#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 350 of 1
Yeah often you write elements of the direct sum as "formal sums" just because it's easier to keep track
what would the multiplication be?
But I don't see a way to compose M → N with M → N
seems I have things in N that I can't shove into a function taking things in M
In general it's a J-module as well, but we only get a ring structure like that if we're talking about M = N
in which case we tend to call that End(M)
I don't know what that means I'm afraid
the right hand equation seems to be just a matter of writing out the definitions, dunno what sigma is though, or what the _ij subscript means
yeah, that's the same as End(M)
but that doesn't seem useful for this case, since you also have maps to and from M_j
yeah, but M_i -> M isn't an element of End(M), so you can't use any ring properties there
Hom_R(M, M) is a ring because more generally the composition map
μ: Hom_R(M, N) x Hom_R(N, Z) → Hom_R(M, Z)
is bilinear and associative
linear in each parameter, so f(g + h) = fg + fh and (f + g)h = fh + gh
(ø + psi)(pi(x)) = ø(pi(x)) + psi(pi(x)) is correct, this is just from the definition of addition of homomorphisms
dunno what the rest of your argument is, you should write it out in more detail
this isn't the distributive property btw
you know Hom(A, B) is an abelian group for modules A, B, right? How is it defined?
I'm sure they give it a group structure later in the notes
wtf
this is the closest they get to defining the group structure of Hom(M, N)
here is from D&F, part (2) is what you're interested in
if they gave you that exercise without even defining what phi + pi means for homomorphisms, then your lecturer sucks 💀
what you're trying to prove follows directly from this definition
mq
mq
yeah, what does it mean for lambda to be in Hom(M, M_j)?
yep, and a homomorphism is?
in terms of definition, you don't any advanced theorems here
yep, that's all you need
yes
the hard part of this exercise is paying attention to what is addition of homomorphisms and what is addition of elements in M. It's confusing because we use + for both
nooo
it's not, I promise
just write down what you want to prove, and see if you can expand the definitions
I gotta go now, but someone else will help
this follows from the definition of a homomorphism
elements of that are homomorphisms
@tardy hedge help this guy out, I'm passing you the baton
whats the original question?
can you give the full context
yea like i have no idea what the question is tbh
Sorry, I forgot to follow-up on the discussion that followed this question of mine
The question was motivated by the following proof sketch that (c) \cap (d) is contained in (cd):
Let p in (c) \cap (d). Then p = r_1 c = r_2 d for some r_1, r_2 in R = k[x,y]/I
*Since c and d are univariate in different variables, r_2 = c r_3. Then p = r_3 cd, so p \in (cd)
Now the step labeled * doesn't work in general, for example if I = (x -y). So that's what I was hoping to get a handle on, what simple conditions I could put on I to ensure the step * goes through.
I think the ideal I being of the form I = (p(x), s(y)) works, unless I'm mistaken?
i feel like u just kinda have to do some definition unpacking for that one
it looks annoying ngl
Yeah this is sorta just “how matrices work”
the solution uses the regular character on $G=C_2$. I realised that the regular character on any group of even order will work since $\chi(1)=|G|$ and $\chi(g)=0$ for everything else.
does anyone know if there are more interesting examples?
somethingwrong
why does it work for any even ordered group?
whats stopping the regular representation to split into a direct sum of two reps with character 1 ↦|G|/2 and the rest 0
ah okay so for example the regular character on C_4 and the regular character on C_2 right? the former is twice the latter.
ohh then does this mean that the only abelian group it works on is actually C_2?
yeah i think lol
cuz of the classification theorem, any even-ordered abelian group must surject onto C2, and thus the regular character can be written as a sum of regular characters of C2
that is a strange thing to think abt
that cant be true though can it? that would mean the regular character can be written in terms of the irreducible characters of C2, which in turn are irreducible characters of your abelian group
which would mean that there would only be 2 irreducible characters
im not sure what the classification theorem is unfortunately.
every finitely generated abelian group is a direct product of cyclic groups
i was thinking that if we had an odd abelian grp, the condition would not be satisfied so we are done. If we had an even abelian group $G$, then the character of $G$ would be twice the character of $C_{|G|/2}$
somethingwrong
thats not how characters work
hmmm why not?
i mean the regular character*
ah okay, i get it, i got confused
thanks alot
because you cant just use a character from another group
i cant compare between two different groups like that
i really want someone to correct me on this
ohh lmao
i see my fault
im stupid

this is false
like for the odd order abelian group thing too
your initial idea was correct though, huh
i remembered an exercise from Serre's book: every character such that χ(g) = 0 for all g ≠ 1 must be an integral multiple of the regular character
so if G has even order, its regular character cannot be written as twice some other character of G
proof is fairly simple: let χ be such a character and ψ any character. We compute:
(χ|ψ) = 1/|G| • χ(1)ψ(1) = Χ(1)/|G| • ψ(1)
Then taking ψ(g) = 1, i.e. the trivial character, one sees that (χ|ψ) = χ(1)/|G|. But the inner product with an irreducible character must be an integer, so χ(1) = k • |G|, and we are done
Alright I'm a bit of a novice to group theory. I'm working on a cryptography problem. In particular, trying to find a finite nonabelian group G with the following properties.
- |G|>=2^128
- There is no known polynomial time algorithm to determine if two elements of the group are conjugate, and the problem is thoug,ht to be hard on average for G
- There exists a Low dimensional nonlinear representation of G, a(I know every finite group has to have a linear representation. This just means that there is some map a that applies to elements of g such that a preserves group structure, but makes findling a linear representation of g given only a(g) hard.) that is easy to construct and compute for a sane computer. It has low complexity. But finding a linear representation of g is hard given only a(g)
Thinking about it, this is based moreso on finding that nonlinear representation. Rather than the group itself. You could probably do this over almost any non ablian group of sufficient size if you had the right nonlinear representation.
Basically, Eliptic curve cryptography and RSA use these sorts of nonlinear representations over abelian groups. In particular, one or two dimensional nonlinear representations.
The groups i've thought about would be... basically just a trivial collection. the multiplicitve group of F_p[Q_8] that obeys the normal quaternion rules over R. Where F_p is a finite field of prime order, Q_8 is the quaternion group, and we set i^2=j^2=k^2 = p-1.
or in particular the group of them that have nonzero norm over the field
But uh... that has a low dimensional linear representation and figuring out conjugacy would be trivial
- This group shouldn't be nilpotent
My main thought would be semidirect products of large cyclic groups and symmetric groups. Where we somehow eek out a low dimensional nonlinear representation
Also researching finite groups of the lie type, from what i've been able to parse they sound similar to eliptic curve cyclic groups(but eliptic curve groups are for the degenerate case where the dimension of the matrix is 1x1)
For part 2, it’s finite, so there’s an algorithm
Yeah. Doesn't mean it has to be practical
you can factor an rsa 4096 key eventually but that doesn't mean it's a practical approach to break the encryption
It’s the set {f(a + b) | a \in I, b \in J}
do you know what I + J is
Reading your proof, it amounts to the fact that mult(trivial in regular) = 1, so regular can't be a multiple of any character of a representation, right?
What is a nonlinear representation? I can't understand your explanation. Could you give a definition directly?
Polynomial time in what? Order of the group? I can give you a Theta(|G|) algorithm for any finite group in that case. conjugate by each element.
aha thats much simpler lol but yeah
inner product of characters is always a positive integer
In cryptography one usually means polynomial in the bit-length of the order of the group
I misspoke when i said polynomial time. I guess I met that "the average case complexity of conjugation in this group has complexity greater than 2^128 operations"
"While being viable to use for cryptography
yeah. We don't want a polytime algo like this here
what's a non-linear representation?
look up eliptic curve point addition. That's an example of a nonlinear representation of a cyclic group
that sounds like an oxymoron
aren't representations by definition maps from G to the automorphism group of a vector space?
i'm using a wierd definition
you don't mean representation in the sense of representation theory?
Just some way of representing group elements as something where the group operation isn't a bilinear map on the elements. But the group operation given 2 elements is still efficiently computable
No sorry for using weird definitions
hmm, ok
I was thinking some weird generalization of an eliptic curve addition group could maybe be non abelian
functor from group as category with one object to some category that is not K-Vect, or A-Mod for a K-algebra A
:P
I've looked at the multiplicitve group of elements of nonzero norm in F_p[Q], with the additional rules that:
{i^2=j^2=k^2 = p-1, -i = (p-1)i, -j = (p-1)j, -k = (p-1)k}
but i suspect that this isn't much better for cryptography than a normal abelian group
due to the quaternion group being nilpotent
while i'm here some resources to self study abstract algebra would be useful
Also, I suspect that eliptic curve additon groups are a special case that reduces to an abelian group of some family of groups related to finite lie variety groups but idk
The typical maths recommendation would be something like Dummit and Foote, but I’m not sure if there’s something better specifically for cryptographic applications
I'm interested in abstract algebra in general but i haven't quite gotten there in college yet
i get distracted from my calc 3 homework doing abstract algebra nonsense
In which case Dummit and Foote is probably a good idea
i also might be doing an independent study of category theory with my physics advisor next semester
(with it's applications to physics in mind)
I suspect that will make abstract algebra easier when i get there
Otoh it would be very useful to know some abstract algebra before category theory, because a lot of your examples are categories of algebraic objects
I mean i'm familiar with the basics of abstract algebra. I have the definitions of field, group, ring, and vector space memorized
and i'm vaguely familiar with lattices and modules
and yeah it makes sense that category theory would be useful for describing those things
That’s probably sufficient
Like if you’re following a book you may need to take an example or two on faith but like
That doesn’t matter that much
I'm just not super familiar with the more advanced theorems and stuff
What are you counting as more advanced theorems?
basicaly anything nontrivial :p
what kind of lattices
the cool ones or the subgroup of R^n one
over finite fields mainly because most of my study of abstract algebra thus far has been motivated by cryptography
aeeuah and here I was excited
in particular the hobby i have of hyperfixating on finding a fast classical factoring algorithm somethimes(because i'm 90% sure one exists)
but yeah fair, for cryptography
I know i probably won't find one, but it will teach me a lot.
And if I ever do find one, all I'll do is publish the factors for all the RSA challenge numbers anonymously on pastebin with a vaguely ominous message. And do nothign more(not releasing the algorithm even or using it to hack)
but i'm almost sure i won't find one with my current state of knowledge. that's fine. trying has taught me a lot.
I rmemeber i more or less independently discovered a version of fermat's factorization algorithm in high shcool
Also, my goal here is to find a post quantum crypto algorithm that's similar in speed and keysize to current algorithms(ECC basically)
This looks like a good intro to abstract algebra if you're interested in cryptography: https://shoup.net/ntb/
The most promising canidate for that seems to be a natural generalization of current cryptographic primitives to non ableian groups(basically, all of the crypto we use today is based on hard representations of finite abelian groups.)
There has seemingly been some research on infinite non-abelian groups, but not a whole lot on finite ones.
probably because conjugacy over finite groups is seemingly reducable to linear algebra a lot of time
but if we had a representation that is hard to convert to a linear representation, and was low dimensional over some big (sub)group, than that'd essentially be a holy grail.
Assuming conjugacy is hard over this representation
Did you look at isogeny based cryptography yet?
Specifically CSIDH is a key exchange algorithm that does not have massive keys and has not yet been broken
Although it has not been around for particularly long and the somewhat related scheme SIDH was broken a couple years back
Either way it's extremely interesting
i was talking to chmonkey about this before. Oh yeah I think we were trying to show Mm = 0.
we can say Mm = 0 here
P25920.!
type shit
wdym, you want the conclusion M_m = 0 or have that also as assumption
The conclusion
hm, well im sure you can pass to the localisation
you just have to prove that (mM)_m = m M_m
because then 0 = (M/mM)_m = M_m / m M_m, so m M_m = M_m and by Nakayama you are done
and this should be pretty immediate i think
If I have polynomials $f_1, f_2, f_3,..., f_m \in \bQ[x_1,...,x_n]$ such that there exist polynomials $g_1, g_2, g_3,..., g_m \in \bC[x_1,...,x_n]$ such that $$f_1 g_1 + f_2 g_2 + ... + f_m g_m = 1$$ How can I show that $g_i \in \bQ[x_1,...,x_n]$ or at least there are polyonomials like $g_i$ that are with rational coefficients.
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
R = ℤ, M = ℚ, m = (p)?
Consider $\sum_i (f_i)$ in the rational polynomial ring
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
it can be anything
What’s the sum in the complex polynomial ring?
the same?
Same as what
there is no difference to this sum if we work in C or in Q
I don’t think that’s true
The rings are different after all
So the ideals must be different too
oh its a sum of ideals
Oh
Yeah sorry
Should’ve made that clear
I was using (f_i) to denote the ideal generated by f_i
I though it was the sum of f_i, didn't see the parenthesis
I need to show this sum is (1)
Yep
and I know this sum over C is (1)
I have not. I shall take a look at that sometime
something along the lines of f1Q + f2Q + .... + fmQ = (f1C + f2C + .... + fmC) \cup Q[x1,...,xn]?
matrix conjugacy over finite fields can be easily reduced to a linear system right
as in conjugacy for matrix groups over finite fields
yup, it does
Yep
My suggestion would be to argue that the sum over Q is (1) as well
ahh i need papers on nonlinear representation theory
yeah how would I do that
I have a hint of linear algebra
Hm maybe using that the rational polynomial ring is a PID helps
is it?
in multiple variables
Are you familiar with Grobner bases?
Forgot that only works for single variables
no
Hmm. They're essentially like a multiple-variables version of e.g. the Euclidean gcd algorithm in one variable. You could have used that, because the algorithm (say, to determine whether 1 lies in the ideal) uses nothing except field operations and so has to give the same answer over any field.
Let's see if we can't unfold it into more elementary words.
definiton. A polynomial representation of a group is a function a from G -> F^n (where F is a field) such that the following holds:
- for all n, m in G, n*m = q -> a(n) * a(m) = a(q)
- a(n * q) = P(a(n), a(q)), where P is a polynomial from (F^n)^2 -> F^n
- a(n^-1) = Q(a(n)) where Q is a polynomial from F^n -> F^n
Definition:
A quadradic representation is a polynomial representation of a group G such that Deg(P) = 2 and Deg(Q) = 2
This looks pretty algebro-geometric in nature. You might have luck looking at linear algebraic groups over finite fields (elliptic curves are projective algebraic groups AKA abelian varieties, linear algebraic groups are another class of algebraic groups which need not be abelian unlike abelian varieties).
In particular, "finite groups of Lie type".
Conjecture, there exists a finite non abelian group G such that conjugacy is exponentially harder than the dimension of the polynomial respresentation
Yup, i've made that connection too. My attempts here are to generalize the eliptic curve group operation to be non abelian, to construct a group wth this sort of representation
what do you mean "harder than the dimension"
i was inprecise
is * here just some product you assign to the set of polynomials?
And I have a feeling that Eliptic curve groups are degenerate cases of these sorts of groups.
i made a mistake. corrected
what, i see no difference in your messages
* is the group operation
that doesnt answer my question
the * in a(n) * a(m), is that just any group operation you put on polynomials? is it multiplication of polynomials?
i made a typo. i met a(n * m), where n and m are elements of G
that was inprecise ignore it pls
OK, I can give an answer without invoking Grobner bases but it's much actually only slightly less explicit.
Consider the ring R = ℚ[x1,...,n]/(f1,...,m) and S = ℂ[x1,...,n]/(f1,...,m). We want to show that if S = 0 then R = 0. But R is a ℚ-vector space and S is a ℂ-vector space and they have the same dimension as a ℚ- and ℂ- vector space respectively[*]. So obviously one is zero iff the other is.
The easiest way to justify * is that S = ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R, but I don't know whether you're familiar with base-change / tensor products.
I am familiar with tensor products.
I don't think I have the best intuiton for it but I learned it in commutitive algebra
Great.
Can you see that my argument works provided S = ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R?
Correct.
Neither is R in general.
It's a tensor product of a possibly infinite-dimensional vector space with an infinite-degree field extension.
so its dimension should be infinite no?
We are equating a ℚ-dimension (of R) with a ℂ-dimension (of ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R).
Lets generalize my definition a bit. P and Q can be rational functions as opposed to just polynomials. I've looked into linear algebreic groups, but I can't think of any examples of nontrivial ones(i.e, ones who's polynomials include addition at all.)
because a matrix sum could have determinant zero even if the two matricies do not
and in genral, the problem of "given a polynomial and a finite matrix group, does the polynomial define a linear algebreic group" feels co-np hard
If you saw tensor products in commutative algebra, you might be familiar with using their universal property?
In particular, for S, T R-algebras (all commutative rings), a ring map out of S (⨯)_R T is the same as ring maps out of S and T that agree on R.
yes
How about GL_n? There are also unipotent groups (such as the group of upper-triangular matrices with 1's on the diagonal), though I think those will only give you p-groups.
now what maps do we have here?
Try to use this to show that ring maps out of S and ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R are the same.
(Using the universal properties of polynomial rings and quotients as well.)
what does this mean?
alright so reading up on this, a rational point in a finite field means that you have some curve in the algebreic closure of F, such that the point's elements are in F right
Formally, that there is a natural isomorphism Hom(S, T) = Hom(ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R, T) for all commutative rings ℂ-algebras T.
Informally, the same thing, but just verbally argue that a map S to T and a map ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R to T consist of "the same data".
I would prefer to do this formally
after showing this by the universal property S isomorphic to C \otimes_Q R right?
Have you seen that any two things satisfying the same universal property are (uniquely) isomorphic?
I rememeber this
Then what I am asking you to do is show that S has the universal property that ℂ (⨯)_ℚ R has by definition, and therefore get an isomorphism between them.
ahhhh
would like some help
if f: C x R --> T is bilinear, I want to show f = g o (x) for a unique homomorphism g: S --> T?
could you give more context? what are C,R,T,S?
assuming (x) is the tensor product
.
need more information?
this is just the universal property of S
or is that what you are trying to show, that S has this universal property
Yeah I don't know how to show that
oh neat universal properties
I think tensor here is
(z, r mod (f1,...,fm)_Q) -> zr mod (f1,...,fm)_C
yeah
But how would I show every bilnear map f: C x R --> T factors through it
Do the words universal property summon you in the same way that bifunctor summons wew?
i didn't know bifunctor summons wew
well i think - given a bilinear map C x R -> T, how do you make a linear map S -> T?
dw about factoring for now
and really it's not just $\textit{any}$ bilinear map, it's one where $B(z r, p) = B(z, rp)$ for every $z \in \mathbb{C}, r \in \mathbb{Q}, p \in R$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I don't know
i think the universal property of the quotient may be helpful...?
Not just bilinear, but an algebra homomorphism (so respects 1 and multiplication).
I get it....
Thinking about this
ah right yeah
I am lost
How would I do this?
i think you can use the algebra hom $C[x_1, ..., x_n] \to T$ by sending $\sum_J a_J x^{(J)}$ to $\sum_J B(a_J, q(x^{(J)}) )$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
here J is a multi-index $J = (j_1, \dots, j_n)$ and $x^{(J)} = x_1^{j_1} \dots x_n^{j_n}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
To recap, you have maps a: ℂ → S = ℂ[x]/(f) and b: R = ℚ[x]/(f) → S = ℂ[x]/(f) (can you write down what they are?) and you need to show that for any (commutative ring T and) pair of maps a': ℂ → T and b': R → T that agree on ℚ, there exists a unique map f: S → T such that a = f ∘ a', b = f ∘ b'.
(Where the word "map" means "commutative ring homomorphism" every time.)
linear here i.e. ring homomorphism? Q-module homomorphism? which one?
-# sorry maybe ask raghuram, can’t really help rn :c
Can someone verify this proof? If we have a string of elements from the dihedral group and we have an even number of occurences for each symbol then its a rotation.
Proof: We define an equivalence relation where $a \sim b$ iff $ab$ is a rotation. Then, $ D_n/ \sim $ will be the two-element group ${e,R}$ where $R^2 = e$. We can see then, that $s$ is a rotation iff it's image $\pi(s) = e$. Then, given our string s, it's image under the quotient map is the product of images $\Pi_{i}^n \pi(s_i)$. Since our quotient group is commutative, and by assumption, we have an even number of elements for each occurrence, we can commute each element and its pair to be multiplied. Then, we obtain the identity for each pair. Therefore, our image is $e$. Hence, we get that $s$ is a rotation.
XDStar
in the same way that anything tangentially related to universal algebra summons me
will try that tomorrow
🔥
I won't bother you dw
if its about universal algebra i will never be bothered
I don't know any
not that i have a life, anyways
so I would just be shitposting to summon you
good enough
my lecturer for CA and ANT was really good and talked about some history. But the recordings aren't public and its not in english :/
the worst videos ever are those "socratica" ones or whatever
just made me thought of that
i mean ok for like basic basic intro sure
If we can just figure out the second worst, then the third worst, etc, then we can eventually give mq the best youtube recommendation 💪
but even for that i wouldnt recommend them
so true
Yea i agree
Yeah
I don't understand the notation you have used for B.
Which universal property are you using?
B should be the tensor map (z,r) -> z \otimes r
This one?
Do you want to use the universal property of tensor products of vector spaces?
In that case, you'll get a ℚ-vector space isomorphism and you'll later have to show that it is a ℂ-algebra homomorphism (i.e. ℂ-linear and multiplicative (including mapping 1 to 1)).
No, the universal properties are quite distinct.
One is purely about linear/bilinear maps; the other about algebra maps (which preserve multiplication, of the things being tensored and not just scalar multiplication).
the problem will be showing the isomoprphism (which is not explictly given) satisfies these properties
but if I replace all linear maps with homomorphisms it should be the same as your version
Not exactly. The bilinear one is about a function of two arguments; the algebra one is about two functions each of one variable.
ok
I will change some things
this will probably require little changes
something like this?
@tough raven
Yep.
Now how do I show uniqueness of h
I'll mention that you have used that a, b are Q-algebra homomorphisms in going to the last line to move the rJ from a() to b().
yeah ofc
You can use a generating set for S.
If some subset A of S generates it (as a Q-algebra, say) and two Q-algebra homomorphisms from S agree on A, they have to agree on S.
Yes
Because we can restrict the homomorphism to the domain submodule, then it just comes down to “the image of an R-module homomorphism is an R-module”
Your proof works
But a quicker way would be to go back to here, and say “so f^-1(N) = 0 or f^-1(N) = M, so N = 0 or N = R/I as f is an isomorphism”
Or actually if I’m doing the proof myself, I just need to prove R/I has no non-zero proper submodules
If N is a submodule then by correspondence theorem, N = J/I for some J containing I
So by maximality of I, J = I or J = R, ie N = R/I or N = 0
Suppose I’m given a matrix group and I want to show that it generates some kind of free product using the ping pong lemma.
Are there any tips or tricks or common constructions for me figure out what the correct action is for these kind of questions?
Cause either the solution is immediately obvious by inspecting the matrices or fucking impossible to figure out and there’s some insane mobius transformation that i would have never spotted to begin with
werent you talking a while ago about how you hated that theorem
well, youll be glad to know that statement of the theorem is really simple
Doing algebra without the correspondence theorem sounds neigh on impossible
Between Subgroups that contain N and subgroups of G/N
And normal subgroups correspond on each side
The theorem states that there is an inclusion preserving bijection between subgroups G/N and subgroups containing N
This generalises to rings and ideals, and even specifically to prime ideals
(Because of the whole inclusion preserving part)
I would be willing to bet enpeace will come and tell us it generalises to whatever the UA notion of a quotentable object is
You should also try to prove the correspondence theorem yourself I think, it’s not that hard
mq
hell ye
the nice thing is that in generalized algebraic geometry, the bijections in correspondence theorem are actually homeomorphisms
this is due to the third isomorphism theorem; (A/N)/(M/N) ≈ A/M
mq
This works (yeah the surjective follows by “image is a non-zero submodule of the simple module M”)
I would just assume it’s already proven that inverse of an iso is an iso though
in a sense the naturality of this isomorphism promotes a "relative" point of view where everything relative to a congruence θ can be carried into A/θ to make everything nicer
Honestly, I think people wouldn't bother to consider so many things relative to a congruence if they couldn't equate them to analogous things for the quotient.
anyone know of a good exercise list for dummit and foote? like a list of the nice & "reachable" exercises for each section
if so, please dm me so i dont lose it
What is the difference between herstein and dummit and Foote ?
In terms of new concepts and question
yeah!! makes all the proofs way nicer lol
Actually I was confused in both
Earlier but I did herstein cuz many people said it have lots of good question
After that when I saw questions in math Olympiads I wasn't able to do because many question
Require concepts from dummit and Foote
Like group actions and all
With which I am unfamiliar with
Why not
I mean tbf after reading other algebra books dummit and foote are definitely pretty verbose
Its crazy how much exposition there is in their tensor product section compared to other books
That exposition actually made it harder for me to make sense of tensor product
Cause they were talking about it in so many different ways right off the bat
Im not familiar with their group theory section
I know about chapter 7 and onwards
Their ring theory is not bad
Lots of examples
Prob next up is modules chapter
I know theyre kinda boring to read sometimes
Tbh examples are kinda goated tho cuz if u know big assortment of them then like you kinda understand the shit yk what i mean
Yea thats fair
They define rings incorrectly so it’s not off to a good start
Oh really? How do they define them?
I think D&F is actually pretty good it’s just like obscenely verbose
Non unitally
Some people do, idk why, something something analysis something something semi groups
Probably because they also hate the beautiful term rng
They do it to make it more annoying to answer questions in #groups-rings-fields
Lol
I think they do that maybe to highlight the fact we can have ring stuff without 1 but also that having a 1 makes a lot of nice theory work
Ig just highlighting the importance of 1? Idk
I mean it’s just a different perspective, you get stuff like ideals are subrings with is nice if you decide to want to say that for some reason
oh yeah its insane how much people focused on semigroups rather than monoids
in many UA texts they'll refer to Pol1(A) as a semigroup which, like, sure?? but it is a monoid and the existence of an identity element is very important 
(Pol1(A) being the set of polynomial functions in one variable)
associative magma
i.e set equipped with an associative binary operation
i guess
yeah
im too lazy to say "set equipped with binary operation"
if you forget the identity and inverse
ye
because i had to clarify
yes but groups have those as explicit operations
so you forget them and get a semigroup
yeah
nullary
Go two channels down and you’ll find farmers and agriculturalists
I am trying to show that if $a \in \mathbb{Z}$ is not a power of a prime, then its radical is not prime. I have thought of the following: write $a = p_1^{\epsilon_1} \cdots p_n^{\epsilon_n}$ where $n > 1$ and $\epsilon_i \geq 1$. Then, for some $1 \leq j < n$, $p_1 p_2 \cdots p_j$, $p_{j + 1} \cdots p_n \notin \sqrt{(a)}$, but if we take $m = \max {\epsilon_i}_{1 \leq i \leq n}$, then $(p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n)^{m} \in (a)$
okeyokay
is this part of trying to show that the only primary ideals of Z are (p^n) for a prime p?
Ye
It's not completely wrong but you're working a bit hard there...
Try to prove it for a simple case like 6 first
A slight error in your proof is the case where all the epsilons are 1.
Wait sorry why doesn't it work if all epsilons are 1?
also, why is it only for some j? cant u choose any j?
Yeah im also unsure of why it doesnt work if all epislons are 1
if a = p1p2 then p1 and p2 are not in rad(a) but p1p2 is in it
Yeah that's what I meant
Ok
idk it looks good to me but maybe we are missing something
Anyways now I'm stuck on how (p^n) is "immediately" primary 💀
cant just check directly?
Yeah I'm trying to
its all just applications of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic lol
If $x = p_1^{\epsilon_1} \cdots p_n^{\epsilon_n$, $y = q_1^{\delta_1} \cdots q_m^{\delta_m}$ and $xy \in (p^n)$, then...
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
||suppose ab ∈ (p^n), i.e. ab = k • p^n. Suppose that a isnt an element of (p^n). Then a = l • p^n1 where n1 < n and p does not divide l. By the fundamental theorem of arithmetic we then must have that p^(n-n2) | b, and therefore there is a power x of b such that p^n | b^x, thus b is contained in the radical of (p^n). Indeed, it primary.||
compare factors i think
because if all epsilons are 1 then p_1...p_n is a
yea but in the proof we split that shi up
ah i missed that
anyhow I thought it would be easier to say something like...
Say a is divided by p_1, p_2. Then p_1 * a/p_1 is in (a), but the two ideals are ...
when ab = k • p^n, then the n copies of p get distributed over a and b. This means either one of them contains n copies of p, hence must be an element of (p^n), or both contain at least one copy of p, and thus must be in the radical of (p^n)
that is the main argument
ye some shi like dat
commutative monoids with the unique factorisation property are great
enpeace with the Bruh moments
Does the proof start like this? Suppose that $xy \in (p^n)$ where $x = p_1^{\epsilon_1} \cdots p_n^{\epsilon_n}$, $y = q_1^{\delta_1} \cdots q_m^{\delta_m}$. Assume that $x \notin (p^n)$. Since $xy \in (p^n)$, we have $p^n = p_j^{\epsilon_j}$ or $q_k^{\delta_k}$ for some $j$ and $k$. It cannot be $p_j^{\epsilon_j}$ for any $j$ since $x \notin (p^n)$
okeyokay
ONTO CHAPTER 5 OF AM BOYS
primary decomposition was quick hey?
ONLY TOOK ME 5 MONTHS TO GET HERE
i need to review all that stuff again tho tbh i never learned it superrr well
also i got stuck on chapter 5 one time and didnt go back to it
Oh nah usually I do exercises in one chapter while I read the next chapter and I can only move on once I've done 10 exercises or so or if I've been stuck on the chapter for a while
idk why i got stuck i should look at it again
oh thats a good way to do things
keep it interesting by reading but also do exercise
Yeah, 2/3 of my time is devoted to exercises and 1/3 is reading
realistically i should do more exercises
but i mean if im in a class i just want to do the homework and move on
the homework takes enough time already
primary decomposition is weird
you know what yea it is a little weird
associated primes are annihilator of radicals of some shit
some weird thing
because the case of radicals is really easy; just basic lattice theory, but that it holds for general ideals with primary stuff is just weird af
i've got my ba in math so I'm done with classes forever 😹
lol yeah do u just have a lot of free time to study ?
i dont know if ill be doing that if i work a full time job
not sure if id care to
well I gotta finish my CS degree too so the most I can study nowadays is like 30minutes to an hour but on weekends I have more time
once I get full time yeah will have less time to study
oh i see yeah i mean even just a little bit of effort here and there is good and pays off over time
As in 5am? That's quite early in the morning
Pog...
What exactly is Euler's group and what are its properties?
Is it $F_n = \left{0 < k < n | k \not| n\right}$? The set of all numbers less than base $n$ such that they're coprime with n? Sorry if the set notation is confusing I have no idea how I'd write it.
What about properties and what is the group operation?
Let's say $n = 10$ for example. Then $F_{10} = \left{1, 3, 7, 9\right}$ but what is the operation that these elements have in common? What can I use to have $a\ast b = c$ where $a, b, c \in F_{10}$?
From this, by group properties I mean showing if it's cyclic or Abelian and that I would have if I knew and understood the group operation I guess.
Can anybody help?
danilojonic
You mean like the multiplicative group of n?
see my example but yeah I think it's that
but I wouldn't necessarily say that
because multiplicative group is also $Z_5^+ = {1, 2, 3, 4}$ right?
danilojonic
Well, im not sure what I can tell you.
The multiplicative group of n is all the numbers that have an inverse mod n, which happen to be all the coprimes.
but how would we represent 5 then?
i said this to remind myself of it tbh
i haven’t heard it under the name “Euler’s group” before (he doesn’t need any more things named after him lmao)
this is the group of units of Z/nZ, denoted (Z/nZ)^x
and it is (isomorphic to) the set of all numbers 0 <= k < n such that gcd(k,n) = 1
n does not have a multiplicative inverse mod n
I don't really know number theory but if we could give you a simple explanation of an arbitrary multplicative group then the field would be really simpler.
the algebraic number theory course i took was so poopy to me
i did not understand it
this course doesn't cover fields, only groups and rings
number theory is hard
Can you expand on the group properties, operation, is it abelian, cyclic etc?
with explanation pls
well it's always abelian.
Poopy is just funny
Lol yea
-# i feel like i just got asked an AI prompt
it works sometimes
the operation is just multiplication modulo n
but what im saying is that there is no description of a general multiplicative group of n because it's complicated
its cyclic only for some classes of values for n
"I is an ideal which can be generated by n elements up to radical" What does this mean?
this feels like an unfocused question. is there anything more specific you want to know?
like you want a silver bullet to understand it, but there isn't one. It's just complicated
Is it abelian because of this $gcd\left(n, k\right) = gcd\left(k, n\right) = 1$?
danilojonic
um
it's abelian because it's a qoutient of Z which is abelian.
subgroups of abelian groups are normal too
or because ab = ba with whatever mod you'll like, if you want a more concrete discription
-# sorry lol
The multiplicative group isn't a quotient of Z
as a ring
how does that make a group? Modulo n integers under multiplication aren't group tho
I see
I think this would get cleared up if you worked it out
of Q?
yeah you're right that's the wrong description
how should I work it out?
gimme a sec
bump
just show that the operations are well-defined and is abelian
like
probably its radical is generated by n elements
Ok. Seems like weird wording to me tbh
if you take two numbers a and b that are coprime to n, show that their product is coprime to n
find the inverse for each group element
find the identity of the group
show that the operation is commutative
yeah basically this
imo i think this is pretty straightforward
this could be tricky if you don't know Bezout's
actually no it isn't
how do you do it without Bezout?
whats bezout again
sum of coprime ideals is 1
ya i mean u said like abstract version
there are integers x and y such that ax + by = gcd(a,b)
just translate to Z
Mb i forgot what coprime ideals are
how can i construct nontrivial bivariate polynomials which define group laws over some subset of a finite field(or generallly could be matrix valued or something)
first intuition. There has to be a nontrivial set S over which p(x, y) is associative
meaning not just solutions, but a big set S, such that I could pick any 3 elements of S and it'd still be associative and form a closed set
Dumb question but in a UFD if $a = p_{\alpha_1}^{\epsilon_1} \dots p_{\alpha_n}^{\epsilon_n}$ how do we know that the only divisors are all of the form $\prod_{(\delta_1, \dots \delta_n)} p_{\alpha_1}^{\delta_1} \dots p_{\alpha_n}^{\delta_n}$ where $\delta_i \leq \epsilon_i$
okeyokay
I was thinking suppose that there was a divisor of a which is not of this form, then it has a prime factorization
Then use Euclid's lemma
that's a weird way to write it lol
wdym
using \alpha_i instead of just i and that product
Oh yeah I don't know why I did it
Suppose b = [factorisation of b] divides a
Then every prime in b is one of the primes in a, as if p | [factorisation of a] then p divides some p_{a_i}
Similarly the power of p in b is at most that of a
Qed
yeah that's what I was thinking
if a = p_1^k_1 ... p_n^k_n then all the divisors are of the form u p_1^l_1 ... p_n^l_n where 0 <= l_i <= p_i and u is a unit
I always took such things for granted but upon closer inspection I realized I didn't know exactly why it was true lol
Or you can just remove that p from both a and b and conclude by induction on sum of d_i
Yes
That was what I was trying to see
that's what unique factorisation means
like literally the definition kinda
I guess not literally
It’s not
The definition is that the factorisation as written exists and is unique
It’s not immediately trivial that that implies the factors are of that form
it is though? if a | b, then b = a * k. Factor a and k, and then the result basically follows immediately
You're just a savant my boy
Nah you chillen
I was writing out a way how it might be easy to see but I'm pretty sure that would make it more convoluted
skull
I guess let P0 be a set of primes such that every prime has a unique associate in P0. Then every element of your ufd can be written uniquely as a product of a unit with powers of elements in P0
then, when you've factored a, b and k then you can literally just compare the powers occuring in the primes lol
don't have to worry about all the messiness with associates
If I have two matrices over F_2 such that AA^T = 0, is there anything I can conclude about A?
The usual argument that AA^T = 0 ---> A = 0 doesn't work here unfortunately. Sorry if this is the wrong channel for this
over F2 for 2x2 matrices they must have the form
| a a |
| b b |
maybe #linear-algebra is a better channel for this? But try seeing if this generalizes to arbitrary dimensions
Thanks!
thats like classic when to one person its immediate but to someone else it takes conscious thought to make the 2-3 steps of logic that was actually automatic to you
how it feels reading anything written by McKenzie
Let (X,•_X) be a monoid, is there a concrete example of such monoid (X, •_X)^{op} such that for all h,g in (X,•_X) we have h•X g= g•{X^op} h
Like actually example of maybe some integers or something noncommutative and nontrivial
Isnt that just the definition of the opposite monoid
or am I misunderstanding what you mean
Let M(n) be the monoid of matrices under multiplication. Then M(n)^op is isomorphic to the monoid given by A \cdot B = A^T * B^T
ques 46
question: suppose a and b belongs to commutative ring and ab is zero divisor, to show either of a or b is zero divisor
how do i ensure a and b are themselves non zero
because else ab would be zero
oooh thanksss
how to show characteristics of finite ring divides the number of elements in that ring
well I guess 1 generates a subgroup with charR elements of the additive group and then apply lagrange
ring may not have unity
it can be defined without unity too right
but yeah just replace 1 with any element
(any element s.t. a*k != 0 for k < charR)
okay I guess you have to do some more work, since there must not be an element with ord(a) = char(R), but it all comes down to the properties of exp(R)
i was thinking claiming char r= lcm of all additive orders when unity not there
I mean thats the definition right?
well all the orders of the elements must divide the order of the ring
so their lcm must too
exactly
Is my logic here correct?
I kinda copied and revised the logic using this free monoid concept (which is surprisingly not that hard to understand because of the structure of addition)
This is definitely correct, this is definitely one of the more abstract proof I have done in a while, 🥰 my 1 week doesn’t end up wasted
yeah looks good
I know right I basically trying to make sense of this free groupy monoid thingy for a week 😭😭
free objects are the kinds of things that seem really complicated when you first encounter them but end up being quite simple once u get used to ti
❤️❤️❤️
The idea looks good, and yeah, free objects are nice!
I think the writing can be improved. Maybe framing it like this would make the proof structure clearer? "Let m0, m1 be given with f(m0)=f(m1). We will show m0=m1. For this purpose, take g, h : (NN, +) -> M given by .... ... ... Because f is mono, we obtain g=h. We see m0=g(1)=h(1)=m1, as desired."
🥰
great job of getting your head around it!
once you know it you start seeing this pattern everywhere; at least in my experience
many category theory stuffs
this is the practice exam i was given for algebra 1
does anyone else agree that the last problem is disproportionately difficult as compared to the others?
i was able to get the first five parts in 15-20 minutes and then i couldnt solve the last one even after half an hour
Yeah 1 seems pretty easy
2 is quite easy too
Yeah 3(ii) is more difficult than the rest
Idk I think it kinda spells out what you need to do
maybe if you didn't cover group actions in much detail
Whenever your group acts on an n-element set you obtain a homomorphism into Sn
as hinted by part (a) in this case you have a 3 element set of the cosets of H, then the kernel part follows pretty easily by unwrapping definitions
but it is definitely more difficult than the rest of the problems
think about how S4 must act on cosets of D. How many elements does S4 have? Which elements send D to itself?
i mean i know that S4 can only send D to three things
apparently if i consider the symmetry group on the set S4/D then i get that homomorphism
didnt even spend a whole class on them
i think thats the biggest thing
Yeah that would explain it
A group action of G on S is the same thing as a homomorphism from G to the symmetric group on S
understanding why is a pretty good exercise to do
well orbit-stabilizer would tell you there's indeed 3 things
and then you're done
ah
thats pretty clear just from knowing what a group action is
but i guess i didnt bother thinking about it that way
the problem is that i didnt know that was a thing
yeah it's a really important interpretation because it makes it clear how to generalize to groups acting on other things
like i knew that concept existed i guess but ive never used it when solving a problem before
i actually dont know what Sym(S4/D) looks like
i mean i know its a set of three things and their permutations
but idk what the permutations look like as group actions
Well if I give you an element of S4, how might you define a permutation of the cosets of D?
i guess just left-multiplying each element of D by it
just as the group action is defined
but how do i know which elements act nontrivially on D
Well if an element g acts trivially, it must satisfy gD = D
true but i know nothing about D
besides that its order 8
oh wait
Yes but what does gD= D tell you about g
Yeah
wow i cant believe how hard i overlooked this problem
hindsight is 20/20 i guess
now that im aware of this line of thinking though i should be good
bonus challenge problem: can you show there is a surjective homomorphism from S4 to S3?
yes by first isomorphism theorem
this map in the problem isn't surjective
oh right
which you can also see by noticing that any element that fixes D must belong to D and thus fixes all the other cosets
and as ker phi is size 8 we must have that im phi is size 3
yeah
so i need a normal subgroup of size 4
i guess <(12), (34)>
so S4 mod that needs to be S3
which i think is just a matter of showing that S4 mod that isnt abelian
nah because D3 is still there
Well D3=S3 so you're fine there
That isn’t normal
(24) is conjugate to an element of it, and isn’t in it
oh right
This subgroup also isn't quite normal
but there's something similar that is
Those are also similarly not normal
Have you learned what conjugates look like in the symmetric group
What are the conjugacy classes in S_n?
No
Or if I have then i dont remember
basically the conjugates of an element are just the elements of the same cycle shape
In fact conjugating an element by a permutation applies that permutation to each element of the cycle: $\tau (1 2 3)\tau^{-1}=(\tau(1)\tau(2)\tau(3))$
Blake
however I will say there's a way of constructing a surjective homomorphism that doesn't go in this direction, but it's a bit sneaky
Oh I see
Its quite late so im not sure im in the mental state to motivate it myself
actually the homomorphism from S4 onto S3 is quite bizarre and nothing similar happens for larger symmetric groups, it's one of my favorite little pieces of group theory
I am curious what it is tho
fair enough
Any permutation of 4 points also permutes the 3 different partitions of 4 points into 2 element subsets
Can someone check my proof of an isomorphism
I don't want to intrude on the current convo lo
thus we obtain an action of S4 on a 3 element set, and from there you can check that it is surjective
actually probably better suited for advanced alg
Sure go for it
alternative, perhaps less elementary proof: the group S3 can be realized as the group GL(2,2) of 2 x 2 invertible matrices over the field with 2 elements (notice that GL2 acts on the 3 nonzero elements of F2^2, which yields an isomorphism to S3)
If we allow translations, it turns out that you can achieve any permutation of the 4 points of F2^2, so the group GA(2,2) of affine transformations of F2^2 is isomorphic to S4
then since there is always a surjective homomorphism from the general affine group to the general linear group, that completes the proof
I see
Seems like theres a ton of geometric interpretations in group theory
They're the part that fascinate me the most so far
yeah once you get used to thinking about actions and symmetries you can do a lot of cool things
But it took me a while before things clicked in that way
Im still in that phase
I did a month of undergrad algebra in June and im now doing the grad course to have more time for more perspectives on groups and rings but I definitely haven't got the various ways to interpret groups down yet
Oh I should mention that the kernel need not be the entire subgroup D (otherwise you would be able to prove that every subgroup is normal) the reason for this is that if g is in D, then gD=D so the coset D is fixed, but gxD need not equal xD.
Yes but the subgroup part directly comes from how the group action is defined
At least after recognizing that you interpret it as a homomorphism
why can you treat free abelian groups as sets of multisets as doesn’t that violate the axiom of regularity?
How?
0,1 in z_2 and
1mod 2 =1
3mod2
So i don't get any roots in z
But i got B
Given answer is A
?
You are claiming that it violates the axiom of regularity. Can you give an example to prove it?
If I understand your question correctly any multiset will act as an element that satisfies the axiom of regularity
o well i mean is it not just by definition
I don't see that at all
If $F$ is the free abelian group over some set $\Sigma \neq \emptyset$. You are saying we can view it as a set of multisets so I'm guessing you mean that an element $$\prod_{\sigma\in\Sigma}\sigma^{\alpha_{\sigma}}$$ with all but finitely many $\alpha_{\sigma}\neq 0$, say $\sigma_{1},...,\sigma_n$ is mapped to the multiset $\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bigcup_{j=1}^{\alpha_{\sigma_i}}{\sigma_i}$. Then let $\sigma_1\in \Sigma$ . The set ${\sigma_1}$ does not intersect the free group which is a set of multisets of $\Sigma$ while ${\sigma_1}$ is a set with a single element from $\Sigma$
this just means these no linear factors, but it doesnt mean its irreducible. it factors as x^4 + x^2 + 1 = (x^2 + x + 1)^2 in Z/2Z [x]
its even reducible as a polynomial in Z[x]
no yh i was wrong
Herzog
ok i guess ill just give in uh given a free magma F, and elements a and b in F, why isn’t the mapping from the pair (a,b) in F^2 to (ab) in F a bijection
i feel kinda stupid but i just cannot reason why
it seems so blatantly correct
(idk if this is the channel for this question really)
(tho obv you can’t have a bijection from a set to its cartesian product so i’ve gone severely wrong somewhere)
You can, from ZxZ -> Z for example
wait how
a bijection?
or am i being really really dumb
wait no i am aren’t i omd
yeah wow
Have you seen the argument where one draws a table of the elements in ZxZ and enumerates the off diagonal elements giving a bijection ZxZ -> Z?
There are twice as many numbers as numbers.
so is this a bijection?
(and thus an isomorphism of magmas maybe?
i mean there is a 1-1 correspondence and you satisfy the homomorphism requirement
i think
as in the magma operation on pairs of pairs is natural
yeah (ba)
well it’s a magma so it doesn’t have commutativity
but uh you can see this from the fact it is a free magma
(again i think)
if magmas were associative then it wouldn't be a bijection: let F be the free magma over {x} for example, then (x, x*x) and (x*x, x) would both map to x*x*x. But they aren't, so I'm not sure 🤔 it might be a bijection actually
I'm trying to find the Galois group of x⁵-x+1 over ℚ.
Since this polynomial is irreducible over ℤ/3ℤ, it is irreducible over ℚ and its Galois group contains a 5-cycle. I've tried reducing modulo a few other primes but I haven't been able to prove the existence of a transposition.
Do you know the condition for a polynomial’s galois group to be contained in A_5?
Also, consider ||complex conjugation||
Those two combined should give you what you want
Right, conjugation can give a transposition. But how do we get the number of real roots of this polynomial?
Turning points are at the zeros of 5x^4 - 1, so at x = 5^{-1/4}
Sub that back in and compute, then consider what the graph looks like
(It should be 1)
Complex conjugation gives a double transposition, not a transposition
That’s why you need the first part
because x cannot be written as the product of two elements in a free magma
because the free magma does not satisfy any nontrivial equations
it is injective, though, for much the same reason :P
another way to see this: a free magma, is a set of binary trees with labelled leaves, where the operation is joining the two roots at a new root. From here it is obvious that the expression "x" cannot be written as the product of two other expressions
Is this isomorphism induced by A -> k[y]/y^2 given by f(x, y) |-> f(y^2, y)?
no, x is contained in q
so taking the quotient by q just kills x directly
you're confusing (x,y^2) with (x-y^2)
wdym
uh nvm I don't know what I mean lol
uhh
Would it be induced by f(x, y) |-> residue class of f(1, y)?
Maybe I can see it via composition of isomorphisms or something?
It makes intuitive sense since quotienting by (x, y^2) can be viewed as quotienting by x, which gives k[y], then by (y^2), which gives k[y]/(y^2)
In that case I think this corresponds to that composition
Maybe this question belongs in #recreational-math but I'll venture asking here. What is the centralizer of the Rubik's cube group in itself? I know that the identity and the super-flip are in the set, but not sure if there is anything else
wikipedia says only th identity and superflip
oooooh, the superflip is in the center? that's cool
I think i proved successfully that if G is finite, H is a subgroup of G, N is normal in G, and |H| and |G:N| are coprime, then H is a subgroup of N
But I think i consequently proved that H is trivial and im skeptical
lmao that's the second isomorphism theorem for you
isn’t the empty word in the free magma tho
My argument is just that for some h in H, its order k divides |H|, but since h^k N = N, we have that k is a multiple of the order of |hN| in G/N and so k is either not coprime to |G:N| or k=1
“word”
But k has to be coprime to |G:N|
Dang okay that makes some sense, I was thinking about corner twist too but I guess you can only twist 3 ccw at a time
What about checkerboard?
HOLY FUCK HAVE I JUST PROVED THE SECOND ISOMORPHISM THEOREM??!?!?!
I'd say that's more third than 2nd
no
imo not
because else the free magma would automatically be unital
and else it wouldnt have the universal mapling property
what would the empty word map to in a nonunital magma
i mean it can be unital and still be a magma no
nono the free magma can be unital but not have to have been built on a unital magma i think
simply because of the fact not every magma is unital
if the free magmas would be unital, then every magma would be unital
yeah but the free magma could be no?
because every magma is a quotient of some free magma
wait uhh
i’m thinking that just because it can have a unital structure upon it doesn’t mean it has to be imposed upon it
what
no, because any element of the center has to fix the position of every piece
because of the existence of commutators (not the group theoretic version, the commutator algorithm for pieces)
no free magma can have an element acting as a unit
because that would automatically mean that every magma generated by that amount of elements was unital, which is false
i mean say it had the empty word as an element would that stop it from being a magma?
i can give examples of nonunital magmas generated by any amount of elements
Got it yeah I thought of a counterexample to checkerboard too
no, but it would stop it from being a free magma
it could be a free unital magma
it is both no?
the universal property
how?
take the free nonunital magma F, consisting of all nonempty binary trees where the binary operation is adjoining two trees at their root.
Now, this magma is generated by x, so if any free magma F' would be unital, then F = h(F') where takes the canonical generators of F' to x. Then, as F' is unital and h is surjective, h(F') must be unital too. But this is a contradiction, so F' cannot be unital
ah i see so it’s cos the empty word could be a combination of itself any number of times
in a sense
so then ig free unital magmas are then isomorphic to products of themselves instead
like, a good thing to note is that "the empty expression" is not something that exists
every expression is a nonempty tree
is it not just the unit
no, because a unit might not exist
for any n-ary operation, how would you define f(" ", p1, ..., pn)
if a unit exists then that is an expression in of itself
yeah it’s kinda semantics but you’re basically saying the empty expression might or might not exist
the empty word is the expression "1"
yeah
thats not the empty expression
ah that is semantics lolll
i guess?
synonyms n stuff
?
uh
no
because that would mean that every unital magma satisfied a nontrivial identity that wasnt 1x = x1 = x
sorry wdym?
well, if F ≈ F x F, then (1, t)(t, 1) = (t,1)(1,t)
which would mean there exists nontrivial expressions t, s such that ts = st was satisfied in every magma
which is false
oh uh ig then separate the units?
?
like have a left and right unit
then it wouldnt be a product of itself anymore
or does that take us back to the unit problem
oh yhyh
also fyi a magma having both a left and a right unit has a unit
cuz, let l and r be the left and right units, then r = lr = l
yeah ikik
i guess the gripe i have with "empty expression" for a unit is that it breaks down when you even have a single operation that is not binary
i guess for unary operations you could do p(" ") = " "
but something like f(" ", x, y) is meaningless
and, formally, any unit has to be added as a nullary operation anyways
i’ve realised that what i needed is when you just consider magmas ty!

in a graded R-module, 0 cannot be written as a sum of nonzero things right
can't you just take Z/2 to be a graded Z-module with the trivial grading? then you can write 0 = 1 + 1
They probably meant as a nonzero sum of things from different levels of the grading
oh
Because M = direct sum Mi so every element of M is a unique finite sum of Mi things
but does 0 mess any of that up or like
i was just trying to show why ker(f) is graded when you have f: M -> N homgeneous
yeah you can't write 0 as a sum of non-zero elements of diff gradings
oh yeah? watch THIS
i'm watching bro i'm nervous
He couldn't do it 
Yeah you can
With the power of goodwill
Question, what is known about polynomials which define a group operation for a subset of a finite field
You're describing a very particular case of algebraic groups which are groups defined by polynomials, put briefly. Have you seen those?
vaguely familiar with them
but i'm essentially trying to find compact ways to represent groups with polynomials over finite fields.(i.e, represent the group law as some relatively small easy to construct polynomial from F^n x F^n -> F^n for some finite field F)
Doesn't this just force |hN| = 1? Since |hN| divides k divides |H|, and |hN| divides |G/N|. But then you get N = G, so still much stronger than what you're asked to prove
Why would it not force k=1
I was talking about it with someone earlier but I didnt quite understand
Can you write out your argument in more detail? I think you got the division in the wrong order, k does not necessarily divide |G:N| AFAICT
Let h in H be arbitrary. Then |h| = k such that k divides |H|. Now consider hN in G/N. We have that (hN)^k = h^k N = N and so either k is not coprime to |G/N| = |G:N| or k = 1. However, k must be coprime to |G:N| and so k=1 and thus h in N, and therefore H is a subgroup of N.
However k=1 also implies that H is trivial
But i can come up with an example where H is not
G = S3, N = <(123)>, H = N
The problem is the step "so either k is not coprime [...]", which you haven't justified. If a and b are coprime, and k divides both a and b, then k = 1. But k doesn't necessarily divide |G:N| here
Its not that k divides |G:N|, its just that its not coprime to it
If we let |hN| = l, then l divides k and it divides |G:N|
Oh wait l = 1 is a different third case
And we've disproven the first two
I still don't understand. We know l = |hN| divides k, and k divides |H|. Why can't k be bigger than 1, but still coprime to |G:N|?
k cannot be bigger than 1 but coprime to |G:N| only if l > 1
I was implicitly and incorrectly assuming the premise and thats the fundamental error I think
I don't really care to make this precise, but could we just say something like $k[x, y] / (x) \cong k[y]$, and so $k[x, y]/(x, y^2) \cong (k[x, y]/(x))/(y^2) \cong k[y] /(y^2)$
okeyokay
sure
That’s essentially precise if you add the words “by correspondence theorem” before the second iso
correspondence theorem?
If I is an ideal of R, then the ideals of R/I correspond bijectively with ideals of R containing I via J -> J/I, and (R/I)/(J/I) = R/J
No, it was the empty sum.
How does iii imply this highlighted sentence
We get that A[x, y] is contained in a subring D of B such that D is a f.g. A-module but I don't see how that helps
probably consider A[x+y] and stuff
A[x+y] is contained in A[x,y] so x+y is integral over B
By ii, A[x] is a finite A module
By ii again, A[x, y] is a finite A[x] module
By basically-linear algebra, A[x, y] is a finite A module
And A[x + y] \subseteq A[x, y], so it is a finite A module
Oh yeah smart didn't think about that
Ye thx
I don't really see where we use iii tho lol
We use the fact that A[xy], A[x + y] \subseteq A[x, y] is f.g.
So A[xy] and A[x + y] must be fg
we are in condition iii) and the proposition says its equivalent to i)
we need f.g. as a module
:P no ur not, math is hard
Integral closures seem like a generalization of algebraically closed fields lol
Or algebraic closures
they are!
an integral extension of fields is precisely an algebraic field extension
i.e., if a field F is an integral E-algebra, then E < F is an algebraic field extension
and commutative rings just happen to be nice enough that many nice properties translate over
ofc, not all
that would be silly
that would be just sooo silly man
enpeace do you know if solvable groups show up in AG other than just in the context of borel subgroups/using borel fixed point theorem
i would ask in alg-geo but it doesn't seem appropriate atm
or anyone reading that might know
idk I'm not an AG guy
balls
I would love to be some day though
lol im doing a reading course w my prof and one other student on flag varieties
esp because of how much AG-esque stuff is popping up in tame congruence theory atm
but like they skip so many proofs i gotta go back and read everything
we alternate presenting every other week
for a split second I though you were talking about the UA kind of varieties
but then I snapped back to reality
are they generalizations/analogs of ag varieties
or just shits and giggles same name
it's the same concept; collections of object that satisfy equations