#groups-rings-fields
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Well just pi by using the sandwich theorem
Squeeze theorem? In my algebra? Heresy
I know right? Certainly wasn't expecting it
Anyway I'm pretty much finished with the chapter on ring homomorphisms, next chapter will be on polynomial rings which should hopefully be a little less intense
I'm also about halfway through gallian's abstract algebra
Compare this to C, which has 2^continuum wildly discontinuous automorphisms in addition to the identity and conjugation.
@vast verge btw, the fact that an automorphism of R fixes Q is not unique to R; any field F of characteristic 0 contains Q as a subfield, and any automorphism of F fixes Q. One way to think about it is that there is a unique ring homomorphism from Z to any field F. This ring hom must have kernel (0) or (p) for a prime p. By the first isomorphism theorem this means that every field either contains Z/pZ or Z, depending on the characteristic. If it contains Z, then it must contain its field of fractions, which is Q. Q and Z/pZ are called prime fields, because they contain no other subfields
I saw this in the few collaries following the "homomorphisms from Z to rings with unity theorem"
Good to see Gallian dare to mention rings with unity 
You'd be surprised to know that Gallian also mentions the rare and elusive integral domain and field /j
Oh wait, integral domains don't necessarily contains unity
Cowabummer
Wait? Do they or do they not?
They have unity
Commutativity and unity always trips me up with definitions
I think most people would define them to have unity, but I'm not sure, maybe Gallian is crazy enough to say integral domains don't have unity either
No, no I checked the textbook
Integral domains are commutative and have unity there
It's just that when I think integral domain I only think 'no zero divisors' and when I think field, I think 'every non zero element is a unit'
So I forget the whole commutative ring with unity part
The question is, do they require 1 =/= 0 in integral domains?
Lol I still find the choice of writing a textbook where rings don't have unity a lil baffling
I always assumed that the additive identity and multiplicative identity must be distinct
Or otherwise the entire ring collapses to the trivial ring
What? In other textbooks, they define a ring already with unity?
The reason we want 1 != 0 for integral domains is that we want the definition of prime ideals to be nice, right? Otherwise, if R is commutative then R itself is a prime ideal?
Yes, so the question was whether the zero ring counts as an integral domain
Okay so let's say that zero is unity
Then a0=0a=0 by 0 being additive identity and a0=0a=a by 0 being unity, and this is for any a in the ring
So that means that 0 is the only element in the ring
yes of course it is an equivalence relation
yeah composition of homomorphisms is a homomorphism
if this isn't clear to you you should check this
if the composition of homomorphisms wasn't one then we'd be in huge trouble
Well, I mean, category theory would stop working ... but would anything important break?
true
no category theory š šš„
i would say this is the norm
Wouldn't it be incorrect to define a ring as including unity though
Maybe im thinking of a rng
The i in ring means unity
algebraic geometers: ring stands for commutative ring with unit always
Then nZ for n>1 wouldn't be a ring since it doesn't have unity
Itās an ideal
I feel it is much more common just to say ring and nonunital ring
at least in my experience
And an ideal is a subring which in turn must be a ring
Say ārngā and Iāll automatically think thereās a typo
Ideals are subrings if you don't have identity
Subgroup under addition that absorbs under multiplication
Okay true
Sorry I don't understand why you mean
I'm too Gallian-brained
So which part is wrong? Ideals are subrings or subrings are rings?
Unfortunately I enjoy life and so I have that rings contain unity. If Iām feeling frisky Iāll throw in Noetherian too
In rings with unity, ideals are not subrings
Subrings are rings
Gallian calls ideals a type of subring
So that's where the misunderstanding comes from
I think its coming from the unital stuff then
Woah now we disagree
donāt forget about local
what's the matter? envious of my simple awesome life?
I bet you even assume commutativity⦠sickening
hey now hey now
assuming Noetherianness is completely okay
even I assume the classes i work with are some form of Noetherian
Yeah Iāll be honest I donāt think I would even know where to begin studying non Noetherian rings, most of my ring theory knowledge comes from the class I took called ānon commutative Noetherian ringsā
And the rest is all commutative nonsense where you just add conditions until itās easy so that doesnāt really count
Every time one assumes commutativity, a child dies.
a ring should always be commutative. wdym abā ba? we learned this in middle school bro
If I say "prime ring" do people know what I mean by that?
I have heard of prime ideals?
this is not that š
Do you mean prime fields?
now i do
well I want to include the integers
not necessarily Q
(arb=0 : for all r in R) => a or b = 0
so like Z in char zero case, Z/pZ in char p case
not that
What do you refer to as a prime ring then
the subring generated by 1
(mod p passibly)
yea
yeah that one!
i mean, for fields
I just define rings to be fields
If you are talking about rings, wouldnāt you want to include Z/nZ for any positive n? Since we arenāt limited to just fields anymore, and rings can have any characteristic.
Or maybe you are just trying to distinguish between characteristic p and characteristic 0?
minimal subring
I guess the ring of n by n matrices doesnāt exist or at least we must never use it šŗ
I actually wouldn't be opposed to the idea of calling commutative rings "rings" and (noncommutative) rings "Z-algebras"
The algebra of nxn matrices rolls of the toung just as nicely
Yeah no one has ever multiplied two matrices together
I wish this were the case because every time I do I have to look up the formula
We can start studying the Weyl algebra^2
It cannot. The only root of the original polynomial is 1, so if it factored into linear factors it would have to be (x-1)³, which it isn't.
Such a phenomenon does not occur in all fields
You need the field to be algebraically closed
So a finite abelian group is a product of cyclic groups.
If m and n are relatively prime Z/m x Z/n = Z/mn, so the only way for it to not be cyclic if there is a common prime q dividing both m and n
In which case Z/q x Z/q would be a subgroup
the following proof is of if M is R-module and N is submodule of M which is Noetherian module and M/N same, then M will be Noetherian.
To show M is Noetherian, it is enough to show every submodule of N is finitely generated.
say A is submodule of M, now take image of A, f(A) under natural mapping M to M/N. Then image of A will be submodule of M/N, since M/N is Noetherian so f(A) is finitely generated say generated by {m1 +N,..., m_k +N}.
so for each a in A there exists c_i such that a = \sum c_i m_i + n, for some n in N.
Now if i take the set of such n so it will make submodule of N, which is finitely generated by n1,.., n_s ( assumption ).
So A will be generated by {m1,..., m_k, n1,..., n_s}
is it correct?
I am confused with a simple question. Someone please answer. Is it true that if every group where all elements except identity have order p for some prime p then it is abelian?
I think it's not true but can't find a concrete counterexample
(Sorry, made a mistake in reply)
I believe a concrete counterexample is the Heisenberg group of order p^3
this just looks like the correspondence theorem in disguise
you can argue this directly from correspondence theorem
take an ascending chain in M
eventually some M_i in your ascending chain contains N (it may be the case that this is just M itself)
Like this is the set of matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ where $a,b,c \in \mathbf F_p$ (which is a bit funny) under multiplication
(i think you want a b c no?)
Yes typo sorry
Prismatic Potato
so then your ascending chain breaks into two parts: everything after M_i are submodules containing N (which correspond to submodules of M/N) and everything before M_i are submodules of N. Both M/N and N are noetherian, so this is just the combination of two finite chains, which gives you a finite chain
I see.
you can probably also get some more fun examples with semidirect products of Cp's
Okay. But we need to check if every non trivial element is of order p, right?
Yes
(by this i mean, here is a construction one can use to sometimes get nonabelian groups out of abelian groups, and would probably spit out something with everything order p. i have not actually tried it myself)
But in case of p= 2 the matrix with a= 1, b=0, c=1 does not have order 2. I may have done some calculation mistakes. Please verify šš»
yeah the mod 2 one is D_4
Sorry for the mistake
controversial
Oh. I appreciate the idea. But I have yet to study semi direct products. Sorry, I actually don't understand this method of creating non abelian groups out of abelian
I have a weird monad
no worries! it's just a way to take a product of groups but kind of twisted by an action of one on the other
D_square
i will agree with D_{2n} the day we start saying S_{n!}
Actually here is a funny question: say you have a map $A \to B$ of rings and a $B$-module $M$. There's a canonical map $B \otimes_A \mathrm{Hom}_B(M, B) \to \mathrm{Hom}_B(M \otimes_A B, B)$. What can we say about it lol
Like i guess this is an equivalence for field extensions
hell yeah Ill start saying that
amazing argument
Prismatic Potato
Maybe there are other cases it is an isomorphism though
The Heisenberg group is a semidirect product of Cp acting on (Cp)^2.
Might be hard to predict if everything will have order p for bigger products
wikipedia denotes D_n as Dih_n
Dih
which made me giggle because i'm basically 5 years old
horrible
Oh
but i looked into it and i've literally never seen that anywhere else
ok
can't wait for recess
This reminds me I need to fix a wikipedia page or two
The stuff that is ""my area"" is often dodge
anyway i'd like to think someone on wikipedia deliberately went through and changed each instance of D_n to Dih_n
i will now call this group Iso_* (im(Z/n --> R^2))
It seems like the kind of nonsense D&F would pull but I donāt even think they do
*finite field extensions
Ah this is just some compactness type thing
Okay thanks guys for showing me the way to build the counterexample. I really appreciate it
$Hom_B(M\otimes_A B, B) = Hom_A(M, Hom_B(B, B)) = Hom_A(M, B)$
so I guess this is just the multiplication map
$B\otimes_A X \to X$
$b\otimes x \mapsto bx$
Not jagr2808
Wait am I cooked chat
Oh for X = Hom_A(M,B)? Lol
Sure thanks
Wait not quite
Oh wait one is Hom_B(M, B) and the other is Hom_A(M, B)
So you have to compose with the inclusion I guess
Cause it is B (x)_A Hom_B(M,B) -> Hom_A(M,B)
Yeahh
It is a bit of a funny situation
Basically the point is that like given A -> B, you get this comonad - (x)_A B on B-modules
Like without chasing through all the details, since there is a natural map between the two I'll just assume this is it
And if you take duals before and after applying this you should get some monad on B-modules
But I am confused as to what it really is
ĀÆ_(ć)_/ĀÆ
Wait, what's the comultiplication?
So like more abstractly this is just from the adjunction
But yeah the comultiplication is the map $B \otimes_{A} M \to B \otimes_{A} (B \otimes_{A} M)$
Confused why that did not render...
Does it want curly brackets around the As?
seems so (if it loads)
lol
$B \otimes_{A} M \to B \otimes_{A} (B \otimes_{A} M)$
Ragebaited
Are we just having a texit moment
Maybe
Prismatic Potato
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Oh that's amusing
Prismatic Potato
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Prismatic Potato
So just
$b \otimes m \mapsto b \otimes 1 \otimes m$
?
Not jagr2808
Yeah
And then you want to dualize by applying Hom(-, B)
Before and after yeah which is a bit funny
Any hint, I want an infinite group which is simple, I know A_n is simple for all n ā„ 5.
But yeah I will think about this more dw, like the monad bit is more stuff I am familiar with, just this small lemma about what happens when you plug in a dual was what I wondered about
Try gluing together the A_n
You can try letting n "be infinite"
Yes i am thinking about it
Actually lol this is a neat fact jagr apparently like
The double dual functor on Vect_k has a monad structure and the algebras are given by Vect_k^op lol
which is quite funny
Basically just cause (_)*: Vect_k^op -> Vect_kis (up to op) its own adjoint and it is monadic
We can prove that if G is an infinite abelian group which has a composition series then G has to be finite, right?
But will that work.
Like Hom(Hom(-, B), B) is not the identity, so how are you dualizing here?
At least assuming composition series are defined to be finite yes
Oh so composition series can be infinite
The point is like you do the comultiplication on the dual, and then dualise that map
Like this is a case of Koszul duality heh
But then you would need
(T^2 X)* = (T (T X)**)* no?
Otherwise I don't understand how you're doing that
Oh I just mean you define a new monadU via like U(V) = T(V*)* and then the map U^2(V)) -> U(V) is uh
Wait lemme thinkies
I guess you pass through the natural map
X -> X**
Yeah
I mean tbh I have been a little imprecise - for my set up one would usually restrict attention to fg stuff and then extend formally
which simplifies some stuff
but i think using the natural map works in general anyway
Actually yeah maybe I am being silly
All this is really doing is composing one adjunction with (-)^* being "self-adjoint" I think
So then you get some big adjunction between Mod_A and Mod_B^op
Hi, I am currently reading through this section in Dummit and Foote. I cannot see the significance of this theorem. I get that it tells us that the determinant is a special scalar that gives us something, but I don't see why this is important.
Itās telling you what the determinant is, it is the unique alternating multilinear form thatās 1 on the identity
ofc you do have to check that this condition is nontrivial
i.e. that $\dim(\Lambda^n(V)) > 0$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
(and doing that is about as hard as constructing the determinant in the first place)
Some would say this is an intrinsic definition of a determinant because it doesnāt use coordinates to define the det I guess
A nice thing is that since $\bigwedge\nolimits^n$ is compatible with composition, you recover $\det(AB) = \det(A)\det(B)$
Prismatic Potato
(Painlessly)
And the idea of "top exterior power" is geometric and can be generalised to other contexts
e.g. in manifolds
I see, thank you all for the insights! I will take a closer look after I eat.
Np
I guess depends a little on how we are defining these exterior powers aha
But this is a good point
say G is finitely generated group, is it imply every subgroup of G is finitely generated? give hint
No. This fact is true of abelian groups (just use structure theorem), but there are noncommutative groups for which it does not hold.
LMK if you want a hint on how to construct one
you mean if G is abelian finitely generated group then every subgroup is finitely generated
yes
Think about the commutator subgroup of the free group on 2 letters
how would you define them?
why are normalizer groups subgroups?
i understand in the finite group case
gSg^-1=S because everything is finite and they have the same cardinality
but if G is infinite cant you have gSg^-1<S
What's your definition of "normaluzer"?
I would require equality not inclusion.
ye thanks
Indeed you can -- for example, let G be the group of permutations of Z, and S be the subgroup that fixes all of the negative numbers. Then conjugating with a right shift gives you a strictly smaller subgroup.
in that case the right shift would not be in the normalizer group right
Right.
You can think of it as the stabilizer of a certain group action
Namely the group acts by conjugation on the set of all its subgroups.
I need help with c
it asks with what group the quotientgroup is isomorph
G is a commutative group
I waas thinking that it is isomorph with Z_n but im unsure
where n is the dimension of g
and i for sure dont know how to prove
You can try to think about what kind of map would (g,g) in its kernel
Like what can you do with (x,y) that gives the identity iff x=y?
yeah i did x-y
more general i should do xy^(-1)
wait is it isomorph with G again?
oh yeah
omg yeah that works lol
dank
andere nederlanderš„
Silly language
Hi! A question on a practice mGRE set I was doing asked whether Z[sqrt 2] is a unique factorization domain. I realize that I don't know how to show that a ring is a UFD (although, after review, I understand how to show that some rings aren't UFDs with obvious counterexamples).
Is there a simple rule for this case, since Z[sqrt D] is a canonical ring extension, or would there be some more general strategy for this?
(I see that there are proofs online that it's a Euclidean domain as well, but I'm curious specifically for the intuition about being a UFD, although I understand that ED -> UFD.)
I dont actually know many general ways to directly show a ring is a UFD, however wikipedia lists some equivialent conditions that may be of use. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unique_factorization_domain#Equivalent_conditions_for_a_ring_to_be_a_UFD.
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds. Specifically, a UFD is an integral domain (a nontrivial commutative ring in which the product of any two non-zero elements is n...
IIRC for Z[sqrt d] its not a UFD for d<=-3 or d>=3, or something similar to that anyway (I dont have the time to reprove this for myself right now)
I think im wrong about the positive d actually, im pretty sure thats the right condition for negative d though
thanks! they say that (2) is useful for proving this, but it's not obvious to me how; in particular, if I take arbitrary prime ideal I \subseteq R and want to show that I is generated by an element p \in R, how would I go about this? My first thought is using a norm function and showing the existence of an element with minimal norm, but this probably wouldn't work for non euclidean domains?
Sorry, slow moment there lol
haha no worries
oh it seems this is related to the class number problem
so there is a necessary and sufficient condition i think, but it's just not feasible to use for this type of exam
IIRC for the specific case of sqrt 2 theres a number theortic style proof but I dont remeber it off the top of my head and im not at home just now to think about it properly, but im sure I did it in my number theory class
Yeah I think in general this isnt such an easy thing to do, but theres people here who know a lot more comalg than I do how can hopefully be of more help
this is so interesting lol i've been thinking about hwether i should do a statistics phd lately since i like analysis so much but i've forgotten how much i enjoy algebra/nt and it's reminding me why i wanted to do a math phd
Oh also I'm realizing this is a more interesting result than I thought, for example in the case of a non PID like Z[x] where (2,x) is maximal -> prime but is not generated by a prime element
So there are some properties of Z[sqrtD] in particular that can be used I guess.
It's 1 dimensional, so it's enough to prove that all primes are principal.
Z -> Z[sqrt D] is an integral extension, so every prime ideal lies over some prime (p) in Z.
If D does not have a square root in Z/p, then (p) is prime.
If a is a square root of D modulo p, then (p, a-sqrtD) is a prime ideal and the question reduces to where this ideal is principal.
Which should reduce to whether there is x and y with
x^2 - Dy^2 = ±p
which I guess might be hard to determine in general... But easy if D is negative
thank you for the explanation! i think maybe i'm not quite all the way in understanding this š i gather that dimension is krull dimension but i haven't studied this yet
I would just show the norm defines a Euclidean function. It is quite subtle beyond that - the general way I would show a number ring is a PID (equivalent to a UFD for number rings) is by using the Minkowski bound which boils down to only checking whether a few prime ideals are principal. But the Minkowski bound will be "too good" for this problem
thank you!
i think maybe i'll wait until i take grad ring theory or nt and revisit the problem in its fullest generality š
Of course
On a related note, note that whether a number ring is a ED is also pretty subtle
(because to prove something isn't a ED you have to show that no possible function could work, and there isn't an obvious obstruction if ur ring is actually a PID)
It's easy to do when D is negative because then the LHS just expresses the squared absolute value of an element of the number field, so the problem reduces to geometry
is there a simple way to show that the group of rationals under addition is not finitely generated without the fundamental theorem of finitely generated Abelian groups?
look at the primes which can appear in the denominator of elements in the subgroup generated by { a1/b1, ..., an/bn }
You can even show Q isn't a finitely generated ring by the same argument
if Q were finitely generated, that would contradict a certain popular theorem
unless.. you're a finitist...

Write Q as the union of Gn := (1/n) for all n.
If Q is finitely generated there is an N such that all generators are contained in the union up N. This is contained in G(N!), but Q is not equal to G(N!)
Heegner nightmare
universal properties :D
how are we concluding that $\Psi\Phi=\operatorname{Id}_{F_1}$
somethingwrong
it's cause of uniqueness
the composite makes the diagram commute
but so does the identity
therefore they have to be equal
wouldn't only $\Phi$ and $\Psi$ have to be unique, why would their composite have to be unique?
somethingwrong
their composite is a morphism from $F_1 \to F_1$ making a triangle commute, right?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
ahh okay
but the identity is also such a morphism
hence, by uniqueness, it must equal the identity
(it is a bit of a dumb proof to be fair)
so if i were to look at this definition, im choosing $\varphi=i$ and $M=F_1$ right?
somethingwrong
yep!
ahh okay it makes sense to me now
it's maybe a little non-obvious from the notation that M can also be chosen to be F_1 itself
because it's often phrased as "for any other R-module M, ..."
thats really poor phrasing š¦
is there any reason, my prof wrote this down? this doesnt seem to help me
idk
its copied by me, i will change it
i prefer doing it via naturality and yoneda
but that requires a bit more familiarity with cat theory
okayy thanks for the help, i will check the purpose of this part with my prof tmr

honestly the "exists a unique morphism such that the diagram commutes" is such an unfortunate way to phrase universal properties š
Why so?
ok so i have a good analogy for this
suppose $X$ and $Y$ are sets
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
we say that a function $f : X \to Y$ is a $\textit{bijection}$ iff for every $y \in Y$ there exists a unique $x \in X$ such that $f(x) = y$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
we say that a function $f' : X \to Y$ is an $\textit{isomorphism}$ iff there exists a function $g : Y \to X$ such that $g \circ f' = \text{id}_X$ and $f' \circ g = \text{id}_Y$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
as you're likely well aware, these are equivalent definitions, right?
probably comes from algebra
because for algebraic structures it is equivalent to being generated by a set, if the function is uniquely determined by where it sends the set
Yep, bijections are isomorphisms in set
the thing is, despite being logically equivalent, these definitions are not necessarily practically equivalent
for example, it's really easy to turn a function $h : X \to Z$ into a function $h' : Y \to Z$ using the isomorphism definition - you just define $h' = h \circ g$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but with the bijection definition, you have to work "in coordinates" by saying "for every y in Y, there exists a unique x in X with f(x) = y, we then define h'(y) = h(x)"
if X and Y had more structure (say, were groups), you'd have to do more work in terms of showing h' is a homomorphism as well
whereas with the isomorphism def, this just follows from composite of homomorphisms is a homomorphism
also, if you had a chain of bijections, proving the composite is a bijection is again a bit of an annoying "coordinate" proof
"for every z in Z there exists a unique y in Y such that f(y) = z, and for this y there exists a unique x in X such that g(x) = y, so we have an x such that (f o g)(x) = z. moreover this x is unique because..."
whereas with the isomorphism def, it just follows from $(g \circ f)^{-1} = f^{-1} \circ g^{-1}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
do you see what i mean?
in a sense, the bijection def is easier to prove, but the isomorphism def is easier to use
Yeah, with you so far
the same phenomenon happens with universal properties
"there exists a unique morphism making the diagram commute" is analogous to the "bijection"-style def
it's easier to prove, but means a lot of arguments have to be done "in coordinates" with careful manipulation of commutative diagrams
on the other hand, "is naturally isomorphic to a certain functor" is analogous to the "isomorphism"-style def
it's easier to use in a lot of scenarios, especially for things like considering multiple universal properties at once
if all you know of universal properties is the bijection-style def, then all your arguments involving them have to be bijection-style
and this can make the arguments... unnecessarily awkward
akin to this
imo a good balance is knowing both defs and also knowing why they're equivalent
that way you can establish a universal property with the bijection-style def, but then afterwards you can use the isomorphism-style def for further arguments
Ok yeah I see what you mean, though im not sure I would go as far to say that the unique map such that the diagram commutes is an unfortunate way to put it, it's true and more approachable, which I think makes the idea much more concrete (because it can be a bit easy to get lost in the full definition), but I take your point, I think thats a nice anology
yeah i don't think one should eliminate the "unique map such that the diagram commutes"-style def
any more than one should eliminate the term "bijection"
it's just that, if it's the only definition you know, it can make your life a lot harder than it needs to be
(source: me suffering through my cat theory course during my masters š )
Yeah no I agree with that for sure lol
I guess in my head ive always treated the unique map thing as the idea rather than the definition, but I will admit that I do tend to over rely on the unique map style thing, which has likley made my life harder at points
so have i!
But you can't always formulate a universal property in the isomorphism-style, can you? For example the universal property of the product?
sure you can!
they're equivalent formulations, after all
What would it look like for the product? I'm thinking of the definition where you have objects X, Y and projections pi1, pi2, then X x Y is a product if for every object H and f : H -> X and g : H -> Y there is a unique morphism such that f and g factors through X x Y (this was kinda poorly written, sorry)
ah, so
pairs of morphisms Z -> A, Z -> B naturally correspond to morphisms Z -> A x B
in that you can interconvert between the two
so what the product "does" is let you represent pairs of morphisms by a single morphism, "packaging" them together, in a reversible way
more formally, $\text{Hom}(-, A \times B) \cong \text{Hom}(-, A) \times \text{Hom}(-, B)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I feel like this works for small diagrams but for more complicated things I feel like this is a very slippery slope to go down
it works for all limits and colimits
as well as adjoints
Given the diagram
AxB -> B
v ^
A <- H
There is a unique map from H to AxB making it commute
i don't really know what you mean by "slippery slope"
tons of things can be (and are) expressed in terms of representability
eh well maybe I'm wrong
I just felt that as a way of thinking this could lead you to weird results when combining diagrams
Like I can't really see it for something like the inverse/direct limit
How exactly this type of reasoning would go
But realistically I'm probably just unfamiliar with this type of reasoning
so for the direct limit
this follows from the fact that the yoneda embedding preserves limits, i.e.,
C(-, lim D) = lim C(_, D-), where D : J -> C is a diagram and C(_, D-) : J -> [C^op, Set] is a diagram in the category of presheaves.
I see 
do these ideas still work if your category isn't locally small?
Noo, you can't say unique map, that's the bad definition š
so morphisms $(\lim_{n \to \infty} A_n) \to Z$ naturally correspond to compatible families of morphisms $f_i : A_i \to Z$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
hmhmhm this is pretty cool
:D
representability-style definitions can be formulated "pointwise" in a way that sidesteps any size issues
so again, you can view the direct limit as a "packager"
@knotty badger do you think about the universal property of tensor product with bilinear maps in some representability way?
it "packages" a compatible family of morphisms into a single one
in a reversible way
yes definitely
How so?
not sureā¦
bilinear maps $V \times W \to Z$ naturally correspond to linear maps $V \otimes W \to Z$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so what the tensor product "does" is let you represent bilinear maps via ordinary linear maps
in general representability-style defs feel more suited to viewing through the lens of "is-does duality"
Then I guess I don't really understand the difference
I did go to great lengths to outline the difference between these stylesā¦
I think it's a language thing mainly
how you frame these things in your head
.
So the "diagram" perspective is that there is a bilinear map
VxW -> V(x)W
such that every bilinear map is given by the composition
VxW -> V(x)W -> Z
and the "representability" perspective is that for every bilinear map there is a map V(x)W -> Z?
And then the key difference is in surpressing / not thinking about this bilinear map VxW -> V(x)W ?
Yes, you can derive the latter bilinear map from the representability perspective
In my experience itās often cleaner
Itās like the difference between talking about a linear map V -> W, and representing it by a specific matrix
1 -> N -> G -> H -> 1 where G -> H is f: (n, h) |-> h gives f(i(n)) = f(n, 1) = 1 so this is an SES and boom H \cong G/N
does this argument work?
you don't need the language of SES's, but yea. this is just the first isomorphism theorem applied to your projection f : G -> H
c^2aca=e
c^2ac=a^-1
if i multiply by a both right side then
What should I do next?
maybe plug them all in and see which ones work
Could you tell me how can I plug option A?@proud vigil
This looks like a trick question. From c(ca)²=1, if we set b=ca we get
c = b^-2
a = c^-1 b = b^3
which implies that a and c commute, and both answer options (1) and (2) are right.
On the other hand (3) and (4) can be eliminated by considering (Z,+) with c=-2 and a=3.
[How did I discovered this: First I eliminated 3 and 4 by thinking "what if the group is abelian"; then it's just a linear equation to find examples of a and c. Then, in the hope of finding a counterexample for one of 1 and 2, I thought about how one might go about constructing a non-abelian example by brute force -- say, in a small permutation group -- and found they always ended up commuting.]
"Plugging in" doesn't feel like a promising strategy here; since (1), (2), (4) all contain a, after we plug it in we still have a mystery equation in both c and a, which seems to leave us none the wiser.
And even plugging in (3) would just yield c^9=e, which could perfectly well be true in some group -- in fact, one example of c²ac=a^-1 would be Z/9Z with c=1 and a=3.
a, c commute how did you check?
That's what the post you reply to explains.
oh, because a and c are both powers of b
took me a while to get it
What is meant by 'quadratic character' here? It's the second time this phrase is used in the book and the first one has just as little explanation.
I'm guessing 'quadratic character of 2' means the value of the legendre symbol (2/p) or (2/q) but I have little idea
Has anyone here ever played with finitely presented groups on sage?
Can anyone check a proof for me?
Yes it means exactly what you're thinking

Yes
Basically, Iāve been labouring over this proof because I didnāt use one of the conditions so I felt it was incorrect, but I donāt see any logic errors and I just need reassurance that itās correct
Thanks I appreciate you time seriously I have been stressing for whatever reason
Yeah np
I feel like I recognize you from somewhere
Oh yeah of course lmao

Yeah, looks correct š I feel like I have seen a generalisation of this, where you have (ab)^p = a^p b^p and (ab)^q = a^q b^q for coprime p and q, then conclude G is abelian. Is this true or am I misremembering?
This is not true - take $G = (\mathbb{Z}, +)$, $N = 2\mathbb{Z} \leqslant \mathbb{Z}$, $H$ trivial
Adayah
it is very much true!
the issue is that you're think the map 2Z -> Z is the inclusion, but in fact it's the isomorphism 2Z = Z!
the problem statement is very subtle
and actually maybe even wrong lol
I don't know if H should be a subgroup a priori
which assumption do you think my counterexample fails to satisfy?
the problem statement doesn't mention any "map" from N to G, it's just a normal subgroup
It should probably say that G equals (the internal) semidirect product instead of saying it's isomorphic.
I think it should probably say that G is the internal direct product of N and H, not that it's isomorphic
so yeah ig you're right I was reading the problem wrong
Well you were reading it correctly, it was just written wrong
š
The point of communication is to understand what the author meant after all. Not to nitpick their typos
I always forget that the 5 lemma fails for Grp
so these facts are so weird to me
tho actually
Z is abelian
so why does this fail lol
It does?
I heard this somewhere once but I forgot where maybe it's wrong
The point of mathematical rigour is to express yourself clearly, not have others guess what you have in mind
It actually does work in Grp, and more generally in any homological category
lol
I wish papers were written this way
š
The discussed problem is a perfectly correct formulation of a false theorem
How is the reader supposed to know that something else was intended?
I wish too, but sloppines of papers or maybe incompetence of their authors should not be a reason to lower your own standards and promote it to others
I think that here the issue was that people sometimes really like to conflate isomorphisms with equality and it's very important not to
and this is kind of an epidemic issue in math
Context for one.
And the fact that one of the interpretations is clearly wrong as per your example
if you ever ask kevin buzzard about this he'll talk your ear off lmao
I think your speech could use a little more verbs
Otherwise I honestly have no idea what you just said
I'm pretty sure he meant to reply to the message above
That's a reasonable guess
I knew that because I read jagr's message with context in mind 
And indeed it was correct
Like the problem is a little sloppily written, so I'm not saying it's bad to point out what they meant or whatever
I don't think context indicates that a different statement was intended
The fact that the interpretation is wrong should make me think the author had something different in mind?
So first of all, people never really mean to formulate actually false theorem?
And second of all, I have to look at every possible way to change the assumptions to make the theorem true, just because the author was not careful enough to write it down correctly?
Unless they're trying to trick you, or are asking for it's validity. No that's not my experience
Plenty of times I had people ask me to prove flat out false theorems
No, you don't have to look at every possible way. It's okay to be confused. Miscommunication happens, and you can blame the speaker if you like
I don't necessarily blame the speaker, it's just that I don't think I am to blame for giving a correct counterexample rather than spending my evening guessing what was intended
I don't think it's about lowering standards it's more that math communication is more complicated than just pure rigor and a lot of stuff can go wrong
Secretly math isn't about rigor at all, rigor is just a final check to make sure that the ideas you have are correct so it's more of a check and balances thing than the actual essence of mathematics
And when you're senior enough most mathematicians switch over to a more conceptual type of thinking in my experience
And that response:
The point of communication is to understand what the author meant after all. Not to nitpick their typos
certainly had that vibe
When you're senior enough, is when you truly value the clarity of speech
Your not to blame. It is good to clear up potential miscommunication. So that would make you the opposite of to blame I guess (to honor?)
It's not about rigour just for the sake of it, it's about making sure that others understand you
I've seen plenty of senior mathematicians throgouhly confused and displeased by sloppy delivery
Then I'm sorry for giving bad vibes I guess
Already forgot about it š
that's a very personal thing
Every mathematician I've met has a totally different things they like and you can't please everyone
And then at some point I think when you try to communicate things you have a style that pleases you personally and that can lead to errors like so
this doesn't excuse wrong statements ofc
it's more that there's a rhyme and a reason as to why these things happen and there isn't really blame to pin on just sloppy work
I'm just saying that against a false theorem you have every right to just state a counterexample
If the problem author wants to continue the discussion, it is on them to correct the statement as to make the counterexample invalid
From some level upwards, that is
I mean, exercises in a book aren't really something you're solving for the author. It's not like an advirsarial relationship
I feel like asking, could they have meant something else? Should be the reasonable next step.
But if there isn't another reasonable interpretation then you'll just have to move on
Fair
But strong emphasis on why the theorem in its current form is false can be really englightening
If you just casually assume the corrected interpretation, the asker might assume there was nothing wrong with the original
That it's just a different phrasing
In this case, for one, the difference between just being isomorphic and being isomorphic through the most "obvious" isomorphism is fundamental
Ah, sorry, perhaps I should have stressed that more.
Hi, does anyone have any hints to this exercise? Also by closure here they mean a topological closure or just the derived subgroup of G?
Hmm, I suspect as soon as the word "profinite" occurs we're at least in #advanced-algebra territory. Thatās Scholze stuff, isn't it?
neukirch ANT
profinite means inverse limit of finite groups
The commutator subgroup is another name for the derived subgroup, so indeed (unless I am making a terrible mistake, which I am sure is possible) they mean the closure of the derived subgroup.
You are probably aware that for plain ordinary groups, any map G ā A for an Abelian group A factors through G/[G,G] since the kernel of the map G ā A always contains the commutator. What you need to show is that it also contains the closure of the commutator, which should be an argument involving closedness.
I feel like if I lay this out too clearly I will solve the whole thing for you, so I won't say more.
thank you man
Does anyone have any hint on this? Let p be a nonnegative integer. What group is determined by the group presentation with generators {x, y, t} subject to the relations {x^2=y^2 = 1 = (xy)^2, t^p = x}?
It comes from doing Van Kampen, I can clearly erase x from the presentation but I would like something more familiar, I don't know if it is a familiar group I just hope
It doesn't seem to me like for example (yt) would have finite order, so probably not a very familiar group.
If you mod out by x, then you get the free product of C2 and Cp, so you can think of it as a central extension of this by C2 if that helps
What is the space you're computing fundamental group for?
What is the additive group of GF(p^q)? Is it just (Z/pZ)^q, by the classification theorem of f.g. abelian groups and the fact that each element has order <= p?
yes
Yes, but here is an easier way to see it: the canonical map F_p -> F_(p^q) gives the latter the structure of an F_p-vector space.
(And then the dimension has to be q by counting)
Ah right, that's a nicer proof 
Alternatively, the construction of F_(p^q) as Fp[x]/<some irreducible degree-q polynomial> gives you the Fp-vector space structure (almost) explicitly.
Iirc in Dummit and Foote they define F_(p^q) as the splitting field of x^(p^q)-1
Over F_p of course
Yeah, it takes a bit additional work from there to see that it can also be made as a simple quotient of Fp[x].
Whether you write is as a quotient of Fp[x] or Fp[x1, x2, ...] It's still a vector space though
True.
I had just internalized the "quotient of Fp[x]" construction enough that it was the first that sprung to mind.
I just want to emphasise that this is a very general thing: fields admit a unique map from their prime field (Fp or Q) and hence become vector spaces over those. I don't know how helpful referring to explicit constructions is for that, since the Fp vector space structure on those comes from them being Fp-algebras anyway
Note the same argument shows any finite field has cardinality F_q with q a power of a prime
||Sorry for changing account but I did not realize i was logged in another one on the phone|| I don't really know haha I was given by my advisor and I guess it come from some Van Kampen given the structure and what he does
I don't even know what he really wants, just played with a bit for two days and only got your same conclusion, I don't really see how to think about the problem if not by some random Tietze moves
I would say that it in some sense it is similar to this, but I don't really believe it, I think it is just the need to find something haha
Your advisor just gave you a group presentation, and asked you to do something with it, but not saying what that something was?
I'm confused
Yes. We have a meeting scheduled next week, hopefully if will become more clear but it is literally what happened
Maybe I'm missing something obvious, but I'm not sure how I can derive anything else from this table just by knowing the given entries and that G is a group.
each row and column will have an element only once, so can you eliminate some possibilities and figure out what bb = dd should be?
Well here's an example: is it possible that b, c, or d are the identity? If not, what is the identity?
Ah. I guess not because (let # be the operation symbol)
If b was identity element, b#c=b, but b#c=d
If c was identity element, b#c=c, but b#c=d
If d was identity element, d#b=d, but d#b=c
So then we say that because an identity element must exist, by cases, a is an identity?
Then at that point we basically fill in top row and left column.
From there, we still have two empty spaces in each row. Maybe there's a way to solve that with logic?
There is indeed a way to solve that with logic
Like I can leverage my b#b=d#d and a string of disjunctions.
and indeed, there you go, a is the identity so you've just got 7 entries for free
Thanks
What is this property called by the way?
That x,y,z \in G, *:<x,y> \to z is surjective?
you can think of it as left multiplication by g being a bijection, so it permutes the elements a, b, c, d
well, if you had a row with two same entries, then you'd have something like b . c = a and b . d = a. Can you see why that's not possible? nvm I guess you were asking for the name: bijective.
People sometimes call it the Latin Square Property
but in particular, it's actually a bijection
This could be seen as something called Cayley's theorem, but that's a story for another time.
hmm, I guess I just don't recall (and don't see in my notes) my professor mentioning this when defining groups. The latin square thing
But I mean I definitely see how I can fill in the remaining rows under the assumption that each element must appear once. Like the sudoku property
Well, it's a consequence of the fact that every element has a two-sided inverse. It's not part of the definition of a group because all groups already have this property.
it's a bit of a shame your professor didn't mention it though.
Note: not all latin squares are groups.
Well, she mentioned the two-sided inverse. I just don't think she showed that such a result guarantees that each row/column has an entry appear exactly once. Kinda feels similar though to what we were talking about with cyclic groups.
(Im people)
I should hope so
that would have as disastrous consequence that the trivial group can have more than one element
Did you figure out why this is true? If not it's a good exercise to try to construct a proof of it.
Why is $\sqrt{(x, y)^2} = (x, y) \subset k[x, y]$
okeyokay
Not yet, but I decided I would just come back to that problem a bit later. I feel confident that I can probably prove it but if I get stuck Iāll come back here with my progress.
I suppose that's a radical ideal? Is there something else than <x,y> you'd rather want it to be?
hint - ||(x,y) is a maximal ideal||
In general you can prove that ||The radical of a monomial ideal is a monomial ideal and is generated by the radicals of the minimal monomial generators of the ideal||
Where the ||radical of a monomial is just the squarefree part of the monomial||
What up mathletes
hello hello
Jürgen Herzog?!
Posting on discord from beyond the grave
The manās just that dedicated to monomial ideals
Y is multiplying by g a homeomorphism in a topological group? Is it continuous because its just a restriction of G x G -> G map to {g} x G -> G
yes, both it and its inverse are continuous cuz theyre restrictions of the multiplication to {g} x G and {g^-1} x G
I've spent a couple hours trying to prove the following, but if anyone wants to give me a tiny hint, that would be appreciated.
If we have a cyclic group G, and a group homomorphism f: G -> G, show that f(x) = x^n for some n when x is an element of G.
It's obvious that this doesnt hold when f is not a homomorphism. Since homomorphisms have some very strict requirements, I was trying to see if any of the things that are preserved under homomorphism would lead me down a good path, but alas I havent had success there.
Maybe something about subgroups being preserved under homomorphism is the trick.
So the fact that G is cyclic is very important. Maybe fix some generator g and think about f(g)
Use the fact that the group is cyclic to give you another way to write x would be my advice, there isnāt a huge amount to do in this problem
Yeah, Im assuming Im missing something blatantly obvious.
Since G is cyclic, G = <a> which means any element x = a^n for some n.
f(x) = f(a^n) = f(a)^n
and I know that f(a) is an element of G as well... I want to say that f(a) is the generator for f(G), but I havent proven that.
ignore my previous message, oh wait you said f(G)
it is true, but I don't think it's necessary for you to prove the question
element x = a^nelement x = a^nelement x = a^nwhich means any element x = a^n for some n.which means any element x = a^n for some n.which means any element x = a^n which means any element x = a^
HUH
Discord moment
which means any element x = a^n for some n.
Correct, and f(a) is also an element of G. So...?
That was very strange
It was very strange, the message I thought I was sending looked literally nothing like the one that arrived
I shall keep it up for the preservation of curiosities
maybe an outerspace particle flipped a bit
I think more likely discord has a bug :P
Since f(a) is an element of G -> f(a) = a^m... but m and n are seemingly unrelated
If f(a) = a^m what does f(a^n) equal?
did someone talk about an insect collection?
f(a^n) = f(a)^n = (a^m)^n = a^mn = (a^n)^m => f(x) = x^m
They are indeed unrelated
Well done, you've provided a proof!
Idk why that took me so long to see, but thanks for all the help everyone. I now feel very dumb š
the good part about spending a day on a proof is that you'll never forget the question ever again
and it sounds like a joke but I'm being completely honest, its the most permanent way of learning something you'll ever get
Yeah, ive been trying really hard to not look up answers too quickly... always feels like im cheating myself
Gonna steal this line for the future
You underestimate me
This is true
I remember spending 2 weeks on trying to solve an analysis Q
Spending only a day on a proof sounds amazing to me now

Do not underestimate my ability to forget things.
Iām very good generally at remembering I have done a problem, itās more so the how I tend to struggle with
Is there a notion analogous to projective modules for groups in the sense of a group which is always normal whenever it is a subgroup?
I guess 0 group does this, but are there others?
if you mean that the image of every injection must be normal, then the group must be abelian, as { (g, g) } < G x G is normal iff G is abelian
A group which is always normal whenever itās a subgroup? Assuming you mean the other way around this is just abelian groups
I ām possibly misunderstanding what you mean though
No -- embed your group in a "more than sufficiently large" symmetric group and it won't be normal there. (Unless it is trivial).
oh, yeah that's way easier lol
Ah ok yeah that makes more sense to me lol, I wasnāt sure what he meant
a perhaps more interesting example is the holomorph, the semidirect product of a group with its automorphism group using the natural action
Do you have a more specific construction? I'm not sure how to do this?
Actually this isnāt even true, all subgroups of the quaternions are normal and that isnāt abelian
this action won't be trivial; the only group with a trivial automorphism group is the trivial group, so we do not have that G is a normal subgroup of G \rtimes Aut(G)
there's a weird ass classification theorem for those groups
For example, let G act on G cup {*} by left multiplication for the G part, and g.* = * always.
The injects G as a subgroup of S(G cup {*}).
However, now every nontrivial element of G has a conjugate that doesn't fix *, so it's not in the original subgroup, so the subgroup is not normal.
Really? I guess thatās quite a strong requirement for a group to have but that still feels crazy
In group theory, a Dedekind group is a group G such that every subgroup of G is normal.
All abelian groups are Dedekind groups.
A non-abelian Dedekind group is called a Hamiltonian group.
The most familiar (and smallest) example of a Hamiltonian group is the quaternion group of order 8, denoted by Q8.
Dedekind and Baer have shown (in the finite ...
Do you know what theyāre called?
it's not very convoluted like with simple groups, but it just feels very arbitrary that it's either abelian or the quaternions x elementary abelian 2-group x torsion abelian group with only elements of odd order
That is a whacky ass classification
it is perhaps a very strange thing to ask to force every subgroup to be normal
it's a miracle in itself that congruences correspond to some kind of subgroup at all
Yeah this is why I could believe there was a classification in the first place because this is quite a strong condition, so thereās likely something you can say, but it is an odd feeling classification
Iām guessing it makes some amount of sense if you see the proof though, I imagine that in quite a logical way you have to build them like that
I mean yes thatās how proofs work but you get what I mean haha
mhm
it's still weird
math is full of weird stuff
tomorrow my study officially starts
it's crazy
Insane that you havenāt even started uni yet
I start my masters in a couple of weeks and Iām pretty confident youāre more knowledgeable than me
Youāll enjoy it though, itās nice getting to immerse yourself in it
There's also this weird classification result for locally compact Hausdorff non-discrete topological fields ...
That sounds sufficiently terrible
Local fields?
Lol
Funny way to phrase it
(this) uni is great in that I can basically just pick and choose what courses I pick so long as I complete some necessary subjects
I mean that is the definition just saying it like that makes it sound bizarre aha
That is cool
Yeah, that was my point.
Thatās actually less insane than I was expecting lol
These are used all the time in NT
That sounds lovely, pretty perfect if you already know as much as you do
current idea is to do some necessary subjects of the next year, so in third year I can spend most of my time on the bachelor's thesis which is probably going to end up being much more than is asked from me lmao
Yeah Iāve heard of them lol, the definition is adjective soup enough that it sounded as though it couldāve been horrible and weird but I guess itās a field and compact haussdorff so you canāt really get a much nicer structure
Lmao
when is the field totally disconnected though š¤Ø
One thing I find funny is how "almost perfect" is now a technical term
Often
\o/
Fun thing I learnt about relatively recently is this notion of being extremally disconnected
closure of open is open
But usually you'd want compact + Hausdorff too
I'm getting the idea that compact Hausdorff spaces are somewhat nice..
Up to a few months ago, the Wikipedia article didn't even state that as a definition but just essentially said "local field means one of these three possibilities".
Well the important thing is that these are like the projective objects in compact Hausdorff spaces, so they appear in some things for that reason
E.g. they appear in this CONDENSED MATHS
that's why we invent other names for it
I guess like locally compact Hausdorff spaces are a very large class of "reasonable" spaces beyond manifolds
Im starting to feel like you're trying to push some message onto me...
can't quite figure out what though...
Iām guessing not related to perfect spaces in topology? Because how could those be āalmostā lol
My intuition says it should have some measure 0 set of isolated points but that seems silly
Iām going to introduce the opposite notion. Iām gonna call it ānot at all disconnectedā
I still wonder why these are called perfect lol
aren't smooth manifolds always assumed to be locally compact Hausdorff?
or manifolds in general
hmm, it would be very nice if we had an opposite of the word "disconnected"
Sorry, by "beyond" I mean like "more general than"
Not quite sure. Could be huge
codisconnected?
Isn't this actually a thing that like
Ohhhh wait thatās awesome
I forget the term
When you care about law of excluded middle and have a constructive version of this
A codisconnected space is a topological space X such that, for any disjoint open sets U and V, their union is never the whole space
thank you thank you
Yeah I truly have no idea, Iām guessing someone thought they were lovely to work with
What is almost perfect though?
ofc it's the constructivists...
Actually idk what I mean w constructiveness
It is a slightly different point
The point is often one defines connected as basically "not disconnected" I guess but there are nice ways of phrasing it
almost perfect is when it's perfect for some finite number of elements removed
See this was my guess based on how we usually name shit but this seems silly
So like if you have a chain complex over a ring R you can ask for it to be quasi-iso to something which is a bounded complex of finitely generated projectives ā this is called being perfect
in the context of topology that would be a pretty useless/nonsensical definition lol
given how huge the "nice" spaces are
And then for almost perfect (better known as pseudocoherent) you can ask for the same but with that complex (in homological grading) bounded below
Ok yes so I am right, youāre just trolling lol, I was doubting my sanity there
I am indeed trolling
you may call me, the master baiter, even
okokok im sorry im sorry
I'll be good
Jk jk
I understand all of the words in this definition, but not well enough to understand what it really means lol
Lol
Pseudocoherant and quasicoherant feels like dangerously similar terms
For what are, Iām guessing, quite different things
So like the idea is finitely presented modules are the "small" modules
Like just finite free stuff and summands of them lol
You can make this precise like categorically that they behave in a special way (they are the "compact" modules)
Then perfect is the version of this for the derived category
Like they should be smol things
what does compact mean?
or is that just the analogy
Hmm ok I see, around derived categories is kinda where my homalg runs out so 
Gimme a year Iāll hopefully have more to say about that
Means Hom(X, -) preserves filtered colimits
this is basically saying that if Y is a union of some Y1 <= Y2 <= ..., then any map X -> Y has to land in some Y_n
So for example you can see what the "compact sets" are
oh okay
Which is very nice!
is it a categorification of compactness in posets?
gah, you youngins without any knowledge of order theory
If X < sup(S) for some increasing sequence S then X < Y for some Y in S
yes
Something like this
no
This is, frankly, disgusting. I am throwing up
Oh lol I messed it up
X < sup(S_0) for a finite S_0 \subset S
(think every cover has a finite subcover, that is where the term comes from at least)
I imagine so
Yeah fair
Heh
I think the compact objects in topological spaces are finite discrete spaces which is sad
But kinda makes sense cause Sets "sits inside" Top in a nice way
This just reminded my I have a D in both metric spaces and general topology lol
fun fact: in a subobject lattice, the compact elements are precisely the finitely generated subobjects
Good
I got a B- in graph theory
I hate graph theory
Iām surprised the prof didnt fail me
so for example in the lattice of intermediate field extensions of F < E, the compact objects are all algebraic over F
Scientists are good at graph theory
I somehow managed to be ill for both my metric spaces and gen top exams despite them being a year apart
Nice
Thank u for enlightening me
Iām not interested in it. Too applicable
(if I am right in remembering that this lattice is algebraic, I am much too lazy to check)
Compact objects are very important for some things in cat theory which is nice
Donāt even talk to me about graph theory, I got a 92 on course work and an 86 in the exam that got scaled down to a 74
I got stuck on one single problem, still upset about it
Like often a bit category can be controlled by the compact things of which there aren't too many
Scaling down is crazy
I'm sorry
I have never heard of a negative curving
Edinburgh hates to see you winning
Easy exams are the hardest when it gets curved tf down
That professor is malice incarnate
oo, just like how in a nice (algebraic) lattice, every element is the join of compact elements
EdinBRUH moment
In fairness it was definitely like way too easy but thatās not my fault
wtf curving down is diabolical
actual devil
Oh nice
I guess they like the join of all smaller compact things lol
(think every subobject is the union of it's finitely generated subobjects)
(oh and this condition is exactly what makes a lattice the lattice of subalgebras for some algebraic structure)
can you elaborate on this btw?
Anyway the thing that makes this more funny is that I got an A in algtop and an even better A in my thesis titled Betti Numbers in Algebra and Topology
Possibly the first person whoās reasonably good at algtop and ostensibly doesnāt know more than the definition of a topology
Ive heard somewhere that algebraic topologists either really want to act as if their topology is algebra, or that their algebra is topology
Life is so good when u pretend everything topological space has every nice property
I suppose you are the former
"assume X to be indiscrete Hausdorff"
Just throw adjectives at it until it complies
I definitely am, but also I can actually do topology I was just coincidently genuinely ill for both of my topology exams so 
I had 100% in my metric spaces course work and I think I got 20% in the final exam
I was just straight up delirious
ouch
Lol sounds fair
people who study quandles are knot theorists who pretend their topology is algebra so much that they've become algebraists
Sure, what I had in mind was that there are the notions of (local) presentability and compact generation which make categories really nice (like make it easy to apply the adjoint functor theorem, for example)
And these guys have all small colimits and limits and things
Have you seen higher / "brave new" algebra aha
like what I'm looking into now are generalised knot diagrams which, truthfully, are more combinatorial objects than anything?? š
Algebra is combinatotics
Aldous Huxley algebra
it becomes algebra again when you just attach a quandle to it in the obvious way and hope that an isomorphism on the level of algebra is enough for all the nice properties to carry over
I've heard of higher algebra relating to infty categories
(this is not going well so far)
Sanity check: If N is a flat A-module then tensoring A-modules with N preserves isomorphisms
this is true by virtue of tensoring by N being a functor
Oh ya
okay okay I've just been hitting walls so far and basically all of them have consisted of me not having a good grasp of when two arcs might be identified
disneccted
kid named balmer spectrum
fundamental theorem of physics: every group is lie group
I just started watching House M.D. and thought this was a reference to that at first lol
Then I saw āphysicsā
It's never lupus
somethingwrong
but im not sure where the next equality comes from
Guess it just comes from V being in the center of CG
For any x in CG, x times (Sum g) just multiplies it by the sum of the coefficients of x, independent of if it's from the left or right
ah okay, so idea is just that $\sum ug=\sum gu$
somethingwrong
and this holds since we are summing over the whole of G and uG=Gu
Yeah
i wouldnt say that the second equality is necessary at all in the proof
as V is a sub-G-module, its basically by definition that u(āg) ā V
(i.e. V is an ideal of āG)
oh wait i see that your guys action is on the right for some reason
ah yes the book i am using does everything on the right
janky
I mean, that's pretty common
im doing a separate module on R-modules and tensors, where everything is done on the left. quite painful to swap my mind between the two
ive seen people mixing left and right group actions on the same set
truly a sight to behold
though as a quandle theorist you're probably used to people not agreeing on right vs left actions
I am
grrr
they dont even use the notation of the quandle operation properly
its a triangle because one arc goes UNDER the other
MY GOD
Anyways
Is anything non-trivial known about the number of conjugacy classes of pairs of Sylow p-subgroups of G, for a finite group G and prime number p?
If Aut(G) is the set of all automorphisms on G and A(G) the set of all bijective mappings from G to G, then Aut(G) is a subset of A(G). I don't really understand this.
I think I need an example of where a mapping on A(G) is not necessarily an automorphism? Because aren't they both bijective?
is G a group?
the key is homomorphism
Aut(G) has to consists of homomorphisms that happen to also be bijective
A(G) consists of any bijective mapping, not necessarily homomorphisms
any nontrivial group
the identity has to go to the identity
so find a bijection that doesn't send the identity to the identity
If I have to find an injective homomorphism Q8 to S8, how do I find it?
I found one injective homomorphism, where I mapped i to (1234)(5678) and j to (1638)(2547) and i verified that it holds the relation ij = -ji.
Is there any better way to do that? I am sure there is
quaternion group has 8 elements
do you remember cayley's theorem
Yeah I got
Thank you ā¤ļø
If I have to find some morphism between S_n to G, then I try to find the appropriate image of (12) and (123...n), but which relation should follow the image, I mean if I have to find morphism Dn -> G then image of r and s, say x and y respectively, so xy = yx^-1 should holds there
So which relation should I need to verify when I have an S_n group?
just look up group presentations of S_n
although if you want to use that as proof the presentation of Sn may or may be allowed to be used without proof
Im reading a book of abstract algebra by pinter and this problem in the subgroups chapter is giving me a little trouble
I feel like the definition of K here is odd
I understood it to mean that any x in G is in K iff for any a in H, xax^-1 in H
This worked with no issues until I tried to prove K has inverses, and the solution in the textbook doesnt make a lot of sense to me
Oh whoops
I have a physical copy of the book and I took these screenshots from the pdf I just found online
This is NOT what my textbook says
The solution makes a lot more sense now lol
Another way to see this definition is that K is every x in G such that its left coset and right coset are the same
so if xH=Hx then of course x^-1H = Hx^-1
Apologies for replying to such an old message, but it would be alright to phrase (C) as follows?
There is a bilinear product (-,-): FxV -> V defined by (a,x)=ax
you cant really define bilinear without scalar multiplication
but i guess it's true in that its a bimorphism of abelian groups? seems better to just state the axioms outright at that point
Yeah, using the term "bilinear" in the definition of a vector space seems circular. You need to define vector spaces before you can define bilinear
The issue I have with Halmos' terminology is that when we talk of commutative multiplication, we want "multiplication of a by x" to be synonymous with "multiplication of x by a", and similarly we want "multiplication of something in F by something in V" to be synonymous with "multiplication of something in V by something in F"
So idk if there is a way of characterising (C) without making (what I believe to be) a false distinction between "multiplication (of a vector) by scalars" and "multiplication (of a scalar) by vectors"
I understand that these are different things
But the terminology doesn't seem to describe the difference adequately
commutativity is not inherently a "multiplicative" property
I know
I'm saying that if multiplication is commutative, then xy=yx, so we should be able to call xy "multiplication of x by y" as well as "multiplication of y by x"
but scalar multiplication isnt commutative?
by scalar multiplication do you mean FxV or FxF?
Ok well as far as I know FxV is treated as commutative
ax=xa
??
i mean i guess because fields are commutative, left and right modules coincide but i certainly dont see people writing v ā a
If you're vector is (1,2,3), 4(1,2,3)=(4,8,12) (everyone agrees), but in my experience you would also have (1,2,3)4=(4,8,12)
what experience
can you point me to a textbook which treats scalar multiplication as something which can be done from the right?
like sure, it looks alright in that specific form but its not formally defined nor is it really useful to look at it that way
Actually I think this is besides the point
My point is that both distributive properties concern multiplications that are FxV, so calling one "multiplication of a vector by a scalar" but another "multiplication of a scalar by a vector" seems weird
theyre formally the same thing, it just depends on what youre focusing
this discussion is just a repeat of the former
I don't understand your point, do you want multiplication of a vector by a scalar to be a map from VxF while multiplication of a scalar by a vector to be a map from FxV?
Its just the same thing
And is the issue with my suggestion about bilinear the use of the word "bilinear"?
If I said
There is a
bilinearproduct (-,-): FxV -> V defined by (a,x)=ax, with the properties that (a+b,x)=(a,x)+(b,x) and (a,x+y)=(a,x)+(a,y)
thats just how its usually defined lmao
Not necessarily
My point is more that "multiplication of a vector (scalar) by a scalar (vector)" is being used to refer to the same operation, so the distinction seems unnecessary or inadequate at conveying the desired point
well id change the terminology from "defined by" to "where we write"
is your issue the implict switching between left and right vector spaces?
But what distinction do you want to convey? Do you want some terminology to convey whether we're holding the scalar fixed or the vector fixed?
because you're right - they're not the same operation. But every vector space is naturally isomorphic to it's opposite
so we don't really care
Maybe?
The way he's written it kinda makes it sound like the multiplication in C1 is different to the multiplication in C2, but they are the same
:cereal_2:
I'm not particuarly fond of this phrasing either
it wasn't this, then
Oh, yeah, "multiplication by vectors" is maybe not ideal, but I'm not sure there's any more precise way to say it in english other than just writing the equation
There are two distributive properties, a(x+y)=ax+ay and (a+b)x=ax+bx
The former concerns distribution over vector addition, whereas the latter concerns distribution over scalar (or field?) addition
Yes, this is my issue
The distinction lies in the kinds of addition (vector v. scalar), but the multiplication is always FxV
why is that an issue exactly?
Because the phrasing makes it sound like the distinction lies in the kind of multiplication being used, but it doesn't, it lies in the kind of addition being used
Actually
That's not quite right
I think it's more that his phrasing makes it sound like there are two distinctions to make (between multiplications and additions), but there is only one (between additions)
Or maybe call both "multiplication by scalars"
A more precise way to say it is that scalar multiplication is a ring homomorphism from the scalar field to the endomorphism ring of V. But I'm not sure if that helps
I haven't studied rings so unfortunately it doesn't
its induced by*
