#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 334 of 1
i dont get what u mean here
Well so suppose f:R -> S sends all nonzero zero divisors to non-zero things and R has a non-zero zero divisor. If f(x) = 0 then f factors as R -> R/(x) -> S, and clearly R -> R/(x) has the same properties as f, so it's enough to assume f = (R -> R/(x))
But then like in this case we are saying: suppose R has non-zero zero divisors but (x) doesn't. Then x=0
we can conclude x = 0 from here?
yeah. suppose r is a non-zero zero divisor. then xr is a zero divisor, hence zero by assumption. But this implies x is a zero divisor, so x = 0 by assumption again
Here, is B an A-module by restriction of scalars (namely we define ab = f(a)b where f: A \to B)
Yes.
Trying to solve the equation x^3=6 in the finite field F7, does x^3=6 mean the same as x^3 mod 7 =6? so would 24 be a solution to this equation (it satisfies it) but it's not an element of F7?
if 24 is indeed a solution, then you'll have to look for what 24 is mod 7
3
so...? I mean what I'm trying to ask is 24 satisfies x^3 mod 7 =6 but it's not an element of F7, so does it count as a solution
well, is 3 an element of F7?
yes
so you tell me if you think it's a solution
yes? so it doesn't matter 24 is not in F7 since 24 mod 7 is in F7
hm ok
No it isn’t? F_7 is a 7 element set
If you choose to interpret F_7 as a collection of equivalence classes of Z
Not saying you’re wrong
Then it is a set of seven equivalence classes and contains no numbers at all
I just disagree with the statement that 24 isn’t in F7
That’s like saying aquamarine is in the set {blue} because the vibes are the same
This a much better interpretation
This is not something I care to argue about, feel free to disagree with what I said
is it? I would imagine that thinking of the elements as equivalence classes is probably the best interpretation
That’s an even better one
and then 24 \in F7 becomes very intuitive abuse of notation
of course one means [24] \in F7
or however you want to denote equivalence classes
but I guess you're not wrong, there is a lot of room for confusion with abuse of notation
My point is that implicitly using this abuse of notation while guiding someone through a simple conceptual task is bad pedagogy
yeah I agree
You should be precise about what you say, and then when they’re comfortable with the concept you can be more handwavey
Although even at the post grad level people will look at you funny if you say that 24 is in F_7 I cannot lie 😭
But then we’re all hypocrites cause everyone does finite field (at least, of prime order) computations in Z then reduces mod p at each step
i will say that I think it will be enlightening to look at how F_p or Z/pZ (if you haven't already) are defined using equivalence relations, it will make such questions much more intuitive
i guess the word class should really fall somewhere in that sentence, you're right
Is 1/2 in Z_3? Because on one hand 3 doesn't divide 2, but 1/2 = 3/6 and 3 divides 6. How should I think about this?
I should say like this is extremely bad notation lol since Z_p usually refers to the p-adics or sometimes Z/pZ and both are different to this one lol
But yes it should be all rational numbers which have a representative of the form they say
I see
Idk what to think of the pedagogy. On one hand I appreciate giving an example of a ring with one prime (up to associates). On the other hand. ew
This would usually be written Z_(p) but yeah it's an important example
A cute example imo would be F[[x]] for F a field
Yeah I mean there is a little work needed
Any local ring that’s a PID would be what you’re looking for
But I don’t have any examples at hand other than Z_<p>
I’ll think about it
The actual Z_p works too ig
For the time being I think I'll treat this as a curiousity and move onto the meat of the chapter
Thank you both 🙂
This is the rational p-adic integers, so not that bad notation I guess
Idk I think it's pretty bad lol
The fact it is close to Z_p kinda makes it worse imo
Z localized at p
Yeah I was gonna say, Z_<2> is standard notation for localised rings
I guess you would just have to add the brackets to distinguish it from the p adics
But it’s not good
There's also the issue that A_f is often used to mean A[1/f] lol
This is Ore Localization in respect to a multiplicative set
The complement of a prime ideal (I.e the maximal (p) ) is multiplicatively closed
So in a sense this ring is ZS^-1 where S = Z\(p)
To be more specific it’s the equivalence relation and it’s down to the representative
What chapter are u learning rn? Also what text was that
Looks like D&F
Hmm
I need to get back into algebra at some point
📉
Fuck off britoid
ch2 of kenneth and rosen number theory
Gotcha. Ty
RS^-1 works basically for any comm ring provided S has some property in relation to zerodivisors I forget
No need
Just it might be zero lol
@languid trellis adding to this, the case where S is the complement of a prime is like… why it’s called Localization. It localizes the ring
In a way it’s like the OPPOSITE of a quotient
It “kills” off the ideals intersecting the multiplicative set, because under localization they contain the identity so become the whole structure. Thus the only ideals left over are strictly in the complement
Consider when the complement of the multiplicative set is a prime ideal. Then that’s made maximal :3
Does anyone have an example of a ring where there are non-trivial nested prime ideals? I am trying to get more intuition for why we want the set of prime ideals to have a minimal element.
Also on the topic of localization, I know R_(P) gives you a local ring with unique maximal ideal P (well technically P/(R-P) I guess). Is there another way to localize a ring to get a semi-local ring (only finitely many maximal ideals)?
Let k be a field. in k[x1,...,xn], there is the tower of prime ideals <x1> subset <x1,x2> subset... <x1,...,xn>
this ascending chain construction works for any collection of algebraically independent irreducible polynomials
Finitely many maximal ideals hmm. We’d want the multiplicative set being localized to have a complement probably containing only finitely many maximal ideals
which you might have to find one
By the logic of this
Ahhh ok that makes sense, thanks!
Hmmm ok I’ll think about this more thank you. Maybe Atiyah Macdonald will have some examples when I get to localization
Let me specific, maximal within the set
Yes ofc
It doesn’t seem like that would naturally occur much?
Like you can define a prime set where it’s complement is multiplicatively closed, and you can maybe look for those?
Hmm so a prime ideals is a prime set and then look more generally?
Maybe think about prime sets and find one where there is only finitely many ideals maximal within that set
Idk when that happens, probably tricky
Is this for an exercise or a general quandary
Is the union of prime ideals a prime set?
Just general quandary I guess lol
Complements are multiplicatively closed
And the complement of the union would be the intersection of multiplicatively closed sets
I.e multiplicatively closed
Good call
Arbitrary union in fact
Mmmmm oh yes that makes sense!
I haven’t done any AA for an extended period of time so I apologize if I’ve been rusty
I’m in the engineering and functional analysis mines rn
AA batteries
So maybe we could even use HChans example for this?
The only correct way to pronounce this is with a small scream
AAA is a bigger scream
Union of (x_1) (x_2)…(x_n)
@swift tundra Maybe. Take a semilocal domain. Take a maximal ideal, chop out 0 from it (multiplicatively closed), then localize by that
Then it would still be semilocal
You’ve basically just murdered one of the maximal ideals
does this mean you're sober or relapsed?
Provided the maximal ideals are still Lin indep, otherwise you should remove the Jacobson radical too prob
Maybe algebra isn’t the place for me, these poor ideals 😢. Just constantly being killed
I laughed out loud at this
,w annihilator
All your ideals in life are killed by algebra yes
okay well that wasn't helpful
In mathematics, the annihilator of a subset S of a module over a ring is the ideal formed by the elements of the ring that give always zero when multiplied by each element of S.
Over an integral domain, a module that has a nonzero annihilator is a torsion module, and a finitely generated torsion module has a nonzero annihilator.
The above defin...
Ann(M) = { r | r.M =0}
yeah just they were talking about killing off and stuff so i thought of the word
nooo
vakil is already ann'ing me
ANOTHER ring HAS mapped into End(M)
Lol what
M is left R-Module iff ring maps into End(M)
Sure lol
Back to the functional analysis mines I go bye chat
yeah but no one will take that seriously because first and foremost it's "Ass"
Tits group
I rest my case
Take some finite set of maximal ideals and invert those elements not contained in either of them.
Then the resulting ring should have those as its maximal ideals by the prime avoidence lemma
So for example of you invert all primes in Z except 2 and 3 you get a ring with two maximal ideals (2) and (3)
Do you agree with the interpretation of localization behaving the opposite of wuotienting
Kinda yeah.
The primes of R/p are the primes containing p, while the primes of R_p are those contained in p. So in that sense their opposites
Localizations are also epimorphisms though, so in many ways their similar.
In Quotienting, ideals in the output are ideals containing the quotient ideal, but in localization, the ideals are the ideals outside of the localizing set
Yes that's right
Huh, I didn’t know that, that’s a nice fact
Honestly I don’t know enough about localisation, my comalg class didn’t spend much time on it because the lecturer “doesn’t like geometry” and in my noncom class 
Noncom localization is a nightmare
Oh wait that makes so much sense! Thank you. Also a good use of the prime avoidance lemma; my professor had us prove a weakened version of it but I was wondering what exactly it would be useful for.
\begin{tikzcd}[row sep=1.5em, column sep=1.5em]
& \text{Euclidean Domain} \arrow[d] \
& \text{PID} \arrow[dl] \arrow[dr] \
\text{Dedekind} \arrow[d] & & \text{UFD} \
\text{Noetherian} & &
\end{tikzcd}
Slomenist
hey
we know that euclidean => pid => ufd => integral
i'm trying to expand this diagram to include artinian rings, local rings, integrally closed rings and other interesting types of rings
dedekind
can somebody help me ? with as much implications he knows as he can
¿
artinian iff noetherian and dimension 0
okay i should say the disclaimer: i'm assuming rings to be commutative and unital
yes
regular local implies ufd
do you know somewhere where there are similar iffs
and NSCs for the inverse to be true ?
NSC?
necessary and sufficient conditions
also idk too many iff's off the top of my head
i'm looking for them, summarising all this mess up would be very helpful to remember things pretty smoothly
serre's normality conditions give you an iff for a commutative noetherian ring to be normal
🤬 first you bully me for vakil now you bully me for this
a module is reflexive iff it satisfies S_2 (this requires noetherian, and everything henceforth will also assume noetherian)
nice
i was reading bourbaki books on commutative algebra
there isn't much interesting things like these
i learned these through a class i took
did you rely on a particular book in class ?
R is a UFD if and only if the following statement holds: if an ideal I is reflexive, then I is a free R-module
no
he kinda just did this all off the dome
this is due to auslander iirc
yeah
nice
a ring is normal iff its poincare series is in Z[t]
okay that's everything i found for "if and only if" in the lecture notes
It has to do with ideal structure
there's a million of these everywhere bc commutative algebraists love this kinda stuff
look up like idk
"cohen-macaulay" or "gorenstein" and you'll find a million things
from wikipedia
equivalent characterizations for gorenstein
oh wow that's interesting
now i'd like to read your profs full course/notes ;-;
i would send but unfortunately:
- i typed the notes and there's a bunch missing
- there's some stuff about my classmates' questions and stuff in there
so i can't send for the sake of privacy
thanks i'll look them up
alright it's fine ;)
if you look through bruns-herzog (and subject yourself to looking into that boring ass book) you probably find a lot of "if and only if" statements for cm rings, gorenstein, etc etc
Ideal hell
Multiplicities and Chern Classes in Local Algebra by Roberts has a bunch of open questions and homological conjectures and stuff somewhere in there, you can prob find stuff there
for integral closure/integrally closed rings, see Integral Closure of Ideals, Rings, and Modules by Swanson Huneke
too much stuff to learn but kinda fun in the end
it's even more fun and interesting to solve problems like these, mysterious beautiful problems
nice, i would
thanks
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
you could look here too 
yeah i used to read a lot in this website
it has a lot interesting things
Cute
https://arxiv.org/pdf/2506.21764
from the abstract: As an
application, we prove that generic Gorenstein local rings, non-trivial connected sum of generalized
Golod-Gorenstein rings satisfy the Tor-vanishing property and consequently the Auslander-Reiten
conjecture.
Idk what golod gorenstein nor auslander reiten are but yeah commutative algebraists love this stuff
yeah
these are even more advanced
Yeah
crazy research papers
Every paper and its paper-mother has “betti number” and “koszul complex” in it
I've been reading about Zorn's lemma but never actually attempted it. Is my proof correct?
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$, then $R$ has a maximal proper ideal.
We seek a \textit{maximal} proper ideal, so why don't we create a set of all proper ideals and see if it is partially ordered. Set
$$P={I\subseteq R:I\text{ a proper ideal of $R$}}$$
We show that $P$ is partially ordered. As before, with respect to set inclusion. Any $I\in P$ is a subset of itself (reflexive), if $I_1\subseteq I_2$ and $I_2\subseteq I_1$, then $I_1=I_2$ (antisymmetric), and if $I_1\subseteq I_2$, $I_2\subseteq I_3$, then $I_1\subseteq I_3$ (transitive). Let ${I_\alpha}{\alpha\in J}$ be a chain in $P$. We recall the definition of an ideal of some commutative ring $R$: $U\leq R$ is an ideal if $U$ is a subgroup of $R$ under addition and for every $u\in U$ and $r\in R$, both $ur$ and $ru$ are in $U$. Now let's actually consider the union $I'=\bigcup I\alpha$. Clearly this union is an upper bound of ${I_\alpha}{\alpha\in J}$ with respect to set inclusion. Now we verify that it's a proper ideal of $R$. Let $v_1,v_2\in I'$, then because of total ordering, there must be some $I\beta $ such that $v_1,v_2\in I_\beta$, hence $v_1+v_2\in I_\beta\subseteq I'$. Now if we take $v\in I'$, then $v\in I_\beta$ and $-v\in I_\beta$ for some $\beta\in J$, so $-v\in I'$. We show that $I'$ is not trivial: $I'$ must not contain $1$. Had $1\in I'$, then there is some $\beta\in J$ such that $1\in I_\beta$, contradicting the fact that $P$ is the set of all proper ideals. We verified that every chain has an upper bound in $P$, so by Zorn's lemma there is a maximal proper ideal.
bluepianist
oh kinda missed proving the ui and iu are both in U for any i in I'. But other than that, is my attempt ok?
The overall idea looks okay
you should show that I’ absorbs elements under multiplication, and thus is an ideal (so far, you’ve only shown it’s a subgroup under addition). Idrk what you mean by U here since U only appears as a definition and not actually in the proof; you should instead be showing that for any i in I’ and r in R, ir is in I’
Some minor nitpicking about the proof writing itself; this is more of my opinions so you can ignore what you want:
- for your set P, you should write I \subset R and not I \subseteq. I know that you said “proper ideal” which means I is never R, but again this is just some nitpicking
- recalling a definition in a proof often leads to more visual clutter within a proof
Aside from that looks fine
ah yeah sorry slight typo there should be ri and ir. thank you!!
If you liked this Zorn’s lemma argument you can also prove similar results, like “every vector space has a basis”
An aside but worth noting: you’ve proved that every commutative ring with unit has a (ie, at least one) maximal ideal. A ring with a unique maximal ideal is called a “local ring”
ah i see okayy
yeah this is what i dipped my toe into. after getting a feel of what the argument looks like roughly i decided to try the commutative ring one by myself and super happy i got the general idea right :)
used to be super scared of this lemma because the wording itself is so abstract but now i finally get the gist
Simple and intuitive
Is there a term for the relationship between the ring $\mathbb{Z}q$ and $\mathbb{Z}{kq}$ where k and q are integers? Is it a homomorphism?
request new nickname in modmail
What is Z_q?
I don't know what you mean by "it a homomorphism" - i think you have got terms confused
So you should be able to view Z_q as a quotient of Z_kq
I’d have to check the details but this at least works on the level of groups
Yes this follows from Z being the initial ring essentially
Z_q is not a subring of Z_kq though
It does work as a subgroup, however
Yep, you can make a lattice out of the rings Z/nZ, its dual being the lattice of ideals, i.e. the integers ordered by divisibility
For f: R->S surjective, prime ideals of R containing ker are prime ideals in S under f right
Yeah
If S is an integral domain, is every prime ideal of R prime in S under f?
If f is surjective it doesnt matter what your ring is (aside from commutative with unit)
If you drop the condition that f is surjective and you want S to be an integral domain, it’s false
Is there a typo here?
Idk what u mean
Fixed
For example
Z -> Z/2
then the prime (3) maps to the improper ideal, which isn't prime
What I mean is there’s no assumption on R and S (eg integral domains)
Z -> Z[i] is another one
Perhaps a more enlightening example
k[x, y] -> k[x]
x |-> x
y |-> x^2
Then the prime ideal (y) maps to (x^2)
Ok yea because its not like ideals in R are either contained in ker or contains ker
Note also that this can be viewed in terms of the correspondence theorem
like for f: R -> R/I, the assignments p |-> p(R/I) and q -> f^{-1}(q) give a mutually inverse correspondence between primes of R containing I and primes of R/I
Yea i was verifying that if in the case where S is a domain then prime ideals (or i guess any ideal) contained in ker will be prime in S which i mean yea cuz S a domain
ye note that anamono's example is very rich, like if F is a number field (i.e. finite extension of Q) then studying how pO_F factors into primes is a big thing
Shoutout atiyah macdonald
lol for what
I only learn math i learned a year ago a year later
oh lol nice
Atiyah Macdonald my beloved
I think it was a very formative book for me
what's your opinion on it?
going through it right now, and it feels very brief
But ideals under extension is kind of a different topic no?
PREAAAAAAAAACH
the book feels like it can say a lot more
like 150 pages is on the low end for textbooks
How does that relate to what i was asking before?
Yeah but this example illustrates that the image of a prime isnt necessarily prime
You need to use extension
The beauty is in the exercises
Excellent book
atiyah and macdonald is kinda ass ngl
I think yeah like a lot of magic is in doing the exercises and i think this is what helped me a lot lol
and also feels very slick
Lol
I am forever a matsumura commutative algebra enjoyer
I was weird thoguh cause I had learnt very little about rings and modules before the book
Yea i like reading matsumura
but was still kinda readable once i looked at the correspondence theorem
Atiyah macdonald is nice to have tho
lol
i think like atiyah macdonald is the sort of book one can work through relatively quickly (obviously can still take quite a while! esp if doing the exercises lol) and that's nice about it
I bought cohen macaulay rings by bruns and herzog recently lol idk when im gonna be at the level to actually learn from it properly
Hartshorne if hartshorne was good
Still kinda above me
RETURN IT
One amusing thing is uh this is based off an old version of the commutative algebra university course I took, and it's interesting how much stuff is covered in the book that wasn't in our book
Lmao
THAT BOOK IS BORING AS FUUUUUUCK
😩
maybe kiand just wants to fall asleep at night quicker
Precisely
Maybe the best way to learn commutative algebra is to start with the subject you are learning comm alg for and work backwards
not rly a fan personally
People have motivation to learn stuff? Smh
I used it for the ring and module chapters mostly
well if you don't have motivation to learn stuff don't read a textbook and touch grass
Found an error in a proposition I wrote down months ago... Game over
Didnt even know it had those tbh
Errata on arxiv soon I hope
Dude it goes up to homological algebra and even some alg geometry lol
Oh nice
Use atiyah macdonald
the only proper way to learn commutative algebra is to look at hartshorne, understand how little you know, and then read matsumura because that's what he cites
The authors got tired
Hartshorne part lowkey true when I started I didnt realize how bad my CA was
So I went and read atiyah macdonald bc it has a bunch of exercises on ag
Grass? I'm telling you this alggeo agriculture terminology is getting out of hand
imho if you're learning AG from an algebra text you're doing something wrong lol
hartshorne
my belved
taught me everything I ever need to know about life
I remember trying to read eisenbud and I fucking hated that book
I wouldnt use it as a primary source but it introduces the basics of ag
In this sense I think it’s good
Because imo ca on it’s own is really dry
not on arxiv rip
i have been hoping to put it out soon for the last 25 years
But when you have exercises relating to stuff like NT and AG it lets you learn with applications in mind
ig that's true
tho maybe I'm insane cuz when I was reading about CA just the story of the algebra was interesting enough to me lol
I didn't feel like I needed to know the applications a priori
but everybody is different
and if you're different from me you're doing some wrong smh
Clausen core
Yeah I guess when I started learning CA I found it interesting as well
Then I started doing AG and, yk, comparison is the thief of joy
And then CA on its own became very dry to me
I feel this too hard rn
Basic question but for a ring R we know all maps out of R are controlled by the ideals of R, but what about maps going into R? Is it just that the possible maps into R are given by the subrings of R?
I mean the subrings dont give the map like ideals do but
Hug
S -> R gives Spec R -> Spec S thing?
What do you mean by the first statement?
Yes
Every ring morphism factors as surjection followed by injection
So meaning what in context to my question?
I assume that's what you meant by "determined by ideal / image"
That is, every morphism R → S is given by R → R/I → S
Where the first map is quotient by an ideal and the second is inclusion of subring
I am very rusty on algebra but I seem to be stuck here, I want to show that if $V$ is a real vector space of positive dimension then for linearly independent vectors $v, w \in V$ the wedge product $v \wedge w$ is nonzero. The definition I have for the wedge product is that it is the algebra defined by the relation $v \wedge w = - w \wedge v$ for all $v, w \in V$
Khush
Not sure how this leads to $v \wedge w$ being nonzero
Khush
I know there is a way with the alternating map but I want to avoid that since the text I am going over does not cover this
my other issue with this definition is that couldn't v \wedge w = 0 for all v and w?
Yeah I’m also slightly lost, the we all know has me worried I’m being dumb though
the exterior square A^2V is universal with respect to bilinearity and antisymmetry.
so if V x V -> A^2V is the map taking (v,w) to v \wedge w, and if f : V x V -> W is any alternating bilinear map, then there is a unique linear map A^2V -> W which f factors through.
any vector space W for which there is an alternating bilinear map V^2 -> W will therefore be a quotient of A^2V via the universal property of A^2V.
if v and w are linearly independent, extend them to a basis of V and let Proj(v), Proj(w) : V --> F be the linear functionals which pick off the coefficient of a vector written in the extended basis corresponding to the v and w components, resp.
formally, Proj(v) is the dual vector corresponding to v, likewise for w.
consider the alternating bilinear map f : V^2 -> F defined by (x,y) |-> Proj(v)(x) Proj(w)(y) - Proj(v)(y)Proj(w)(x), which is the alternation of the bilinear map (x,y) |-> Proj(v)(x) Proj(w)(y).
by the universal property, there is a unique linear map A^2V -> F such that x ^ y |-> f(x,y). but f(v,w) = 1, so v ^ w can't be zero, otherwise, it would be in the kernel of this map.
maybe there is a way to not extend to a basis of V...
Let $K$ be a field and $L$ an algebraic extension over $K$. Then:
[
\mathrm{Card}(L) \leq \mathrm{Card}(K[X] \times \mathbb{N}).
]
\textit{Proof attempt:} Inject $L$ into $K[X] \times \mathbb{N}$ via
[
a \mapsto (P_a, k_a),
]
where $P_a$ is the minimal polynomial of $a$ over $K$ and $k_a$ is the position of $a$ among the roots of $P_a$.
but this proof seems to work only when $P_a$ is separable, so only for few types of fields, and not for any arbitrary field $K$
Slomenist
i'm looking for different ideas to solve this problem
forgot to mention that one of the hints given is to consider the set : \
$${(P, x) \in (K[X] \setminus {0}) \times L \mid P(x) = 0}$$
Slomenist
c squared
i think this gets around the choice issue
How does it fail when L is inseparable? The map will still be injective AFAICT, depending on how you define "position among the roots". You'll just have fewer roots than the degree of the minimal polynomial
You get some trouble if k=1 in your first case. Better to pick d=0
Well, you would be picking
a=b=c=d
Which isn't possible
Having one being 0 and the others non-zero is always fine.
Otherwise one needs to be careful
I see, so I would have to show that this universal property holds?
I feel like this was mentioned here previously
yea. you use the universal property of the tensor product and the universal property of the quotient vector space
Yes I did lol
oh lol
Btw deltoid can u help me in #advanced-algebra
hmm i was about to ask a question but i wasnt sure if what i was asking was really dumb or nt
not*

If $G$ is free abelian, then does it have no nontrivial elements of finite order? For let $a \in G$ be an element of finite order. Then there exists $b \in \langle a \rangle$ where $\langle a \rangle$ is not infinite cyclic. Furthermore, such a representation is unique. This contradicts the fact that $G$ is free abelian.
okeyokay
you can use the universal property
Like G a free Z-module?
The universal property of free modules as in if A is basis then any set map A->M factors through A->F(A)->M?
there is a (natrual) bijection between set maps and homomorphisms
that's one way to state the property, yes
I'm not sure what exactly you mean by your penultimate sentence there.
What representation is unique in what way and what is it contradicting?
Ok, it seems like a lot of the time people use universal properties in this kind of way
Potato said smth similar when i asked abt localization
Real
oh yeah localization has a universal property (and adjoint pair) as well but I don't think that one is as nice
It is nice
Bijection between morphisms R—>S sending all stuff in M to units, and maps M-1R -> S?
Using M for a set of elements is melting my brain
Ik that was silly
If a ring homomorphism sends S to units
then it extends to a homomorphism in the localized ring
Ya that is like the first way when i said the free module one right
Saying that it factors is not strong enough, although probably sufficient for proving most things
it's a bijection
Saying it factors uniquely would be incorporating the fact that theres a bijection there right
that would give you an injection
Right
Then surjection part is just if you have F(A)->M you know the A->M that would fill in the diagram?
ye
This fact of it being a bijection where is this helpful / used?
but the diagram is sort of abusive cause the important thing is that F(A) -> M is a map of modules
Yeah
Similar thing with tensor products tho right
One arrow is map of abelian group and other is like bilinear map
these are instances of adjoint functors
Sure i mean this is an abuse for ye
adjoint functors sometimes
Thoguh idk i wouldn't recommend it idk
Wouldnt recommend what
Adjoint functors were briefly introduced once but i did not learn it whatsoever
writing diagrams which aren't in a category rly lol
Im not sure what u mean
Kind of confusing myself over the uniqueness part. Isnt it obvious that given F(A)->M there is a unique A->M by just precomposing with A->F(A)?
We were talking about atiyah macdonald earlier : i do like how a/m is small and compact enough to more easily bring around with you and read
Some texts u just cant do that with cuz too big and annoying
Yes.
Oh I mean like if u draw a commutative diagram to understand the free module construction then it will involve a bit of abuse cause ur mixing sets and modules
Then use the forgetful functor
Ye you can say like unique F(M) -> N such that the composite F -> U(F(M) -> U(N) is what U started w lol
Mhm
Need help with a problem
A set G with operation * is associative and has left identity and right inverse .....prove it is a group
Tricky one seems
oh yeah these asymmetric defs are weird
I think this is false, actually.
At least I feel like I've heard that this is false.
it is not false
Let e be the left identity, g in G, and h the right inverse of g. then hg = h(eg) = ...
unless I messed up, eventually you show h is also the left inverse (not through just a chain of equalities though), and then showing e is a right identity is easy
Are you sure the theorem you know isn't left identity + left inverses ⇒ group?
That is indeed a folklore theorem.
Given that I've proved it for myself just now, reasonably sure
That's neat! I would like to see that proof if you're willing to share it.
I made a mistake 😔
Many such cases
Don't we all
I will write the left identity as e. For each element a choose an inverse a^-1 such that aa^-1 = e.
Lemma 1: (a^-1)^-1 = ae.
Proof: Consider a . a^-1 . (a^-1)^-1. Associating one way gives us e . (a^-1)^-1 = (a^-1)^-1. Associating the other way gives us ae.
Lemma 2: ab = ac = e implies b = c, so right inverses are unique.
Proof. ab = aeb = (a^-1)^-1b and same for b using lemma 1. Now left multiplying by a^-1 gives us eb = ec so b = c.
Lemma 3: (ab)^-1 = b^-1 a^-1
Proof: (ab).(b^-1 a^-1) = a(b b^-1)a^-1 and you can see the rest, I hope, by applying lemma 2.
Lemma 4: If ae = e then a = e. The proof of this was unfortunately wrong.
Proof: left multiply by a^-1 and apply lemma 1 to get e = a^-1 e. Then right multiply by a to get a = a^-1a = e.
Lemma 5. a^-1a = e. The proof of this relied on the incorrect proof above.
Proof: by lemmas 1 and 3, e = (a^-1 a) (a^-1 a e) = a^-1 (a a^-1) a e = a^-1 a e. Apply lemma 4.
I think you should be able to finish things from here.
Please do let me know if there are any mistakes here.
And yes, I had coffee at 6pm, how could you tell?
Darn, I just noticed an important mistake. Nonetheless I'll leave up some of these here in the hopes they help.
this is not true. Consider the set $G = {e,a}$ with binary operation $\ast : G \times G \to G$ given by $x \ast y = y$. $\newline$
\textbf{Associativity: } $(x \ast y) \ast z = y \ast z = z = y \ast z = x \ast (y \ast z)$ $\newline$
\textbf{Left Identity: } $e \ast x = x$ for all $x \in G$ $\newline$
\textbf{Right Inverses: } $x \ast e = e$ for all $x \in G$ $\newline$
$G$ is not a group: $x \ast a = a$ for all $x \in G$, so $a$ does not have a left inverse, and therefore can't be a group. Alternatively, if $x \ast a = e$ for some $x \in G$, then $a = e$, but we know that $a \neq e$, so $a$ can't have a left inverse in $G$. $\newline$
c squared
c squared
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
column is left component, row is right component
if G is a semi-group with a left (resp., right) identity and every element has a left (resp., right) inverse with respect to the left (resp., right) identity, then G is a group, as shown here
It's even easier to say: G is not a group because there's no right identity.
no right identity, i think you mean, right?
Whoops yes, fixed.
Groups don’t have right identities what do you mean
the identity of a group is a left and right identity
Trolled a little too hard xd
oof my bad lol
I spent entirely too long time trying to work out the free semigroup-with-left-identity-and-right-inverses on one element to check whether it's a group. After much paper, I think it turns out to be isomorphic to Z×G where G is C Squared's example:
left identity (0,e)
right inverse of (n,p) is (-n, e)
the generator is (1,a)
thats cool
With n > 1 generators, I think the free thing is the product of
- the free group on the generators, and
- a set of n+1 elements (one for each generator plus a designated identity) with the x*y=y operation
im going to work through this later actually
The crucial calculations for me were
- aa'x = ex = x
- a'ax = a'aex = a'aa'a''x = a'ea''x = a'a''x = ex = x
where the prime denotes the right inverse. So inverses are effectively two-sided anywhere in a word that's not the rightmost symbol. And if the rightmost symbol is an inverted generator, we can replace it with any other inverted generator: - a' = a'aa' = a'e = a'bb'
so all the inverted generators map to a single symbol in the x*y=y factor.
I think interpreting right inverse to mean
x x^-1 = e
for a left identity e is kinda weird anyway.
If right inverse instead means
y x x^-1 = y
then it is true. And you can replace the existence of a left identity by the set being non-empty.
how are inverse elements defined for semigroups?
like b is a left inverse of a if aba = a? something like that?
bab = b for b some right inverse of a?
Left/right cancellative?
so if b is a right inverse to a, then ba is right cancellative?
that just feels like saying ba is a right identity
Gah. I was sure there was a simple example but I tried toset with min and didn't think of "second operand".
It’s similar, but not quite the same
Since cba need not be c, but cba=dba implies c=d
I think @ jagr2808's proposed definition is that b is a right inverse to a iff ab is a right identity.
I mean, multiplication in naturals bigger than 2
That’s cancellative with no identity
And no absorptive elements
(And commutative)
This I think is better than being cancellative, but a pseudo-inverse for cancellation is still nice to have exist etc
There’s the uhh what’s it called inverse semigroups where a weird sort of inverse occurs
like xyx = x?
i guess this is what i was thinking it should be
I mean it’s kinda screwy since you can get inverse-like stuff even without identities
But if you have identities, things kinda should work with them
That's true, but requiring yxx'=y for all y just implies that xx' is a right identity, so that would also make the problem statement "kinda weird".
It's weird either way, but at least this way the statement you're asked to prove is true
That is an advantage, I suppose.
Lovely
im sure the caffeine was worth it tho lol
so in the van kampen theorem, say we decompose our space X into two open path connected sets A and B with path connected intersection.
then pi1(X) is the amalgamated free product of pi1(A) and pi1(B) over p1(A n B)
how do you form the amalgamated free product if you decompose your space into more than 2 sets?
The details are in Hatcher
If all your subsets are path-connected with a common basepoint, you have a bunch of π1 maps
Just take the colimit
but it still works as long as all three-way intersections are path-connected
yes
I love how the free product is a coproduct. Great terminology
hmm... maybe i am misunderstanding something. do i amalgamate over the free product of all of the pi1(Ai n Aj)?
i guess i don't know what diagram im taking the colimit over
Consider the category of all intersections of your subsets
So A, B, C, A∩B, A∩C, B∩C A∩B∩C, if you have 3 sets
okay
Each inclusion, say A∩B → A, induces a map of π1
yes
This colimit gives the π1 of the whole space
so we only consider the inclusions from the intersection of two sets?
okay
at least i have the right diagram. will think through it later. is there standard notation for this?
#alg-top-geo-top though.
yea, i guess i was hoping to get a description for groups in general, so i thought to ask here
And a direct limit is a colimit.
Yeah this came to mind too oof
Let $E$ be a finite-dimensional vector space and $|\cdot|$ a norm on $E$. Prove that the subgroup of isometries of $\mathrm{GL}(E)$ acts transitively on the unit sphere $S$ if and only if $|\cdot|$ is a Euclidean norm.
Slomenist
hmm and that's equivalent to show that "... iff the norm |.| satisfies the parallelogram law"
by Fréchet-von Neumann-Jordan theorem
Here's a fun argument:
Calling your group G, note that G is topologically closed in GL(E), and that it's bounded (wrt the operator norm for example), so G is a compact topological group, and E is a continuous finite dimensional representation.
Then there exists a G-invariant inner product on E.
Note that the ratio of the given norm and the one induced by the inner product is G-invariant, so if the action is transitive it is constant on the entire sphere, so the two must be the same (up to a scalar).
yes
A coset gH is by definition for a subgroup H, but you can define gH = {gx for x in H} for any subset H of a group. But as I said, the nice properties of cosets come from H being a subgroup
Yeah pretty much, but I don't think I've come across gH without H being a subgroup
It’s a bit gauche to pit people against each other like this
Lol, that ping looks weird, but it's in reference to what I wrote in #advanced-lounge
Another reason to keep discussion in a single channel
The endless benefits to asking in a single channel
That’s not really the issue. The problem is that I now don’t know if there’s some context I’ve missed, if the user you pinged was simply wrong about something, or if you just forgot to say something. It puts me on the spot in an unpleasant way
But we’re lingering on this too long. Please in the future ask in just one channel
i have a conjecture
A graph is supertough if for all |S|>1 where S is a subset of G, the number of components of G-S<|S|.
Conjecture: If a graph is Eulerian and supertough then it is Hamiltonian.
.idk if this is the right channel; this is graph theory
ty
Is there a characterization of rings R such that GL_2(R) is generated by elementary matrices?
I know this is true for R that are Euclidean domains but not necessarily true for PIDs so that’s pretty strong
I guess this question may go here. Can any group be obtained by quotients, sums and products of only ordered groups? I assume such operations are not order preserving at all.
Free groups are ordered groups, so yes
So basically I am asking if any group can be decomposed into orderable bits.
Ah
Nice I guess
So for like a G module M we can express it as sums, quotients and products of modules on ordered groups? @south patrol
Where I take module as a functor from G to Ab.
That seems like quite a different question and i'm not sure
Is $\implies$ true since $h\bigl(f(a)\bigl) = h\bigl(f(a) \cdot 1\bigl) = h(a \cdot 1) = h\bigl(g(a) \cdot 1\bigl) = g(a) \cdot h(1) = g(a)$?
okeyokay
And the converse is true for [h(a \cdot b) = h(f(a) \cdot b) = h(f(a)) \cdot h(b) = g(a) \cdot h(b) = a \cdot h(b)]
okeyokay
just to be clear, the statement is assuming that f and g are A algebra homomorphisms themselves
if f and g are just ring homomorphisms then their composition doesn not necessarily preserve the A algebra structure
you say h(g(a).1) and that doesn't really make sense
i think it's a bit clearer if you decorate the dots or something
$h(f(a)) = h( f(a).1) = h( a \star 1_B) = a \star h(1_B) = g(a).h(1) = g(a).1 = g(a)$ where the $\star$ denotes using the $A$-module structures
Prismatic Potato
(and . is multiplication)
but this is good
Think this may reduce to a question about how the functor from Grp to the category of G-module categories behaves? Where the morphisms are taken naturally as functors?
If that functor preserves limits and colimits I think it should be fine?
If this is the case this is pretty
no?
Idk they seem like very different questions because you're now fixing the group right
Oh
Not even the full strength is needed just those quotients, sums and products that implicate ordered groups
Tho that may be sufficient for the full thing
Ye still haven't checked tho will in a minute
If L/K is a field extension do does there always exists a (non-unique) map between their algebraic closures that extends the inclusion? Is there an easy direct way to see this or is it a theorem?
Fix an algebraic closure M/L. Now let M' = { elements of M algebraic over K}. This is an algebraic closure of K
But also more generally: if you have any field extension L/K and an algebraic closure L' of L, then for any algebraic extension of F/K you get a map F -> L'. You do a Zorn's lemma thing, but the important step is that whenever you add an algebraic element a to K, you can pick an element of L' which satisfies the minimal polynomial of a and hence get a map K(a) -> L'
You can then apply this, taking F your chosen algebraic closure of K
This is basically the same as how you show that algebraic closures are unique, of course - and if you know that algebraic closures are unique then you can just use the line above (and compose with an isomorphism between your algebraic closure and the one i gave you)
Oh lol
Thank you that makes a lot of sense
Hmm, would it be an answer to this that the free group with G's elements as generators maps into G, and that makes M itself a module over an ordered group?
Ah that’s good
preimage of a point
you talk about fibers of functions at a point
would help if you shared the context you've seen the word used
what? fibres are subsets of the domain
ah right
so the fibers of $\varphi$ refer to the collection ${\varphi^{-1}(h) : h \in H}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
of the domain
usually this is phrased in the language of equivalence classes
but i suppose fibers work too
they are equivalent, surjections, partitions and equivalence relations
well i don't think $\varphi$ is assumed to be surjective here
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Yeah i suppose they have to specify they aren't including the empty set
I think you are fine, usually these concepts are introduced using the language of cosets/equivalence relations as pseudo was saying.
ah so i guess it's like
usually fibers come up when you want to talk about "indexed families" of things
like an indexed family of sets $A_i$ for $i \in I$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
or an indexed family of vector spaces $T_p M$ for $p \in M$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
hm, not quite
for example, in topology, you often want to consider an indexed family of open subsets
well the idea is that you have some index set $I$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
for example you could have a sequence of sets $A_1, A_2, A_3, \dots$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in this case the indexing set would be $\mathbb{N}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Another example is the projection on to x axis R^2 \to R , the fibers are vertical lines (I guess this sort of thing is why they are called fibers)
mhm
For A->B ring hom, q an ideal of B, why is A/q^c isomorphic to a subring of B/q? (This was in context of q is a primary ideal but idk if thats relevant here)
What I thought is that for A->B we can post compose with B->B/q to have a map A->B/q , and q^c is in the kernel of that, so we have a map A/q^c -> B/q, but I dont see why this would be injective
there's a nice story with how dependent type theory lets you talk about these
because dependent type theory is built to handle precisely these kinds of "indexed families", which they call "dependent families"
e.g. in maths "an indexed family with indexing set I" is something that might worry you a litte
In the USA they don't teach about fibres. But fibers do come up
is this some kind of function from $I$ to, like, the set of all sets?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that would be worrying
luckily there's a different way to think about these which is reasonable
Suppose that f(a + q^c) = 0.
Then f(a) + q = 0
First iso theorem
q^c is essentially by definition the kernel of A -> B/q
Well tbf you know that aha but yeah first iso
I didnt for some reason i thought i could just say q^c was in the kernel
So i thought the kernel could be bigger
Oh q^c must contain the kernel obviously cause 0 is in q lol
well also like
Preimage of 0 under projection B -> B/q is q
Preimage of q is q^c by definition
Oh so if we write the map A->B/q like A->B->B/q, we can track the pre image of 0 over each step? I guess this is probably a basic property of how preimages work right
Ty
Can you give the explicit map? I don't think that quite works for what I'm trying to do but I would be happy to see it. Cause I'm looking to actually generalize the norm here to G modules on ordered groups et al. By inspiring myself from vector spaces and the natural way to extend the norm to complex values.
Uh ... the elements of G map to themselves, and by the universal property of the free group, saying where the generators map to is enough to define a group homomorphism uniquely.
ha
hmmm
Haaaa I see
Hmmm but it doesn't necessarily preserve ordering on the free group no?
Not quite what I had in mind, its more like
uhhh if G is an ordered group I want to define a norm on it
And if G is not I want to define a norm on it such that it breaks down into pieces of ordered groups each a norm as the above
A norm on a G module for G an ordered group here being a definite positive map that satisfies homogeniety and triangle inequality
So to be exact your idea is to use [\phi:<G>\rightarrow G][g\mapsto g] ?
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
Basically I'm not sure what it is you're asking, so my proposal was less "here's a solution" than "perhaps I can understand you better if you describe why this is not a solution".
I presume that the G you start with is not an ordered group (because otherwise M would by your specification already be "a module over an ordered group").
So I'm trying to understand what exactly what it means to "express M as sums, quotients and products of modules on ordered groups" in this case -- that is, what does it mean to express a G-module as a sum/quotient/product of some modules over one or more different groups?
What is meant by rational integer coefficients? Aren't by definition, the coefficients in f(Z), which are not necessarily integers
coefficients, in terms of Z-scalar multiplication
Is this problem missing the assumption that M is flat? (Since the hint says to tensor with the exact sequence)
no, it holds in general
Oh okay
well, the isomoprhism holds in general
let me try and figure out what the proof is trying to do
yeah bc I don't know what information we can gain from tensoring if the resulting sequence isn't necessarily exact lol
I was just going to rawdog it with the first iso theorem
Tensoring is always right exact, which is what you use here
I guess we get $\mathfrak{a} \otimes M \to A \otimes M \to A/ \mathfrak{a} \otimes M \to 0$ is exact
okeyokay
Yeah I figured
idgi
So what I mean when I say we can express a G module M as a sum/quotient/product of some modules over one or more different groups lets assume the family ((G_i){i\in I}) is the following idea that M is isomorphic to an object of (this is gonna be a little ugly) [<(G_i){i\in I}:Modules>] which I will take to be comprized uniquely of A-Modules where A is obtained as direct sums, products or (covariant) quotients of groups in the family ((G_i)_{i\in I})
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
I mean, it’s not like every group has nice orderings definable
How should the G_i relate to your original G, if at all?
Like, what about an infinite p-group, that should be pretty screwed for having any orderable subgroups
And, further, how do you combine such modules into a G module?
I guess a G module should be a G_i module for subgroups, but idk how to really glue? I might just be stupid though
That part is the mystery part that I don't know and will have to check
But there is some notion of isomorphism of modules and some notion of direct sum of modules with scalars from different groups
Like if G' is an ordered group that surjects onto G, then M will also be a G'-module
Is that what you want or something else?
Like a G-module is just a homomorphism G -> Aut(M), so you can compose with any map G' -> G
It does not
It's still unclear to me what you actually want though...
Okay so what I actually want is to be able to do something like:
[n:M\rightarrow G][1. n(0)=e][2.|a|n(v)=n(a*v)][3.n(v+w)\leq n(v)+n(w)] Where |a| works the same way as with the additive ordered group (\mathbb{R})
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
So should |a| be a scalar or an element of G?
Right so |a| just gives the inverse of a if it's negative and a otherwise I'm assuming
Yes
But then you definitely need G to be ordered to begin with for this to make sense
- Seems impossible though.
n(0) = n(a*0) =/= |a| n(0)
[n:V\rightarrow \mathbb{C}][n(v)=n_{Re}(v)+in_{Im}(v)][|z|n(v)=n(z*v)] where V is a (\mathbb{C}) vector space
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
Ah shit
Maybe n should be valued in the group algebra instead
hmmm
This is weird, it holds in usual vector spaces no?
Ah wait
thats multiplication
I see your poiny
point*
Hmm but that risks losing order no? @rocky cloak
It would yeah
So I guess you would need to ditch / modify 3
I'd hate to touch 3 since it allows for analysis
But rings are useful in their own right
Perhaps I need to modify 2.
Ah hmmm
Okay so I think I have a really shitty way of bypassing it by simply doing the following
[n:M\rightarrow {g\in G: 0\leq g}] definite positive and satisfies trig identity wrt ordering.
And we simply define a new operation
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
Upon that above via
[|.|*n:G\times M\rightarrow P\times P\rightarrow P] [(a,v)\mapsto(|a|,n(v))\mapsto|a|n(v)=n(av)]
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
@rocky cloak does this seem sane to you? Think that actually does what I want
Analysis preserved, group structure and order preserved and it works well for like the other examples I guess?
I guess so. Don't really know what it's for, but I guess so
It should be a good way to extend classical analysis onto G-modules?
Well I don't know that much analysis, but stuff like unitary representations of Hilbert spaces doesn't accomplish that for you?
I don't really know that the classical results one would want to extend are
I have some crappy examples like reals mod 2π
With like a metric given by angle
Or rather norm
on a sphere taken as a module of R mod 2π where the addition is going around the sphere
as you would think
That feels like a weird opposite direction to me, I am not that well read on that
Well rather than opposite like a dual of sorts in a weird way
So what is the module for this example?
This
I guess should just be R?
So R under addition is the group?
Yes
Its trivial but like normally not permissible
no?
Since that isn't really a metric
I actually got here from diff geo
I mean, it is a metric. It's just the standard metric on the circle
Not quite
Its like a metric and an equivalence relation
No? Am I thinking wrong
Its angle mod 2π
Well
d(x, y) = min{ n(x-y), n(y-x) }
would be the metric I guess
Whats n here?
The norm thingy you defined
Huh ye that seems to work I guess?
But bleh I did it the easy way kinda?
In my head at least
I'll find non trivial examples
Imma sleep now
Well, I think the example is non-trivial enough. Probably better to figure out what you would want to do with such examples
I mean one idea I had was to do differentiation with this
As the diff geo fan that I am
Cause I think little o calculus carries
so I can do some weird variant of inf dim diff geo here
And also lipschitz stuff
They do be
existing

Geodesics and stuff I do be wındering if the usual Banach space results extends

On this front actually its enough (and sufficient) to have a positive cone [P\subset G] Such that [1.\forall x,y\in P\implies xy, yx\in P][2. e\in P][3. P\cap P^{-1}={e}] Since you can prove [a\leq b \iff a^{-1}b\in P] is a total preorder if succh a set exists. And the positive cone [P:={g\in G: 0\leq g}] serves the exact purpose so they are equivalent. The thingy I wish to study is how to firstly ruin this, and how to basically obtain any group like this cause I got some stupid ways to glue Modules, all I really need is the ordering on like the components of some stupid decomposition as I've given above to extend the bellow norm like function of interest to G modules.
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
Have you considered treating G as the value group in a valuation
Hmmm I have to google that
That unit circle is U(1), unitary group of dim 1
Anyhow, my original work is on analysis on groups and bad functions that are almost actions on them, so they’re not too far from reps or such
You can do a good bit of analysis on groups or modules w/ metrics as well
Hmmm very interesting
As in, genuine metrics
Can I yoink a paper?
Well, keywords are: harmonic analysis, geometric analysis, functional analysis, unitary groups, unitary representations
This isn’t quite as general as what you want, but it works well enough for locally compact or metric groups
Now, I do have some stuff I can show wrt partially ordered groups
Gimme a sec
This would be a life saver actually, much appreciated
Here
Check references, other papers by this author, etc
For genuine metric-y groups or at least locally compact topological groups, look at (abstract) harmonic analysis
For merely metric without compactness conditions, I can possibly help a bit with specific questions if you need, though I’m no expert
I've heard quite a bit about (abstract) harmonic analysis but I'm still kinda green(?) behind the ears as someone in between ug and masters so
Its like a hard area for me to break into
I'll be taking advantage then
I’ve had a few schizo sketches about looking at some infinite dimensional unitary groups in a diff geo-esque sense, Banach-Lie kinda stuff
I probably have just the tool for this since diffeology is made for this kinda shit
In some sense
Or its cousins
And I have some (unfortunately lackluster) scribbles on analysis on groups under “pseudo-compact” kinds of conditions, low regularity, and relations between these
Well I was specifically looking to make like a very rigid differential structure to invoke DE type results, since some rep theory results look a lot like ODE ones
I do know Banach Manifolds and Frechet Manifolds as well as Lie Grps embed into its category maybe that helps? Since its real easy to manipulate for that kinda?
Oh
Hey maybe that is the move, obviously my attacks hadn’t worked yet
So don’t just trust me when I say what it should be, if I actually knew I’d prove it
Fr fr
Now, with regards to your positive cone thing
Consider the valued fields
There’s a valuation group, but that’s not the norm
I'll try my stuff if I get far enough ;-;
So, perhaps you should look at valuations rather than norms
Do you have like a book for this stuff?
(Which are a logarithm away, morally)
I dunno dawg, Atiyah-Macdonald? It has some valuation ring stuff
Thats a statement and a
(amorally)
I'll dig about probs
Ershov has some fancy multi-valued field things, but it’s a touch too logic-y for your purposes
I actually ripped that off from convex analyais
Anyway, valuations are a thing in commutative algebra, valuation rings are kinda a move
I'll look into valuation rings, had the wiki open tho I really do need to sleep
,time
The current time for godofbushes is 03:08 AM (+03) on Sat, 12/07/2025.
Check the paper I sent an image of for extra ordered group data, but linear orders on groups are tricky
Go to sleep, consider what exactly you’re trying to do
I'll be reading it if my smooth brain can comprehend
I or jagr or someone can help once you have more direction on how you’re trying to proceed
More algebraically or analytically, or maybe it really fits better in a weird condensed setting idk
I'll be burdening you guys with my weird questions here then.
I'll see where it grows once I have some more examples
hopefully
May all be analytic
I at least want to look at geodesic stuff
Possibly using my favorite reference of "metric spaces of non positive curvature"
I'll cleanly write what I learned today first tho probs.
And possibly get a decomposition theorem that won't make me feel shame when trying to present it to @tribal moss
For R noetherian M an R-module, and ideals I and J such that rad(I) = rad(J), why if I^pm= 0 for some p means J^qm = 0 for some q? Can i just have a hint for how to show it?
is m an element of M?
anyways, in Noetherian rings, for every ideal I in R there exists an n such that sqrt(I)^n \subseteq I
Is this a basic fact that would be found in atiyah macdonald or smth?
Probably need to look at generators right
it might be in there, I haven't gotten to the noetherian section yet
but it's a pretty simple lemma
I would say this is a good exercise
Ya im gonna do it
I guess you want "is contained in I"
oh, right
(e.g. consider (x,y^2) contained in k[x,y] - obviously no power of (x,y) is (x,y^2))
Bc x is not in any power of (x,y) right lol
Well x is in the first power
(and only the first power)
But y^2 is in second power only
Maybe I post here, this suits more here since ring Chinese Remainder theorem
Let's think of DFT on power of 2 dimension.
So DFT matrix is factorized under bitreversal permutation, which is the basis of Cooley-Tukey method
DFT also corresponds to the Chinese Remainder theorem of some ring, so the factorization should correspond to some intermediate steps of the CRT.
The question is, how exactly?
It feels grating to follow through how permutation goes around
in terms of representation theory, there are exactly n irreducible representations of the cyclic group on n elements in C (namely you just pick an nth root of unity as your generator).
Hence by the Schur orthogonality relations, this implies that every representation of the cyclic group on n elements in C^k can be decomposed into a direct sum of the irreducible representations, which corresponds to the DFT
not particularily sure how useful this version of the DFT is for you, but there's some keywords for you that may help out
Yeah sadly, I don't think this would help me track where each element goes via the DFT
To put some detail, the factorization is of form
DFT = V W P where (IIRC) W is a block matrix, and P is a permutation.
I am thinking of how W corresponds to an intermediate CRT isomorphism,
when you consider DFT as
$\bC[X] / (X^M - 1) \simeq \bC^M$
Absta
I mostly lost track of the discussion afterwards, but this is actually impossible.
Since a(bv)=(ab)v for a group action, this implies |a|·|b| = |ab|. (That looks innocuous; it is true for R after all. But the absolute value for R negates with respect to a different operation than the multiplication it preserves).
If a is any positive group element, presumably a^-1 should be negative, so |a^-1|=a, and we have a·a = |a|·|a^-1| = |a·a^-1| = |e| = e.
But that means a = a^-1, which would have to be both positive and negative, which is absurd.
I was trying to define a new operation there actually and not use the group operation but that has its own problems it seems
Actually its a constraint on the function n
Oh, I'll just shut up then. :-)
Sharp also pointed your exact point out and I wad like ;-;
And then I messed with homogeneity and axiome 3
So basically its become something like
[n:M\rightarrow G][1.n(v)=0\iff v=0] [2. \forall a\in G,~|a|*n(v+w)\leq |a|*n(v)+|a|*n(w)] Where (|a|n(v)=n(av))
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
With a*v the action of G on M
And |a|*n(v) is made into an operation on the positive cone (P:={g\in G: 0\leq g}) and the absolute value is defined via the operation and order on G
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
@tribal moss So ye that was my way of "solving" that problem but I'll have to come up with more examples than just U(1) with norm in R mod 2π via angle on the 1-sphere from its action on (0,1)
What does |a| mean now?
Or is |a| = n(a*v) n(v)^-1 the definition of |a|? In that case, don't you need additional axioms to ensure that RHS doesn't depend on a choice of v?
Also in (1), is 0 an element of G now? That would suggest G is written additively, so what is * between group elements in (2) and |a|*n(v)?
Ah, I think I perhaps I get it -- the whole |a|*n(v)| is a single symbol with two inputs a and v?
If so, it would be less confusing just to unfold it in the statement of (2).
But then 2 just says
n(a*(v+w)) <= n(a*v) + n(a*w)
which follows from n(v+w) <= n(v) + n(w) and also implies it by setting a=e.
Do you have a main example in mind that you're trying to model?
If G is a free abelian group, does it have no elements of finite order? For if a was a nontrivial element of finite order, we would have a nontrivial element of Z x ... x Z of finite order
Yes
What is the purpose of the hint in c? Is it that we have $n_1 a_1 + \dots + n_m a_m - \frac{1}{2} a_{\alpha} = 0$, where $\frac{1}{2} \neq 0$, contradicting the ${a_{\alpha}}$ being a basis for $\mathbb{Q}$?
okeyokay
If you express 1/2 a_alpha in the basis you add it to itself and have a_alpha in the basis and go from there...
What's wrong with my proof tho
wheres that from?
Munkres lol
yeah I couldn't understand Rotman's proof of Van Kampen so I'm supplementing with Munkres lol
how do I find the direct limit of the groups Z^2 with the homomorphism ((1,1),(1,0))?
You just listed one group, do you mean two copies of the same group or a system with a loop?
In either case the system wouldn't be directed, so maybe you just mean colimit...?
all of the groups are Z2, the indexing set is N, the homomorphism is the matrix, to get from one group to another who's indexes differ by one.
hopefully that makes more sense?
directed colimit, colimit direct limit all mean the same thing to me (I think it shouldn't lol)
Yeah, the homomorphism is an isomorphism so the direct limit is just Z^2 again
"direct limit" usually means "colimit of directed system"
Is there a reason why one would write it as $\mathbb{Z} \times \tau \mathbb{Z}$ instead?
Xetrov
Maybe for ease of notation, writing elements as
a + tau b...
idk, is tau something specific?
eigenvalue of matrix?
your pfp is so cute
The eigenvalues of the matrix should be the golden ratio and its conjugate.
I wouldn't say it's that natural for it to appear there, or for it to be notated by tau
tau happens to be the golden ratio lol
Okay, but what about the other eigenvalue? Why wouldn't that appear?
You can try to post what you're reading if you want, maybe there's some context...
Either way it's just ZxZ anyway, so just notation I guess
I'll show later
wdym "when they appear"
direct limits of groups
i recall seeing that times X was the direct limit of some groups Z2
I'll need to look at the book again anyhow
It is the direct limit of
Z -2-> Z -2-> ...
x2?
Yes -2-> is multiplication by 2
R/Z is S1 right?
why am i not just identifying all of the integers with each other, so it looks like a dyadic solenoid with one side squished?
It R/Z means S1, it's when the / means a group quotient.
As a topological quotient space, it becomes a different space (called something like "flower with infinite petals"; I don't recall the exact phrasing).
Two different operations, notated with the same symbol. You're supposed to be able to guess from context which of them is meant.
something like a wedge sum
What’s the relation here
i can't remember the name either 
Or is it the pushforward (or pullback I forget) of the congruence relation?
Wouldn’t it be fine as a topological group
this makes sense cheers
If X is a topological space and A some subset of it, the notation X/A often stands for quotienting by the equivalence relation "a~b iff a=b or a and b are both in A".
I see
i did topology before I did group theory (and only doing it because my research requires me to learn it) 
not a massive fan of group theory at all
actually that's a lie
I find it reasonably elegant
but the nitty gritty details get infuriating to work with
In the case where sqrt(I) = (f1,f2) can I say sqrt(I)^2 = (f1^2, f1f2, f2^2), sqrt(I)^3 = (f1^3, f1^2f2, f1f2^2, f2^3), etc? Then sqrt(I)^i = (f1^i, f1^(i-1)f2, f1f2^(i-1), f2^i), so choose i to be one more than max of n1,n2 that makes f1^n1 in I and f2^n2 in I?
I guess the part im unsure of is generators on the product of ideals
Ye exactly
Wait uhh
did I do some generators wrong
Nah it's good
in the case with sqrt(I) = (f1, f2, f3) would you choose i to be like, two more than the max of n1,n2,n3 that make fj^nj in I?
Group presentation NIGHTMARE NIGHTMARE NIGHTMARE
do not even get me started
WHAT DO YOU MEAN THE GENERATORS OF THE FUNDAMENTAL GROUP FORM A FREE GROUP
WHAT DO YOU MEAN THERE'S LIKE TEN DIFFERENT WAYS TO COMPUTE A HOMOLOGY
THERE'S A BASIS FOR THE CW COMPLEX? WHERE?!
why did I even choose this as my project
that's just me tweaking out dw
can someone steelman the case for writing Mod_R to mean left R modules and R_Mod to mean right R modules
because it looks crazy to me
huh? I'm asking why not use R_Mod to mean left R modules
Sometimes we have cases where we are working with left and right R modules simultaneously
and?
I guess default module being left module and Mod_R being the default notation.
The you the the throw in {}_RMod as an afterthought
I usually write $\operatorname{Mod}R$ for the category of left modules.
jagr2808
But then I just write $\operatorname{Mod}R^{\rm{op}}$ for right modules
fwiw rotman uses {}_RMod for left R-modules lol
jagr2808
Yeah that makes sense, I first thought it would make right R modules awkward, but yeah then I realized once you establish this isomorphism Mod_R^op is perfectly fine notation for right R modules
I've seen this notation every other text, which is why this surprised me
I'm also a fan of R-Mod vs Mod-R, but this subscript on the left is weird to me
yeah typesetting subscript on the left is annoying
Well, you would make a macro for it hopefully
oh yeah that's a good idea
huh
what's K_1 and K_2?
lol
er yes
are you trying to show that K/H is a normal subgroup of G/H?
yeah this is true
How about Mod^R for right modules?