#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 348 of 1
that tells you about [G:N_G(P)] not [N_G(P):P] unless I'm missing someting obvious
ok well that's not what you told us it said
My bad
it's ok boss
but yes now what you're saying does work
we just need that it's non-trivial
and that follows immediately from 1A10b
Thanks

wait what
is this true?
i know that $\text{Hom}(\oplus_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z}, \mathbb{Z}) = \prod_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
it is surprising to me that the reverse holds as well
what do you mean by the indicator function for the support of Phi?
it just follows from the fact that ∏Hom is represetned by ∏ and ⨁Hom is represented by ⨁ lol
yeah yeah
your professor is correct in that divergence is not an algebraic concept
it's true, but I don't see how it is relevant to my idea
since you're not talking about any topology
we are just showing that it can't be equal to any element of Z
i don't understand your argument
So if phi is in the Hom, and e_i are the standard basis vectors, phi(e_i) has to be equal to something
So I construct a vector v, where v_i = 1 iff phi(e_i) is nonzero
Well, +-1 depending on the sign just to make it positive
ok
Then phi(v) = 1+1+1+1+…
that doesn't work
there's no notion of "..." for purely algebraic things
you need topology to talk about that
But I’m not doing it infinitely many times
I just show that it can’t be equal to any integer
why not
i don't understand the logic
can you concretely show me why phi(v) can't be, say, 42?
Let’s say phi is nonzero on the first 43 entires WLOG
Then phi(v) = phi(v • e1) + phi(v • e2) …. + phi(v43 • e43) + phi(v - correctional terms)
yes
Then it’s 43+a positive term
this is where your argument breaks, unfortunately
i'm not convinced that phi(v - correctional terms) is positive
This is the first time I’ve ever seen you show up in this channel by the way but regardless
what does that have to do with anything?
Yeah it doesn’t, lol
anyway i think this is the key point
you can't deduce algebraically that phi(v - correctional terms) is positive
you can deduce that phi(finite sum of basis vectors) is positive
but with algebra alone there's no way to extend this to phi(infinite sum of basis vectors) is positive
it could totally be the case that phi(infinite sum of basis vectors) was -69, and nothing would break algebraically
I’ll think about it
if you had some kind of continuity condition, then you can relate "finite approximations" to the infinite sum
maybe another way to say this is that if $e_i$ are the standard "basis vectors" in $\prod_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z}$, then $\sum_{i \in \mathbb{Z} } e_i$ is an algebraically independent element of $\prod_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
there's no relation between the infinite sum and the basis vectors
or at least, none that the ring operations can detect
so you could totally have a map which was 1 on every basis vector, but -1 on the infinite sum
and nothing would break algebraically
heck you could consider $\text{span}\mathbb{Z} {e_1, e_2, \dots, \sum{i \in \mathbb{Z} } e_i}$ and define the map there
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Any hint for b part?
Here comes Wew… he’s here 4 Yew.
I'm gonna write f instead of theta. Does the following work?: It's clear that at least one Sylow p-subgroup of K has the form f(H). All Sylow p-subgroups of K are K-conjugate, so any Sylow p-subgroup S of K is conjugate to f(H), say by some k in K. Now because f is surjective, k = f(g) for some g in G, hence S = kf(H)k^-1 = f(g)f(H)f(g^-1) = f(gHg^-1), and gHg^-1 is another Sylow p-subgroup of G.
Alternateively, K = G/\text{Ker}(f) := G/Ker, then it's not hard to show that HKer/Ker is the Sylow p of the quotient
How is it clear that at least one Sylow p-subgroup of K has the form f(H).
Are you saying if we take H is the Sylow subgroup of G, then f(H) will be the Sylow subgroup of K?
I've decided this is the better approach but I'll answer you anyway
You can tell me in terms of quotient of the group
wdym
I think it is better that if we just treat the case that how Sylow subgroup of G/N looks like
yeah I agree, ignore my first message
So if I take Sylow subgroup H/N in G/N, how do I show H is Sylow in G?
Cardinality argument?
yeah you just mess around with the indexes of H, NH, and G
I think it is not true that H/N is Sylow subgroup then H is Sylow subgroup in G
Say |G| = 2^2 × 3 × 5, take abelian group now take subgroup N has order 2×3.
So G/N is 2×5, say H/N is 2-sylow subgroup then H has order 12
Let S be a Sylow p-subgroup of G/N. So S = K/N for some K >= N. Let T be a Sylow p-subgroup of K, then because S is Sylow in G/N we have [G/N : S] = [G:K] are both coprime to p, so T is a Sylow p-subgroup of G. Hence TN/N is a subgroup of K/N = S. We know that TN/N must be a Sylow p-subgroup of S as [G/N : TN/N] = [G : TN] is coprime to p, so by maximality S = TN/N
If R = Ann(M) then HomR(R,M) is 0 right
Also HomR(N,M) = 0 for N finitely generated ?
non-unital rings? 
Yea sorry ik i was kind of suspicious with that part
Lol
I dont know exactly whats wrong
The context was a proof i was reading it said I^t+Ann(M) = R so it annihilates Ext^i(R/I^t, M) so Ext^i(R/I^t, M) = 0…
And the context for that proof was showing how you can compute depth using local cohomology
I mean i guess if M an Rmodule is annihilated by R then M = 0 always
I mean … this is true though, isnt it?
I never understood what you meant by this
I am assuming unital rings
if R = Ann(M) then M = 0 in a unital setting
Yea i just realized
(not in a nonunital setting: 2Z = Ann_2Z(Z/2Z))
How about if R = Ann(N)+Ann(M) then HomR(N,M) = 0 if N is finitely generated
not even finitely generated: Let f : N → M be a hom. Then 1 can be written as a + b where a annihilates N and b annihilates M. For any n in N we see:
f(n) = f((a + b) • n) = f(b • n) = b • f(n) = 0
so HomR(N, M) = 0
oh ok cool
this is intuited by the fact that there obviously cannot exist group homomorphisms from Z/nZ to Z/mZ where n and m are coprime
Eh there is one
0 doesnt count as a homomorphism
mfw Grp is a pointed category
Real
Augmented rings
i will augment your canonical simplicial object
Aka nonunital rings lol
What lol
Don’t you work with those
Yeah those
But augmented just means like rings equipped with a map to Z
I see
how does that turn em into nonunital rings
The assignment (A -> Z) |-> ker(A -> Z) promotes to an equivalence of cats
Or like more explicitly like
You have provided an explicit choice of splitting of Z -> A so you can write A = Z (+) A' lol
annihilator
So there’s a copy of C_n inside G
How does conjugation affect order?
I don’t think there’s an easy way to do that without first proving the result tbh
^this is how you prove the hint
after proving that n is prime, prove that it must be 2
Hint: ||consider an element h such that hgh^-1 = g^-1, where g has order n||
So h has order n (prove it!), so h^n \in C(g)
Also h^2 g h^-2 = hg^-1 h^-1 = g, so h^2 \in C(g)
If n =/= 2, then n is odd
So h \in C(g)
mq in his algebra/stats arc
Yes
How do I get that?
Errr
h^2 g h^-2 = h (hgh^-1) h^-1 = h g^-1 h^-1 = (hgh^-1)^-1 = (g^-1)^-1 = g
mq in his algebra/stats arc
Essentially, we want an element that acts on <g> with order 2, and with order n
Because if n = 2, this isn’t a problem, but for any other prime it is
Then the nicest order 2 (anti-)homomorphism is inversion, so we decide we want h to act like inversion
Yes
Does anyone know why reducible representations have the name "reducible" if not all reducible representations can be reduced to direct sum representations
reducible has to do with direct sums
No, indecomposable is “can’t be written as a direct sum of smaller reps”
Irreducible is “no non-trivial subreps”
oh right
haha
im used to simple because im based
so i read irreducible as indecomposable
have you heard of the orbit-stabiliser theorem?
this problem can be solved very quickly with it
it says finite there
finite ordered element
in the hypothesis
Has element of finite order, not group is finite
ohhh i misread
apologies
regardless it reduces the problem to proving such a group is finite
also hi mico
Hallo!
funny seeing you here
Yeah I don’t think that’s easier than solving the problem directly
yeah
are the two proofs homotopic though?
I think proving the group is finite is most efficiently done by proving that it has order 2, by the exact proof above
So just do the proof above, and append the words “hence G is finite”
yeah
yeah except the result is wrong if you allow infinite groups https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/88980/infinite-group-with-only-two-conjugacy-classes
so you should be able to conclude that G is finite directly from the fact that it has an element of finite order
Doesn’t this just show there is an infinite group with 2 ccls
Like
We’ve only proven there is no infinite group with a finite order element with 2 ccls
hence this comment
How does that follow?
You can prove it’s finite from “finite order element + 2 ccls”, which is just the contrapositive ow what we’ve proven
oh yeah it is just the contrapositive LOL
it's very interesting that it fails in the infinite case though
there has to be a result that says all exponent p groups have a non-trivial centre somewhere
using direct limits to construct an object where some property holds for all elements is goated
same technique is used for the proof that everg algebraic lattice is the congruence lattice of some (possibly horrible) algebraic structure
I don't know what those words mean but I'm glad to hear it
The word "used" is like the word "use" but done in the past
basically you construct a partial algebra with the desired properties, and iterate some construction that leaves the congruence lattice the same but "fills in the gaps" of the partial operations, of course though creating new gaps. then you iterate, take the direct limit and bingo bango proof complete
thanks actually ts one was useful
"this shit one" 💔
In times of darkness I am your light wew
Do you know the direct product theorem?
standard definition of the internal direct product
(If there are subgroups K, H which commute with each other, such that KH = G, and such that they have trivial intersection, then G = K x H)
Then if K, H are normal with trivial intersection, if a \in K, b \in H, then aba^-1 b^-1 \in H \cap K, so it’s trivial, so a and b commute
Probably any k in K commutes with any h in H
we're adults now so we work up to isomorphism implicitly
yes, G is only isomorphic to K x H but that's as good as being equal
Equal, isomorphic
Equivalent. Homotopic.
Equivalent, |a-b| < ɛ for all ɛ
The = sign can mean any of “direct equality”, “canonical isomorphism”, “isomorphic by a non-canonical, but specific, isomorphism” or “isomorphic by a non-specific isomorphism” /hj
ab a^-1 b^-1 = e implies ab = ba by multiplying both sides on the right by ba
I use = as an arbitrary group operation
Because its in H \cap K, which is equal to {e}
analysis :frown:
mq in his algebra/stats arc
So true
And it’s in H \cap K because both are normal, and aba^-1 b^-1 = (aba^-1)b^-1 = a(ba^-1 b^-1)
hey guys
equivalent, there exists a (finite) sequence of Reidemeister moves from one to the other
how would I go about showing a function mapping R2 to R is a homomorphism
like f(x, y) = x, is a homomorphism, how do we even prove this without knowing and inner operation
im assuming R is the real numbers? or just any ring
that comes equipped with operations
and R^2 naturally comes equipped with the operations from R
i dont, its just hard to tell
like it seems trivial,
Gotta prove that it preserves + and *
Just like for groups
In general a homomorphism is just an operation preserving function between two structures
f((x,y)+(x',y')) = f(x+x', y+y') = x+x' = f(x, y)+f(x',y') and so on and so forth
Two of the same structures
thats what i thought
Getting flashbacks 💀
universal algebra!!
A homomorphism of Xs is a morphism in the category of Xs /j
if anybody mentions a god damn signature I'm gonna do something comedically disproportionate to the situation at hand
bbut
As soon as anyone mentions something even remotely foundational this server goes crazy
Its always hilarious too
a homomorphism between algebras of signature F is a function h : A → B such that for every f ∈ F_n, we have h(f^A(a1, ..., an)) = f^B(h(a1), ..., h(an)) for all a1, ..., an ∈ A
i guess UA is foundations
but imo its not really
I agree but theres a hint of model theory
And that alone is enough
Foundations don’t exist, who needs to build a stable house?
equational logic my beloved
commutator theory:
Ts is already past what I know 
I already hardly know universal algebra besides the isomorphism theorems
its pretty doable in nice varieties like ones with commuting congruences
looking into some notion of homology for generalised congruences right now in the hope that it has some connections with commutators haha
i love (co)homology
Oh to be clear, I am not currently taking charge for help requests in a topic I am not proficient in
One day ill know what homology is
i have said before the intuition i like to have for homology
i could link it to you if you'd like?
Sure
If its a topological intuition I think i know it
every adjunction has a naturally associated cohomology for every abelian group object in the codomain of the left adjoint
But itll still be good to see again
before i do that, would you say i am being authoritative and/or monopolising the discussion in this channel?
ok, just checking :)
Alright
youre good dw
for the time being i need to double check every time
the summary is that exact sequences are like "indicator functions for algebraic structures"
and homology is about having imperfect tests/multi-stage tests
often this takes the form of passing a "local" test but failing a "global" test
local global stuff sounds like you get something to do with sheaves lol
yeah, sheaf cohomology is a good example
but this is homology generally
it just turns out that "passing a local test but failing a global test" is a common example of a multistage test
So homology is built upon what is essentially more sophisticated indicators for normal subgroups
right that's it
yeah categorically most categories of algebraic structures do not form a topos
intuitive no?
there's no analog of {0, 1} that lets you classify substructures
but this is essentially because asking for a {0, 1} is kind of the wrong question
as i lay out in the link, the answer to an algebraic test is "yes" or "no, but here's why"
it's a richer notion of indicator function than a purely set-theoretic one
measuring how much something fails rather than just that it does
exactly!
and that's a lot of what homology is about
measuring obstructions, right?
and abelian groups/categories are the right setting for that because theyre simply that damn nice to work with
essentially because you get a correspondence between substructures and quotient structures
via kernel and cokernel
this lets you set up an equivalence between tests and collections
ermm but the triangulated categories!!! the trianglelated cateogires tho
hell, this is fucking reflected in universal algebra where any structure that is ""nice"" MUST be a fucking abelian group in some way 
analogous to the equivalence between predicates and subsets in set theory
literally one the topics in the introduction mathematics course 🔥
what do you mean?
somewhere along the line they introduce functions and have a section about that equivalence
oh yes yes
Which course lol
this is actually part of a much bigger story in mathematics
i would go into it so long as it doesn't come across as me being authoritative and monopolising this channel
or taking charge of a help request in a topic i am not proficient in
Stone duality and its a big part of topos theory right
subobject classifiers
"introduction mathematics"
I honestly just make the homework as a formality
i mean more "indexed-fibred duality", i.e. grothendieck's relative point of view
i am too logic pilled 💔
Idk how much I would equate that with his relative pov but ye
afaik the relative pov is about considering objects "parametrised by" another object, via slice categories and stuff?
I mean sure but also just emphasis on considering maps between stuff and things, which is important in the treatment/development of ag. like the idea of thinking of a map a-> b as b parametrising stuff feels kinda older / more basic
oh, interesting
is this like focusing on properties of morphisms rather than properties of objects?
I would say so yes, with the knowledge that you can always take the target terminal if you want something truly absolute
mhm mhm
i suppose i'm familiar with the more old-fashioned notion of the relative pov, which is the "fibred" half of indexed-fibred duality
Like whenever you say a k-scheme you can think of that as the object X -> Spec k and things are often defined in terms of that whole structure
Ye ig there is also a separate thing that like idk
(Un)straightening is very cool and deep imo
oh i've heard that's kinda like indexed-fibred duality in an infinity-categorical context?
unstraightening? why so queerious
the internet is doing terrible things for me
Yeah sort of but I am being ahistorical with terminology - point being it goes back to something older (using fibrations (of 1-cats) to encode pseudofunctors
right right, grothendieck construction is about going from indexed pov to fibred pov
phew, i was worried i was taking charge with a help request on a topic i was not proficient in
lol, why are you taking passive aggressive stabs at the mods? If you feel you have been mistreated, this is not a very sensible response
what would you suggest i do?
I dunno, I don't know the specifics well enough
well, until i get clarification, i'm gonna have to be extra cautious
but you're asking to be banned if you continue like this
oh?
I'm not saying the warnings were warranted, but you're clearly being antagonistic. I know you have had bad experiences with people here, who have been elitist and dismissive. But starting to call other people's opinions "algebra brainrot" and stuff isn't a solution. I don't wanna take sides, because I think both you and people you interacted with have said things you shouldn't have. It's like every interaction you have is colored by your previous interaction, so each interaction gets worse and worse
well, the way i see it
either i've been mistreated, or my calibration for detecting the complaints is off
if it's the latter, then it's actually worth me double-checking so i can fix my calibration
if it's the former, i'll get banned anyway
unless stuff was deleted idk who was being rude in the previous messages
I mean yeah I am not really sure of what you are trying to achieve with constantly saying you hope you aren't monopolising since it just seems you are trying to complain at the other mods until someone is stricter or something
but im just a bystander so who cares
well, it could help fix my calibration
What do you mean by that
it may be the case that i am monopolising but unable to recognise that
hence, by explicitly asking i can check for those scenarios
It comes across as you just memeing on it rather than actually checking
the context isn't really in this channel, it goes way back AFAIK
well, it kinda serves a dual purpose
if my calibration is off then it'll help
but if i'm being mistreated i'll get banned anyway
might as well make a little fun of it
not like there’s much else I can do if the mods refuse to communicate
if they wanna ban me they’ll ban me, nothing I can do about that
I think it might be good for you to consciously try to tone it down internally a bit and if the mods still aren't happy they'll be glad to let you know trust me
With the stuff you're saying it just feels like you're being actively salty about the mods complaining
I thought other mods had communicated
(I don't really want to say much esp as I wasnt there for earlier stuff and don't know what has been said)
I’ve DMed modmail and haven’t received a reply
I suppose I’ll wait
But yeah no need to drag yourself into this potato
If I’m being mistreated they will ban me no matter what
Acting compliant won’t solve anything
Genuinely take a second to be at least a little bit self aware about the shit you're saying
Because there is no Grand conspiracy against you
I also don’t have the full context for this, but just as a general point, people aren’t out to get you pseudo, and yet you often come across as very defensive and antagonising. I know that you’ve spoken about why before, I’m sorry you’ve had some shitty interactions with mathematicians in the past, but if you constantly act like you’re being persecuted and be kinda defensive I’m not sure you’ll have many better experiences
It doesn’t have to be a grand conspiracy
There have been people who’ve wanted me gone ever since I joined the server, is all
I was bullied and belittled a fair amount when I joined the server
It’s lessened recently thankfully
I can’t speak to that, but it doesn’t appear to be the case anymore and continually being so defensive around other people will just negatively affect any other interactions you may have here
I really don’t care to get into anything, but FWIW, I think you have some really interesting perspectives on stuff, and I really haven’t seen any of this persecution, but I have seen a lot of defensiveness on your part which can be a bit much, so idk do with that what you will 
I do try gradually to open up and be vulnerable
And then stuff like this happens
It’s ok, you don’t have to believe me or take sides or whatever
I just get tired of being gaslit into thinking that I alone am the problem
Can the pitying and complaining and such be done in a non-topic channel
Right, it seems that I monopolised the discussion here
I'm gonna side with pseudo here. If this was an important channel like #alg-top-geo-top you might have a point but just let her vent
where else is this discussion realistically gonna happen? #serious-discussion ?
basically no one's active here at this time
Fair
Groups rings and fields is just alg-chill 2
Damn, I wasn’t expecting that from you wew
it's why it's my favourite advanced channel
you get it 🤝
though i suppose a name change would be rather hard to get through

It’s essentially a private server for like 10 of us that people occasionally ask group theory problems in
Lol
i do like the community here, my grievances aside
i think this was where i learned why the first iso theorem was cool
it was a rare event of me actually enjoying algebra
i mean if you enjoy monads youre technically alr enjoying algebra 
Category theory is algebra no matter what those weird foundations folks will tell you
algebra: substitution math
Controversial lol
I think it took me a while before i understood this
But I don’t feel as put off by it now
no fr thats basically what a deductively closed set of identities is
skull
The only categories that matter are Ab CRing R-mod and Sch and all it’s derviatives
Everything else is just a hoax to publish papers no one understands
What’s a derviative?
insane take
Bro also made two grammatical mistakes in one word
derviative 
I just mean stuff like chain complexes of modules and stuff
Hopefully anamono is native english speaker or I feel bad
interesting, didn’t realise
English is my 10th language you evil person
me when Bun_G
sorry discord latex is too frustrating i hope this is readable :(
I had some friends that went bungee jumping
would love any ideas!! but its ok if this is just a bad approach
you said R-mod three times
Oh maths rime
Sch comes from CRing and set anyway
TRUE
Etc
CRING????????????????????????
think about it. But not too much
wait I thought this was discussy
Hilb is controversial but I am going to allow it
i should add a few more question marks to make the joke more obvious
guys what about the category of congruences of an algebra 🥲 😢
category of E_n rings. call that Cringe
This seems promising
The group you’re considering is the group of affine maps mod m, I believe
yee, translation + scaling on Z/mZ
And then you’re considering the subgroup generated by a particular pair (a, c), and letting that act on Z/mZ
Mhm
I KEEP WRITING Z_m
Orbit-stabiliser sounds like exactly what you’d want to use here
Whoops same
But yeah I do see your point about computing the order…
I can appreciate the Top erasure though
Why
Ok actually here’s one way to think about it
The group action is faithful
CRingE
I.e. if an affine map acts trivially, the map itself must be (1, 0)
So now, suppose (a, c) goes through all of Z/mZ
So that the orbit size is m
Then it must act via a cyclic permutation on Z/mZ, right? An m-cycle specifically
And m-cycles have order m
Tbf this is Potato’s preferred notation, esp when m is a prime
But since the group action is faithful, this implies the original group element has order m
So, if (a, c) works, then the stabiliser must have order 1
oo that makes sense
Trying to see if the reverse is true
ive been doing too much local property stuff lately to see Z_m as anything but some Z localised at the maximal ideal m
Ok so, any affine map acts via a permutation
Hm…
The issue is I think it’s possible to have stabiliser order 1 without having an m-cycle
E.g. something like (12)(34)
So it’s a necessary but not sufficient condition
No erasure here just take the forgetful functor Sch -> Top
darn
I’m a little too eepy to continue but hopefully someone else can help further 
use m to denote a prime number
its a shame that radboud doesnt provide an elementary number theory course this year, i wouldve totally used m for prime numbers in the exam
Literally the first person to ever complain that they can’t take ENT
no its shame only because of this reason
yk whats weird theyve got a shelf with course textbooks which i assume are for bachelor/masters courses with an algebraic K-theory book there?
they dont have that
inconsistent ahh
Fair
Naur
Ragebaited
Oh i just realized i said it’s instead of its
Oops
Didn’t realize tbh
Lemme think of an excuse
bro is still thinking
Nope i got a burger and im eating it
I’m onto burger and better things
And I’m watching family guy clips
bro better be talking about hypercommutators
No I’m talking about the delicious burger I just ate
With like 9 toppings on it
And a bunch of cajun fries
Omfg 🤤
❌
is there any special property that governs when an element x of a (probably finite?) ring has some integer exponent n such that x^n = x?
specifically i'm trying to figure out when x^m = x modulo n, and I can't tell if an m generally exists / if there's any theorems about rings that describe this (this could be extremely basic, I just don't know anything about rings)
also just like should be "their"
But that's ok
Oh true
ugh is this not a basic thing
for some reason i cant find things online
in my head i feel like u could maybe create some sort of "subgroup" structure? but im thinking about everything in terms of Z/nZ and that probably isn't generalizable 😭
Hello
Im reading this book and they first mention that SU(2) has a unique irreducible representation for every dimension and they call it the spin representation. They define the representation on the space H_j which is the space of degree 2j homogenous polynomials in two complex variables and is defiend as: let g in SU(2) and let f in H_j then p(g)(f) = f \circ g^{-1}
now why did they chose the space of 2j homogenous polynomials?
if TN/N is sylow p-subgroup of S, and S itself p-subgroup of G/N, isn't directly comes that TN/N = S?
How do I prove closure of a group in non-trivial examples?
It depends a lot on what are you working with
for example: Let $G = \mathbb{Q}\setminus\left{0\right}$ and $p\ast q = \left{\begin{matrix}
p\cdot q & p > 0 \
\frac{p}{q} & p < 0 \
\end{matrix}\right.$
danilojonic
you want to show closure? this is easy in this case since a product of rationals is rational
so its trivial?
for you it may not be trivial, for me it is
my prof said that theres no need to show closure if its trivial whatever that may mean
like if G = Q\{0, 1, 2} then it wouldn be trivial
in both cases 0 isnt taken into account so it doesnt matter
but what about 1 and 2
for example
how would I show it?
you mean 1/2 * 4
it wouldnt be in group?
but 1/2 wasnt in a group to begin with
because elements p = 1 and q = 2 arent
its fine to use 1/2
okay so the main point is to find a counterexample, is that enough?
yes
what if we had an opposite scenario? Example:
$G = \mathbb{R}\setminus\left{-1\right}$ and $x\ast y = x+y+xy$. How would I demonstrate closure here? Would I go straight for $x = -1$ or $y = -1$ and try to find that it doesnt hold?
danilojonic
this is a commutative group so yes
but I have to show the closure
everything else is easy for me
just closure can be difficult
if x+y+xy = -1 then 1+x+y+xy=0
factor the left side as (1+x)(1+y)
one of x,y must be -1
so x+y+xy=-1 is impossible proving closure
ahh I see
would anyone be able to help me with the forward direction?, i’m quite stuck
i know a maximal ideal exist by zorn’s lemma and that if I R/I is a field if I is maximal
the proof probably will involve showing that (R/I)^n is isomorphic to (R/I)^m as vector space iff n=m
but i’m not sure how to get there
R/IR would just be trivial right? because IR=R
what question, 24?
yes
Why is IR = R?
i put 21 and 7 there because they might help give context
ah okay, i got confused i thought that ideals must contain identity but clearly that’s not true
yeah if an ideal does contain identity (or any unit) then its the whole ring
oh instead I=IR right?
Yeah
ah okay, i think i have it thank you
do i have to solve this type of problems?
No one has to do group theory
My point is like, how could anyone possibly answer the question of “do I have to do this exercise”
No you don’t have to, but it will probably help your understanding
i mean im not sure thats what they were asking
i think they were wondering if, were they to take a course involving group theory, would they have to answer questions like that, assuming they wanted a good grade?
and to that the answer is yes
i mean they seems dry questions, leave it
the questions on the picture you posted seem dry?
i guess they can come off that way if you havent taken group theory yet, but i bet theyre more interesting than it seems
how?
Have you done some group theory? Whether or not im able to explain why the problems could be interesting kinda depends on how much I can actually explain
The part b question has a cool result bc of the universal property you find
yes i done undergraduate group theory
Ah then good
I guess if you dont really care about algebra then the questions would be dry, but if you do, you get some cool results like seemingly finding the minimal normal subgroup of P
Which you do in part b
The nontrivial automorphism problem is also cool
I guess just the fact that you're finding so many different properties of the quotient group that the problem cares about is what's cool to me at least
oh
oh, C is actually an interesting result
you are showing that any minimal generating set for a finite p group has the same size
which is not true in general for groups or finite groups
Could I have a hint for the reverse inclusion of ii? I know that if p is in Supp(A/a), then S^{-1}A/S^{-1}a is nonzero, that is S^{-1}a is a proper ideal of S^{-1}A. I want to show that S^{-1}a is prime however. This happens if and only if S^{-1}A/S^{-1}a is an integral domain, but I don't know if this is the right track
Nvm I got it
a^e = S^{-1}a \neq (1), so that a n (A \ p) = \varnothing, so a is contained in p
Does anybody know if this sum is a direct sum
likely not since they wrote it that way
Over any arbitrary indexing set?
Ye
Also I'm confused when authors write \bigoplus_i M_i I often don't know whether to interpret it as a direct sum (all but finitely many summands are zero) or as coordinates (x_1, \dots, x_n, \dots)
I guess they're isomorphic in that case
same thing
with the caveat that whenever oplus shows up, you need to implicitly understand its the set of all vectors with finite support
So how do I interpret \sum M_i? Could it be possibly the module of all infinite sums?
I'm assuming that localization does not commute with arbitrary sums in general
it does
It does not
localization can be written as a tensor product, the latter commutes with arbitrary sums
no?
Sum ≠ direct sum
🫂
I think for this exercise you want a direct sum
But I think the result might still be true with direct products
Because any direct product is a colimit of finite ones
I'm sorry I'm lost. If as in q \subseteq r(q) = p, then s is not in q, for otherwise it would be in p. Therefore, a^n in q for some n, but how does this show that a in q?
Oh I see, s^n is not in q for all n (because otherwise s would be in p), so we must have a in q
Pretty sure this is false, I mean even in sets or Ab
Maybe I am misinterpreting what you mean
But like you want it to be the limit of the finite ones rather than colim
you get an inverse system indexed by the finite subsets of your indexing set
Indeed
yes
Wait yeah
I’m being real dumb
or in words: every zero divisor of R/q must be nilpotent, so as s is not nilpotent (it is not in the radical p) a must be zero in R/q, i.e. a ∈ q
Naur
let V and W be f-d vector spaces over a field F, is there a nice way of showing dim(V ox W) = dim(V) dim(W) without having to explicitly choose a basis?
Follows by universal property I think
But this is kind of like picking a basis without “picking” a basis
so your idea is to use the fact that dim(V) = dim(V*)?
oh, right
And this is a mapping out thing
Yurr
i’m having a moment
i feel that seeing m = (x1-a1,…,xn-an) is maximal in k[x1,…,xn] by noting that clearly k[x1,…,xn]/m = k, is too simple
for a1,…,an in k
it works
You justify it by the first isomorphism theorem on “x_i -> a_i”
well the xi's gets sent to constants in the quotient map
and it contains k already
so it's k
(And that is the kernel because reducing modulo that ideal, you can turn f(x) into f(a))
ok yeah it works but it still feels too simple, this comes with the consequence that a polynomial vanishes at (a1,…, an) iff it’s a linear combination in the xi-ai and that’s not at all clear to me 😭
@hidden wind try doing this manually for a couple polynomials to get a feel
More formally it should look something like err
f(x) - f(x_1, …, x_n-1, a_n) = sum g_i(x_1, …, x_n-1)(x_n^i - a_n^i)
And that latter term is divisible by x_n - a_n
So then done by induction
what you could also do is write V and W as direct sums of the vector space k, and then use the distributivity property and the fact that k ⊗ k = k
Nah it is clear
That’s essentially choosing a basis without saying you’re choosing a basis
i am aware
yeah but it hides the choice of a basis well
whatever Im typing out the adjoint proof as we speak
But also like I mean you need to show that tensor product of basis vectors give a basis
Etc
wait why the ^i here
Idk I think enpeace's is best lel
i is what we’re summing over (it ranges from 1 to the x_n degree of f)
tyty
Factors work too, not just sums
In the n=1 case, it says you can factor out (x1-a1), then you get sums of those since they indeed vanish
the n=1 case is clear to me by polynomial division
Yeyeye
But yeah I mean, if you evaluate it at the point, along any line you have a 1d thing so can’t be too different
Vaguely
hmm
i feel maybe there is an argument by partially evaluating k[x1,…,xn] -> k[x1] but i dont see it
You can induct with the n = 1 case, using k[x1, …, x_{n+1}] -> k[x1, …, xn]
There’s an actual argument by noether normalization too
i forget, how is xn^i - an^i divisible by xn - an again?
Difference of whatevers
There’s like a specific expression but uhhhh run the division algorithm
It’s like x^i - a^i = (x - a)(x^{i-1} + ax^{i-2} + … + a^{i-1})
I can never remember the statement but its vibes are like, you can’t send the variables to nowhereseville, gotta stay in k
ah right the binomial theorem ig
Because integral
Almost
guh
Ultimately it’s like
You can also use the factor theorem
Run the synthetic division trick
seems to be known simply as “difference of powers”
right
Since a is a root of x^i- a^i
You can also prove it model theoretically easily in the uncountable case by like drawing the diagram and throwing an ultrafilter iirc
just what i was thinking
I don’t remember the exact shape of it but it be like that sometimes
I really should know it offhand but just kinda push in 1/(x-s) for each s or what have you
Well I mean, if you could for every s in k
As in, there was no contradiction with x-s -> 0
ok i think i got it thanks so much 💖
actually it turns out one can be very explicit here, which is just what i wanted mwahaha
my literature defined normal subgroup as:
"A subgroup $\mathbb{H}$ of a group $\mathbb{G}$ is normal if it is invariant under the action of the group $Inn\mathbb{G}(\mathbb{H}) = \mathbb{H}$, i.e. $\sigma_a(\mathbb{H}) = \mathbb{H}$ for all $\sigma_a\in Inn\mathbb{G}$. The fact that a subgroup $\mathbb{H}$ is normal in a group $\mathbb{G}$ is denoted by $\mathbb{H} \triangleleft \mathbb{G}$."
I don't understand this definition at all. What does being "invariant" mean? What exactly is the action of group $Inn{\mathbb{G}}$? I also didn't understand what is inner automorphism.
danilojonic
I guess it's equivalent, but if the book is supposed to be introductory then this is an ass way to introduce it lmao
what is $\sigma_a(\mathbb{H}) = \mathbb{H}$ for all $\sigma_a\in Inn\mathbb{G}$ tho? Is that some oddly denoted element?
danilojonic
what book is this?
it's a script my prof wrote
has he introduced group actions and automorphisms?
what a terrible way to teach normal subgroups lmao
im saying 😭
he did but it was very brief. I don't have anything to say about automorphism other than it being a bijective endomorphism
is this introductory group theory?
or are you supposed to be familiar with some algebr
a
introductory abstract algebra
wtf
done on 2nd year, right after linear algebra
I guess that's why average completition time for my faculty is 8 years...
okay, a better definition of normal subgroup is a subgroup H < G such that, for all g in G, we have gH = Hg
I agree, I know for that definition as well as the conjugate one
teaching normal subgroups using the action of Inn(G) on Sub(G) looks terrible however you cut it
but, I heard somewhere that $aHa^{-1} \neq aha^{-1}$ and same goes for the seperate left/right cosets, can anybody explain why? I know one is a set and the other one is element but why both don't hold true always?
danilojonic
it may have context but in general this is not the right way to see normal subgroups
aHa-1 is a coset/ subgroup, while aha-1 is an element of the group
they're just incomparable
I know that
what do you mean by "why dont both hold true"
Here's the entire page where that's introduced
I need to find a youtube tutorial where I found that, will be back
it's because H = gHg-1 implies that g only needs to permute the elements of H
while h = ghg-1 implies that g needs to fix every element of H exactly
which is a much, much stronger condition
N_G(H) vs C_G(H) ahh
lol
"Whole cosets (left and right) are equal but individual elements from them may not correspond"
yeah okay
that's because the set gHg^-1, while maybe being H, the map h -> ghg^-1 may permute the elements of H
if a group is abelian, then this will hold true for individual elements as well right?
I like how you described it but I simply can't visualize it. Can you give me a simple example?
how many different types of groups do you know of right now?
integers, dihedrals, symmetric
ok, good
I knew quarternions but I don't know them well enough
in S3, the subgroup given by H = {e, (123), (132)} is a normal subgroup
but (12) (123) (12)-1 = (132)
so although (12)H(12)-1 = H, (12)h(12)-1 does not have to be equal to h
what is the inverse of (1, 2)? its the one we multiply with to get the identity (1, 2, 3) but idk how to 'reverse engineer' it?
the inverse of (12) is (12)
i got it! that conjugate can give us anything in H but not necessarily the element from H we used in the conjugate. thank you
could i check that this question probably assumes that R is commutative?
otherwise the thing we are trying to might not even be R-modules correct?
the question is specifying that M and N are left and right R-modules, so probably not
hmm but generally the tensor product might not be an R-module if R is not commutative right
it can still be well-defined, you just have to keep track of the parity
Wouldn't M and N need to be bimodules for the tensor prod to be a module?
why can't you do
r * (n (x) m) = n (x) r * m
and
(n (x) m) * r = n * r (x) m
ah, this forces sr to be the same action as rs I think
lol
The tensor product gives you an abelian group though
And you can ask for those to be iso
is there any reason not to treat it as a bimodule like this?
I suppose it doesn't really help with any universal property stuff
eh
Wdym
hint - ||syl_p(N_G(P)) = {P}||
you don't need to do the last part
it is a p subgroup of N_G(P)
so by sylow 2 we are done
huh
let me pull up dummit and foote
no, I need to see the proof
because if you use the right proof for sylow 2, you should be able to get this as a corollary
hold on im getting the book
wait, this is in D&F
why can't you use it
so what do you have
Not sure why I'm stuck on this problem but I need to show that the order of the p-torsion subgroup of an (additive) abelian group is p. Any hints?
Ah true. The original problem was showing that if p divides |G|, then the number of pth roots of each x ∈ G is either 0 or p. Which I thought reduced to the same problem as above?
hmm
(Via considering the kernel of the homomorphism f: G-> G that sends x to px)
well, that's not the p-torsion subgroup, because that looks at prime powers of p
Is p-torsion subgroup of G not just g \in G such that pg = 0?
no, not as it stands on wikipedia but I suppose conventions may differ
Ah I see
anyhow, consider the abelian group Z/pZ x ... x Z/pZ, p+1 many times
as in there are p+1 copies of Z/pZ
Yes
then any element (0, ..., 1, ..., 0) has order p, so there are at least p+1 pth roots of (0, ..., 0)
Oh hm
what you can show, however, this set must be a subgroup of the p-sylow subgroup of your abelian group, so it must have order p^k for some k
Right I see, that's what I thought originally. Thanks for the help
(i dont even know if p-sylow is defined for arbitrary abelian groups)
They should be for any finite abelian group, I think?
Ah yes
but I think you can just take the p-sylow subgroup of an abelian group just to be the p-power torsion subgroup
with like generalized integers or something
profinite integers is the name
Just for curiosity’s sake, is there any paper or book that defines groups as fundamental groups of spaces? And then homomorphisms as certain kinds of functions from one fundamental group to another(afaik, not every homomorphism of groups is in the image of the fundamental group functor, so they can’t be defined as the image of certain continuous functions under that)? It might be a little awkward to define some stuff but it seems like a potentially interesting read. And I don’t just mean defines it as such, then treats it like usual, but actually uses that for intuition and proving some stuff about groups?
82 so here my thoughts are
|Z|=1 means X^2+Y^2=+-1
elements would be 1,-1,i,-i which forms cyclic group
What about the element (1+i)/sqrt(2)
Or, actually better example, e^(2 pi i sqrt(2))?
Do you mean 2? If so, yes
??????????
were you thinking of Z/pZ x Z/pZ?
This is correct
I would say "p-power torsion" or similar for the other concept (I.e. p^n g = 0 for some n). The corresponding subgroup of an abelian group A is often written A[p^oo]
Ah lol
Though they do say p power ayy
Gotem.
I might edit this lol
pls do
if someone says "p-torsion subgroup" I think of the stuff that vanishes when you tensor with F_p
i want an counterexample of group of order 56, such that its 8 sylow subgroup is not unique
I think Z/4Z × D7 works
hey, I assume this question falls in here.
currently started studying abstract algebra literally the first session. I read on that lie algebras are defined on finite dimensions and wondered, is it because differentability breaks down at infinite dimensions?
does this have a normal sylow 7
it can’t have both
also secondary question, if the conditions for something to be lie algebra is to be differentiable and for its inverse to be as well(i.e 1/x), does that mean what is considered in lie algebra can never be 0? afterall otherwise it will be divided by 0
You can have Lie algebras in infinite dimensions just fine
I see, possibly a misreading on my part then
This doesn't really make sense to me. Differentiabikity doesn't enter the definition of a Lie algebra - it enters the definition of the Lie algebra of a Lie group or similar
Yeah, it sounds like you're talking about smooth maps or something when you say it has to be differentiable and its inverse has to be too. But this is only tangentially related to Lie algebras
I see, thank you, its my first encounter with this mateiral so sorry for the waste of time
If you learned something then it's not a waste of time 
Pun intended?
dihedral group of order 56
oh, uh... yes 
😍🥰
Hello, can anyone tell me the difference between elementary and normal form of abelian group?
In example I had, $\mathbb{G} \cong \mathbb{Z}_8 \times \mathbb{Z}_12 \times \mathbb{Z}_30 \times \mathbb{Z}_75 \times$
So $\mathbb{Z}_8 = \mathbb{Z}_2^3$, $\mathbb{Z}_12 = \mathbb{Z}_2^3 \times \mathbb{Z}_3$, $\mathbb{Z}_30 = \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_5$ and $\mathbb{Z}_75 = \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_5^2$.
This then gives me $p_2 = 3, 2, 1, 0$, $p_3 = 0, 1, 1, 1$ and $p_5 = 0, 0, 1, 2$.
From here it's pretty straight forward to determine the elementary form (rewrite the above formula and just regroup orders with each other). But how does normal form differ? In this case I think it'll be the same, just put $p_2 = 3, 2, 1$, $p_3 = 1, 1, 1$ and $p_5 = 2, 1$ in descending order. So in this particular case it's no different from elementary form (except the order will slightly be different), but when will it actually differ?
danilojonic
C_8 is not equal to C_2^3
G = Z_8 x (Z_4 x Z_3) x (Z_2 x Z_3 x Z_5) x (Z_3 x Z_25) = (Z_2 x Z_4 x Z_8) x Z_3^3 x (Z_5 x Z_25)
but I need all orders to be primes. Z_8, Z_4, Z_25 aren't primes...
And the normal form is just group everything up nicely
So it’s err Z_6 x Z_60 x Z_600 I think
You can’t do that
You need them to be prime powers, not primes
I mean they are prime powers no?
2 and 3 are prime
is my elementary form good or will it look different?
and normal
Primary components. Subgroups of G whose orders are powers of the given prime number. So p_2 references all powers of 2, p_3 all powers of 3 etc. It's not necessary but I guess it's a bit easier to see what's going on when making the elementary or normal form.
Maybe you meant $\mathbb{Z}8 = \mathbb{Z}{2^3}$? Which is very different from $\mathbb{Z} = \mathbb{Z}_2^3$
sheddow
Wow yes!
Latex abuse of notation
I didn't even notice it came out like that
Notice the difference \bZ_{1}{2} and \bZ_12, the {} are important
I was so confused to begin with, because I thought $\bZ_12$ meant two copies of $\bZ_1$ or something 
sheddow
$\mathbb{G} \cong \mathbb{Z}8 \times \mathbb{Z}{12} \times \mathbb{Z}{30} \times \mathbb{Z}{75}$
So $\mathbb{Z}8 = \mathbb{Z}{2^3}$, $\mathbb{Z}{12} = \mathbb{Z}{2^2} \times \mathbb{Z}3$, $\mathbb{Z}{30} = \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}5$ and $\mathbb{Z}{75} = \mathbb{Z}3 \times \mathbb{Z}{5^2}$.
Rewritten
danilojonic
for you too @astral ivy
huh? For latex editor I usually use that's invalid syntax
weird
its a macro defined in this server
nice
You can add it to preamble if you want to use it
anyway, elementary form will be grouping all the same groups together
|| or typst... It's just ZZ 🙃 ||
also, regarding this task (and in general)
How do I find number of elements of certain order? Like here specifically it's asked for number of elements of order 120.
$120=2^3\cdot 3\cdot 5$ is the way I'd start it to make it more simple
danilojonic
you use the fact is that if $g=(g_1,...,g_k)$ is an element of $\bZ_{n_1} \times \bZ_{n_2} \times \dots \bZ_{n_k}$ then the order of $g$ is the lcm of the orders of $g_i$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
$(\bZ_{2} \times \bZ_{4} \times \bZ_{8}) \times \bZ_{3}^{3} \times (\bZ_{5} \times \bZ_{25})$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
you sort of need to create the prime power order
so if you look at $g = (g_1,g_2,g_3)$ then $g_2$ must be of order 3 in $\bZ_{3}^{3}$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
so $ord(g) = lcm(ord(g_2), ord(g_3), ord(g_5))$ and since $120 = 8\cdot 3\cdot 5$ that means $ord(g) = lcm(8, 3, 5)$?
danilojonic
mq
that works
yeah it's kind of trivial
the isomorphism is an R-module isomorphism
no, the isomorphism is an isomorphism of R-modules
It also means that the R-action commutes with the isomorphism
for instance the map Z -> Z given by x -> 2x
is a group homomorphism
but is not a ring homomorphism
so when we talk about isomorphism we need to specify what structure is being preserved
in this case we specify that the R-module structure is being preserved
Show that $\b{H} = \left{\pi \in \b{S}_8: \pi(2)\in \left{2, 3\right}, \pi(3)\in \left{2, 3\right}, \pi(7) = 7 \right}$ subgroup of group $\b{S}_8$ and find order of $\b{H}$ as well as $a$ and $b$ from $\b{H}$ such that $\omega(a) = \omega(b) = 2$ and $\omega(ab) = 10$
danilojonic
What have you tried?
And where are you stuck?
Okay so I tried with $a, b\in \b{H}$ then $ab^{-1}\in \b{H}$ definition to check if it's a subgroup
danilojonic
but $b \neq a$ and in first case $\left(2, 3\right)$, 2 and 3 are inverses to each other
danilojonic
so my logic is kinda all around the place I'm confused
not to mention the single element of $7$, it's its own inverse but wouldn't that also get me the identity element
danilojonic
So H is the set of elements which map {2, 3} to {2, 3} and {7} to {7}
Can you see why that would (a) contain the identity (b) be closed under multiplication and (c) be closed under inverses?
Tell me what S_8 is
symmetric group of permutations {1, 2,..., 8}
So what is an element of S_8
everything $\pi$ describes really
danilojonic
I’m going to be irritating here and ask for something more explicit - I feel like this may be a problem here
mapping 7 to 7 is part of S_8 as well as mapping (2, 3)
is this what youre asking me?
I think you’ve gone a step further than I was asking, but I also feel you understand enough that what I was asking is irrelevant so errr
Automorphism group moment
Why are such elements closed under multiplication?
im not sure how to answer properly on this
Suppose σ, τ \in H
What is σ(τ(7))?
What is the set {σ(τ(2)), σ(τ(3))}?
they all map into their original source
?
σ(τ(7)) = 7 and {σ(τ(2)), σ(τ(3))} = {2, 3}
and $ab \in H$ are 2 elements from H whose product is in H
danilojonic
The elements of H are functions from {1, …, 8} to itself
A lot of algebraic constructs are either families of functions or isomorphic to such
Well they’re all isomorphic to families of functions for groups /pedantry
Many of the algebraic operations are actually compositions of those functions. It’s a perfectly well defined algebraic operation (it’s binary, associative, and even has an identity, the trivial map)
so for inverses it will just be
Suppose σ, σ^{-1} \in H
if σ(7) = 7 \in H, then σ(7)^{-1} = 7 \in H
?
actually no
I mixed up 2 definitions
Many of the functions on finite sets do nothing to most of the set
Which is why the simplest automorphisms (invertible maps) are transpositions, they only swap two elements
And don’t touch the other ones
Continue
the one single we can check would be:
Suppose σ, τ^{-1} \in H
Then σ(τ(7)^{-1}) = σ(7) \in H
How do you know t^-1(7) = 7?
What are you trying to check homie
similarly, Suppose σ, τ^{-1} \in H
Then {σ(τ(2)^{-1}), σ(τ(3)^{-1})} = {σ(2), σ(3)} \in H
^
wouldn't group property of S_8 be that every element is its own inverse?
7 doesn’t have an inverse
7 isn’t an element of S_8
how?
Elements of S_8 are permutations of {1, …, 8}
Not elements of {1, …, 8}
okay so permutation σ(7) will be an element
No, σ(7) is another element of {1, …, 8} (which is forced to be 7, as σ \in H)
and why wouldn't σ(7)^{-1} be its inverse? Or how do I show it has an inverse? Because for this to be a subgroup I need to show inverse
σ(7)^-1 doesn’t make sense
Because σ(7) is not an element of a group
uhhh idk how to make the notation work sorry
I think you need to review what the elements of S_8 actually are, like mico asked you here
Okay so I revisited the definition of symmetric group:
S_8 = {f: X \rightarrow X | f being a bijective funciton and X being non-empty set}
Where X = {1, …, 8}
yes!
So try this
Step 1: what is the inverse of σ? Like, as a function, what does it do?
it just 'undoes' what function σ did
|X| = |Y| and σ is a bijective function.
σ: X -> Y.
σ^{-1}: Y -> X.
Yup
Now what conditions does σ^-1 need to satisfy to be in H?
Can you prove it satisfies them?
Now what conditions does σ^-1 need to satisfy to be in H?
I have no idea
no, I have no idea
is it showing this but for inverse function this time
Yes
but I don't need 2 inverse functions (?), I only need that if σ(7) in H, then σ^{-1}(7) and this last part is the one I show.
because σ() in H was already shown
@astral ivy what exactly are you trying to do homie
.
This is the task
You don't want to show that sigma(7) is in H, because sigma(7) is an integer, but H is a set of functions
Oooooh neat problem
Do you see the difference? We want to show that H is a subgroup of S_8. So we use the subgroup teat: assume f, g is in H, then show that fg is in H. Then assume that f is in H, then show that f^-1 is in H
Well by definition for any element (or function) from H I need to show closure as well as inverse.
for it to be a subgroup
You can also do this a cheeky way, in that each of the conditions pi(7) = 7 and transposing 2,3 is a subgroup
Yes, but you're mixing up functions and elements
The group is the permutations


