stuff I've got a course next term which'll be nice -- had to use a lot for my project last year tho shoutout to my boy kenneth brown his book is goated
Despite all my efforts there’s still never been a homalg course anywhere I’ve been, maybe I’ll get round to it in my PhD…
I do think it's quite rare
why downvote me @thorn jay
i've just started my masters (different uni, got a scholarship) and there wasn't one at the uni I did my undergrad
considering in how many disparate fields of math its used yeah it is somewhat strange
I guess people maybe package it into a rep theory / algtop / alggeo course
smh
Yeah I think my current uni do a little week or two tangent in the algtop course
WTF
you'd think that but don't think so! maybe just like lightly ig not sure
I mean, it's kinda necessary for those courses
But having done my UG and doing my masters at places with so much rep theory AG and K theory you’d think I’d have come across a course in it
I’ve also not managed to even do a rep theory course at either of them 🥀
especially even outside of those areas like take group cohomology can go from there to galois cohomology or even like bounded cohomology and stuff if you're more GGT
I think my uni is stronger at analysis
but there are some professors who teach algebra
and all of them are amazing
my unis quite heavy on algebraic geometry
my school does hom alg in a modules course but no dedicated course
and no hom alg???
I'm gonna be taking rep theory 4th quarter, which means Im gonna be doing group theory and rep theory at the same time 
how is this proof for the question proposed earlier
Take the set of cyclic groups of each element. Since there are finitely many subgroups, our chosen set is finite. The union of these sets cover the group. There are two cases to consider. If we have an infinite cyclic group, consider an isomorphism from the cyclic group to the integers which clearly have infinitely many subsets. If we have only have finite cyclic groups in our set of groups, then their union must also be finite which is a contradiction.
aren't you a rep theory master or something
some of you seem like you have an infinite well of knowledge
enpeace is the UA master
well I've done some rep theory from Serre's book and also from Erdmann's book on algebras and rep theory
but that's abt it
you are the rep theory master
which can be seen as the representation theory of clones so good enough
rep theory of artin algebras maybe.
Someone else can claim groups
Yeah the extent of the rep theory Ive managed to do is enough character theory to define L functions and the like one workshop in my noncom class where we prove schur, maschke and said find some modules of CD_4 or something like that, so like not much
Anyway, I may be doing a thesis on a categorical notion of rep theory in fucked up monoidal categories 
that sounds fun
It does, but it also sounds possibly too hard
maybe there's some nice analogues of character theory at that abstraction
The sentence "Since there are finitely many subgroups, our chosen set is finite" looks strange in this context. (Perhaps a leftover from editing?) It would be a better proof simply to remove that sentence.
Then again my other option is some K theory nonsense so uh, gonna be good times
Its not really rep theory per se, but more so, ok we can go to representations, how can we go back. Theres some conjecture about Tanakian reconstruction in these categories that the prof suggested
But I think in 3 months even getting up to speed on the problem will be a challange
but are you in any pressure?
how it feels to research anything nowadays
I mean Id like to pass my masters ideally
Real. Like I said my other option is K theory stuff so like, im going to be suffering either way lol
Like 9 or 10 months now, the time I have to write the thesis is 3 months though
ok yeah thats nothing
real talk K-theory research sounds muuchhh harder than this rep theory stuff of monoidal categories, as in to catch up / keep up
good luck 
Yeah I dont think so tbh, like K theory is fucked, but its not all created equal, it didnt sound like I need to learn infty-catgeories or anything for it
Also the prof who suggested the monoidal stuff I didnt get off on the best foot with so 
oh right I see
honestly I get scared and cower in a corned everytime I see the word K-theory
infty-categories seem more approachable, somehow
Yeah I mean the stuff he suggested is Milnor K-theory, so like, I just need to deal with tensor algebras I think
I mean, I use K0 all the time. How much harder can it get to just increase that 0 a bit
it's weird to me that so much can be said by just a single group
I still genuinely dont really know what it is, and after spending half an hour talking with that prof about it, its not much more clear to me
"wow the set of clones on the singleton is so simple! How hard can it be to just add one element.."
The humble post's lattice:
Like its an invarient of a topological space, sure, something about vector bundles, sure, but like WTF do they actually measure and why is there like 6 different branches all called K theory?
I love Post's lattice it is so horrendously fucked up
I know its like something something Grothendieck wanted a unified cohomology theory but how does that tie in
well if Grothendieck wants something he'll get it
I think that's the most reasonable explanation
Maybe ill take the K theory project just to come at you with an answer
Maybe I can become the resident knower of something
Nope (K-theory #1 fan)
if you learn UA you can become the second in command 🔥
if you think K-theory is the doable one out of these then I'd say do it!!
hope me luck I don't go to sleep randomly
I think I can get something out of each of them, but both profs want me to do novel research which I dont see happening. Ill make my mind up next week, ive still got one more potential advisor to chat to (and possibly a second if he ever replies to my email) but I doubt ill take that since hes a geometer
He is lovely though
Yeah theres just not really the time for it, maybe if youre at a place with a 2 year masters but ill have like 3 months ish to seriously think about it and work on it, and its seeming like I very barely have the prereqs to even begin to learn how state the problems just now so I dont see myself getting far with research
Especially with the monoidal categories one, bro said people have worked it out up to like char 5 or something then theyre stuck, tf makes you think I can help
Lol
I'm sure you'll have an epiphany
Uhh have yall tried induction
yeah I solved collatz with it actually
just yesterday
the proof is barely half a page!
I've written it up in google docs, I can send you a google drive link if you want
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Boolean_algebras_canonically_defined
this is a such a strange wikipedia page
Boolean algebras are models of the equational theory of two values; this definition is equivalent to the lattice and ring definitions.
Boolean algebra is a mathematically rich branch of abstract algebra. Stanford Encyclopaedia of Philosophy defines Boolean algebra as 'the algebra of two-valued logic with only sentential connectives, or equivale...
it reads a little like an nlab page? in terms of difficulty, but then logic/UA-pilled rather than category theory pilled
hint?
Weird
so this means that the main article on Boolean algebras define them non-canonically
well they're a lot more beginner-friendly
this for example almost explicitly defines Boolean algebras as the representation theory of the maximal clone on the set {0, 1}, and derives all the rest from there
I see the point of wanting to cover this content in wikipedia, but I feel like at a certain point it turns wikipedia into just an online textbook, or kind of a community edited blog
Whenever I read wikipedia I'm constantly reminded of the expression "a camel is a horse designed by committee"
in that sense its "canonical", and I do agree that is the correct way to view Boolean algebras (I believe you can extend this to give an algebraic logic for any logic system)
that's fair, but nlab wouldn't have this stuff which I think is a little sad
Why not?
it's too logic-y
at least I skimmed the boolalg page on nlab and it didnt mention nearly half of the stuff covered in this wikipedia page
I guess the wiki article is decent, it covers a lot
I just wish it didn't have that weird title and intro
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Analysis_of_Boolean_functions
what the fuck 😭
I agree with the title, fwiw
defining it as the representation theory of the clone of boolean functions
If an automorphism takes generators to generators and we can have infinitely many generating sets for Z, can we not have far more automorphisms?
well if there are infinitely many generating sets, then there are infinitely many ways to permute them no?
but Z has not many automorphisms - this is precisely because there are only a very small amount of singleton generating sets
an automorphism must map a generating set to a generating set of the same size
An automorphism sends generators to generators, but the converse isn't always true: you can't necessarily send generators to generators and expect an automorphism
actually I had a small research project on my second year about this
Good question tho tbh
oo no way
it was about fourier transforms of boolean functions like this
It was wacky and we didn't really achieve much
is there some nice rep theory perspective of this?
A more appropriate formulation might be to say that an automorphism takes a generating set to a generating set.
Then it might be more clear why an automorphism can't map {2, 3} to {1} even though both are generating sets.
Im trying to show PSL_2(F_q), where q=p^n, p prime not equal 2, is a simple subgroup of SL2(F_q). I have that SL2(F_q) is generated by all transvections (upper and lower unit triangular matrices in the 2x2 case), and now i want to show if K is a normal subgroup of SL2(F_q) which contains a transvection, then it contains all of the transvections
so first i suppose K contains the matrix [[1,a],[0,1]] for a not equal 0.
Then because we are working in SL2(F_q), we have an easy formula for inverses
we want to show if we take these elements (w,x,y,z) in F_q, then we can produce any element in the top right while producing 1 in the top left and bottom right, and 0 in the bottom left
not sure how to do that easily though
ah wait
lemme cook
hm yea
so we get az^2 in the top right
which def does not generate the units of F_q?
Notice that
[1, a]
[0, 1]
raised to the nth power is
[1, na]
[0, 1]
we do offer hom alg as a course! that's what i was saying!
So that gives all the upper triangular unipotent matrices
oh i think it was someone else who said that then lol? my memory is garbage
no worries! :)
Okay only p of them, I see q not prime
right
wdym by this
ahhh
But you can multiply by squares and you can add stuff.
Seems reasonable that every element of Fq would be the sum of some number of squares
so say if i were to find the automorphism group of the integers, how would i do so if there are many different generating sets to choose from?
Just pick whichever you like
but how do i know if they give all automorphisms
Generating sets don't give automorphism...
If you pick a nice generating set -- such as {1} rather than {3,5} -- then it's easier to see what the ways to send that set to some other generating set is, and then you can check which of those actually produces an automorphism.
understood
(In this case, there are two ways to send {1} to some generating set, and it turns out both of them extend to automorphisms).
automorphism -> generating sets mapped to generating set of the same size but not the converse
yeah
(In contrast, most of the infinitely many ways to send {3,5} to a two-element generating set don't extend to automorphisms).
let A={na: n in {1,...,p}}. Is it true that F_q={bz^2: b in A and z in F_q}?
how do we know that
So it's easier to classify the automorphisms based on what happens to {1} than based on what happens to {3,5}.
Probably not. Would at least depend what n is
I happen to know it because I already know that the only automorphisms of Z are the identity and negation. So {3,5} has to map as either f(3)=3, f(5)=5 or as f(3)=-3, f(5)=-5. There are a myriad possibilites such as f(3)=17, f(5)=2 that send {3,5} to some generating set, but won't match any of the two possible automorphisms.
I mean A is the set of all things in the additive group generated by a
what if we didn't know the automorphisms of Z
Yes, I understood that
The easiest would probably be to find them first.
Nobody is (I hope) saying anything like "if you pick some generating set, here's a method for finding the automorphisms by staring at that generating set, which always works".
At most, it's a case of "it can often help with identifying automorphisms to pick some generators and consider what an automorphism has to do to those generators". (And it is much more likely to help if you pick a small set of generators than if you pick a larger one).
Okay yeah actually it will be.
If b is a square then bz^2 ranges over all the squares and when b is nonsquare bz^2 ranges over all nonsquares
why does the second assertion hold?
I mean bz^2 are all nonsquare and they make up half of the elements, so that's all of the nonsquare elements
ah ok, I didnt know the number of non-zero squares in a field of order q, q not even, was 1/2(q-1)
It has to be, because each nonzero square has two square roots, and every nonzero element is the square root of something.
So there's one square for each pair of {x,-x}.
why does the square for the pair {-x,x} and {-y,y} need be distinct for x not equal y?
Because if x²=y²=a and x isn't ±y, then the polynomial X²-a would have four different roots, which is not possible in a field.
ah true
(It's different in characteristic 2, because then X²-a² factors as (X-a)(X-a), so then an element can have only one square root. So in a finite field of characteristic 2, every element must be a square; otherwise there wouldn't be enough squares to go around).
(Both of these alternatively follow from the (slightly deeper) fact that the multiplicative group of a finite field is cyclic).
If F is a free abelian group of rank n, then Aut(F) is isomorphic to the multiplicative group of all n x n matrices over \Bbb{Z}. with determinant = ±1
got the forward the direction with the argument that the inverse has to exist and taking determinant of phi phi^-=1.
anyclue of the converse?
What should the morphism related to an n x n integer matrix look like?
Also have you proven that two different autos can't have the same matrix?
you mean the End or the map from End(F) \to M_n(Z)
I mean, given A \in M_n(Z), what 'should' the element of Aut(F_n) related to it look like
i mean not all of MnZ gonna correspond to an Aut, but i haven't done the explicit sort of construction
for the x_i \mapsto x_j it will be permutation of identity
Do you know about the adjugate matrix?
looked it up, yeah i have some naive idea about adjoint
Alright, well from it it follows that invertible determinant implies the matrix is invertible
how convenient, just the units of Z
Yeah, the same argument works for any commutative ring
yeah, which i just noticed and thought of a nice tool to have in pocket
Most of them wont even be homomorphisms right?
Correct.
I need to review these basic ideas heh…
What exactly is the converse you want?
That if G is any group (abelian or not) and its automorphism group is isomorphic to GL(n,Z), then G is free abelian of rank n?
They prove automorphism implies determinant ±1, so presumably the converse they wanted was determinant ±1 implies automorphism
Ah, makes sense.
(Turns out what I proposed wouldn't even be true: Z/3Z and Z/4Z both have the same automorphism group as Z).
((And a bit of googling even found me a torsion-free example: the additive group of rationals with square-free denominator also only has has {1,-1} as automorphisms.))
(((And tensoring any nontrivial free abelian group with that gives a non-free abelian group with the same endomorphisms and thus the same automorphism group.)))
do we just need to make sure where we send the generators satisfy the relations the generators had among themselves?
yes
thx bruhski
because what you actually do is construct a homomorphism from the free structure on those generators and proves it factors through the quotient, which is isomorphic to the group/module/whatever
more generally, suppose a presentation A = <X | R>, where R is some set of equations with variables in X (i.e. relations), then a function f : X → B extends to a homomorphism A → B if and only if the equations in R hold in B, when each x is substituted with f(x)
so you only have to prove that "enough" relations hold
i think im trying to understand what maps are factoring through
so we have M->N we construct the free structure on generators of M, so F(M)/ker = M
Say S generates M. Then there is a quotient map p : F(S) → M, and an inclusion function i : S → F(S).
Any function f : S → N extends to a homomorphism f* : F(S) → N. This map "descends down" to a homomorphism f' : M → N if and only if ker p is contained in ker f*
hold on, I can draw a diagram that may explain this (and the terminology) better
im not even seeing where we getting a M->N
okay, so S ⊆ M is a generating set
this is expressed using this diagram commuting (p is the unique surjective homomorphism making this diagram commute, and the other two arrows are the usual inclusion functions)
say now, we want to construct some homomorphism f : M → N, by specifying some function f|_S : S → N
that induces a unique map f* : F(S) → N like so
this is by evaluating the expressions in F(S) at f|_S
Ok
cleaning up a bit, we now want to factor this map f* via p, to get the homomorphism f : M → N
this is what i mean by "descending down", you want to "descend" the induced map f* down to the quotient
Ok i kinda see what u mean better now
in a sense f* is the "naive" homomorphism constructed from f|_S, not taking into account the structure of M at all, just that it is generated by S
Brb but im listening
factoring through p shows that the function f|_S actually respects the structure of M (that is, all the relations that the generators satisfy).
If we let the image of s ∈ S in F(S) be denoted by |s|, youve got this
So indeed, ker p ⊆ ker f* if and only if each relation satisfied by S in M is also true in N. But by properties of quotients, ker p ⊆ ker f* is exactly the condition for f* to descend down to M!
a presentation M = <S | R> is telling you that ker p is generated by R, so then we get my original statement that a function f : S → N extends to f' : M → N if and only if every relation in R is satisfied after substituting each s ∈ S with f(s)
this line of reasoning exactly translates to any algebraic structure you can think of
Thats good stuff ill read this
Gtg rn for calc tutorial tho
They are doing product rule 🥺
Sorry, if I interrupt. But I have a pretty quick question I think. My book restricts the notions of prime/irreducible elements to integral domains. Is this strictly necessary? Why can't we talk about irreducible elements in $(\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z})[X]$ for instance?
Ante0417
good luck 🙏 🙏 🙏
I dont think integral domain is necessary to talk about them. I guess you dont have the prime implies irreducible thing if youre not in a domain though
if R is not an integral domain, then there are a couple different ways to define irreducibility, and it behaves nowhere near as nice
Why would the definition of irreducibility change though.
not change, there are just multiple ones which are useful, but only equivalent in integral domains
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irreducible_element
the wiki article covers this
In algebra, an irreducible element of an integral domain is a non-zero element that is not invertible (that is, is not a unit), and is not the product of two non-invertible elements.
The irreducible elements are the terminal elements of a factorization process; that is, they are the factors that cannot be further factorized. If the irreducible f...
$p$ is called irreducible if a factorization of type $p = xy$ with $x,y \in R$ implies $x \in R^\ast$ or $y \in R^\ast$.
no wait
True
I cant do the latex thing 😂
use \ast
Ngl i dont know what u put in that p map
anyways, thats called strongly irreducible
Ante0417
its the evaluation map
aight ty
sends |s| to s in M
Why are u evaluating it at some sum and = 0?
you want to know the elements of the kernel of p
Because those are dem relations
and the computation shows that ker p is exactly the set of expressions in elements of S that evaluate to 0 in M
thats what you show, yes
So are you trying to understand what properties p needs to have so that f o p equals that f* map?
we want to know when such an f exists
Oh ok i thought we already had f
no, thats the whole thing we want to construct
Ok that makes more sense
we begin with a function f|_S : S → N, want to construct a morphism f : M → N such that f restricted to S is indeed f|_S
we are trying to look for a condition on f* such that we can construct such and f.
Yoooo enpeace handwriting
I know it blew my mind first time i saw it too
Now im trying to remember why the f* appeared and why its relevant ig
universal property of free modules
Like the definition parses, but I don't think it's super useful.
Like in Z/6 you have that 2 is prime, but not irreducible
Meaning we can have any F(S)->N morphism based on saying where we want S to go in N
exactly
and the desired morphism f existing is equivalent to f* factoring via p in this diagram
thats what the uniqueness part of the universal property says
if there is an f : M → N with f(s) = f|_S(s), then f* must equal to f ∘ p, because f*(|s|) = f|_S(s) = f(s) = f ∘ p(|s|)
Ok i kinda see what ur saying there but need to think it through a bit
Agreed, which is why i do want to understand this one lol
Whats the best way to think about the uni property of free modules, is it the fact free modules have the property that sending its basis anywhere, to any module (like as a set function) always extends to a unique map of modules?
I think dummit and foote talks about it as something like any set S can give a free module with basis S, and then it shows that property with the maps in the diagram
@thorn jay ill come back to this but ngl i probably should leave it for later
Ive been sooo distracted by this discord lately
yes the above is correct
ok, i feel like dummit and foote were emphasizing the fact that a set S can have a free module F(S) with basis S
idek
is it part of the universal property though
no, the universal property gives a characterisation of the free module
Ahh
Thats what uni properties do
So a module in the wild that has that property is a free module
In one minute im talking abt product rule
if a module M has the universal property of free modules wrt a function f: X → M, then it must be naturally isomorphic to F(X)
What do you mean by naturally isomorphic in this case
i think canonical map be better. An isomorphism φ: F(X) → M such that f = φ ∘ i, with i: X → F(X) being the inclusion
I see
Ok i see what u mean ig, not sure i see the significance of it though
Like im not so sure why you said its “with respect to some subset” anyway
the universal property is not necessarily something of the module itself, but rather a property of a module with respect to some subset of (or more generally a function to) the module
because you have to specify some generating set for the universal property
and the statement "there exists a basis B ⊆ M" is equivalent to "there is a subset B ⊆ M such that M has the universal property of free modules wrt to the inclusion i : B → M"
notice how in the top diagram here, we are required to know the inclusion map S → F(S)
Ok i think i get it
free module they did nothing wrong
can someone help me with this ? #1428824151077945344
You might want to look into algorithms that solve the word problem for finite groups, or algorithms that reduce group elements into irreducible words in some fixed set of generators
okay so if this is a finite groups i can search for similitudes with others finite groups that already have an algorithm to solve them ?
this is a finite group
thx i'm going to search for this
i just want module back bro
Hello! I am trying to prove one of the problems from Herstein's "Topics in Algebra". I've got a proof, but it feels a little bit hacky. I couldn't do anything better yet though. I just wanted to discuss if you think that the proof is good and maybe think about some alternative proofs.
Here is my proof (used Overleaf for the first time in a while!)
First I wanted to prove it more directly, i.e. try to capture the essence of this N, write its definition without intersections
I don't know what normal is 🙂 that's in the next chapter
I guess this just prepares me for the next chapter -- I think this is good approach 🙂
I like doing those problem-oriented books, that asks you to prove many intermediate results and just guide you by splitting it into small chunks and sequencing appropriately. So I don't mind
OK, then that's that 🙂 It also looked to me like it's also N(N) = G, i.e. normalizer of N is whole G
I wondered if there is a name for such thing, and it turns out there is 🙂
anyway, so what do you think about the proof?
Herstein introduces normalizers, centralizers and center in the exercises (maybe he doesn't use them much later, not sure)
cool! Glad to hear that. I've spent like an hour before I came to this idea of just plugging in the definition (quite an obvious idea in retrospect, I guess I just didn't want to deal with hairy combinations of intersections)
I tried characterise the resulting elements of N instead (i.e. the ones that are present in every single xHx^{-1} -- tried to get some properties of them, but that didn't help much with proving the second part...
If you want more words, the N in this exercise is called the core of H
Ah, cool, thanks, that's helpful!
so now I have lots of new terms: core, centre, centraliser, normaliser and normal groups 🙂
so I suspect that there are examples of H and G so that core, C(H) and N(H) are all different, right?
Sure
I already figured that in S_3 C(H) != N(H) when H = (e, (123), (321))
Another meta-question: is it better to discuss such questions/proofs here or in a separate help-channel?
(I am new to this Discord)
If the questions are related to groups, rings or fields, then here is good
proof looks good, very detailed and explained well to be honest. I wouldn't be surprised to find this in an introductory textbook
(dont tell mods but this channel is a cooler #discussion too sometimes)
the healthy choice
i regret to inform that i have a couple messages in there when i am summoned
(usually something UA related)
That dark shadowy place.
That's beyond our borders. We must never go there, Kian
That's Opportunity's half of the planet. We must never go there.
The best thing Disney ever did
they were good but now theyre bad
I have studying role to keep me away from there
Makes me think of
https://youtu.be/VfCYZ3pks48?si=D0k6QLtVInulmGp4?t=40s
Buy the song here!
http://scottgairdner.bandcamp.com/track/sex-offender-shuffle
Buy the instrumental here!
https://scottgairdner.bandcamp.com/track/sex-offender-shuffle-instrumental
Listen on Spotify here!
https://open.spotify.com/album/4zfMIHCqwnc7jAmJGeTP3y?si=QgsYMnyiQtaxu4UQd_STAQ
Listen on Apple Music here!
https://music.apple.com/us/album/...
exactly what i was referencing
Wdym
.
Lol
it matches the profile now
wdym
The pink
oh yeah true
One who cannot reach the grapes says they must be sour
how poetic
It used to be the piss role, new colour is for sure better
kaki
Shoutout aesops fables
I didnt even notice a change in the color tbh
everytime i see something poetic in a silly place im reminded of that one stupid tweet
the cathedral one?
yes
There are cathedrals everywhere for those with eyes to see them or something?
Ok i get it up to (and including) here, but the fact that there was all that hidden background involved when u said “descend down to quotient” is like 😂
Its interesting so far though
im sorry lmao this stuff is engrained in my system cuz its so fundamental to UAG 
Nah this has been super helpful for me so far
yippee
Q[\sqrt{2} ] has only 2 ring automorphism, right?
a+b\sqrt{2} -> a + b\sqrt{2}, and a + b\sqrt{2} -> a - b\sqrt{2}
you can try proving this if you are unsure
i proved, just to be confirm that i did it correctly
Free implies torsion free over an integral domain, if that's what you're asking
torsion (in modules) is when ax = 0 for some x in your module and a in the ring the module is over
What's your definition of free module?
Because free modules are just direct sums of copies of R
{1} is a basis for R
Anyway, ca = 0 implying c=0 is just the definition of R being a domain
there is no meaning to infinite sums
sure but that depends on some metric
so you need extra structure to say that
how would you define an infinite sums of polynomials?
but what is x + x^2 + x^3 + ... +?
this won't be a polynomial
yeah
but then theres that whole thing with the definition of torsion being weird when R not a domain vs a domain etc
There are cases where you can have a “metric” and your elements can be infinite sums, eg the power series ring R[[x]] and Laurent series ring R((x))
But you need to take some care in defining those
but really there its a formal sum
That’s why i said elements and you have to take some care
is there reason to talk about torsion in non-domains?
maybe that was not the best way to phrase it
yeah you just take non-zero divisors iirc
ok
this makes me think, is there like a way to turn a non-domain into a domain?
like a functor or something.... idk cat theory
prime ideals 🔥
probably taking all of the non-zero divisors of the ring or something
that doesnt form a ring
the small problem with this is that you need to choose a prime ideal
yes exactly
do you have an idea for something more canonical?
i think theres a problem with that lol
hmm ive got an idea on how to prove that
i think
would you like to share?
let me eat first 🔥 🔥
I guess the simplest examples would be say you have a ring like
KxF
where K and F are two fields.
What would be the integral domain you associate it with?
I don't have a good answer to that
probably the trivial ring
because every nonzero element is a zero-divisor
Well, by the most common definition the trivial ring is not an integral domain, but if we allow that then I guess you can just mod out the ideal generated by all zero-divisors an repeat that until you get an integral domain
Will not be functorial though if that was a goal
okay, notice that a universal morphism f : R → S with S an integral domain would induce a surjective map f* : Spec S → Spec R. Then we see that f*^-1(V(ker f)) = V(f(ker f)) = V(0) = Spec S. Thus, as f* is surjective, this must mean that V(ker f) = Spec R, and so ker f must be the nilradical. But ker f is a prime ideal, so this means that the adjunction cannot exist in general. @rapid cave
This argument nicely generalises to coherent conditions
wdym by coherent?
The fact that there can't a universal map from R to an integral domain I guess is easy to see by just considering something like R = Z/6
I'm guessing a functor from commutative rings to integral domains that restricts to the identity on integral domains is not possible either
alternatively: let p be prime in R
=> p = f^-1(q) for q prime in S
=> ker f = f^-1(0) < f^-1(q) = p
so ker f must be the unique minimal prime hence the nilradical
the gist is that they provide a nice framework for general classifications of congruences that are preserved under preimages and quotients. Regardless, they hold surprisingly much power imo
why does kerf being the nilradical is bad?
There are rings where the nilradical isn't prime
oh its that simple
yup
Could I please have a hint for showing that if x is in p, then x is a zero divisor
Wait never mind I just realized I proved => wrong
For => do I need Zorn's lemma
wait no that's for constructing maximal elements uhhh
Oh wait, maybe I could just say that if ax = 0 for some nonzero a, then x in (0:a) \subseteq r(0:a), which is prime
and is the smallest prime ideal containing (0:a)
I think that works
Wordle 1583 4/6*
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so true
General question
Do you actually write while solving a problem
I’ve been finding more and more that I just do it in my head
Like I’ll just try different things in my head
I would say this depends a lot on the problem, how hard it is etc. Personally (as a phd student) I find the conceptual stuff often gets done when I am just mulling stuff over, but then often to get to some understanding you need to look at examples and things, and try to pursue half-formed ideas etc
Yeah I can certainly sometimes just do stuff in my head, and I’d say that’s generally where the bulk of the work happens, but there’s no getting around the fact that sometimes you’ve just got to try some stuff when you’ve only got half the idea, or maybe there’s just a long computation to do
Ideally, I think, as you get more experienced, the complexity of problems you tackle should increase simultaneously so it keeps hovering just around the point where you need to start writing things down to keep everything straight.
If I don't write down stuff I find that I often miss important details or get small subtelties wrong
lol the number of times i thought i had finished a problem i'd been working on for weeks/months only to notice i swapped two things by accident or smth in my head
have u read/heart of Alg Top from a Homotopical Viewpoint by Aguilar-Gitler-Prieto?
If so what do u think
Seen a bit and iirc looked p good but haven't read it too properly sorry
But iirc one of the better books for this stuff
Nice I’ll add it to the list then
dont we need F to be algebraically closed for jordan normal form to exist
Take a field extension K of F such that the JNFs you care about exist
G and GL_2(F) are subgroups of GL_2(K) so we can compute in GL_2(K), then restrict back
Am I wrong in thinking that the nilradical and jacobson radical of this ring are both (y^2+1) (in R = C[x,y]/I)
wait no
give me a moment
As we know prime/max ideals of R <-> prime/max ideals of C[x,y] containing I. I = (X(Y-1)(Y+1)) + (Y(Y-1)(Y+1)) = (Y-1)(Y+1)((X) + (Y)). So, I \subset (x-a,y-b). One way of expressing this inclusion is in terms of the evaluation map. if x -> a, y -> b, then if I is mapped to 0 under evaluation, then I is in (x-a,y-b).
So, certainly I \subset (x,y), (x-a,y-1), (x-b,y+1), a, b \in C.
so now we take the intersection?
(x-a,y-1) \cap (x-b,y-1) = (x-a,y-1) \cdot (x-b,y-1) due to coprimality
hm
Wait actually
for C[x], we know the jacobson radical is trivial, as otherwise it would imply the existence of a polynomial with unbounded degree
in particular
\bigcap (x-a) = (0)
So, \bigcap (x-a,y-1) = (y-1)
\bigcap (x-b,y+1) = (y+1)
so, we are left to do (x,y) \cap (y-1) \cap (y+1). These ideals are coprime, so we can simply multiply
to get that the jacobson radical is (x,y) \cdot (y-1) \cdot (y-1)
and I believe the nilradical is the same in this ring
actually we know the nilradical is a prime ideal
hmmmmm
since these are coprime, use chinese remainder theorem
ohhhhhhh
and this is I ?
(X, Y)(Y^2-1) = (XY^2 - X, Y^3 - Y) = I
so N(R) = 0?
and as spec \cup (0) = maxspec in C[X,Y], J(R) = 0
Actually, I've just thought of another way to show this
youve shown I = (x,y) \cap (y-1) \cap (y+1), so C[x,y]/I \cong C x C[x] x C[x]
By CRT, we have the iso
$$\mathbb{C}[X,Y]/I \rightarrow \mathbb{C}[X,Y]/(Y-1) \times \mathbb{C}[X,Y]/(Y+1) \times \mathbb{C}[X,Y]/(X,Y) \cong \mathbb{C}[X] \times \mathbb{C}[X] \times \mathbb{C}$$
swifteeee
yeah
and C[X], C have N(R) = 0 each
we know by a previous exercise that N(R x S) = N(R) x N(S)
so N(C[x,y]/I) = 0
same for the jacobson radical
yez
i am unaware of that at this moment
though i am waiting excitedly for the day we introduce varieties
well i think the better commutative algebra intuition you have the more exciting and meaningful algebraic geometry is
visualization is a really good tools
As an R module yeah
in general Hom_R(R, M) \cong M for an R-module M
Freddy Fazbear?
W
It is the kinda thing that’s obvious once you’ve seen it, but not before then
They probably should say something but I’m guessing your prof just kinda glossed over it without thinking
Videogame character lol
how are they doing the multiplication here
But sounds like R R R
in my opinion for f, g, endomorphisms it should be (f*g)(x) = f(g(x)), but ig that's another convention
The trick is to work with right modules, then you get End(R) = R, no op needed
the trick is to work with everything commutative, then none of this is needed
No that is the convention here I believe lol
🤤
huh?
fg(x) = f(g(x)) is indeed the usual convention
but then for f_r : x |-> rx we have f_r(f_s(x)) = r(s(x)) = (rs)(x) = f_rs(x). How does that turn into R^op
Well f_r isn't linear.
The correct map should be
x |-> xr
Right modules also makes it more natural to think of M as an
End(M)-R-bimodule
So you don't need to take any ops or consider bimodules on the same side
Btw jagr do you know anything about Verlinde categories or Tannakian reconstruction/duality? I don’t know if that’s so much the rep theory you do but you also seem to be a never ending source of algebra knowledge
just work with commutative rings 
that's what i said and i got downvoted
Someone find the image
the jesus one?
😭
nO
it's "what's the matter commutative boy, afraid you might get an interesting theory?"
I will say my knowledge about that is zero, but I might just look it up
I’ve reached out to a prof who suggested a masters thesis to me in some intersection of these ideas, and it sounds very cool but also very difficult and I was just wondering if you had any thoughts at all (if you knew about them)
I think potentially me getting to the point of understanding the problem he wants me to work on is feasible, but actually progressing the research probably less so
It’s that or I do some Milnor K theory stuff so I think I’m just suffering in either case
milnor goes to a restaurant and says "waiter waiter one more arrow in my diagram please"
You're not really supposed to progress research during a master thesis I guess
Getting to the point where you then can start research in a phd is already good I think
This prof seemed like he really wanted me to, but he also seemed to assume a lot of knowledge from me generally (he kinda grilled me about alggeo for a while prior to this because I mentioned potentially doing something with D modules)
But yeah, idk, I have about enough understanding to almost digest what those definitions are but I don’t know if perhaps you had anything insightful to say about them lol
But what I’ve done with monoidal categories so far has been cool, and this seems to be rep theory related in a special monoidal category which seems like a mix of words I enjoy
Yeah could be fun.
Don't know how fun it is if your advisor is a hardass though...
Good to have an advisor you click with
Yeah this is my hang up, it’s why I’m not fully committed to it
Not that someone who pushes you is necessarily bad, but it needs to be enjoyable first and foremost
I’m meeting with someone who seems lovely this week but it’ll be for something alggeo related and I’m not overly fussed about alggeo. The other option is the K theory project which seems fine and the advisor seems fine, but none of that is hugely exciting
is it better to work with a hardass advisor in a field you love or with an awesome advisor in a field you dont care for
Yeah it is a tough one, I’ll kinda have all the information by the end of the week but I’m not sure where I’m going to go yet.
it seems like kiand ended up in the latter
hmmmm
This is how im feeling right now (im in a masters program) but i dont want to do combinatorial algebra
I kinda want to do more fancy stuff lowkey but i still need to study a lot more to get there 🤷♂️
I wanted to understand concept of conjugate in simple terms?
what are you finding confusing about it?
New here on the server (thanks!), stop me if this is not appropriate, but is it OK to share links to papers about Rings here?
If that's OK, here's one I bumped into that I like. Not very recent, but I had previously not considered the application of rings to deep learning etc. (I'm working on a category-theory-inspired deep learning model at the moment, so I've been looking for alternative approaches to compare to.)
Neurons in the brain represent external stimuli via neural codes. These codes often arise from stimulus-response maps, associating to each neuron a convex receptive field. An important problem confronted by the brain is to infer properties of a represented stimulus space without knowledge of the receptive fields, using only the intrinsic structu...
I've been trying to use Topological Data Analysis + Decision Field Theory to accomplish what this paper is about, but maybe their approach is easier, still trying to figure that out.
what in TDA
holy persisten homology
cool algebra
tda moment
so bar coded
you could probably start learning it if u wanted to
the other part is just topology rudiments ig
at least to get started on understanding it
I started learning about it last year and I didnt know alg top
yea!
cuz its like overlap with statistics too yk
sort of thing
i do want to learn more stats tbh
Simplicial homology I guess. But could learn as you go probably
what u get
nice thats cool
id read that
it would be kinda nice to learn stuff that isnt so abstract
lol
def not i do not work with my hands lmao
im so bad at that
ig i wouldnt be opposed to doing like data science type of stuff so id be down with learning more stats
i was gonna do a project with some bio guy on tda but i didnt go thru with it
last year
i got kinda uninterested ig
Was probably also because i saw persistence modules and whatever and i didnt have enough algebra background to understand the theory easily
You don’t need a crazy amount of algtop but you will need to understand simplical homology
Representation theory of quivers is also useful, sure
One of us! One of us! One of us!
measure theory poo
Take it!
that’s measurement theory
A first course in representation theory (ie a course on finite group representations) is the worst algebra course imo
But also like eat your vegetables it’s good for you
First and last are not mutually exclusive 🙃
Real... I never understood the purpose of rep theory while doing the course