#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 326 of 1
Nice proof 
ah right. fermats lil theorem isn't that basically?
Yes, that's why it's zero everywhere.
It's also the product of all the x-a (and then a factor of 2), but that fact is easiest to see by noting it has the right roots (by Fermat!) and degree to be that product.
hmm. i think the main thing kicking my ass about this class ||besides my health|| is that there are these huge relationships between these concepts that don't seem to be emphasized. I struggle to keep track of all of them. like normal extension is basically the same as a splitting field, but they're sort of taught as separate mysterious concepts and eventually it's like a theorem they're actually the same. 
not a particularly new thing in math but for some reason I'm struggling with this class especially.
im currently on a journey to connect all these concepts properly and actually figure out what's been going on all quarter 😭
i think separable in particularly confused me because it seems almost all the examples we usually look at are separable. i really only know this one example of a nonseparable extension and it feels very pathological lol
Just do what I do, pretend everything is separable 
Seriously tho, I think there's a reason it feels pathological, it kind of is, you won't need to work with non-separable polynomials a lot, particularly if this is an intro course to Galois theory
Like, char 0 fields and finite fields are perfect, and those are the fields you will work with the most to begin with
Are you following a book btw? If things seem very mysterious, maybe a different book could help? I can also send you notes from my class if you're interested
I always find this funny when Galois theory courses spend loads of time worrying about things like separability and then all examples are over Q
Same thing in my class
Had a whole homework just dedicated to it
My personal recommendations: either of Aluffi's book are great (if you pick Chapter 0, be sure to skip the algebraic geometry in the middle of the galois theory), and Galois Theory by Cox is also really nice, and finally Galois Theory through Exercises has a really nice selection of exercises with hints and solutions
Prob cuz it was hard lol but idk i also didnt like thinking about it all too much
Oh that's true, "zero everywhere" only implies that the constant term is zero
commutative galois theory when
Abelian extensions and shit
I think id appreciate it a lot more a second time through tbf
So,
I've shown that all primes congruent to 3 (mod4) are irreducible in Z[i].
I now just need to find all irreducible gaussian integers.
I'm quite stuck, I'm kinda thinking that the answer is all associates of primes congruent to 3 (mod4). But I'm sure if this is correct and I'm stuck in how to prove this.
my course supposedly follows hungerford. i've been having some trouble following it tbh. i would be interested in your class notes if you don't mind sending them (:
my professor posts very like. skeletal solutions and notes. they don't really help much with understanding tbph
Not quite, what can you say about 1 + i ? it's norm is 2 so if 1 + i is reducible 2 isn't prime. I believe rather than "finding" all irreducible Gaussian integers you will have an easier time characterizing which ones are irreducible based on their norm.
okay, I'm with you. but how should I go about characterising it basd on the norm?
well what did we just observe about 1 + i
well, ig its irreducible, but its not an associate of a prime, p st p = 3 mod 4??
so ig my inital guess is wrong
yes yes but what did we use to show that its irreducible
that its norm isprime?
yep
really? is that a result? So does the norm of x+yi being a prime number always imply that x+yi is irreducible?
prove it!
Yeah just don't forget to ask what happens when the norm isn't prime
will do thank you
(maybe wrong channel idk) is there a name for a monotone map between i guess semi-lattices such that f(x v y) <= f(x) v f(y) or the other direction maybe
is this like a lax something
If it's monotone you have
f(x)vf(y) <= f(xvy) automatically. So this would be join-preserving I guess.
wait do you
lol i didn't realise
thank you
i should probably read a text about this content properly
right of course since f(x) <= f(x v y) and f(y) <= f(x v y), that makes sense
how would i prove (a+b) mod n = (amodn +bmodn)mod n . while trying to do it i came to a point where i have to use that fact itself to prove any further
how did u use the question to solve question
Write
a = kn + r and b = ln + s for r and s between 0 and n.
Then use that x+n mod n = x mod n
ya i used that approach, what i was missing was the fact that the sum of remainders r and s can be greater than n, so i substituted (r +s) = nk + m
i was able to prove it now thanks
Here are the notes: https://wiki.math.ntnu.no/_media/ma3202/2024v/lecture_notes_latex.pdf They're pretty succinct, but maybe they'll help getting an overview atleast
tm
im pretty sure about my proof but just to make 100% sure
Is H^G the set of functions from G to H? Is that a group?
Yes if H is a group
Oh, right
yes with the action $f \cdot g (x)=f(x)g(x)$
tm
Pointwise multiplication
yes exactly
The proof looks good 👍 Note that f(xy)g^-1(xy) = f(x)f(y) g^-1(x)g^-1(y) isn't because H is abelian tho, it's just because f and g are homomorphisms
$g^{-1}(xy)=[g(x)g(y)]^{-1}=g^{-1}(x)g^{-1}(y)$ because H is abelian no?
tm
instead we would have g^{-1}(y)g^{-1}(x)
why in commutative algebra do we care so much about prime ideals?
ah, right, good point 👍 g is a homomorphism, but g^-1 isn't unless H is abelian
M(x)_A A_s is considered a right As-module here?
i wouldve liked it to be written as As (X)_A M lol
I assume A is a commutative ring?
yea
yeah
I think it's just customary with a tensor product to write the "modifier" on the right
Like you also do this for homology with coefficients
idk if u guys know that crank guy who got kicked here i think
he's telling me how he's proving riemann hypothesis
i honestly dk why im engaging him still but he keeps messaging me
idk hes kind of just interesting in the fact that hes throwing around so much jargon yet doesnt know what hes talking about
lol
that's basically me
what i mean is
K_n+1 is K_n extended to include all roots of polynomials with coefficients in K_n
isnt that equivalent?
whats a spliiting feild?
whats f(x_f)
a polynomial,with variable x_f
woahh wew used the Upon the Witnessing emote
absolute cinema
he is a mysterious figure
why so
He is usually not present
The splitting field of a polynomial is the smallest field extension where the polynomial splits (factors as a product of linear polynomials)
but every once in a while, he appears
like catking
the canonical inclusion $i :H \to G$ is always defined by $h \mapsto h$ ?
tm
H is a subgroup of G
bc i saw different ones (by always i mean usually)
yes ofc
You can also embed groups which arent set theoretically subgroups
Like $i: \mathbb R \to M(2\times 2, \mathbb R)$ via $x \mapsto x\cdot I$
Jussari
But in that case you wanna think of real numbers as diagonal matrices, so that i is again of the form "A -> A"
before you prove the statement that jagr wrote, you could only add roots of finitely many polynomials at once. not an infinite collection.
i can start with ℚ, then get ℚ(sqrt2), then ℚ(sqrt2, sqrt3), ... but each time you're making the field bigger you're also making the set of polynomial that needs to have roots bigger. and it's not totally obvious how to resolve this issue.
once you prove that statement, then you can construct K_{n+1} from K_n like you say. and now given any polynomial f with coeffcients in the "union", this polynomial already will lie in some K_n[x] as polynomials are "finite gadgets". and so it will have a root in K_{n+1}. this shows that the union is algebraically closed.
There's also more complicated examples, like embedding (R, +) in GL_2(R) by x |-> [1 x; 0 1]. But the canonical inclusion is pretty much always just x |-> x
here i mentioned a different issue. you might hope to define a directed system on the poset P of non-zero polynomials under divisibility. given f, we can define K_f to be the splitting field of f. and when f | g, we would need to choose a map K_f --> K_g, and in general this choice is NOT unique. and it's not obvious we can make a compatible choice such that the triangle will commute when f | g | h.
semirings what
alr thanks guys 
i could just union them all? i mean ik how to add any given root, so i would assign them ordinals, and i could just add each of the roots and at a limit orfinal i could just take union of all previous feilds and extend that
hm
that works yep. just one thing to be aware of is that for each non-constant polynomial you should adjoin all the roots of it. else we need the argument that jagr wrote, which proved that given an algebraic extension L/K such that each non-constant polynomial f in K[x] has at least one root in L, then L is already algebraically closed.
if you adjoin all the roots of the polynomial, then we would need to show this easier statement that given an algebraic extension L/K such that each non-constant polynomial f in K[x] splits completely over L, then L is already algebraically closed.
A problem with adjoining an entire layer (or even just finitely many!) roots in one step is that perhaps some of them could be made using other ones, and if you try to adjoin them separately you might not get a field.
For example if we want to extend Q with sqrt(2) and sqrt(8), it's tempting just to do Q[x,y]/(x²-2, y²-8), one unknown per root.
Unfortunately, in the resulting quotient we have 4x²=8 and therefore (2x)²-y²=0 and therefore (2x-y)(2x+y) = 0 -- but neither 2x-y nor 2x+y are in the ideal we quotiented by, so those are zero divisors and we're definitely not getting an extension field.
So I think you need to handle all your polynomials one by one, and for each of them ask, is this still irreducible in the field I've built yet? And then only adjoin new elements if it is irreducible.
if we have for example $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ and we want to study its possible decompositions into direct/semi-direct products, we have to guess them?
tm
or there is a general method
Normal subgroups come from homomorphisms, so I guess you generally start by looking at group homomorphisms from this group into some other group
Then once you have a since description of the kernel, use the first isomorphism theorem to look for a potential splitting, or decomposition
you mean the characterization $H \triangleleft G \iff \exists \varphi \in Hom(G,K)$ such that $H=Ker(\varphi)$?
tm
with K another group
Ye
Schur-Zassenhaus may or may not be useful
GL_n(K) has a very nice natural homomorphism to K*, btw
(multiplicative group of K)
Which splits
ok so i have to check the ker of an homomorphism from Gln(K) to K* and then i’ll have a normal group
i have to do it 2 times so
with another homomorphism
to have two normal groups
That's only when it's a direct product
First you should focus on finding a splitting homomorphism
And then either prove or disprove that the image of the section is normal
but what do u mean by split ?
sry i don’t study in english lol
if $\pi$ is the canonical projection, $\exists s$ such that $\pi \circ s=id$ ?
tm
alright i’ll check that thanks 
\textbf{Definition (Residually Finite Group):}
A group $G$ is \emph{residually finite} if for every nontrivial element $e\ne g \in G$, there exists a normal subgroup $N \trianglelefteq G$ of finite index such that $g \notin N$.
\medskip
\textbf{Theorem:}
Let $H_1, H_2\le G$ be finite index subgroups. Then their intersection
$$
H:=H_1 \cap H_2
$$
contains a normal subgroup $N \trianglelefteq G$ such that $[G : N] < \infty$ and $N \leq H$.
\medskip
\textbf{Is it true that:}
Since every finite index subgroup contains a finite index normal subgroup, we can equivalently define a residually finite group as:
"For every $e\ne g \in G$, there exists a \emph{finite index subgroup} $H \leq G$ such that $g \notin H$."?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
yea that makes sense
ig one reason to think in terms of normal subgroup is so that we can rephrase it in terms of finite quotients.
G is residually finite if for every non-trivial g in G, there is a surjective map G --> H with H finite group such that g isn't in the kernel.
in other words G --> G^ the map to the profinite completion is injective.
What stops us just taking the trivial subgroup {e} as a normal subgroup not containing g?
I’m trying to understand the proof of all cosets being the same size. My book says that if $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, $a,b \in G$, and $aH$ and $bH$ are cosets, then $f(x)=ba^{-1}$ is a bijection that transforms elements of $aH$ into elements of $bH$. I understand why this transforms elements, but why is it a bijection?
Anne S
Its index
Yeah just realised in the inf case, {e} won't have finite index, so ignore me
Might be easier to show H and aH are the same size with the bijection f(x) = ax, for any a in G
you can either directly prove that its injective and surjective, or you can construct an inverse function ( g(y)=ab^{-1}y works as you should check)
Huh, that's neat, unlike intersection of residually finite groups, this isn't closed under taking subgroups - e.g. the Baumslag-Solitar subgroup BS(2,3) is not residually finite, but is contained in GL_2 (Q) which is residually finite

Seems useful in that, if you have a residually finite group G and distinct elements g1, ..., gk
You can find a finite group H, and morphism f: G --> H, where f(g_i) =/= f(g_j) for i =/= j
I'll stop now
Being residually finite is closed under taking subgroups. For any element g, just pick N in the larger group, then intersect with the subgroup
Yeah, ignore me again, saw a theorem (Mal'cev’s Theorem) which talked about linear groups over char 0 being r.f., but I missed the "finitely generated" piece, so applying the theorem to GL(2, Q) was in error.
Cheers for the corrections tho, proof makes sense to just take N intersect H normal in H, with N not containing h in H (in G) etc...
sasha 
det is 
Might need to post here more and get my bad habits ironed out xD
Especially when I've not heard of half the things mentioned here 👀
Curious if there's anyone here also looking at Ariki-Koike (or cyclotomic KLR) algebras, and all the crystal / Lie theory stuff involved
Teach me det
What kinda stuff does det do
What the flip!
det is a tiny eevee ><
me thinking of learning some rigid analytic stuff
What has caught your interest in rigid analysis
(iirc that's analysis with p-adics right?)
yee me wanna learn about geometric langlands and fun stuff
I attended this years abel lecture. It was (partially) about KLR algebras.
I could not tell you what they are though 
SashaMomo
Holla
Potato
Hi
I've seen them in the context of representation theory of the symmetric group (or rather the wreath product of Z/mZ with Sn) where you construct so called Specht modules which are indexed by partitions (or rather multipartitions) and can by quotiented out by a radical corresponding to some blinear form to get the simple modules!
What I've described is technically the Ariki-Koike algebras (see attached presentation, notice if r = 1, T_0 = 1 + Q_1 and R a field you get the symmetric group algebra)
Feel like the other relations are weirder than the braid relations
Turns out the cyclotomic KLR algebras are isomorphic to these guys as algebras (they have their own definition related to Quantum groups and Catan data), and this was proven quite recently (2009)
They are, sure, I guess it's interesting that they pop up
Which is cool because the cyclotomic KLR algebras have a relatively simple grading, which is not obvious in the Ariki-Koike definition
Theyre part of the relations defining the symmetric group, so not that surprising if the algebra is related to the symmetric group
Mm that makes sense
If you just take r = 1, these guys are isomorphic to the Iwahori-Hecke algebras, which give nice solutions to the Yang–Baxter equations
Small world, then you might be interested in quantum groups and the Hecke algebra
I was originally planning to do a masters on Yang-Baxter equations and Hopf algebra stuff, but the pandemic changed my plans a bit
Ah, the twists and turns of life amarite
what did you do instead?
Finitistic dimension conjecture
Why is there no distinction between Nakayama's conjectures lmao
Was just googling/reading that the Finitistic dimension conjectures implies Nakayama's conjecture
but it's the homological one
not the blocks of the Hecke algebra one
Could call it Nakayamas selfinjectivity conjecture maybe
Or the dominant dimension conjecture
Small world u.u

I made this nice diagram of which homological conjectures imply each other
(NC is the Nakayama conjecture)
That's neat, I might have to steal this idea lol
Based
The idea of making a diagram of implications? I think that's an idea we can all share
Terrible thought, but if I made a diagram of implications inspired by your diagram of implications wouldn’t there be an implicit 2-implication from your diagram to mine
Seems like FDC is a really strong statement
Yes, and there are quite a few stronger conjectures that imply FDC that have been proven false.
So it's kinda at that sweet sspot
While simultaneously being a pretty early one (from 1960)
Gotta love those conjectures
There are a lot of algorithms computing the Mullineux map, and a few conjectures which would imply better algorithms (currently working on proving, and making NO progress with, such a conjecture from Jacon & Lecouvey) - would be useful to have a visual

yoink
Hi Sasha Momo!
Hoi hoi
Haiii, I've not seen you either
What is the deal with Yang Baxter? There’s someone at my uni who’s very interested in set theoretic solutions and in my quantum programming class we did some stuff with it using string diagrams but I’ve never really understood the motivation beyond “something about physics”
I never found out, but something with physics sounds about right
Very fair
I should look it up because it seems like an odd relation, but a lot of people are interested in it so there must be something
Something about particles on a string switching places and interacting, and Yang-Baxter gives a restriction on how the particle states can change, based on some symmetry condition
Iirc
And also something to do with statistical mechanics apparently
I like set-theoretical Yang-Baxter cuz it gives rise to a neat algebraic structure, kind of two shelves braided together type beat
Braces?
Hmm, no more general
It's a universal algebraisation of the set-theotetical Yang Baxter equation
Damn, universal algebra being a somewhat useful framework
i just got introduced to resolvable groups but what does it means concretely ?
Wym "concretely"
The origin, in some sense, of solvable (I think this is what you mean!) aka soluble groups is Galois theory. It is a theorem that elements of a field extension are expressible as radicals iff the Galois group is solvable. So there is a great motivation.
It turns out solvable groups are important and nice in other ways. So there you go.
ah okayy because they introduced it with the definition with subgroup sequences etc but how can we see that « intuitively »
You cannot.
okay let’s wait for the galois theory lol 
well the very rough reason why
is when you take a square root, you are kind of like adding a cyclic group
if you squint at it
(I think they are asking how they can intuit the definition, not why it's equivalent to the extension being solvable)
wtf 😭
mmmh, I interpreted as them asking for intuition for why solvable group iff solvable polynomial
but I guess they don't know that theorem yet
so forget what I said lmao
yes 🥲
465 pages left until i’ll discover it
it'll go by faster than you think
Which book is this lol
it’s a french book from Jean-Marie Arnaudiès
I can only imagine you are exaggerating a little bit
I feel like I hadn't read like 100 pages of algebra when I did galois theory
there is too many definitions in group theory 😩
The hard part of algebra is coming up with the correct definition
and also to visualize what we’re manipulating
tm
is it the right definition?
bc i saw different ones
some definitions say that H_{i+1}/H_i must be abelian, monogenous
It's equivalent for finite groups
For arbitrary groups one usually uses abelian rather than cyclic in the definition
(And says solvable rather than resolvable)
What do you mean by monogeneous
generated by a single element but not necessarily finite
idk how we say in english
Well that's just cyclic
cyclic is when the group is finite no
ahh okayy
i’ll write that in my notes thanks 
It's confusing because an infinite cyclic group doesn't "cycle around".
This is true
it cycles... to the point at infinity and then back (real)
It cycles because it embeds in the circle group.
Ah yes <e^ei> my beloved
Old Macdonald had a farm
Hmm, it's surprisingly difficult to google up discussion of whether e/pi is rational or not. Plenty of yapping about e+pi, e·pi, e^pi, etc. though.
Is there a simple proof of its irrationality and that's why nobody deigns to mention it?
Wouldn’t that be (ei)^{ei + 0}?
My apologies.
Hm
I doubt it’s known
I would guess it is irrational but not proven yet to be so
I think it would imply that \pi + e = (r+1)\pi and \pi e = r\pi^2
It is sort of funny for this reason
So we would know both of these are irrational if we knew it was rational
Like it can't be easily provbly rational
I guess that doesn’t really help
Ofc id assume it's irrational but unknwn
Idk transcendence theory proofs are always bizarre
Someone proves Schnauel's conjecture and this drops out as a corollary.
Who is it who said like
Hmm when you start caring bout transcendence you stop caring about number theory
Or smth
Lol
It feels a shame that pi was never proven to be irrational in my undergrad
Feels like a cute thing
how would you even begin with smt like that
If I knew I would be writing an annals paper instead of talking to you ;p
hey that's fair enough
with respect to what norm is Zp euclidean to (p is prime)?
p-adic valuation
but it's almost never useful to know it's a euclidean domain
Is every subset of non-units in a commutative ring contained in a maximal ideal? Can this be proved with something like Zorn's lemma
No and thus no.
like in Z/6 you have 2, 3 which are not contained within any maximal ideal
Damn
thank god you didn't say no and yes 
math survives for today
I mean, if you reject Zorn's lemma..
I always work in ZFE (zermelo-fraenkel set theory with the axiom of explosion) 💪
This happens only when you’re local
The set of non-units being contained in an ideal is called being a local ring
I work in KFC
Is it because (2,3) = (1)?
that is one way to see it, but with a 6 element ring there are many ways to argue
Let H be an arbitrary subgroup of G. Is it true that F_n(G) \cap H is contained in F_n(H)? Here F_n stands for the nth Fitting subgroup in the upper Fitting series
it's definitely true for n = 1 lol uhhhh
I guess the question is if H/F_n(G) \cap H = HF_n(G)/F_n(G) is nilpotent? If we can reduce it down to that then yeah it's pretty clear
and we can reduce it down to that, given a nilpotent chain 0 < H_1 < ... < G we must have H_i is contained in the ith fitting group. Moreover, HF_n(G) <= G implies that HF_n(G)/F_n(G) is isomorphic to some subgroup of G/F_n(G), and subgroups of nilpotent groups are nilpotent, we should be able to construct a nilpotent chain of H containing F_n(G) \cap H, and hence it is in F_n(H)
for p a prime number and G a group of cardinal p^2, show that G is abelian
should i show that the center of G=G?
Yes
It is one of the classics proofs

par inclusion et argument d’ordre j’imagine ?
Tu es français haha ?
Tu m’as cramé à mon anglais 😓
Sorry let’s speak english
nn jte connais lol
we say order in english for card(G) ?
A nice chain of arguments might be that the center of a p-group is nontrivial (use for example class equation)
The center can't have order p because G/ZG is never cyclic unless G is abelian
De où ?
maths en direct
T’as pas MED dans tes servs en communs, t’as leave ?
why it’s never cyclic ?
Reviens le serv est bien
never
G is abelian iff G/ZG is cyclic, pretty well-known result, you should try to prove it
Wrong
quand ils disent cyclique c’est pour monogene
l’anglais c’est bzr
By cyclic you mean finite + monogen ?
French and their terminology is in their own little world smh
Yes, by cyclic I mean the definition the entire rest of the world uses
in french cyclic is necessarily finite
Of course
I don’t remember finiteness being used in the proof is the thing
I mean no, I don't mean finite
Same, i was wrong mb
But G/Z(G) is monogene iff G is abelian is true
ça existe en anglais monogene ?😭
J’espère mdr, mais viens mp
Monogene isn't a term that is used in english
Yes
😵
I'm invading france
it reminds me smth
france's terms of surrender is to literally change their terms
So let R be a Ring with principal ideal I = (p) and assume we have elements a and b in R/I such that ab = 0, can we recover from that a factorisation of p
well from this you know that ab = rp for some r in R, and that r depends on both a and b in general
if you had precise control over this r then maybe it's do-able (like when R = Z)
It's possible for p to be irreducible without (p) being a prime ideal. So then you would have a and b with ab = 0 in R/I without any (nontrivial) factorization of p existing
Real
oh i see
thanks yall
Why do we need H/(F_n(G)\cap H) to be nilpotent? F_n(H) is not necessarily the top Fitting quotient
this is my progress, and after this i get stuck
I tried to do it inductively and also got stuck
Name of book?
this is notes i am writing
you sure about this ?
I searched and found only this implication: If G/Z(G) is cyclic, then G is abelian
G
The quotient should then be pretty easy to generate
Do you remember how quotient groups are defined? What are the elements of G/G?
yes sure its gG so G
yep, so what group is G/G? (I'm assuming by the emote that you didn't quite understand the converse)
no, we're proving that G abelian implies that G/Z(G) is cyclic. Which group is G/G isomorphic to? Or even simpler, what cardinality does it have?
yep, nice 
oki i'll try to do the other sense 
can this be generalized to any p-group?
No…
😢
Quaternion group yes
dihedral is the worst i think
Clearly not
Edited 🤫
i mean
as far as nonabelian groups go, H8 is one of the most abelian ones
the proportion of pairs of elements that commute is maximal over all finite nonabelian groups
mhm
Still a non-abelian group but allright
yeah I'm mostly kidding
jpp
Let $\iota : K \to L$ and $\tilde{\iota} : \widetilde{K} \to \widetilde{L}$ be two field extensions (i.e., injective field homomorphisms).
We say the extensions are isomorphic if there exists a pair of field isomorphisms $(\lambda : K \to \widetilde{K}, ; \mu : L \to \widetilde{L})$ such that:
$$
\mu \circ \iota = \tilde{\iota} \circ \lambda
$$
That is,
$$
\mu(\iota(k)) = \tilde{\iota}(\lambda(k)) \quad \text{for all } k \in K
$$
Let $\iota : K \to L$ and $\tilde{\iota} : K \to \widetilde{L}$ be field extensions.
Is the following statement true?
$$(K \xrightarrow{\iota} L) \cong (K \xrightarrow{\tilde{\iota}} \widetilde{L}) \iff L \cong \widetilde{L} ; ?$$
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
I think you can consider something like K=L=L'= k(x) with i: K->L as the identity and i': K -> L' which sends x to x²
"Injective field homomorphism" is a bit redundant
Yeah
I love injective embeddings
in rings and fields theory, do symmetries, permutations etc.. play as important a role as they do in group theory?
symmetries are important in all of math
too vague of a question
but they are very important in field theory as well
ah
i’ll have to get back to symmetric group 😥
I would say it is more like lol
Symmetries arise in mathematics and that is how groups arise usually
yh i really hate this part of groups theory 😭
We study a group by studying how it can be interpreted as symmetries of some object, while we often study objects by considering it's symmetries
So everywhere symmetries play an important role, but just a little different
alright i know what i have to do..
working on a galois theory problem where im asked to find the galois group of the polynomial $x^4 +3x^3 - 5x^2 + 3x + 1$
i have the fact that if $f(\alpha)$ is a root, then $f(1/\alpha)$ is also a root
rubixcyouber
my vague understanding is that any automorphism in the galois group Gal(K/Q) will permute the roots, so since we are permuting 4 things, we are going to be finding a group living inside of S_4
letting the roots of the quartic be ${ x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4}$ where wlog we have that $x_1 x_2 = x_3 x_4 = 1$, i have tried applying an arbitrary $\sigma \in \text{Aut}(K/Q)$ to the relations, getting us $\sigma(x_1) = \sigma(x_2)^{-1}$, but im stuck here
rubixcyouber
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i guess since $x_1, x_2 \not\in \mathbb{Q}$, we have that $\sigma$ must be like
x_1 <-> x_2 and x_3 <-> x_4
rubixcyouber
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Nice
okay so you know that \sigma(1/\alpha) = 1/\sigma(\alpha) for all \sigma \in Gal(f) so then every element of Gal(f) commutes with the permutation \alpha \to 1/\alpha of the roots
what does that tell you?
the permutation $\alpha \to 1/\alpha$ is in the center of the galois group?
rubixcyouber
it might not even be in the galois group a priori I guess
but what does it tell you about the possibilities for the galois group?
(just using the structure of S_4)
im assuming the spliting field over Q so i think this implies it is Galois
No I mean the permutation \alpha \to 1/\alpha is not necessarily in the galois group
it may not be an automorphism of the splitting field Q(x_1, x_3)
i see
but.... it is an abstract element of S_4
namely a transposition ?
no it's a product of two transpositions
it is (12)(34) using your notation x_i for the ith root
oh yeah because you need to apply it to both groups of the roots
anyway so what's the centralizer of that?
of what? the group generated by (12)(34) ? apologies
i forget, is it all products of two transpositions ?
one moment
its not because (34) is also in there
as is (12)
i dont think any 3 cycles are in the centralizer
all products of two disjoint transpositions are as (12)(34) is one
(1423) and its inverse are also in there
so C = {e, (12), (34), (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23), (1423), (1324) } and we can stop because 8 | 24
is this the Galois group ?
as an aside, if anyone has any recommendations for galois theory that are less dense than dummit and foote that would be much appreciated
well that’s the question isn’t it?
the galois group has to be a subgroup of this
You should prove rigorously that this is the whole centralizer (however you are correct that it is)
And you know that it must act transitively on the roots
could you explain what "transitively" means here
Like any element can be sent to any other
Using some element of the group
So just one orbit of roots
I see
I haven’t made it to Galois theory yet, so I can’t comment on that part of the book, but I’ve found undergrad Hungerford (Abstract Algebra:An Introduction) to generally be easier to read than Dummit and Foote. It’s also pretty cheap (you can find an used older edition for less than 10 US dollars)
It's very natural to consider commutative monoids as 'Z+'-"modules", yes?
Not modules but yes there are maps [n] sending any x to x^n for a commutative monoid
Hello, today is my first day of abstract algebra and I am asked on my homework to show that there is a unique group of order 4 such that no elements of the group have order 4.
im confident ive found the group, which is <a,b : a^2 = b^2 = e>, but i am wondering if there is a more elegant way than checking the cases of |a| WLOG
the simple way that ive identified is to note that |a| cannot exceed 4 were there to be only 4 elements in the group, and from there to just check |a| = 1 and |a| = 3
Yes, I don't know the name of that structure, that's why I just went with "module"
Do we need Z+, or does this work with N as well...
It works with N ....that makes sense...
Given we have abelian groups as Z-modules
Yes there is but not based on day 1 of abstract algebra
Once you develop some basic theory you can say |a| has to divide |G| so it gives you 1,2,4
i see
do i really need to check cases then
It’s easy
I mean it’s a 4 element group, the multiplication table has what, 64 choices or something
i know that |a| < 4 as otherwise we would have at least a^0 through a^4 being in the group
My point is that 4 is such a small number I think point is for you to just get used to doing cases and bashing some stuff out
Get used to it, finite group theory has a lot of cases
fair enough
Based on orders of things
im just worried im gonna forget a case
i know what would happen if i had 4 "distinct" elements a through d
they wouldnt actually be distinct
if i had 3 then i would still end up with one of them being the identity
Idk just, don’t forget a case
yeah
I think the point of this is for you to just flounder
And try some shit and discover ways to reduce the work you gotta do
So you should just grab some paper and start writing
And once you are convinced you handled all cases, maybe try to edit and see if you can reduce that work down to some smaller subset
Until you’re happy
sounds good
just to check though, am i right that, for all generators of a group, their orders add to the order of the group?
Idk what that sentence means
i might just be wrong then
i was thinking that if i have 3 different generators, id have to have a situation where one of them is order 2 and the others are order 1
Idk what you mean 3 different generators
Like 3 elements which collectively generate?
Or 3 elements which each are a generator
im not knowledgeable enough to know how this is different
ig as an example
i think the dihedral group has 2 generators right
it is generated by 2 elements
i see
But I wouldn’t say it has a generator
Cuz that means one element gets you everything
ohh i see the confusion
ok then suppose a group of order n is generated by some number of elements
then the order of those elements must sum to n
And I mean based off what I think you’re trying to say, this just tells you that’s not true right?
oh right
2 + n ≠ 2n often times
true
And besides your proposal is also nonsense
Because if it was true for some set of generators {x_i}
You can just throw in an extra element, change the sum, and that still generates
At the very least you’d need to say a minimal set of generators or something
oh ur totally right
man i having some getting used to to do
I just say it’s total nonsense so you can start to realize how you can gut check an jdea
yeah i know, im not offended at the proposal that i said utter nonsense
especially if its true that i did lol
It wasn’t a bad thought, but if you realize “wait I can add in more stuff” you’ll immediately realize what you’re suggesting is kapoot
cant afford to have a progress-preventing ego in math in my opinion
plus its ok to be really wrong sometimes
lol
tm…
I dunno
😥
No
Hi all, I need intuition for why ideals of a PID are free modules. I get that they are b/c they’re generated by a single linearly independent element but then it has to deeply affect how we think about quotient rings. Again, I can see logically that such a quotient is either 0, A, or a field, and in the latter case it’s just a torsion module so a version of the rank nullity theorem is preserved. But I just don’t know how to grok these ideas so that I’m completely at home with them
E.g. if an ideal is completely free as a module, it means that the residue field is determined by a dimension 1 free module automorphism - which is super unusual
it is exactly because the ideals are principal. and a single element is free, with respect to itself (when viewed as a generator for a module)
It’s like, my rational brain gets it, but my monkey brain insists that ideals must be “smaller”
how so?
Because I always thought of residue fields as information “missing” from the ideal
But it looks like the correct way of thinking is that it’s determined by the ideal’s “position” within the ring
So the internal structure of an ideal really just amounts to its dimension, I guess?
It’s like my intuitive mental picture of what an ideal even is turned out to be wrong and I’m struggling to form a new one
the quotient of PIDs can be more than just 0, A, or a field, if that's what you meant
Right, sorry I assumed that the ideal is prime for some reason
But even for primes, if all non-zero primes are the same as modules, and their embedding amounts to specifying the residue field plus some extra bit of data, what would that data be?
when you consider ideals as modules you forget the internal multiplication
so the inutition for ideals, when considered as objects for taking quotient rings, do not carry over 100% to modules
especially since when you include the multiplication it fails to be a free algebra, I think
This makes sense
so there is more data that is missing here
It isn’t even a ring
also that lmao
Another unrelated question: what are the applications of an associated Lie algebra of a filtered group? Is it a useful viewpoint on finite nilpotent groups?
hell of a jump to go from quotients of PIDs to (what I've gathered from a shit ton of googling) a highly technical niche modular representation construction
I'm gonna say "yes, it is useful" though purely because F_p[G] for G nilpotent has most of it's structure focused on the modular reps of the p-Sylow of G
parkour
Can't I take then λ to be the identity, and μ to send x to x^2?
yeah lol
mu isnt an isomorphism then
Can you think of some relation(s) of the fields, to conclude when the extensions are isomorphic?
other than definition?
For example, we know that F(x)=F(α) for some transcendental α in K, and am trying to prove(if that's even correct) that i:F->F(x) isomorphic to i':F->F(α)
So a good example might be L equal to the real numbers.
There are no nontrivial automorphisms of the real numbers, so there would be no automorphism taking Q(pi) to Q(e) or anywhere else for that matter.
As for relations, if you have extension
L/K/F such that L/F is algebraic and normal, then any embedding K/F into L/F is conjugate by an automorphism of L/F. So here your conjecture would basically hold.
Then if you take F to be a prime field, then automorphism of L/F is the same as automorphism of L, so then it would hold on the nose.
but this is not connected to what I said with F(x)=F(α) right?
Because my question is when the embedded fields are equal
It's just a more convenient shift in perspective.
If L and L' are isomorphic. And you have embeddings
i: K -> L and i': K -> L'
then you can just compose i' with an isomorphism L' -> L.
And now the question is about two embeddings of K into L
ohh ok
So you're question here is if the canonical isomorphism F(x) -> F(a) takes F to F?
That should be clear from the definition, since it's defined to take F to F and x to a
thank you!
I am trying to read Ian Stewert's "Galois Theory" book(I think it's the 4th edition) and he tries to classify field extenstions via this definition, so instead of saying when fields are isomorphic, in this chapter, he focuses a BIT more about when field extensions are isomorphic
so he tried to show that the extenstions F(α)/F and F(x)/F are isomorphic via isomorphism between F(x) and F(α) but no where did he explain why the identity is enough, so thank you(I do skim the book, and not trying to read it all, I just read the theorems and stuff, and not the "words" so maybe I did skip it somewhere)
Not sure where to out this. If I want to compute (x+y+z)^n mod (xz-y) is there an easy way to do this?
I would apply binomial theorem on y and x+z but things get messy
well it's equal to (x+xz+z)^n
and that's about the best you can do
😠
What does "compute" even mean here? Just listing the coefficients?
Yes
This works fine
I just wish it wasnt messy by hand
Like multinomial theorem is just going to look messy?
Well, seems mostly annoying and pointless to me, but good luck
Trying to relate it to generalizing pascal triangle
Instead of sum of directly 2 above what if im looking at sum of directly 3 above or n above
In case of 3 each coefficient choice can be made into a path on the tree of the triangle similar to pascals triangle
So you have x being left y being middle and z being right
So its the same as looking at coefficients of (x+y+z)^n mod (xz-y^2)
I believe this logic checks out for verifying the coefficients of the triangle and generalizing just means the ideal is going to get more complicated
If K subset L are fields, then a monomorphism, i:K->L is a field homomorphism such that i(K)=K(equal, not isomorphic)?
that would be a homomorphism of K-algebras vs a field homomorphism
you have to decide from context what is meant by that notation
but if no context was given I would assume that i:K \to L can have any image not necessarily within the copy of K you have already singled out
so you would assume that a monomorphism is just an injective ring homomorphism between the fields?
absent any other information that's the definition
it depends on what category you're working in
or what objects you are considering
Well maps of fields are automatically injective and monomorphisms (in the category of fields) so there's a considerable amount of redundancy here
yes, which as potato mentions is any homomorphism between fields
It's not related to this, but is there a category of all categories?
yes
a monomorphism i: x \to y is supposed to satisfy that if f: z \to x, g: z \to x then i \circ g = i \circ f iff f = g
it's pretty easy to check that when your category is sets with some algebraic structures (like rings, fields, etc.) this is implied by (and in fact equivalent to) being an injective map
yes, so if we are over fields, then are you saying it is enought that i(K) isomorphic to K which happens trivially
I just don't see why that is true
and for fields any map is injective
and thus can't understand how there might be field monomorphisms i:K->L where K is not a LITERAL subset of L(and not isomorphic to a subset)
well they won't exist unless there is an abstract field F within L such that F \cong K
by definition
that's what I am saying
but if you fix ahead of time your F it may be that i(K) \neq F
But with the caveat that we are using category in two different ways here, lol
I don't understand why IF there is an abstract field F within L s.t. F\cong K then there exists a monomorphism
There will be an embedding, yeah, but a monomorphism, I am not sure
What is the difference lol
well I just explained to you that injective maps are monomorphisms
I am cooked, aren't I
and you didn't seem upset about that claim
if you are talking about this
then I don't understand why it is true for injective maps
You're not convinced that embeddings are monomorphisms?
because we want the composition to be EQUAL and not isomorphic
What is your definition of embedding?
I'm curious how you're defining them without it being obvious
okay that's a reasonable subtlety to bring up, but if i: S \to T is an injective map of sets, and f, g: X \to S, then if i \circ f = i \circ g then literally for every x \in X f(x) = g(x)
so there is not so much wiggle room here
Given two fields F,L. An embedding i:F->L is a ring homomorphism.
And a monomorphism is this
They are the definitions that I work with
Maybe I am wrong?
There's a general result that faithful functors reflect monos and epis
the forgetful functor from fields to Set is faithful
So what you're unsure about is why an embedding must be injective?
so an injective function is always a monomorphism
no.
Why an embedding must be monomorphism
and a surjective function is always an epimorphism
this is true because ker(i) is an ideal
Can you do something with the iff part of the statement
By this definition:
a monomorphism i: x \to y is supposed to satisfy that if f: z \to x, g: z \to x then i \circ g = i \circ f iff f = g
Why an embedding is a monomorphism?
Like algebraically
what do you mean
It's because embeddings are injective
Say
f,g: X -> F
are two different functions.
Then there is an x such that f(x) does not equal g(x).
Then i(f(x)) =/= i(g(x)) because i is injective
so they're a monomorphism in Set
and then faithful functors reflect monos
so the original morphism is also a monomorphism
What you said abt faithhful functors I dont know what that is.
I only know the definition of a functor and category and that's that practically.
I have learned abt functors for an hour(in 3 different classes)
yes, ok
ah so a faithful functor is one whose action on homsets is injective
essentially if Uf = Ug then you must have f = g
so that means that an embedding is not necessarily a monomorphhism
(up to considerations about domains/codomains)
It's just a very fancy way of saying "a homomorphism is in particular a function"
ohhhh it's like a group that acts properly discountinuous on a set
um idk what that means unfortunately
exactly that, lol
the proper definition is that if Uf = Ug and dom f = dom g and cod f = cod g, then f = g
when U is a faithful functor
you can verify that the forgetful functor from Fields to Set is a faithful functor
indeed all forgetful functors you'll meet are
ok
I don't think all of this stuff about category theory is important
so why doesn't it mean that an embedding is a mono IFF the smaller field is a literal subset of the bigger one
i only mentioned it because they were bringing up monomorphisms etc
one should just verify by hand that i: R \to S being a monomorphism of rings is implied by it being a monomorphism of sets
then win
Because you can have embeddings that are not literally subsets...
imo it's easy to verify that in this example but not necessarily illuminating, hence why i prefer the "faithful functors reflect monos" argument
but i do have the brainworms so
Let's look at an example?
F->F[x]/(f(x)) where f(x) is an irreducible polynomial over F
(I am ok with some other examples, if you prefer)
let's look at an example
Q(i)
(btw by "faithful functors reflect monos" i mean that if U is faithful and Uf is a mono then f is a mono)
ok, with what other field?
u: Q(i) \to Q(i) is an embedding by sending u(i) = -i
so you see even though Q(i) is abstractly a subset of Q(i) the image of u is not the inclusion of that subset
new example
Or Q(i) to Q[x]/(x^2 + 1)
Q(cuberoot(2), \zeta_3)
so that means that u is NOT a monomorphism, although it is an embedding, and that one is a literal subset of the other?
Q(cuberoot(2)) embeds into this in three different ways that have very different images
no
Why would it not be a monomorphism?
Here! This example
Embeddings are injective homomorphisms which are equivalent to monomorphisms in the category of fields, so they are literally the same
Q(i)->Q[x]/(x^2+1) defined by (a+bi)-> ?
I think they want to be walkthrough with the definition
.
f =/= g implies if =/= ig, which is the definition of monomorphism
I guess its not going to show its a monomorphism if you give explicit maps into Q(i) since you need to show its true for every map
So thats why you are getting this explanation I guess.
the argument given applies not just for every field map K \to F but for every map of sets S \to F
Yeah thats the point
But i dont know if this was explained properly
you did say it
so if I have categories C,D where C is a sub-category of D, then a monomorphism of C is a monomorphism of D, that is what you are saying(at least when C=SETS and D=FIELDS)
But i dont know if you said the last part + info about concreteness
Sets are not a subcategory of fields
damn
or at least not in any natural way
Speaking from personal experience its something that needed to be reiterated for me since its unfamiliar for sure
At least I understand now why injective = monomorphism in FIELDS
but I'm saying that if you have a category C where the objects are "sets with extra structure" and the morphisms are "morphisms of sets which have some extra properties"
Well look at this
then if you can check that f \neq g iff i \circ f \neq i \circ g for every map of sets
(faithful functors reflect monos)
Thats pretty much it
then you have checked it for every map in the category C
And psued here is just telling you the more general reason
mhm
What is the definition of reflect here? that there exists a bijection between all the faithful functors and monos?
it means that if U is a faithful functor and Uf is a mono, then f is a mono
ohh ok
that is obvious
Ok, thank you all
Let it simmer
(I did like it tho that I made 4 people write at the same time)
you should've seen my category theory hot takes back in the day
If y'all dont mind sharing, what is your knowledge and (approximate) age?
Like... 20's/30's/40's/50's and undergrads/grads/doctors/profs?
I just want to understand who are the people in this community
Zoomers mostly
it's in my bio~
Tbh I'm not sure how important it is to understand monomorphisms for field theory, or even most other parts of algebra. Do you even need to think about monomorphisms until you start using non-trivial category theory?
Also what I was looking for is here already
The trinomial triangle is a variation of Pascal's triangle. The difference between the two is that an entry in the trinomial triangle is the sum of the three (rather than the two in Pascal's triangle) entries above it:
The
k
{\displaystyle k}
-th entry of the
n
{...
No but its definitely a basic concept
So Id say its important if you continue
You can just use injectivity, and for field theory in particular you don't even need to care about that because everything is injective
As I said here a few hours ago, I am trying to understand isomorphism between field extensions, and in the book it says that we can think of an extension as a monomorphism i:K->L.
And by the definitions I am familiar with, and by the view I had before this convo, I thought(and in this particular context, still is) that it means that K literal subset of L
so, subset inclusions are monomorphisms, but not all monomorphisms are subset inclusions
I see
you can just mentally replace monomorphism with injection in this case imo
however every monomorphism differs from a subset inclusion by an isomorphism
cause of the isomorphism theorem
And because if
i:K->L
j:K->tilde(L)
Are field extensions, then the extensions are isomorphic iff there exists an isomorphism mu:L->tilde(L) with mu(K)=K
i don't think that's really how it works
wait did i make a mistake
there's no measurable difference between the inclusion of subset and a random monomorphism
it's just changing labels
isn't that what i said here
i don't quite understand what you're saying then
there is no canonical way of looking at a category and saying "this is a subset inclusion"
i mean if you know your category is the category of fields then there is right
that's fair
but i don't think from the categorical viewpoint it's at all a useful thing to think about.
sure but i'm not married to the categorical viewpoint or anything
i'm happy and willing to use other viewpoints
Sometimes it helps to scrape off unnecessary context
I don't even think from the perspective of field theory it's useful to split hairs about the difference between i: K \to L being a monomorphism vs. K already being thought of as a subfield of L
idk i haven't done much field theory
So the (x+y+z)^n mod (xz-y^2) is satisfied by (1+x+x^2)^n
though for what it's worth treating isomorphic things as equal usually led to confusion for me when learning cat theory
but labeling the inclusion i: K \to L is exactly not thinking of isomorphic things as equal
what i mean is not distinguishing between a general mono and a subset inclusion
but that's a different issue
The way I see it is probably common guesses for what works lol
Me sleep now
Goodbye good people
this is not a sentence that makes sense
that's why people aren't responding
now im more confused..
Yeah I dont know the right vocabulary but to make it make sense making the substitutions for 1,x,x^2 help in simplifying and calculating the coefficients of the original polynomial
Are there some heuristic methods in reducing the number of unknowns similar to what is shown above
I don't really get what you're trying to accomplish
Before I continue do you understand what I said above?
to be honest I am struggling even with the english
Can you let me know what part specifically?
why don't you just try to state what problem you are trying to solve as clearly as you can
and why you have gotten to the point of trying to calculate various coefficients of a 3 variable polynomial modulo some random ideals
Previously I stated how I reduced finding coefficients of the polynomial modulo some random ideals corresponds to counting number of paths for the trinomial triangle( its like pascals triangle but sum of 3 above)
I am generalizing. But before that I want you to understand what I said above as to not waste both our times.
Im scared of putting in effort to be misunderstood so Im trying to be incremental. This is only way I see respectful of our times
I feel like sometimes in field theory you want to distinguish between set inclusion and an embedding. For eaxmple Q[x]/(x^3 - 2) is isomorphic to Q(cbrt(2)), but the latter has a canonical inclusion in C, while the former has 3 embeddings in C none of which is more "canonical" than other. This is not a category theoretic thing tho, more a pedagogical one I guess. I remember being confused by this when I first learned it
The generalization isnt just multinomial triangle, but multinomial on different boundary polygons
This is part of why I prefer to have different levels of equality I can work with
I would argue that you shouldn't do anything with fields that is sensitive to how you label them as sets
I cant find much on this but there is some info about multinomial triangle out there
Rather than being forced to work with the weakest one
exactly for this reason that it just causes confusion
The reason anyone might care is because its useful for partitioning algorithms in CS
I actually think limiting yourself also causes a lot of confusion though
what do you mean number of paths for the trinomial triangle? which paths?
that's very interesting
It’s how it happened for me, at least
Once I stopped worshipping the principle of equivalence, a lot of previous confusions resolved themselves
This is the case for pascal/binomial triangle
You can do same for trinomial triangle and so on
And different boundary polygons not just triangles
why don't you just explain what you're trying to count?
And its important for algorithms in CS vaguely
is it just the number of paths in this tree up until a certain depth?
or are you meaningfully using that this comes from the trinomial triangle etc.
Its used for trinomial triangle too yea
The number of paths to leaves in the tree
So if you look at middle leaf
You can count number of paths
And that corresponds to the coeff
I see
True for any d weighted tree and this helps with modeling unrooted trees in the polygonal boundary case
But i feel like im far from doing polygonal boundary so im just working with multinomial triangles
okay but then doesn't exactly the same argument tell you that you are looking for the coefficients of (1 + x + ... + x^{k-1})^n?
for the k-ary generalization of pascal's triangle
Well yes but that isnt entirely obvious to me how you get there because for pascals triangle you really just have (x+y)^n where x,y correspond to traversing left and right from the root
So the most intuitive case for d weighted trees is the sum of d unknowns to the nth power so (x_1+x_2+…+x_d)^n mod(equivalent relations)
The k-ary generalization you mention satisfies those equivalent relations
Which for example would correspond to how going left and then right on the trinomial tree is the same as going middle twice
So xz=y^2 where x is left,z is right and y is middle
Now im asking a general question about if people know methods of reducing unknowns so that I have something to read in case of polygonal boundary
Because relations could be more complicated
And sorry I know it sounds unclear but thats because I dont have good vocabulary to concisely describe this that well
I think I get it now
I'm just thinking about the problem for a little bit
and how to respond
🙏🏽 thanks
Also you dont have to read this immediately but to explain different boundary polygons this could be as simple the truncated pascals where your right side is all 0s instead of 1s
okay for your specific problem: we're looking at these graphs which start with 1 node, then that gives k nodes, then the first of those k nodes connect with k nodes below them and every node shares k-1 nodes with its neighbor right?
this is with the usual boundary conditions (i.e. 1's on the sides of the graph)
If you're trying to count paths in this graph you should prove by induction that, labeling the nodes in the obvious way, the number of paths from the root to the leaf labeled by x^j on row n + 1 is exactly the coefficient of x^j in (1 + \dots + x^{k-1})^n
and the proof is exactly the same as for the pascal's triangle graph
from this perspective what's going on is that you can always set x_1 = 1 without loss of generality as long as the unknowns and relations are homogenous (which I think for trees they more or less have to be if I understand you correctly)
then x_1 = 1, x_1x_3 = x_2^2 forces you to get (1 + x + x^2)^n
Ok you pretty much understand it perfectly. The next step forward for me is to play with the different boundaries/polygons and see if the relationships and variables being homogenous thing stays true
But its sure to always be something acyclic for sure
But thats most the context I guess
I was really just asking a tangential question about reducing the unknowns of ideals in general for computing purposes
yeah well one general takeaway is if you are counting coefficients of a polynomial in n variables which is homogenous, that's the same as counting coefficients of a polynomial in n-1 variables that is not (or at least not necessarily homogenous)
I didnt know this
I blame Serre for putting it in Chapter 2 of his Lie algebras book 🙂
The first 2 chapters are like a grand tour of every single conceivable way to arrive at a Lie algebra known to man
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
I think it doesn't need to be Neotherian ...why it shud be a neotherian
Otherwise what if you have $k[x_1, \dots, x_n, \dots]/(x_i^2 = x_{i-1})$ localized at $(x_1, \dots, x_n, \dots)$?
Although every element to some power is eventually in the ideal, theres no guarantee that the maximum power among all elements is bounded
the radical is $(x_1, x_2, \dots)$ but no power of the radical is contained within the ideal $(x_1) $
Otherwise for a very rudimentary construction, consider <x1, x2^2, x3^3, x4^4, …> in k[x1,x2,…]
radical^'gcd of orders of every elements of A in A/a' is in a
Sorry, what? That’s hard to understand
Are you saying it’s true in A/sqrt(I)? because that doesn’t sound right either
Because the nilpotent ideal is also not guaranteed to have an n such that Nil(A)^n = 0, which sounds like is what you’re describing
Why not@velvet hull
But it’s the exact same answer here, just because every inidivual nilpotent element has finite index, doesn’t mean that the index of every nilpotent element is bounded
I'm guessing you mean lcm, not gcd.
In which case the lcm of an infinite set can be infinity.
The bound is also not correct on the dot anyway, since the power of an ideal can contain products of different elements
is this correct?
presumably you meant to type M/S. but yeah it's just an application of 1st iso
ah yeah my mistake. thanks
1st isomorphism theorem would've been useful if you had a general surjection
But then you could just write the same proof with that surjection replacing the quotient map aha
as in f(a) = sum r f(b_i)
You still could use it if you rreaaallyyy wanted to
if we want to say that A an integral ring has a fraction field K, we denote the fraction field as the pair (K,i) with i the canonical injection or only the field K?
Usually just K
Frac A is common
I would write Frac A
so Q is the field of fractions of the ring Z unique up to an isomorphism?
yeah i saw the notation frac A
well that's obviously true
it's unique up to unique isomorphism (that admits the base domain)
As is any field of fractions
but in general by construction the fraction field comes with a canonical map from A \to Frac A
yes but i wanted to know if we write the canonical injection
no you don't write it
yeah
but I guess if something you were doing was really sensitive to it you could write it
I mean also technically like
You can either fix a certain construction of the fraction field or have it as something defined up to unique iso
But the same is true of, say, products of things
It is common to omit the "extra data" from notation
yeah i see
But that is slightly fancier
the canonical map is universal in the sense that it factors through any injective embedding of the int domain into any field
in that sense it closely resembles the universal property of the quotient map, which factors through any map that contains the normal subobject in its kernel
(category theory nonsense ^)
or, in human words, the field of fractions is special because it is the unique smallest field that retains all the information from the original ring
and if you embed that ring into any bigger field it will contain a copy of that field inside the bigger field
we can prove it’s the smallest ?
category theory foucault be like why do limits resemble limits resemble limits
you just think about the construction
for every d in D, d has to be invertible in K. so K has to contain 1/d as well
but then that's exactly the field of fractions
ill write that lol thx
and another question
if we have a ring A, K a commutative field and f : K ->A, when we write ker(f), do we mean the set of x such that f(x)=1 or f(x)=0?
the neutral for addition or the multiplication
0, always
all fields are commutative and all such ker(f) are zero
0 is much stickier than 1
is the way I think about it
the point of a kernel is that it's supposed to be a black hole that eats up anything that touches it
but then that's what 0 is
0*x = 0
equally, I * x is a subset of I
in my course it is stated that if you have a non-commutative field, it’s called a division algebra
Commutative field
well ker(f) would be zero for a division algebra too
