#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 354 of 1
whenever I visit london I feel like I'm going to be robbed constantly
I don't feel that way ANYWHERE else
Lmao
Accurate
I mean it’s closer to London, so I guess it’s got that going for it
Cambridge is very pretty though
Just don't hold a phone in your hand
Simply a skill issue icl
"just navigate the perplexing labyrinth without your trusty compass"
i need instagram reels... and youtube shorts... and tiktok...
Dw this was a meme kinda
But also probably good advice
if you want that feeling to become a reality come to brazil 
I'll pass
Anyway, I’ve done literally no work today, I want to go home, I should probably email potential supervisors first though
I feel like a band now
Being told to come to Brazil
mood
Rather than trying to convince you yokels that London is actually good
i mean i came to brazil approximately a year ago and everyone one warns me about being robbed but it never happened to me until now 
The set up for procrastinating is looking good these days though, got that desk set up now
more than 1 person per square mile just makes me want to die
Bonn isn’t even the nicest city you can see in Bonn
no way u got a mug telling u what to do
I mog you with my "what's purple and commutes" mug but other than that ur smooth with it
No one mogs snoopy
An out of breath Londoner
Downside of marriage
That is pretty incredible
Have to share the Gromit mug
is #groups-rings-fields in fact #discussion-3? 
only for the cool people
it's #advanced-discussion sometimes
this is awesome as fuck
legit awesome as fuck
I’ve made this point before, it’s a private server for like 10 of us that people occasionally ask bask group theory questions in
I vouch for photos of the mug being printed on other household objects
vouch is not the right word
fuck yes
how does he keep doing it
Ok I will actually do work now, time to harass some random academics and beg for their advice and guidance
I should probably do another hour of work before the wife gets home
I should also actually try and solve this problem
I should do AG 
anyway mac has split screen
boooo
even my phone has split screen
i hate everything made by apple ngl 
yes if you ignore the prices
especially iphone, imagine holding an iphone instead of samsung or something else 
nah, you are too restricted with iphone
yea i mean thats the main thing i require from a phone 
like idc if its camera is good or no for example because i almost never use it
This just isn’t really true anymore, especially not with the M series stuff. Their upgrades and stuff yes are still over priced but the base model MacBooks and Mac minis are incredibly fairly priced
The iPhone and whatever is silly expensive but not really any worse than other flagships
Theyre expensive, but thats not the same as overpriced, they just only really offer premium products
And fwiw I was a life long Samsung user and only recently stopped using a HP windows laptop (when it shit the bed and died)
i see, then it probably doesnt really matter much if you use either. Well personally i dont really use my phone much besides whatsapp, i use it also to get books (ofc from official websites
). But still, i like to have the liberty to download whatever third party app if i need to do that sometime

i see. I actually do the converse, i get the books on my phone and transfer them to the laptop 
btw is this kind of conversation dangerous or is there no problem
anyway i will stop bc it may become dangerous if its not rn 
i like most of their stuff except their computers and laptops. i can’t stand macOS
meh, better than windows at least
for personal use windows is good
but for dev windows sucks
yea
I feel like running python and grep from the terminal should qualify as personal use
windows powershell 
wsl!
alright I've done enough, I'm hungy
Ohhhh I see, I actually hate iphone because of what I think is an exaggerated security. Like you probably need a password/pin to breath 
nah lol. i don’t find myself bogged down by that on iphone
Typically.
I’m pretty happy w my iphone and my mac
I have a windows desktop but I don’t use it much outside of video games (ie runescape)
hi this may sound a bit easy but i'm kinda struggling to show this idk. so I have an orbit $O={(x,y)g:(x,y)\in\Omega^2, x\neq y, g\in G}$. I want to show that $G$ is transitive here, so like given $(x_1,y_1)$ and $(x_2,y_2)$ with $x_i\neq y_i$, I want to guarantee that $g$ exists such that $(x_1,y_1)g=(x_2,y_2)$. How do I do this?
bluepianist
What is G? What is Omega^2? What is the group action?
G is the group, Omega is the set. Group action is (x,y) = (xg, yg). The problem is concerned with proving doubly transitive stuff
Hmm, is this a counterexample to what you want to prove? If not, why not?
Omega and G are both the set of real numbers; the group action is addition.
But there's no group element that maps (1,2) to (1,3).
So this is the problem right and the solution says that in one of the orbits is {(x,y) ...}. So I'm just trying to see how they came to the conclusion in the last line that G is doubly transitive without showing that transitivity property required in the problem
is this Serre? lo
is Serre an author? this is from isaacs
You'll probably need to use the assumption about the average squared character, which I'm not entirely sure what means, but which you didn't say anything about in your initial post.
(Hmm, logically I suppose it must be the trace of the corresponding permutation matrix, i.e. the number of fixed elements, but I haven't any idea how to exploit this here -- sorry!)
the character value of g is the trace of the corresponding permutation matrix
so you're not wrong
I understood the argument until the very last line. The last line it seems they drew the conclusion that G is transitive on the set {(x,y)...} after showing that the second orbit must equal to this same set
OH
wait i think it just clicked... because the orbit of {(x,y)} is equal to {(x,y)} then given two pairs i there is a g such that pair 1 * g = pair 2 ... so that's why they concluded that G is transitive on the second set
we have <x(g), x(g)> = 2, meaning x decomposes as a sum of two irreducible C[G]-modules. If the action of G on either of these submodules was not transitive we would have further submodules, contradicting irreducibility. It is clear that (x,x) can never be mapped to (x,y) so these are our two orbit representatives
I think this works
(Ah, I see, the character thing is just Burnside's lemma in notation that was unfamiliar to me).
you normally do <x, 1> not <x, x> which is throwing me
because <x,1> exactly recovers burnside's lemma, as tropo has said :)
Yeah, they're just saying that if you have a != b and c != d, then (a,b) and (c,d) are in the same orbit -- because there's only that one orbit containing pairs of different elements -- so by the definition of orbit there must be a group element that takes (a,b) to (c,d).
wait the question was just to show that a group acts transitively on its orbits?
The question was to show that the group acts transitively on the set of pairs-of-different-elements.
I think bringing in C[G] modules is overkill for that -- though speaking of characters certainly would steer one's thoughts in the direction of representation theory.
im pretty sure Serre's book has the same exercise
hence why i asked
hello
i really dont understand how to start these proofs
they seem like memorizing but i need easy way to tackle these types of questions pls
So I guess the place to start is to try to imagine what it would mean for this to be true.
Like say G was equal to HxK and G had order 8. What could the orders of H and K be? How is G being non-abelian related to whether H and K are?
orders will be divisors of 8?
Here it can be smart to think about the simplest cases first. What happens if Z(G) = G for example
well since it is non abelian
identity ele?
im thinking of contradiction?
In 49 you're not assuming that the group is nonabelian.
Yes, so that allows you to say exactly what the orders of H and K have to be (up to which of them is which).
Do you perhaps know what the groups of order 1, 2 or 4 are?
no of elements in the group?
yess. so they can be both of order 4
You sure about that?
That would make their direct product have order 16.
Because A is an ideal
Looks like you need to flip back and check the definition of internal direct product.
What? Are you asking why BA is a subset of A?
gotcha looked at it
ah there are no subgroups that can be formed cuz the product cant have order 8??
no
nope
Do then (B+A)(C+A) contains JKLV
yess
i need help with this too
i was thinking of the fact that if the order of a normal subgroup is n and then for any g in G then g^n is in the normal subgroup
Say G is abelian, and x is of order 2 and y is of order 3. Do you know what the order of xy would be?
6?
Can you prove that?
Oh right, isn't that only if the normal subgroup is unique of that order
well we can use the general formula of lcm?
There are things involving the lcm you may or may not have proven yes
But maybe you can just prove this one case directly?
I think what you're thinking of is that if the index of a normal subgroup is n, then g^n is in the subgroup.
I don't see it being particularly helpful for the exercise though...
well the order is a^n = e
It is the smallest such n yeah
how is abelian relevant in that?
It is very relevant, maybe you'll see if you try to prove it
modulo whatever is given is identity
can we
take a group ourselves?
would it count as a proof
I'm not sure what you mean
Yeah, i'm sorry, i was just confused
i'm just now confused over how the non-abelian case would be handled, like I can think of U(3, p) as an example of a group like this. Non-abelian, non-trivial center and exponent p.
so it will prove that
so different orders of elements
cant be there
unless we have p =q cuz otherwise lcm will be pq
damn it was easy asf
thank u so much for helping !! @rocky cloak
So I'm not sure exactly which result you're thinking of when it comes to lcm.
But what is true (and is easy to prove) is that if x and y commute, and their orders are relatively prime, then the order of xy is the product of their orders.
In particular if x is in the center we can use this
I cannot believe you would notate that group as U(3, p) as opposed to the obviously superior p^{1+2}_+
oh, that clears things up
gotcha. the topic is so much clearer now !! tysmmm
yeah I just started reading through Milne's notes last week so it was just the first example that came to my mind because proving that U(3, p) has exponent p whenever p odd, prime was a fun exercise
it's a good example to have!
exercise: find the other non-abelian group of order p^3
yeah i'm not that deep in yet, to my chagrin
how would I go to prove the map
$\phi: k[x,y,z] \rightarrow k[u,v]$ defined by $$x \mapsto u^2-v^2 \quad y \mapsto 2uv \quad z \mapsto u^2+v^2$$
has kernel $(x^2+y^2 - z^2)$.
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
This is a continuation of my question in #algebraic-geometry.
any approach using CA and/or basic AG is welcome.
Looking for a nice approach
congrats on your Lemma man im really proud of you
it's just a random username, I know only the case for local rings
Random? 
Kiand, you are aware that nakayama's lemma is a well known statement of commutative algebra and has been known at-least for 5 decades, right? /genq
is it not kosher around here to have usernames like that
Grnq?
I mean you can throw some theory on it to get it for free.
Like k[u, v] is an integral extension of R = k[u^2 - v^2, 2uv, u^2 + v^2] so they have the same dimension (i.e. 2).
So k[x, y, z]/kerphi is a 2d integral domain, so kerphi must be a minimal prime. Since k[x,y,z] is a UFD it must be principal.
Fixed my tone tag
yes i am aware
im a jokester ryan
You can probably also prove it very explicitly, by writing down what a polynomial in the kernel could look like then do polynomial division. But that might be tedious
anyway the dimension of the image would be at most two (as a subring of k[u,v])
thought so but that is tedious
what about transcendence degrees?
Like you want a proof that it's 2d without using integral extensions?
You can use transcendence degree then sure
I am not trying to avoid integral extensions. just thought it is unnecessary
is this right?
I mean, it is true that any subalgebra of k[u, v] has dimension at most 2.
oh yeah I would need the other inequality
I think that's true at least, it would be kinda specific to the polynomial ring
yeah but that wouldn't help me
It wouldn't no
It's not hard to prove so you might try it yourself.
Think about an element in the ideal, then factor it into primes
take x not zero in a minimal prime ideal P, then x=p1....pn for irreducibles p1,...,pn. since P is prime one of p_i must be in P and so (p_i) is prime and contained in P and since P is minimal prime its equal to (p_i) and principal
yeah this is simple
your hints are: it's a split extenstion and it's exponent p^2
Saying “it’s a split extension” without specifying the normal subgroup and/or quotient is very unhelpful, because every group is a split extension of the trivial group by itself and every group is a split extension of itself by the trivial group. Here specifically it’s even less helpful because the group in question is also a non-split extension.
😲
ok that's insanely nitpicky, and p_-^{1+2} is a split extenstion
I'm not talking about p_+^{1+2}
p_-^{1+2} is a non-split extension in two different ways
and it's a split extension in at least one
If you exclude the trivial cases I mentioned it’s only a split extension in one way
so it is a non-trivial split extension as I (albeit implicitly) stated
I guess
Can anybody help me 🙏 I don't know what to do anymore I failed my abstract algebra exam 3 times now...
The tasks given are always so different from before I'm having a hard time thinking through them
If it's something I've seen before I will solve it no problem but every time I see something completely new...
If you can only solve problems you’ve already seen, are you actually learning to solve the problems or just memorising the solutions? It sounds like you’re not actually engaging with the material and learning the methods and techniques the class is trying to teach you
Might help to have an example of a problem you're struggling with
Sadly "abstract algebra" can cover years of content
Yeah, the main reason I said what I said is that they’ve failed 3 times and apparently aren’t quite sure why, which suggests to me a larger problem than just, “I’m bad at recognising when to use Sylow”
But it’s still worth knowing what’s exactly going wrong
This is a bad Q but… what’s the difference
memorising sentence structures vs learning a language
Between learning to solve a problem and learning to solve problems?
between learning to solve problems and memorising solutions
I could teach a monkey to memorise the proof of a theorem, that’s a very different skill to being able to get the monkey to come up with their own, even with some prompting
you could teach a monkey to memorise the proof of a theorem?
You know what I mean, I could make a 5 year old recite a bunch of words, I could make it so that a 5 year old could spit out verbatim a proof of artin wedderburn but that doesn’t at all mean the kid understands ring theory, or what the methods being employed in the proof are, nor why those methods are being used
There’s a massive difference between learning how to solve problems and learning the solution to a problem
Well it's not exactly that. I know how to test if an algebraic structure is a group but if I am given a weird set like (-1/2, 1/2) then it gets weird (especially if testing something additionally like number of elements of order 2,3,4 etc.)
Another example of unorthodox approaches would be in elementary number theory like n!m! as a base for modular arithmetic whereas I thoroughly learned how to apply Euler's function to examples that are n^m^p (mod k)
i don't actually know what you mean
could you actually teach a 5 year old to spit out verbatim a proof of artin wedderburn?
Memorising != learning
hm...
Yeah probably, but this is not the point, it’s an analogy not something to be taken literally
sorry i tend to take things quite literally 😭
hence why i'm having a hard time understanding your analogy
idk i think a simple indication of whether or not you are in the former vs the latter is if you can see an algebra problem and at least think to yourself or write down the tools you have available, what the answer could entail, etc., regardless of if you are able to make any headway on the problem
I think in that case, assuming you do genuinely know how to test if something is a group (and I believe you do) then this is mostly psychological and you’re getting freaked out by unfamiliar groups. I think the only way to really beat that is to do a bunch of problems and see a bunch of different groups
but... hm, maybe i'm not understanding
isn't that just another form of memorisation?
knowing the tools you have available and stuff
I'm "afraid" of proofs so that might be an issue. Why? Because I haven't ever dealt with proofs until I got into math major uni. And sure I can learn some common patterns like mathematical induction, direct proof, contradiction etc. but I can't see the wider picture and come up with them on my own in some new problems.
I need to learn to think
If that makes sense
Why is (-1/2, 1/2) a weird set? I think I'm missing context there
for the proofs used in lecture notes/the course, how confident are you that you can write them out if asked?
Ok my point is this, if I solve a group theory problem and give the problem to a man on the street and tell him to memorise it, then a day later I give him a test with that question on it and he gets it right, would you say that he has learned group theory? He’s certainly learned the solution to that problem I’ll grant you, but he hasn’t learned the skills required to deal with group theory problems
It’s an issue of specific vs general
i guess he's learned some group theory, yeah
A solution is pretty much useless in isolation, but a set of skills is not
in my case i don't really know how to distinguish between memorisation and learning
i mean at this level of granularity everything is memorization. there is a distinction between the units of things you are memorizing. if you are memorizing the solution to a specific problem as an entire unit, and the logical/algebraic atoms of the proof are not clear to you, the insights of that proof are not readily applicable to any other problem
10% probably, majority of the proofs I approach with memorizing the steps rather than understanding them
ok this i don't quite get
well thats the problem then lol
if you're memorising the steps, why is your success rate only 10%?
if you dont understand why certain steps are made then you can't really understand the proof and know when to apply it
Because memorizing can only get you so far, I will forget them easily since I don't have the logical foundation to back them up and make them make sense
hm...
i can speak to my experience, which is a bit of an unconventional one
but i often used memorisation as a tool for understanding proofs
and understanding generally
This is true of 95% of students at uni, most people haven’t seen proofs before then. But your books and your lectures are full of proofs.
When you read those proofs you shouldn’t just be thinking word to word, you need to try to understand what are the methods being employed, why are they taking each step. In understanding that you’re starting to understand maths
This is why I’m generally against introduction to proof courses because the actual techniques like induction or whatever are easy, but knowing how and when to use them is both hard and subject specific and you can only learn it by engaging with the subject
it's not easy for me to just... stare at a proof for a long time and go "oh, now i get what the proof is doing"
There an element of general skill but that just comes with general mathematical maturity
my prescription is actually like
more memorisation, but maybe in a different kind of way than you're used to
I think you’re saying what we’re saying but you just understand it differently
one thing i did in my undergrad was, if i understood an aspect of a proof i didn't before, i'd explicitly make a little flashcard for that nugget of understanding
That's true. If you asked me to prove H is a normal subgroup of G I'd know the exact steps I need to apply. But the problem is H and G are both very problematic notation wise on exam that I get completely confused.
i think that "different kind of memorisation" what youre referring to is "understanding"
(directed to pseudo)
right but i was literally using flashcards and stuff
yeah, sure
in a sense i was "memorising the understanding"
because i found that my understanding wasn't as durable as i thought
ive had periods where i understood a proof, next day understanding was gone
We are saying the same thing in different words I think
yessssssss exactly this is what i mean
i had that a bunch, so i decided to memorise the understanding to make it more concrete
and that helped significantly for me
cause in a sense my understanding of a proof was now a monotonically increasing function of time
I think quite simply you just need more experience at this point. You need to engage more actively with the material and you need to do more problems. I don’t think there’s another option but hard work
every misunderstanding is a semantics issue ahh lol
it seems to me that you might be suffering from some kind of "cognitive overload"
this is where memorisation actually did wonders for me
by making sure it was really really easy for me to recall definitions and theorem statements and proofs of stuff in the course
i had more "mental space" for the novel parts of the problem, so to speak
I might go off topic slightly but the types of proofs I need to memorize are those that utilize a lot of different things simultaneously. For example, proving Euler's constant is irrational. Initial steps are assuming otherwise i.e. e = p/q where p is integer and q is natural. From there we would employ Maclaurin expansion for e, then use some Lagrange's property etc. etc. to end up with e being between 2 and 3 etc.
one thing that helped for me is breaking down a proof into a bunch of "subproofs"
to some extent i was forced to do this because of limitations of how much info i could actually put on a flashcard
Yeah if there's more theorems involved I usually forget half of them in a task so if some "showing it's a normal subgroup" uses first isomorphism theorem for help I would genuinely not remember using that
then i might have a "skeleton" card which told me the high-level overview of a proof, and then cards which dealt with the subproofs if necessary
this is exactly the kind of thing i mean
some parts of a problem are "intrinsically hard"
but i think having unfamiliarity with the terms and common proof techniques is something that's "unnecessarily hard"
if your questions are big multi-part things like that, you may find it helpful to leave an intermediate step as conjecture and then continue with your proof. you cant control if your piece of confusion happens to be at the first step which prevents any progress – you can try to mitigate that
you can't avoid doing hard things, but you can try to make sure you're spending more time on things that are "intriniscally hard" rather than "unnecessarily hard"
in my experience, each of my courses had a finite "bag of tricks" which most proofs used variations of
Holy shit bro is actually giving me the 1 AM motivation
but the trouble was, it's hard to isolate what "trick" is being used in a proof from the proof itself
one thing i did is try to memorise the standard proofs used in the course
Exactly
and hope that somehow, my brain would be able to "infer" the trick from seeing lots of examples
even if i couldn't directly verbalise what the trick was
i found this to be pretty helpful for exams, cause i might be in the middle of a hard problem and my brain would be like "wait this kinda looks like [theorem X] which uses [proof technique Y], let's see if we can try something like that"
i guess i just had a very flexible notion of what was worth memorising
not just things like definitions and theorem statements, but also intuitions, or traps i kept falling into, or misconceptions i later resolved, or big-picture ideas about "why" something was important
the motivation was that i knew i made mistakes at least as often as other people, if not more
but that'd be alright so long as i only made that mistake once
I don't even know what I'm thinking about while solving the exam 🙏
Probably about butterflies and grass outside
Another issue is literature, we don't get much of that. So I usually go through foreign literature which isn't necessarily a bad thing but it follows a different doctrine teaching different things and relying on some different knowledge in the past from subjects I might not have
So even the tasks I go through are rather scarce
i recommend that you try proving the theorems that you learn before seeing the proof, this task may be hard/takes a bit of time but i personally think that its worth it. You may not be able to come up with the proof for the first few theorems you see, but eventually you will.
you also have to do many problems
you dont have to restrict yourself to say the textbook that the prof is using
you can pick another textbook on abstract algebra if you want, it wont be much different than the one the prof is using (if different at all) in terms of the content
but the thing is that you should avoid just memorizing the proofs, you can memorize (and should) memorize the statements of theorems/propositions etc.. of course along with knowing what the statements are saying. You can also memorize the key points of the proofs that you see if you want (the very big ideas of the proof) but only after understanding the proofs
In case no one said it: talk to your professor and ask them for advice too. Be open abt ur struggles but show that u wanna improve
the ideas will more or less automatically be memorized once you understand them well
Hey all, Im struggling with a question in Dummit and Foote: Prove that A_n does not have a proper subgroup of index < n for all n >= 5
Truthfully, I have ZERO idea about how to begin. The chapter is just a proof of the Theorem that A_n is simple for all n >= 5
are you able to use the fact that A_n is simple
I’ll instead give you this different, but related question:
prove that if a group (finite or infinite) has a subgroup of finite index, then it must have a normal subgroup of finite index
yes, I can use the fact that A_n is simple, its proven and the only thing given to us in the chapter
If you’re able to prove this question then the proof idea in that should be able to solve your problem
Alright I'll give that a shot, thanks
Would the easiest way to prove this to define a group homomorphism from G to some group such that the kernel is normal in G?
That’s the idea!
You’re very close
So would I have a mapping G x G/H -> G/H?
So what is the action?
Don’t worry about the mapping for now
Just try and figure out what this action could be
Everything follows from that
Sure
Try and see
So g * xH = gxH?
Try and see
Ah could I have then x(gH), so it would be some permutation of xH?
So what do you conclude
That I would be mapping G to a subgroup of S_n? Some symmetric group ?
Is this enough to solve my problem?
Ah no not yet we would have to find the Kernel
It is enough
The kernel, whatever it is has to have finite index
Because the image is in a finite group
Ohhh
So now, looking at this proof try and adapt it for your original question
So I want to define some mapping from A_5 to its cosets?
Sorry A_n
Ah then I can see that I have a mapping from A_n to a subset of some symmetric group which is of finite index
That’s not good enough for your problem unfortunately
A_n clearly embeds into S_n and that’s no problem
lol yeah that makes sense
but I am assuming the notion of using cosets is vital here?
It’s the same action
You have yet to use the fact that the index is < n
Ohh can I use that becuase A_n is normal in S_n, I can act by conjugation on A_n to permute it?
so something like sA_ns^-1 for all s \in S_n
What would you get from that?
I would get some A_m
Why would we want to conjugate A_n in S_n when we’re worried about what’s inside A_n itself
So would I act on A_n by an element of itself?
Try and think about what you did for my question
Go back to that, there are good ideas to be found there
So if I say G is a subgroup of index m < n
Then I would have a mapping from A_n to A_n/G?
Okay, what next
It’s not a mapping, it’s an action
So I have x \in A_n so xG
Then I act on it by a \in A_n
so I have a(xG) = x(aG)?
Oh wait, I would have (ax)G
Which would be well-defined?
Ah and then because this is well-defined, we can define a homomorphism from A_n to the permutations of A_n/H
So what do you conclude
That the Kernel is normal in A_n
Which shows that any subgroup of finite index has a normal subgroup of finite index?
But that’s not a strong enough result for your original question
How are you sure that the kernel isn’t trivial, for instance?
That’s perfectly good and possible
Why can’t it be the entire group?
And by action by cosets, we can make a map from A_n embedding into S_k for k < n?
Why is this action not trivial
If the kernel were the entire group, then wouldn't G = A_n
Which would mean the subgroup isnt proper?
Okay, good
So what happens from here
Well, I suppose we can see the orders of the mapping? A_n has order n!/2 and S_k has order k! ?
Okay, and why is this bad?
Well we know its an injection yes?
So the order of A_n must be less than or equal to that of S_k?
Wiat it would have to be EQUAL
So |A_n| = |S_k| because its an injective homomorphism
Injective does not imply equal
Once again A_n injects into S_n and there’s no problem there
But we are almost done
Ahh
But because A_n is being mapped into a smaller group S_k
that contradicts the injectivity?
Thus no proper subgroup of index k < n can exist?
So, I have a question
Mhm
When faced like a question like this on lets say an exam
Do you have any advice for approaching these?
Work with what you’re given
All you know is that there is a subgroup of index less than n
So you should immediately think of what you can do with that
And the only meaningful action you can do of a group on a subgroup is multiplication on coasts
Part of it is also experience with similar problems yes, but this is what I would say right now
So, honestly, it seems like just having a "library" of definitions and seeing what we're given?
Oh also, if G acts on a set X do not think of it as a function from G x X to X
Either think of it as an action or as a group homomorphism from G to S_X
Alright, so if its an action its always a group homomorphism from G to S_X?
Sometimes it is useful to think about it as an action
What do you mean by an action?
But it’s never just “some function”, that description is forgetting too much structure
For instance left multiplication
Something of the like, yes
So think of it by its set structure almost?
Not sure what you mean by that
Or what it looks like element wise?
Also not sure what you mean by that, lol
Breaking it down into elements of the group and the set
If that makes sense?
No not really but just finish the problem first lol
@fiery dirge With a costudent of mine something that worked very well in a galois theory course was asking him to prove exam questions he thought he knew and then asking "why" repeatedly at every point. Sooner or later it would reveal the weakness of his understanding of the material.
It doesn't sure like your exact problem but it's an option to try... This abstract courses are very different and require a readjustion and a different approach to material than before.
Hi kinda missing something here why do z1 and xa2 commute here?
Is xa2 in the center implied somewhere?
Because z1 is in the centre, so commutes with everything
I indeed have
for any algebra A you've got your algebraic sets X, which you can assign a coordinate algebra A[X]. Then it turns out that a subset X of A is a neighborhood (central object of study in TCT) if and only if X is an algebraic set and there is a splitting A[X] -> A[A] -> A[X]
and two neighborhoods are isomorphic (in the way of TCT) if their coordinate algebras are isomorphic
hello, we are doing set theory in class and we were introduced to equivalence classes, the set Z_m, and the operations of addition and multiplication. I have a very vague question about what it means for an operation to be well defined in a set; is a well-defined operation in a set determined by whether or not it partitions the set exactly one time?
a well-defined operation is more just something you say; an operation cannot be not well-defined, because then it would not be a function
it's usually said when you, like in this case, already have an operation on some set and then pass to a quotient by some equivalence relation
in this case the operation on the quotient set is well-defined (i.e. is an actual function) if and only if the equivalence relation "respects" the operation on your original set
so we go from the quotient to the entire set and prove that the operation holds there too?
no, other way around
we start with on operation on X, and want to prove that trying to induce an operation on X/~ (~ being some equivalence relation) is well-defined and yields an actual operation
Random ahh question, is there a name for elements who can add to 1 in a ring?
there are in certain situations
Characteristic
if they're orthogonal idempotents
then they have this property
but they have some additional properties than just this
they generate coprime ideals, for example
I mean, it's called complements in probability.
Any context where you're thinking about this?
Yeah i was just reviewing in my head why Z can’t be a Q-module
Ohh, you mean elements like 1/n
Yeah i was thinking the problem was u have elements in Q that can add to 1
They're usually called unit fractions
Making an equation in Z that cant be solved
Yeah i guess any localization has elements with that property
Or
a common way thi sis phrased btw is that like "Z is not a divisible abelian group", i.e. n: Z -> Z is not surjective. and your argument is showing it doesn't hit 1 lol
i just think yeah divisible is the terminology you probably want even if it isn't what you asked for aha
this is then very useful for proving things relating Q and Z. e.g. showing that Q is not a free Z-module
It funnily enough, showing that Q is an injective Z-module
by assumption that your ring has no non-zero nilpotent ideals
I don't know much about context but (RmR)^2 = 0, and R has no non zero nilpotent ideal so it implies RmR = 0
I don't get how they go from R(mRRm)R to 0 lol
x \in R is arbitrary and they claim that mxm = 0. assuming this claim, wouldn't you just have mRRm = 0?
no that would be if mxm = 0 for all x
yeah it was a bit confusing for me too lol
It reads confusingly because the arbitrariness of x is "discharged" (by universal generalization) behind the scenes in the middle of a sentence, somewhere between "we claim that mxm=0" and "R(mRRm)R=0".
Could I have a hint for showing that (4, t) is not a power of m? My idea was to show that if it was a power of m, then 4 could be written as a product of n elements from (2, t). I could then use the binomial expansion theorem to derive a contradiction
If this were the case, then $4 = \bigl( 2 f(t) + t g(t) \bigl)^n$ for some $n > 0$, $f, g \in \mathbb{Z}[t]$. If $g(t) \neq 0$, then $\deg 4 \geq 1$, which is absurd
okeyokay
I guess you can start by finding the smallest n such that m^n is contained in (4, t) then show they're not equal
Isnt t in (4,t) but t is not in (2,t)^n unless n = 1
Indeed
So thats enough isnt it
you too quick with it
yeah
how to start with these types of questions?
probably start playing around with easy examples like G = Z
wouldnt that take time?
well how else are you gonna solve the question?
the question is asking to find examples of groups with such and such property so of course u need to try around examples
i want to learn the approach
there can be many non isomorphic groups but how can we be sure of automorphism
am i missing something or does this not use the fact that G is abelian?
if so then this counts as a proof to cauchy's theorem right?
omg im doing the same thing
i think abelian is used in showing that the elements commute
so we can take a cyclic subgroup
ohhh
that H was taken cuz it is abelian
sure but that H can be generated in any group
It's using that H is normal, which is not true in general for subgroups of non-abelian groups
i suspected that but then where does it use this
i mean (G:1)=(G:H)(H:1) for any subgroup H of G right?
yes
then where exactly is normality used
can anyone pls help
G/H wouldnt be a group otherwise
They are using that G/H is a group with exponent dividing n
for me the first thing i think of is the bare minimum like having aut(G) and aut(H) be trivial
think about the automorphism group of Z
I think if I take appropriate finite cyclic subgroup G and H then it will be good
If you just classify Aut(G) for all cyclic groups G you'll find an example
Which I guess is the general take away: start by checking easy groups and see if you figure it out
|| Z/12Z and Z/10Z, maybe work ||
If you just classify all finite simple groups, you'll find an example 
U()?
huh?
they can be written as U(n) right?
i dont know how to take the cycles
thats the problem im facing
think about where you have to send 1 in order for the homomorphism to be invertible
You know a group of form Z/nZ?
Like do you know what the automorphism group of the trivial group is? What about Z/2, what about Z/3?
yess
im cooked for toms exam holy
lemme think
send? i dont understand the send part
maps out of Z are uniquely determined by where 1 is mapped to
im not that dumb i swear . im just starting this chapter 💔 💔
i don’t think anybody thinks that ha!
it will map to the kernel right
a homomorphism Z -> Z has to have trivial kernel if it is going to be invertible. so you can’t send 1 to 0
what homomorphism does that determine? its Z with addition as the group operation
we only have homomorphism till kernel
i don’t know what that means
identity
ohhh
wait
if we prove this then aut(g) ~ aut(h)
due to identity or its like step 1
just focus on finding Aut(Z) first
well x -> x?
are u asking like the properties?
well its like simple mapping right
2 maps to 2?
auto, inner? its the f(ab) = f(a).f(b) funcn
im just trying to get you to realize that a homomorphism Z -> Z is just multiplication.
so for each integer m, you get the “multiplication by m” homomorphism n |-> mn
and if this is going to be invertible, then it should be injective and surjective
there are only two choices of m that achieve this
oh ok wait i understand now
1 and 0?
keep in mind that a homomorphism just needs to satisfy f(ab)=f(a)f(b). there can be many such maps that accomplish this. Since you are looking at automorphisms though, u need it to be injective and surjective which restricts your choices more
not zero, remember? multiplication by 0 can’t be invertible
should i just pray that this question doesnt come in exam 😭
its just m = 1 and m = -1
generators
yes
yess
you should pray it does come up
lol
because a new question might give you more trouble
im crying lmao
you should review what it means to be a homomorphism, isomorphism etc all that stuff @fallen ridge
at the very least make sure u really know what the definitions are
nah actually im really good in other questons. that doesnt need proof
then when u get a question on the exam u at least know where to start
i know that 😭
most interesting questions are proof questions
i memorized them im gonna be honest
do u understand why they are defined that way?
would say to go over a few examples then. especially homomorphisms out of Z
i suck at proofs. im so good at discrete maths but this subject is making me cry
you will need to get better
group theory is one of the better places to do that
i wouldnt have to read about this subject after december
so im sure its just like basic things not too deep
yea tbh always just go to Z and Z/nZ when ur trying to prove things here
for examples and stuff to play with
i will keep that in mind
THANK U SO MUCH !!!!
good advice in general: start with the simplest examples
so true
anyways, if you still need help on this question,
finish proving that Aut(Z) = Z/2Z.
then, find another group, not isomorphic to Z, that only has 2 automorphism
-# how ironic of me to not use the simplest example here 😭 🤦
cyclic?
yes its cyclic
U(2)?
Gulp! GPT!
huh
chole kulche 
"is also of order 168. It is known that it is [group of order 16], but a more detailed analyis shows that its GL_3(F_2)?????
vro ...
What would be the point of that?
passing in my exam
its tom. i dont have any other option
But it does not help you
bro is so close to figuring out that you shouldnt use ai for math 💔 💔
Is the exam going to ask you for the automorphism group of Z_4 x Z_2?
i didnt trust it 💔 thats why i came here
then dont use it in the first place 💔 save some water and brain cells 💔
waittt
and electricity
lemme show why im using google lens
Well hey im sorry to be that guy but ai has helped me parse some stuff before
U just need to be careful with it
sure but dont ask it to solve questions for you
Yea
personally i despise ai chatbots and anything similar (like generative ai) but thats honestly a personal preference
chat gcd
these are the examples of the book. its so cramped up i can barely understand them
chat gpt find the gcd
the other day i was listening to frank zappa and heard some part that sounded a lot like a famous piano piece but i couldn't remember which one
so i asked chatgpt and it didn't know either that stupid robot
you seem really anxious about this.
it feels like you aren’t taking your time and thinking through your answers while you’re studying.
maybe take a brain break and come back to it in a few. if the exam is tmrw, its best to be well-rested and be comfortable with the basics
kept giving me wrong answers
eventually i found the answer on some random music blog
Its mainly because of the people using the AI and not the ai itself
nono its also the AI itself e.g. the tone and style of how it writes
Great question! Great question! Great question!
You are correct! You are amazing! You are brilliant!
aargrgghhh
i didnt listen anything in class and didn't revise (BIG mistake i get it now) 😭 cannot take a brain break since its like 11pm here
you can get it to write however you like with some work
Omg i am? 🥹
thank u so much thoo
Gpt thinks i am very smart and i have great questions
in these situations, i would just take a two-four hour nap, then keep studying
I think gpt is in love with me
"this product that you dont need wont annoy the fuck out of you with some work"
yeah I am not selling you anything
just saying that ai can be used in good ways, and in bad ways
hehe i know i get your point but still
and most people use it badly
yeah i will prolly sleep 😭 btw can u tell the solution of the question
one is z/z2
so other will be cyclic group of order 2?
yea, so the one i was leading you down was Aut(Z) = Aut(Z/4Z), but there is a minimal example with Aut(1) = Aut(Z/2Z)
i'm so prophetic
you should become a seer fr
you should become a musician
literally like i should ditch math
become a meteorologist
the only instrument you know is universal algebra 
fr fr
in this economy?
no, weather is too unpredictable these days even prophecy can't do that
pick your poison between math and weather, in this economy
well one is really applicable to the real world (especially universal algebra), and the other is weather, so....
exactlyyy
dawg 💀
i see the vision
since factor groups arent always iso to cyclic groups. we just need to find an example such that their orders are same but structure arent?
practice is really needed in this subject dawg
in every math subject
If I have two subgroups H and K of G, where K is normal in G and H \isom K. Must then H be normal in G as well?
idk what you are trying to say here, sorry
literallyy
no
if we take one cyclic and other as factor then their auto might be equal but they can never be iso cuz of different structure
we just need to find the Z
cuz we can tell the cyclic one from there right
let G be any nonabelian, then consider GxG, along with the normal subgroup 1xG, and the diagonal (not normal) subgroup { <x, x> | x ∈ G }
normality can be seen as a property of a homomorphism f : H → G (f is normal if im f is a normal subgroup of G), and not of groups themselves, so you wouldnt expect it to be an invariant under isomorphism in that way
you can just analyze cyclic groups, if that is what you are asking
Can anybody help me understand what are group actions?
In my book, action of group $G$ onto set $S$ is defined as mapping $f: G \times S \rightarrow S$ but what does this mean? Does this mean we take the operation that's in $G$ and apply it to set $S$ and then output set $S$ with that operation applied to its elements or how does it work?
HMD
yes
an element of G x S is an element of your group and an element of your set, and it gets sent to another element of the set. you should think of it as g "acts on" s by sending it to another element
this definition isn't precise however, its not just an arbitrary mapping
denote Sym(S) the group of permutations of the set S. then a group action is a homomorphism from G to Sym(S). if you understand the sort of structure which should be preserved by homomorphisms then this should be a clear picture
group actions are like a way to take a set S and define “multiplication by elements of G”
a lot of groups that you (might) know are already defined in terms of group actions. S_n acts on the set {1, 2, ..., n}. D_n acts on the vertices ofthe n-gon
if you look at vector spaces, for a familiar example, scalar multiplication is a group action F x V —> V.
the field F (really, its multiplicative group) acts on the vector space V because 1 * v = v and a * (b * v) = (ab) * v
the intuition is the same for group actions
im completely lost here. A homomorphism is a mapping of groups that keeps the group operation f(a * b) = f(a) . f(b), I don't understand the sort of structure which should be preserved by homomorphisms this part
Which Zappa song? I wanna see if I'm better than chatgpt 
right
Little Umbrellas
so firstly if we have a homomorphism G to Sym(S), then for g, h in G, we should want them to correspond to permutations of the group
the way we get a permutation is from g "multiplying" with s
the elements of the set
so the statement is now that for f: G -> Sym(S), f(g)*f(h) = f(gh)
I can see this yeah but cant really connect it with actions
where is the disconnect?
meaning, we shouldnt get discrepancy if we perform two separate permutations consecutively vs the permutation done by multiplying the group elements
let the group be S_n, and S = {1, 2, ..., n}
then we consider when homomorphism f is just the identity – S_n acts on the set in the way you already know it does
probably because I look at a group as a set with some additional properties like having an operation, inverses, identity...
Whereas scalar and vector are completely different
S_n was defined so that multiplication of group elements is precisely composition of permutations
so this is a group action
many groups you know are defined, or can be defined, as G acting on something. and then the fact that composition of actions and multiplication of elements respect each other should feel tautological
well, just forget that the vector space and the field had that additional structure!
for example, the multiplicative group of R is R - 0, and R - 0 acts on R^n by scalar multiplication in each coordinate, not even mentioning the vector space properties.
this definition now allows you to use that notion more broadly
hk is also going over a standard example
Is it ||Chopin's funeral march||?
another example is that a group always acts on itself by left multiplication, or conjugation
Yea
what's the difference between a Fix set and a stabilizer? Is stabilizer just a single element whereas a Fix has to have multiple elements therefore being kinda like a set of stabilizers?
(I had to google to confirm it was Chopin, but me + google > chatgpt at least
)
all of them sux
the stabilizer is a subgroup which fixes a particular element in S; the fixed set is a subset which is invariant to a particular element in G
i almost everytime find my queries on stackexchange or anywhere else 
i prefer discussing with my friends cuz everytime anyone comes up with something new or has something to add up
so real
greggary peccary
gpt wouldnt know what im talking about anyways
I didn't want to derail the convo into Chopin and LLMs btw, maybe continue in #serious-discussion or #advanced-lounge ? So that HMD can learn about group actions in peace 🙏
most of gpts arguments r circular lol
More succinctly: a fixed set is a subset of S; a stabilizer is a subset of G. So they don't even contain the same kind of elements.
(Yes, this is already part of what Hk said, but I thought this point deserved to be singled out).
There's a stabilizer subgroup for each element x in S, but there's only one fixed set per group action, right?
That's one notation for it. In other words, given some g in G, we're looking at { x in X | gx=x }.
(X or S, whatever ...)
In the sense I think we're talking of, each group element has it own fixed set.
Ah, I see 👍 basically just the fixed points of the automorphism induced by g?
Yes.
There's something here that connects to both the orbit-stabilizer theorem and to Burnside's lemma, since each of them can be thought of as counting pairs (x,g) with gx=x sorted into buckets by either g or by x.
the thing is I cant actually distinguish them
sure G is a group and S is a set that is acted upon but I just cant think of an example to explain it to myself
Do you mean you have trouble remembering which word is which of them?
no, I have troubles with finding an example that's clear enough
I looked it up on Wikipedia a few days ago, because someone mentioned an exercise that used it :-p
So the stabilizer subgroup of x in A is the fixed points of g |-> gx, while the fixed set of g in G is the fixed points of x |-> gx
A mapping G x S -> S where G is the group that acts on set S
so I know the words but dont understand them well
There are some more properties required in the definition - it's not just any function from G x S to S
true, e*x = x for x in S and associativity also needs to hold
It's also nice to know this equivalent definition: a group action of G on A is a homomorphism from G to Aut(A)
Here A is a group?
Aut as in a general category lol
Oh
Usually A is just a set, in which case Aut(A) is just the group of bijections on A, but you can consider group actions where A is an object in any other category too
but Sym(A) is probably clearer
How about this:
Let the group (Z,+) act on subsets of the plane R² in the following way: The number n acts on a subset by rotating the entire plane n degrees clockwise around the origin.
Then (forgive my hastily mouse-drawn shapes):
the shapes look good
I’m really struggling to find some idea constructing T here
Like I can picture these transversals by themselves, but S and T together I don’t really know how to connect both of them, tried drawing diagrams but to no avail.
I’d be tempted to use Zorn’s lemma here
I don’t think it’s overkill
Consider the set of partial transversals of H which contain S
||First show that S is a partial transversal
Then it’s a standard zorn argument||
Yeah, you do need some kind of choice. Otherwise, by setting G=R, H=Q, K={0}, you could set S={0} (as you must) and then produce T, which would be a Vitali set.
So Zorn is fair game.
maybe groups are taken to be finite?
All groups are finite, don’t buy into the Lie
Finite groups are Lie
If the groups are finite I’d still argue the same way, you just don’t need to appeal to zorn for the existence of a maximal partial transversal
Why are you doing algebra without Zorn 🙃
I mean idk what level this is at cuz depending on that it's weird to have to use zorn
When I am given 2 permutations g and f from S_n, and I rewrite them as disjoint cycles, how do I calculate g (or f) to some large power?
Like for example g^3007. I didn't give a specific example because I want to try to generalize. I've seen 2 different ways of doing this, first way is to take those disjoint cycles and see their orders (for example for g let that be 5 and 2 so (1 2 3 4 5)(6 7) or whatever). So we take 3007 and figure out what it is congruent to mod 2 and mod 5 seperately. Then since 3007 == 1 (mod 2), that means the (6 7) goes to itself (if 3007 were congruent to 0, then it would go to identity and we wouldnt write it all right?) and we don't write it at all. Next, 3007 is congruent to 2 (mod 5) so that means our elements all shift for 2 positions (1 2 3 4 5) = (1 3 5 2 4) so the final result is g^3007 = (1 3 5 2 4)(6 7)
Another way I saw was to take lcm(2, 5) = 10. So 3007 is congruent to 7 (mod 10) so g^3007 = g^7 and for the first one that means we shift by 2 (because shifting by 5 in (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) we get the identity) and similarly we shift by 1 in the (6, 7). So both ways seem to be correct.
What would happen if it were g^3006 instead? Would we write (6 7) in the result at all or we wouldnt since 3006 is congruent to 0 (mod 2)?
Also, I know g and f are conjugates iff number and order of their respective disjoint cycles is equal. However, I can't quite understand tasks where it's asked to find h such that f = hgh^-1
In each cycle you "jump through" n steps at a time.
in this particular case I just gave as a quick example we are working in S_7
so what youre saying is that I shouldve divided by 7 instead?
More precisely, if g has a cycle (a_1 ... a_k) then g^n has a cycle (a_1 a_{n+1} a_{2n+1} ... a_{k-n+1}). Here you continue the cycle until the next term would be a_1 again, wrapping around (that is, taking a_{k+1} = a_1, a_{k+2} = a_2, etc.) if necessary until that happens. This cycle may or may not cover all of a1, ..., ak; if it does not then you should make more cycles starting at a_2, at a_3, etc. until every one of a_1, ..., a_k has been covered exactly once.
wow... okay haha I'll try this. thanks mico
Any Dedekind domain that’s finitely generated as a Z-algebra does not mean it’s a free Z-module, right?
You can do stuff like Fp or Fp[x]
Noetherian integrally closed domain of Krull dimension 1
That’s the definition I’m using
Kinda like Z[1/p]?
So then Fp[x] would work
Z[1/p] would also work
I guess the above allows for torsion while being free mean no torsion
The finitely generated free Dedekind domains should exactly be rings of integers of number fields
Yes
Because being fg free is the same as fg torsion free and being fg as a module is the same as being integral extension
Indeed their feaction fields are then finite dim over Q and they're already integrally closed
A is in F
If A is prime, then A contains the the product of the single prime A
So A is not in F if A is prime
You need Zorn’s lemma to prove that every ring with 1 has a maximal ideal
And that fact is very important for ring theory in general
You don’t need it
Product of primes includes product of a single prime
It’s a product over the singleton
This is kinda the definition of a product over the singleton
Also … the proof does need that R has 1 right
Yes
Consider Q with the zero multiplication
(Ie, product of any two elements is 0)
{a}
A set with a single element
I think it’s something you usually first learn by seeing it in a proof usually lol
Well i know personally my learning would have been slower if this discord didnt exist
I mean, none probably explicitly define it but plenty use it
like this
I mean idk? It tells you visually? or something?
just "product" in general
yeah products over singletons, whatever your notion of product may be
One thousand KinGs
Kind of a weird question but, in a ring after localization like R_x1x2, technically something like 1/x1x^2 as written wouldn’t be in the ring because x1x2^2 is not in the multiplicatively closed subset, but we can still treat it as being in there because its the same as x1/(x1x2)^2?
it is fine, because 1/a should standard for the multiplicative inverse of a, which exists here
I was surprised when i found out that when localizing at the set S, its not only those in S that become invertible but also the factors of anything in S become invertible. Is there any other cases that could happen?
that shouldn't be too surprising, as if s and t are both invertible then their product st has inverse t^{-1}s^{-1}
the other thing to keep in mind is just that the localization map is not in general injective
Sometimes I think about how far mathematically I would have gotten if I was living in primal cave man ooga booga times without any of the knowledge I have now. Like would I have been able to count, to generalize it to addition and perhaps even multiplication/division?
Wicked cool username btw
What must X satisfy such that the map G \times X \mapsto X, (g,x) mapsto gx is a left-action?
what is gx?
that's also my problem
there is no assumption
Is it multiplication? I don't know
Can I show you a piece of skript in german?
(gh)x = g(h(x))
and 1_G x = x for all x
X is just any set, it doesn’t have to satisfy anything
gx is the action of g in G on x in X. It’s an element of X
Okay yeah, but there is no way you can show that (g,x) \mapsto gxg^-1 is a left action without knowing what X is right=
I think if gx is already defined by some action, then conjugation gxg^-1 is also an action
mm, I guess it would have to be a two sided action for that to make sense
if X is itself G or a subgroup of G, then that conjugation action makes sense
yeah I did the same reasoning, but otherwise you need other assumptions right?
yeah, I think the right generalization is X is a set, and there’s a left action and right action of G on X, satisfying (gx)h = g(xh) for all x, g, h
in general im pretty sure this is captured by the poset of distinguished open subsets D(f)
okay that's good, thank you`!
I should have said normal subgroup of G here
The statement that (g, x) maps to gx is more in defining notation.
It is saying that gx is the notation for the image of (g, x).
Saying gxg^-1 doesn't make any sense unless you're in a situation where that notation means something.
that's exactly what I was aiming at: what are the assumption needed to X for that map to be a well defined action
I mean, I'm not sure what kind of answer your looking for.
The notation would need to be define, and it would need to satisfy the definition of being an action
hey yall, i have to prove that if |G| = 203 and H is a normal subgroup of G of order 7 then H is a subgroup of Z(G)
just wanting to check my logic
i know that N_G(H) / C_G(H) is isomorphic to a subgroup of Aut(H)
but Aut(H) is order 6
and N_G(H) = H is order 7
so the subgroup its isomorphic to has to be the trivial group and so N_G(H) = C_G(H)
but that means C_G(H) = H and thus H is central
is that right?
Central would be CG(H) = G
You should also use that H is normal
In particular you can't have NG(H) = H
oh right
still essentially the same argument tho fortunately
N_G(H) = G so divides both 6 and 203
only number that does that is 1
and then C_G(H) = N_G(H) = G
i guess i just screwed up the equalities a bit
you say "that map", but (g, x) |-> gx isn't a concrete map, it's just notation. It's like asking, what must X satisfy for f(x) to be continuous
why?
but then how f_i = 0 ?
why do you think so?
but you have to multiply x^{deg F_N - deg f_i } with f_i so isn't give you polynomial of degree { deg F_N } ?
i think we always prefer polynomial ring where coefficient comes from commutative ring
yes thats how we define multiplication in polynomial ring
what do you mean f_i switched spots with x?
mq
in a graded module, whats the reason that 0 cannot be written as a sum of nonzero homogeneous elements? is it because if like n1+n2 = 0 with n1 and n2 nonzero then you could add that to any other decomposition of an element and then the uniqueness of the graded decompositions would not be satisfied?
you can write 0 = n1 + n2 where n1 and n2 are nonzero homogenous, but not if n1 and n2 have different gradings
like in R[x], 0 = x - x, but you can't write 0 = f(x) + g(x) where f and g have different degrees
yeah ok thanks
Looks like it
Though I would strongly discourage using direct sums for k-algebras
Not your fault ofc lol
huh, this would imply that direct sum of k-algebras is the coproduct in k-alg no?
wait no im stupid

It’d be product
yeah its the product of k-algebras grghrgr i hate that notation of direct sum
Ye lol
how to prove that a group doesnt have a subgroup of a certain order?
Lagranges theorem would be my first thought, but in general I’d need a little more information
Lagranges theorem tells you that the order of a subgroup must divide the order of the group so that rules out a lot of options straight away
It of course doesn’t guarantee the existence of a subgroup though, just that if it were to exist it must satisfy that
its abt the group A_4 (even permutations) and it not having a subgroup with 6 elements
so lagrange wouldnt work cuz 6 in fact divides 12 but idk how to actually make a proof i was thinking abt something with the orders of the elements but idk im kinda lost
think about the orders of elements in a group order 6
When you think 4⨯2 = 6 🤡
or, notice that a subgroup of order 6 of A4 must be normal and derive a contradiction from that
yes, by the structure theorem
Yeah it’s true for some other classes of groups too, which I can’t remember off the top of my head
Soluble groups possibly? Something like that idk
A4 is solvable with no subgroup of order 6
A4 is not soluble – A4 paper is made of cellulose
Oh…
It was just yesterday I was mixing some A4 paper in water and wasnt sure why it wasnt dissolving
Then it’s certainly not soluble groups I’m thinking of lol
It’s been a long day, no more maths can happen
This says supersolvable
Yay at least I’m not completely dumb
Dumb enough to not realise that the canonical example when you start looking at soluble groups (at least in my class) was soluble but still
On the right track
Ive never even heard of supersolvable
There’s so many random ass conditions for groups
ive heard of them once
people seem to be interested in them for some reason
https://oasis.library.unlv.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1462&context=rtds
this says supersolvable is true but not polycyclic
Me when I look at polycyclic byfinite complete intersection groups
Me when I go to club bed featuring DJ pillow and MC blanky
That seems quite cool, i wonder if that’s a complete classification or if there’s anything in between/outside
arent finite abelian groups.. nilpotent
its strictly between supersolvable and polycyclic, it seems
It’s not complete intersection groups I’m thinking of is it? That’s for rings, but I can’t remember the thing in group theory, they’re the counter example to the unit conjecture
Interesting, cool result
Is the machinery in the proof pretty funky or can you do that relatively elementarily?
no clue havent read the paper
hmm
a partial converse holds when the divisor is prime (cauchy's theorem)
but idk if there is a more general case
maybe you start with a supersolvable group G and an invariant series
1 = A0 < A1 < ... < An = G
then consider the factor group G/A1 and use some inductive argument? maybe
the fact that A1 is cyclic is probably helpful
How do I find all Abelian groups of order 1800 in which there exist element of order 18 but doesn't exist element of order 25? How do I think through these tasks? I genuinely have no idea how to solve this
Do you know the classification of finite abelian groups?
Do you know what the order of elements in product groups are?
Umm the amount of times we use group operation on that element to get it to identity
So we need our groups of order 1800 to be divisible by 18 and not by 25 right?

